General Pathology MCQs

Answers not sure 100%

 Cell Injury
Change of Columnar Epithelium of the Bronchi
Consequences of Necrosis do not include: into Mature Squamous Epithelium is called:
a) Dystrophic Calcification a) Metaplasia
b) Resolution b) Dysplasia
c) Inflammatory Reaction c) Hyperplasia
d) Fibrosis d) Neoplasia
e) Increased Cellular Enzymes in the Blood e) Hypertrophy

The type of necrosis that occurs in Per Metastatic Calcification:

pancreatic tissue in Acute Pancreatitis is: a) Is due to hypercalcemia
a) Liquefaction b) Is due to hypocalcemia
b) Fat c) Occurs in Necrotic Tissue
c) Coagulation d) Occurs at sites of Chronic Inflammation
d) Gummatous e) Is due to malignancy
e) Fibrinoid
Which of the following is a feature of
Which type of Necrosis is most typically Irreversible Cell Injury:
associated with Pyogenic Infection: a) Glycogen stores are depleted
a) Fibrinoid Necrosis b) Cytoplasmic sodium increases
b) Enzymatic Fat Necrosis c) Nuclei undergo karyorrhexis
c) Coagulation Necrosis d) Intracellular pH diminishes
d) Caseous Necrosis e) Blebs form on cell membranes
e) Liquefaction Necrosis
Which of the following processes that occur in
The microscopic appearance of an increased the breast allows a mother to feed the
cell size of multiple cells in a tissue, due to infant:
an increase in the amount of cytoplasm, a) Stromal hypertrophy
with nuclei remaining uniform in size, is b) Epithelial dysplasia
best illustrated by: c) Steatocyte atrophy
a) The uterine myometrium in pregnancy d) Ductul epithelial metaplasia
b) The female breast at puberty e) Lobular hyperplasia
c) The liver following partial resection
d) The ovary following menopause An Amputated lower limb from a diabetic
e) The cervix with chronic inflammation patient showing black discoloration of the
skin and soft tissues with areas of yellowish
Following Myocardial Infarction due to exudates is characterized as:
Thrombosis in a Coronary Artery and a) Neoplasia
management by Streptokinase (a b) Gangrenous Necrosis
thrombocytic agent), which of the following c) Coagulopathy
is likely to happen in myocardium: d) Hemosiderosis
a) Apoptosis e) Gas gangrene
b) Free Radical Injury
c) Heterophagoctytosis
d) Squamous Metaplasia
e) Accumulation of Cytokeratins
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 General Pathology MCQs
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Focal fat necrosis, with flecks of chalky tan- Lipofuscin deposition is most likely to result
white material seen in the omentum is most from:
often associated with the following: a) Nuclear pyknosis
a) Gangrenous appendicitis b) Myocardial fiber hypertrophy
b) Chronic salpingitis c) Coagulative necrosis
c) Acute pancreatitis d) Autophagocytosis
d) Hepatitis e) Anaerobic glycolysis
e) Acute gastritis

In a 60 year old male, Gangrene of toes is most Which of the following is an Anti-Oxidant:
likely associated with: a) Glutathione Peroxidase
a) Diabetes Mellitus b) Catalase
b) Heart Failure c) Hydrogen peroxide
c) Blunt force trauma d) NADPH oxidase
d) AIDS e) Myeloperoxidase
e) Type III hypersensitivity reaction
Which of the following is the most likely
The presence of Columnar Epithelium with pathologic alteration following occlusion of
Goblet cells in the Lower Oesophagus is the left middle cerebral artery by a sterile
most consistent with: thrombus:
a) Dysplasia a) Cerebral softening from liquefactive necrosis
b) Hyperplasia b) Pale infarction with coagulative necrosis
c) Carcinoma c) Predominantly the loss of glial cells
d) Ischaemia d) Recovery of damaged neurons if the vascular
e) Metaplasia supply is re-established
e) Wet gangrene with secondary bacterial infection
Metaplasia is most closely associated with:
a) Hypercalcemia The action of putrefactive bacteria on necrotic
b) Necrosis tissue results in:
c) Chronic Irritation a) Coagulation
d) Diminished Blood Supply b) Infarction
e) Increased Workload c) Gangrene
d) Embolism
Which of the following processes explain the e) Caseation
appearance of Calcium deposition in
Tuberculous Lymph Nodes: Which of the following type of necrosis is most
a) Dystrophic calcification commonly associated with ischaemic injury:
b) Apoptosis a) Coagulation Necrosis
c) Hypercalcaemia b) Liquefaction Necrosis
d) Metastatic calcification c) Caseous Necrosis
e) Neoplastic change d) Fat Necrosis
e) Gangrenous Necrosis

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 General Pathology MCQs
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Enzymes involved in the inactivation of free Select the wrong statement. Apoptosis:
radicals include: a)Occurs in singles cells or in small cluster of cells
a) Superoxide dismutase b) Is programmed cell death
b) Vitamin E c) Is seen in toxic or viral hepatitis
c) Both A and B d) Appears cheesy in appearance
d) Neither A nor B e) Does not elicit an inflammatory reaction
e) -antitrypsin
Intracellular system(s) sensitive to cell injury
Calcium may play a role in cell injury by: is/are:
a) Causing ATP depletion a) Aerobic respiration
b) Activating phospholipases b) Maintenance of the integrity of cell membrane
c) Inducing autophagocytosis c) Synthesis of protein
d) Regulating pyknosis d) Integrity of genetic apparatus
e) Reducing intracellular pH e) All of the above

A common manifestation of sublethal cell injury Which of the following can undergo apoptosis:
(reversible injury) in organs such as the a) Cells infected with virus
heart and liver is: b) Cells with DNA damage
a) Glycogen accumulation c) Increased oxidant within the cell
b) Fatty change d) None of the above
c) Calcium deposition e) All of the above
d) Apoptosis
e) Deposition of melanin Apoptosis:
a) Massive necrosis
An area of keratinizing squamous epithelium b) Foreign body phagocytosis
lining a major bronchus is an example of: c) Lipoprotein synthesis
a) Heterotopia d) Programmed cell death
b) Metaplasia e) Wet gangrene
c) Dysplasia
d) Atrophy The following is true about hyperplasia except:
e) Neoplasia a) Can be physiological
b) Is a precancerous condition
Each of the following is an example of c) Is reversible
hyperplasia except: d) Is due to excess hormone stimulation
a) Enlargement of one kidney after surgical e) Can be associated with hypertrophy
removal of the other kidney
b) Changes in the thyroid gland in response to Early clumping of nuclear chromatin is most
increased demand for thyroid closely associated with:
hormones a) Reduced intracellular pH
c) Changes in breast tissue during pregnancy b) Increased intracellular pH
d) Enlargement of lymph nodes during a viral c) Denatured proteins and RNA loss
infection d) Decreased DNA synthesis
e) Enlargement of skeletal muscles after weight e) Release of lysosomal enzymes
training

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 General Pathology MCQs
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Digestion of tissue with soap formation and e) Gangrenous necrosis

calcification is characteristic of:
a) Coagulation Necrosis Dystrophic Calcification is most closely
b) Caseous Necrosis associated with:
c) Fibrinoid Necrosis a) Hypercalcemia
d) Liquefaction Necrosis b) Necrosis
e) Enzymatic Fat Necrosis c) Chronic irritation
d) Diminished blood supply
Which of the following is most likely to give rise e) Increased workload
to Metaplasia:
a) Tanning of the skin following sunlight exposure Deposition of Calcium in dead or dying tissue
b) Lactation following pregnancy is:
c) Vitamin A deficiency a) Dystrophic calcification
d) Acute Myocardial Infarction b) Metastatic calcification
e) Acute Tubular Necrosis c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B
Which of the following is deposited in
myocardium in advanced age: Which of the following types of necrosis is
a) Hemosidrin characterized by amorphous granular
b) Lipochrome debris:
c) Glycogen a) Coagulation Necrosis
d) Cholesterol b) Liquifaction Necrosis
e) Calcium Salts c) Caseous Necrosis
d) Fat Necrosis
Which of the following tissues is most likely to e) Gangrenous Necrosis
be least affected by Ischemia:
a) Skeletal muscle Hypertrophy is most closely associated with:
b) Small intestinal epithelium a) Hypercalcemia
c) Retina b) Necrosis
d) Myocardium c) Chronic Irritation
e) Hippocampus d) Diminished Blood Supply
e) Increased Work Load
An amputated foot of a diabetic will most likely
show: Which of the following is most susceptible to
a) Neoplasia liquefaction necrosis following ischemic
b) Gangrenous Necrosis injury:
c) Coagulopathy a) Pancreas
d) Hemosiderosis b) Liver
e) Caseation c) Spleen
d) Brain
Which of the following types of necrosis is e) Intestine
grossly opaque & "chalk" white:
a) Coagulation necrosis
b) Liquefaction
c) Caseous necrosis
d) Fat necrosis
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 General Pathology MCQs
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Causes of Hypercalcemia include all of the Two days after myocardial infarction, histology
following EXCEPT: of the heart will show:
a) Malignancy a) Fibroblasts and Collagen
b) Hyperparathyroidism b) Granulation Tissue
c) Sarcoidosis c) Necrotic Muscle & Neutrophils
d) Acute Pancreatitis d) Granulamatous Inflammation
e) Vitamin D Intoxication e) Aneurysmal Dilation

Hypoplasia is due to: Cigarette Smoking does not cause:

a) Cell Loss a) Squamous Metaplasia
b) Atrophy b) Smooth Muscle Hyperplasia
c) Inadequate development c) Defective Ciliary Action
d) Disuse d) Damage of Airway
e) Ischemia e) Inhibition of Alveolar Leukocytes &
Macrophages
The loss of individual cell through
fragmentation of individual cell nucleus is Which of the following is not a feature of
best described as: reversible cell injury:
a) Coagulative Necrosis a) Swollen cell
b) Mitochondrial Poisoning b) Swollen mitochondria
c) Phagocytosis c) Pyknotic Nucleus
d) Apoptosis d) Dilated Endoplasmic
e) Liquefaction e) Cell surface blebs

The light brown perinucleur pigment seen in an Changes of color in Gangrene is due to:
old man muscle fiber is: a) Deposition of amyloid
a) Hemosidrin b) Breakdown of hemoglobin
b) Lipofuscin c) Deposition of melanin
c) Glycogen d) Deposition of lipofusin
d) Melanin e) Deposition of calcium salts
e) Calcium
Which of the following is not a feature of
Hypertensive Enlargement of the heart is a reversible cell injury:
form of: a) Increased DNA synthesis
a) Fatty infiltration b) Reduction of ATP
b) Hypoplasia c) Failure of Sodium Pump
c) Glycogen storage d) Influx of Calcium
d) Hypertrophy e) Accumulation of Metabolites
e) Hyperplasia
Which of the following is a feature of
Colliquative Necrosis:
a) Complete loss of architecture
b) Cyst formation
c) Occurs in tissues with high water content
d) A and C
e) All of the above
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 General Pathology MCQs
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Which of the following is not a feature of

Which of the following is (are) true about Coagulative Necrosis:
apoptosis: a) Deposition of Fibrinolysis
a) It is programmed cell death b) Tissues are firm and swollen
b) It requires cell energy c) Ghost outline of cell are seen
c) Induces a severe inflammatory reaction d) Architecture is maintained
d) Both A and B e) The tissue is deeply eosinophilic
e) Both B and C
Which of the following is most likely associated
Calcium may play a role in cell injury by: with Caseation Necrosis:
a) Causing ATP depletion a) Diabetic Gangrene
b) Activating Phospholipases b) Gas Gangrene
c) Inducing Autophagocytosis c) Myocardial Infarction
d) Regulating Pyknosis d) Inpissated Pus
e) Splenic Infarction
Irreversible cellular changes include all of the
following except: The following are known causes of Atrophy
a) Hydropic Change except:
b) Pyknosis a) Aging
c) Karyorrhexis b) Starvation
d) Karyolysis c) Increased trophic hormone secretion
d) Immobilization
Abnormal pigmentation is seen in the following e) Denervation
except:
a) Conn's Syndrome Dystrophic Calcification is:
b) Pernicious Anemia a) Reversible
c) Tattooing b) Due to reduction of pH in tissues
d) Addison's Disease c) Causes renal failure
e) Pregnancy d) Associated with primary hyperparathyroidism
e) Occurs in dead parasites in the body
The following are true about Apoptosis except:
a) It is programmed cell death Squamous Metaplasia can occur in all of the
b) Affects a group of cells following sites except:
c) Is energy dependent a) Nose
d) There is chromatin condensation b) Salivary Gland Ducts
e) Does not elicit an inflammatory reaction c) Jejunum
d) Renal Pelvis
e) Gall Bladder
Which of the following is not a feature of
Necrosis: The following are features of Colliquative
a) Karyolysis Necrosis:
b) Karyorrhecsis a) Complete loss of architecture
c) Cytoplasmic Basophilia b) Cyst formation
d) Pyknosis c) Occurs in tissues with high water content
e) Loss of RNA d) A & C
e) All of the above
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 General Pathology MCQs
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Which of the following is significant in  Inflammation and Tissue Repair

Reperfusion Injury:
a) Generation of Free Radicals Generation of which of the following substances
b) Decreased pH by the major inflammatory cell type would
c) Cytokines released by damaged hypoxic cells be responsible for clearing microorganism
d) Both A & B in an inflammatory focus:
e) Both A & C a) Platelet Activated Factor
b) Prostaglandins
Reperfusion Injury is due to: c) Kallikrein
a) Generation of Oxygen Free Radicals d) Leukotriene
b) Additional recruitment of polymorphs by e) Hydrogen Peroxide
cytokines from hepatic cells
c) Both A & B An example of a tissue or organ composed of
d) None of the above Permanent Parenchymal cells is:
a) Liver
Which of the following is a feature of b) Bone Marrow
irreversible cell injury: c) Small Intestinal Mucosa
a) Swelling of Endoplasmic Reticulum d) Heart
b) Formation of Blebs e) Renal Tubules
c) Karyolysis of Nuclei
d) Fatty Change Hepatocytes are an example of:
e) Mitochondrial Swelling a) Permenant cells
b) Stable cells
A common manifestation of sublethal cell injury c) Labile cells
seen in organs such as the heart and liver is: d) Metaplasia
a) Glycogen accumulation e) Mesenchymal cells
b) Fatty change
c) Calcium deposition The process of regeneration:
d) Apoptosis a) Does not restore prior function
e) Deposition of Amyloid b) Invariability leads to scar formation
c) Refers to healing by proliferation of stromal
In the process of necrosis, a reduction in the size elements
of the nucleus and a condensation of d) Occurs in tissues composed of labile and stable
nuclear material is known as: cells
a) Karyolysis e) Is synonymous with repair
b) Pyknophrasia
c) Karyorrhexis A cardinal sign of Inflammation is:
d) Pyknosis a) Vasoconstriction
e) Metachromasia b) Redness
c) Leukocyte Margiation
d) Vasodilation
e) Slowing of the Circulation

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 General Pathology MCQs
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Which of the following is associated with By definition, which cells are involved in
Panacinar Emphysema: organization:
a) Decreased Serum Ceruloplasmin a) Kidney tubular and Liver Parenchymal cells
b) Increase Sweat Chloride b) Macrophages and Endothelial Cells
c) Elevated Blood Ethanol c) Endothelial Cells and Fibroblasts
d) Decreased Serum Alpha-1-Antitrypsin d) Fibroblasts and Fat Cells
e) Positive Urine Opiates
Phagocytosis is enhanced by:
After initiating an acute inflammatory event, a) C5a
the third in a sequence of changes in b) Bradykinin
vascular flow is: c) Lysozyme
a) Vasoconstriction d) C3b
b) Redness e) Serotonin
c) Leukocyte Margiation
d) Vasodilation Widespread Edema is likely in:
e) Slowing of the Circulation a) Lymphatic Obstruction
b) Capillary Damage
Leukocytes capable of significant Phagocytosis c) Inflammations
include: d) Hypoalbuminemia
a) Lymphocyte e) Cancer of the Stomach
b) Plasma Cell
c) Both A and B Acute Pulmonary Oedema of the heart failure
d) Neither A nor B results from:
a) Increased Plasma Colloid Osmotic Pressure
Which of the following is most associated with b)Decreased Plasma Colloid Osmotic Pressure
Acute Inflammation: c) Increased Vascular Permeability
a) Neutrophils d) Increased Vascular Hydrostatic Pressure
b) Connective Tissue e) Increased Blood Viscosity
c) Macrophages
d) Granulation Tissue DIC following extensive surgery is due to:
e) Granuloma a) Entrance of tissue thromboplastin into
circulation
Inflammatory conditions which have a large b) Hypoxia, acidosis and shock coexisting with
number of eosinophils in the exudates extensive surgery
include: c) Protein C Deficiency
a) Asthma d) Both A and B
b) Parasitic disease e) Both B and C
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B The tumor of inflammation is due primarily to:
a) Arteriolar Dilation
b) Venous Dilation
c) Capillary Dilation
d) Increased Intracellular Fluid
e) Increased Extracellular Fluid

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 General Pathology MCQs
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A mediator of acute inflammation that causes Phagocytes from an individual deficient in

increased vascular permeability and pain is: myeloperoxiase (MPO) will most likely be
a) Endotoxin less effective in:
b) Complement a) Killing Bacteria
c) Histamine b) Recognizing Bacteria
d) Bradykinin c) Marginating in vessels
e) Endogenous Pyrogen d) Undergoing Chemotaxis
e) Engulfing Bacteria
Multinucleated Giant Cells of the foreign body A purulent exudates is generally characterized
type origin from: by the presence of:
a) Nuclear Division of Granulocytes a) Mucous
b) Atypical Regeneration of Epithelium b) Macrophages and connective tissue
c) Megakaryocytes c) Neutrophils and necrotic debris
d) Fusion of Macrophages d) Serous Fluid
e) Multiplication of Nuclei Surrounding Fibrocytes e) Precipitated Protein

Histamine is thought to be the direct cause of: Formation of Epitheloid Cells from
a) Leukocytosis Macrophages is induced by:
b) Emigration a) IL-10
c) Phagocytosis b) IL-4
d) Increased Vascular Permeability c) C3b
e) All of the Above d) -Interferon
e) IgM
Nutmeg Liver is caused by:
a) Viral Hepatitis Granuloma formation is most frequently
b) Acute Hepatic Congestion associated with:
c) Chronic Hepatic Congestion a) Acute inflammation
d) Fibrosis of the Liver b) The Healing Process
e) None of the Above c) Wound Contraction
d)Fibroblasts and Neovasularization
An Abscess is best defined as: e) A persistent irritant
a) A local defect in the surface of a tissue
b) An abnormal accumulation between two Which of the following best describes a
surfaces granuloma:
c) Any area of tissue necrosis a) A small nodule of granulation tissue
d) A localized collection of pus b) A tumor composed of granulocytes
e) An epithelium-lined sac filled with viscous fluid c) A small hard mass of fibroblasts and collagen
d) Inflammation primarily composed of
Mediators of fever in inflammation include: lymphocytes
a) Macrophage product similar to interleukin I e) An aggregate of activated macrophages
b) Prostaglandins
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A nor B

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 General Pathology MCQs
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The most characteristic feature of granulation Epitheloid Cells and Langerhans Giant Cells in
tissue is the: granulomas are derived from:
a) Resemblance to a Granuloma a) Neutrophils
b) Growth of Fibroblasts and New Capillaries b) Eosinophils
c) Character of the Exudate c) Mast Cells
d) A form of Gangrenous Necrosis d) Macrophage
e) Presence of Monocytes and Fibroblasts e) Lymphocytes

Which of the following is the most efficient The following cells are capable of regeneration
killer of bacteria in neutrophils: except:
a) Spontaneous dismutation of O2 to H2O a) Neurons
b) Conversion of H2O2 to HOCl by b) Hepatocytes
Myeloperoxiase c) Oxidative metabolism c) Renal Tubular Cells
giving rise to OH and O2 d) Colonic Mucosal Cells
d) Hyrolyzing Bacterial Coated with Lysozyme e) Cells lining the Respiratory Airways
e) Action of Hydrolytic Enzymes
Prostaglandins are formed from Arachidonic
The emigration and accumulation of Acid through the action of which enzyme
neutrophils in the acute inflammation pathway?
reaction is primarily the result of: a) Cyclooxygenase
a) Active hyperemia b) Lipoxygenase
b) Hydrostatic Pressure c) Myeloperoxidase
c) Increased Microvascular Permeability d)Phospholipase A
d) Chemotaxis e) Glutathione Reductase
e) None of the above
The cavity of an Abscess contains:
Which of the following is expressed on a) Caseous Necrosis
endothelial cells in acute inflammation for b) Hyalin
leukocyte adhesion: c) Giant Cells
a) Interferon Gamma d) Pus
b) Hageman Factor e) Granulation Tissue
c) Lysozyme
d) E-selectin Transudate can be found in the following
e) Prostacyclin settings except:
a) Congestive Heart Failure
Fever and Leukocytes in which most leukocytes b) Nephrotic Syndrome
are neutrophils typical of: c) Superior Venacaval Obstruction
a) Acute Bacterial Infection d) Pericarditis
b) Acute Viral Infection e) None of the Above
c) Chronic Viral Infection
d) Parasitemia The diagnostic feature of granuloma is the
e) Foreign Body Giant Cell Reaction presence of:
a) Giant cells
b) Epitheloid cells
c) Lymphocytes
d) Fibrosis e) Caeseation
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 General Pathology MCQs
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The following have a granuloma except: A biopsy of a region of acute inflammation

a) T.B would most likely reveal all of the following
b) Syphilis except:
c) Leprosy a) Fibrinous exudate
d) Schistosomiasis b) Neutrophils
e) Staphylococcal Infection c) Edema
d) Necrosis
Formation of the epitheloid cells is mediated by: e) Fibrous connective tissue
a) IL-1 Which of the following chemical mediators is
b) IL-2 most important in the development of
c) Histamine Granulomatous Inflammation:
d) Gamma Interferon a) Interferon gamma
e) Serotonin b) Bradykinin
c) Complement C5a
The first inflammatory cell to show at the site of d) Histamine
acute inflammation is the: e) Prostaglandin E2
a) Monocyte
b) B-lymphocyte Following an attack of chest infection for three
c) T-lymphocyte days, a patient becomes very ill and his
d) Neutrophils chest x-rays shows a 3cm rounded density.
e) Mast cell He is most likely having:
a) Hypertrophic scar
The following are true about an exudate except: b) Abscess formation
a) It can be present as edema c) Regeneration
b) It has a high protein content d) Bronchogenic carcinoma
c) It has a specific gravity  1.020 e) Progression to chronic inflammation
d) It may contain inflammatory cells
e) It can be due to congestive heart failure Which of the following cells is the most
important in the development of
-Antitrypsin Deficiency is associated with: tuberculous granuloma:
a) Neonatal Hepatitis a) Macrophages
b) Liver Cirrhosis b) Fibroblast
c) Panacinar Emphysema c) Neutrophil
d) B and C d) Mast Cell
e) All of the Above e) Platelet

Which of the following is the most powerful Which of the following inflammatory processes
chemotactic agent: would cause interstitial fibrosis and nodules
a) Histamine in the lungs of a person who inhaled silica
b) Prostaglandin dust:
c) Hageman Factor a) Neutrophilic infiltration with release of
d) Bradykinin leukotrienes
e) Complement C5a b) Foreign body giant cell formation
c) Plasma cell production of immunoglobin
d) Histamine release by mast cells
e) Release of growth factors by macrophages
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 General Pathology MCQs
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Matrix components in early granulation tissue

Which of the following mediators are include:
predominantly responsible for pain in acute a) Fibronectin
inflammation: b) Type III collagen
a) Complement C3b and IgG c) Both A and B
b) Interleukin-1 and tumour necrosis factor d) Neither A nor B
c) Histamine and Serotonin e) Granuloma
d) Prostaglandin and Bradykinin
e) Leukotriene and E-selectin Apoptosis does not induce inflammation
because:
Which of the following cell types is most likely a) The injury is too mild to induce inflammation
to be most characteristic of a foreign body b) Phagocytic cells secrete cytokines that inhibit
reaction: inflammation
a) Mast cell c) The process occurs only in avascular tissues
b) Eosinophil d) Apoptosis occurs only in immune deficient
c) Giant cell tissues
d) Neutrophils e) The patient is using antibiotics
e) Plasma cell
Osponization is the:
Which of the following is needed for anti- a) Formation of free radicals
microbial killing during Phagocytosis: b) Degradation of bacteria by lysozymes
a) Glutathione peroxidase c) Engulfment of antigen by leukocytes
b) C3b d) Coating of antigen by antibodies
c) Interleukin 1 e) Processing of antigens by antigen presenting
d) NADPH oxidase cells
e) Myeloperoxidase
Which of the following is not a characteristic of
Deficiency of which of the following will reduce a Granuloma:
phagocytosis by neutrophils: a) Macrophages
a) C3a b) Giant Cells
b) Leukotriene A4 c) Polymorphonuclear Leukocytes
c) C3b d) Lymphocytes
d) Leukotriene B4 e) Epitheloid Cells
e) C5a
Which of the following has a large number of
All of the following are true of granulation eosinophils in exudates:
tissue except: a) Sarcoidosis
a) Contains epitheloid cells b) Bronchiectasis
b) Contains myofibroblast c) Syphilis
c) Contains proliferating capillaries d) Bronchial Asthma
d) Important in wound contraction e) Chronic Bronchitis
e) Contains fibronectin

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 General Pathology MCQs
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Which of the following are involved in Which of the following is expected to be found
organization: in sputum of an asthmatic child:
a) Endothelial cells and osteocytes a) IgE antibodies
b) Endothelial cells and chondroblasts b) Activate macrophages
c) Endothelial cells and fibroblasts c) Eosinophils
d) Fibroblasts and fat cells d) Foreign body giant cell
e) Fibroblasts and plasma cells e) Asbestos bodies

The tumour of inflammation is due primarily Phagocytosis is enhanced by:

to: a) Prostaglandin E2
a) Arteriolar dilation b) Bradykinin
b) Venous dilation c) Lysozymes
c) Capillary dilation d) Osponin
d) Increased intracellular fluid e) Serotonin
e) Increased extracellular fluid
One of the following is a Chemotactic Factor: Which of the following are involved in
a) Histamine organization:
b) Bradykinin a) Liver parenchymal cells
c) Interleukin 1 b) Macrophages and endothelial cells
d) Leukotriene B4 c) Endothelial cells and fibroblasts
e) Serotonin d) Fibroblasts and fat cells
e) Neurons and glial cells
Phagocytosis is enhanced by:
a) C1 Which part of the microcirculation is most
b) Bradykinin consistently involved in the permeability
c) Lysozyme changes and exudation of acute
d) Osponin inflammation:
e) Serotonin a) Small arteries
b) Arterioles
Which one of the following is a harmful effect of c) Capillaries
acute inflammation: d) Venules
a) Dilution of toxins e) Veins
b) Phagocytosis
c) Formation of fibrin Chronic Inflammation is characterized by the
d) Swelling of tissue presence of:
e) Stimulation of immune response a) Polymorphs, monocytes and exudate
b) Plasma cells, lymphocytes, fibroblasts and
The high protein content of the inflammatory monocytes
exudates is mainly due to: c) Plasma cells, polymorphs, lymphocytes and
a) Protein released from dead tissue monocytes
b) Production of protein by inflammatory cells d) Plasma cells, basophils, eosinophils, fibroblasts
c) Increased capillary permeability and monocytes
d) Increased capillary hydrostatic pressure
e) Increased blood flow in the site of inflammation

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 General Pathology MCQs
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The following are true of macrophages except:

a) They are phagocytic cells The enzymes responsible for liquefaction in an
b) They produce interleukins abscess are derived mainly from:
c) Are antigen-presenting cells a) Tissue
d) They are derived from blood monocytes b) Serum
e) They are the main cells in chronic inflammation c) Lymph
f) none of above d) Neutrophils
e) Lymphocytes
The contents of a blister is an example of which
type of exudate: The primary role of which of the following in
a) Serous the closure of wounds healing by second
b) Fibrinous intention:
c) Purulent a)Neutrophils
d) Cellular b) Connective Tissue
e) Haemaorrhagic c) Macrophages
d) Granulation Tissue
Reduced Plasma Oncotic Pressure is the most e) Granuloma
important cause of generalized edema in:
a) Congestive Heart Failure The process of regeneration:
b) Lung Cancer a) Does not restore prior function
c) Constrictive Pericarditis b) Invariability leads to scar formation
d) Head Trauma c) Refers to healing by proliferation of stromal
e) Nephrotic Syndrome elements
d) Occurs in tissues composed of labile and stable
Which of the following is true about an cells
Exudate: e) Is synonymous with repair
a) Occurs in heart failure
b) Is due to low plasma oncotic pressure The following factors delay healing of damaged
c) Has a low specific gravity tissue except:
d) Has a high protein content a) Scurvy
e) Is due to lymphatic obstruction b) Ionizing Radiation
c) Immobilization
The most important factor in the formation of d) Infections
acute inflammatory exudates is: e) Glucocorticoids
a) Increased Hydrostatic Pressure
b) Increased Blood Flow The following factors delay healing of damaged
c) Chemotaxis tissue except:
d) Increased Vascular Permeability a)Infection
e) Lymphatic Obstruction b)UV light
c)Lack of immoblization
Increased Vascular Permeability is due to: d)DM
a) Damage to endothelial cells e)Corticosteroid
b) Widening of gaps between endothelial cells
c) Slowing of blood flow
d) Both A & B
e) Both A & C
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 General Pathology MCQs
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Repair of which of the following involves Red Infarcts develop in:

regeneration and connective tissue repair: a) Spleen
a) Bone fracture b) Liver
b) Renal tubular necrosis c) Kidney
c) Both A and B d) Adrenal Glands
d) Neither A nor B e) Intestine

Which of the following does not promote Edema of Congestive Heart Failure is due to:
fracture healing: a) Generalized increase in venous pressure
a) Steroid therapy b) Triggered rennin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis
b) Adequate blood supply c) Increased salt intake
c) Immobilization d) Both A and B
d) Adequate Vitamin C supply e) Both B and C

In an area of myocardial infarction, which of Which of the following is most significant in the
the following will be most effective in diagnosis of early acute myocardial
promoting healing: a) Histamine infarction:
b) Immunoglobulin G a) ESR
c) Complement C3b b) ASO titre
d) Leukotriene B4 c) Troponin
e) VEGF (vascular endothelial growth factor) d) LDH
e) Total CK
 Hemodynamic
Which of the following complications is most Which of the following is not a major risk
likely to occur in a 76 year old woman who factor for atherosclerosis:
has a swollen leg followed by fracture of a) Family history
femoral trochanter and who has been b) Hyperlipidemia
immobilized: c) Physical inactivity
a) Gangrenous Necrosis of the Foot d)Diabetes
b) Haematoma of the Thigh e) Hypertension
c) Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation
d) Pulmonary Thromboembolism Which of the following statements suits DIC:
e) Soft Tissue Sarcoma a) Thrombosis is rare
b) Bleeding can be a major feature
Complication of Blood Transfusion include all c) A Normal Platelet Count excludes DIC
of the following except: d) Treatment with Heparin is usually indicated
a) Septicemia
b) Fat Embolism Organs which are less susceptible than others to
c) Hepatitis C Infection infarction because of a dual blood supply
d) Circulatory Over Load include:
e) Urticaria a) Liver and Lungs
b) Liver and Kidney
c) Lung and Spleen
d) Spleen and Kidney
e) Pancreas and Lung

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 General Pathology MCQs
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Neurogenic, Septic and Cardiogenic shock are Thrombosis can be caused by all of the
all characterized by: following except:
a) Equal prognosis if untreated a) Endothelial injury
b) Need for blood transfusion b) Turbulent blood flow
c) Peripheral vasodilation at onset c) Leiden mutation
d) Normal blood volume at early stage d) Factor VIII deficiency
e) Progression to irreversible shock e) Atrial Fibrillation

The causes of Hypovolemic shock do not Which of the following are sequelae to
include: thrombosis:
a) Severe vomiting a) Embolization
b) Severe diarrhea b) Organization and Recanalization
c) Extensive burning c) Propagation
d) Myocardial Infarction d) Both A and B
e) Severe Trauma e) All of the above

What type of shock is most associated with Which one of the following does not predispose
severe burns: to thrombosis:
a) Cardiogenic shock a) Endothelial damage
b) Hypovolemic shock b) Vascular Stasis
c) Septic shock c) Thrombocytopenia
d) Neurogenic shock d) Formation of aggregates
e) Activation of the coagulation mechanism
The causes of Hypovolemic shock do not
include: Which one of the following is not a cause of
a) Severe vomiting thrombosis:
b) Severe diarrhea a) Damage of endothelial lining
c) Blood Loss b) Aneurysms
d) Acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis c) Polycythenia
e) Extensive Burning d) Dissiminated Carcinomatosis
e) High level of antithrombin III
The following are true about arterial thrombi
except: The following are associated with DIC except:
a) Are usually due to endothelial injury a) Widespread deposition of fibrin with
b) Can be precipitated by atherosclerosis microcirculation
c) Grow in the direction of blood flow b) Consumption of coagulation factors
d) Lead to ischemia and infarction c) Haemorrhagic diathesis (Bleeding Tendency)
e) Commonly cause systemic emboli d) Thrombocytosis (Increased Platelet Count)
e) Activation of Plasminogen
The following are true regarding venous
thrombi except:
a) Commonly are due to stasis
b) Always cause infarction
c) Grow in the direction of blood flow
d) Can cause pulmonary emboli
e) Commonly occur in the deep leg veins
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 General Pathology MCQs
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Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation is

associated with the following except: Pulmonary emboli have each of the following
a) Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia characteristics except:
b) Thrombocytosis a) Commonly arise in leg veins
c) Low fibrinogen level b) Pass through the right heart before reaching the
d) Disseminated malignancy lung
e) Crush injuries c) Consistently cause infarction in the lung
d) Are usually thrombotic emboli
The following predispose to deep vein
thrombosis except: A detached intravascular solid, liquid or gas
a) Malnutrition carried to a site distant from its point of
b) Cancer origin is most associated with:
c) Factor VIII deficiency a) Ascites
d) Abdominal Surgery b) Petechiae
e) Immobilization c) Infarction
d) Emboli
The following are true of Thrombi except: e) Hematoma
a) Are formed from blood consitituents
b) Always cause complete vascular occlusion and Which of the following involved in pathogenesis
infarction of septic shock:
c) Are complicated by embolization a) Bacterial Wall Lipopolysaccharides
d)May undergo dystrophic calcification b) IL-1
c) IL-8
Which of the following is not associated with d) All of the Above
Thrombosis: e) None of the Above
a) Cancer
b) Prolonged bed rest Infarction of the spleen is usually due to:
c) Sickle cell anemia a) Hypersplenism
d) Hemophilia b) Congestion
e)tissue damage c) Arterial Embolism
d) Deposition of connective tissue and pigment
Fat emboli can be precipitated by: e) Venous Thrombosis
a) Excessive fats intake
b) Rupture of an atheromatous plaque Pathological effects of Shock do not include:
c) Rupture of the uterus a) Gastric Ulceration
d) Fracture of the femur b) D.I.C.
e) Changes in atmospheric pressure c) Acute Renal Tubular Necrosis
d) Metabolic Alkalosis
Paradoxial emboli are: e) Adult Respiratory Distress Syndrome
a) Commonly pulmonary emboli
b) Are caused by myocardial infarction
c) Due to the presence of an interventricular on
inter atrial defect
d) Due to sudden changes in the atmospheric
pressure
e) Caused by trauma
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 General Pathology MCQs
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Active Hyperaemia of acute inflammation Which of the following is a complication of

occurs in response of: Cardiogenic Shock:
a) Histamine a) Chronic Pyelonephritis
b) Interleukin I b) Acute Tubular Necrosis
c) Prostacyclin c) Nodular Glomerulosclerosis
d) Leukotriene B4 d) Renal Vein Thrombosis
e) Selectins e) Rapidly Progressive Glomerulonephritis

Complications of Blood Transfusion include all

of the following EXCEPT:  Immune System
a) Septicemia
b) Fat Embolism Which cells are targeted by HIV:
c) Hepatitis C Infection a)CD4 + cells
d) Circulatory Overload b) Plasma cells
e) Urticaria c) Macrophages
The following features are true in Von d) Both A & B
Wilbrand Disease except: e)Both A & C
a) Inheritance is Sex-Linked
b) The Bleeding Time is prolonged Asthma is an example of:
c) There is Defective Platelets Adhesion a) Type I hypersensitivity reaction
d) The PTT is prolonged b) Type II hypersensitivity reaction
e) The Patient is Normal c) Type III hypersensitivity reaction
d) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
One of the following is a feature of Von- e) Type V hypersensitivity reaction
Willibrand Factor:
a) It is synthesized in the Liver IgE plays a major role in:
b) It's deficiency causes a prolonged Prothrombin a) Type I hypersensitivity reaction
Time PT b) Type II hypersensitivity reaction
c) Stress and exercises its level c) Type III hypersensitivity reaction
d) It is involved in Platelet Aggregation d) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
e) It is a carrier for Factor VII e) Type V hypersensitivity reaction

Which of the following is a feature of Asthma is most closely associated with:

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation a) Hypertrophy of Mucus Glands
(DIC): b) Eosinophil Chemotactic Factor
a) Thrombosis is Rare c) Serine Elastase
b) Bleeding can be a Major Feature d) ADH
c) Morphology of Red Cells is usually Normal e) Complement Fixation
d) A Normal Platelet Count excludes DIC
e) Treatment with Heparin is usually indicated Which of the following is stained by Congo Red:
a) Basement Membranes
b) Spirochaetes
c) Tubercle Bacilli
d) Amyloid
e) Collagen

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 General Pathology MCQs
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Immunoglobulin G (IgG) is important for: Which of the following cells has the most
a) Primary Immune Response significant role in the pathogenesis of
b) Secondary Immune Response Rheumatoid Arthritis:
c) Immunoglobulin in the Serosal Fluids a) CD4 T-Helper Cells
d) Allergic Reactions b) CD8 T Cells
e) None of the Above c) NK Cells (natural killer)
d) Mast Cells
In Grave's Disease one would least likely e) Polymorph Neutrophils
expect:
a) Goitre Which of the following is a morphologic feature
b) Increased Sweating of Rheumatoid Arthritis:
c) Increased Metabolic Rate a) Suppurative Inflammation
d) Increased TSH b) Increased Osteoblastic and Osteoclastic Activity
e) Tremors c) Pannus Formation
d) Herbeden Nodes e) Urate Tophi
Prion Protein (PrP) is associated with: Acute graft rejection is caused by:
a) Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy a) Type I hypersensitivity reaction
b) -Antitrypsin Deficiency b) Type II hypersensitivity reaction
c) Cystic Fibrosis c) Type III hypersensitivity reaction
d) Neuro-Fibromatosis d) Type IV hypersensitivity reaction
e) Paget's Disease of the Bone e) Type V hypersensitivity reaction

Which of the following is NOT associated with Which of the following is an Immune-Complex
Sjorgen's Syndrome: Disease:
a) Autoimmune Aetiology a) Rheumatoid Arthritis
b) Affects Salivary and Lacrimal Glands b) Bronchial Asthma
c) Associated with Hypergammaglobulinemia c) Chronic Osteomyelitis
d) Can develop into Epithelial Carcinoma d) Acute Glomerulonephritis
e) Associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis e) Secondary Tuberculosis

Which of the following is a known complication Which of the following cell types releases
of AIDS: chemical mediators responsible for allergic
a) Adenocarcinoma rhinitis:
b) Bronchiectasis a) Neutrophils
c) Lymphangiectasis b) Mast Cells
d) Pleural Plaques c) CD4+ Cells
e) Pneumocystitis carinii Pneumonia d) NK Cells
e) Macrophages
Which of the following is not associated with
deposition of Amyloid AA: Which of the following chemical mediators is
a) Rheumatoid Arthritis most likely to be involved in anaphylaxis
b) Tuberculosis following intravenous penicillin treatment:
c) Systemic Lupus Erythematous a) Interleukin I
d) Multiple Myeloma b) Bradykinin
e) Lepramatous Leprosy c) Complement C5a
d) Histamine
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 General Pathology MCQs
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e) Thromboxane
Which type of Amyloid is associated with Long
The following are true about SLE except: Term Haemoialysis:
a) It is commoner in females a) B2- Microglobulin
b) Anti nuclear antibodies are diagnostic b) AL
c) It can affect the joints c) AA
d) It is associated with a butterfly rash d) Amyloid Endocrine (AE)
e) It can cause anemia e) None of the Above

HIV primarily affects: Immuno Deficient Patients are prone to the

a) CD8 lymphocytes following except:
b) Cells expressing CD4 molecules a) Bacterial Infections
c) Neutrophils b) Viral Infections
d) Basophils c) Autoimmune Diseases
e) Eosinophils d) Tumors
Which of the following is not true of Amyloid: e) None of the Above
a) It is protein in nature
b) Complicates Bronchiectasis The type of Amyloid associated with Chronic
c) Causes Nephrotic Syndrome Inflammation is:
d) In Multiple Myeloma, it is of the AA type a) AA
e) Demonstrated microscopically using crystal b) AL
violet c) B2 Amyloid
d) Transthyrefin
The following are true about Type I e) B2 Microglobulin
hypersensitivity except:
a) It can be localized or systemic Amyloid Material is deposited:
b) Extrinsic asthma is an example a) Intracellularly
c) The predominant antibody involved is IgG b) Extracellularly
d) Degranulation of mast cells is the pathogenesis c) In the Kidney only
pathway d) Both A and B
e) Can be diagnosed by skin test e) Both A and C

The following are true of Amyloidosis except: Under Polarized Light, Amyloid Stained with
a) It is lipid in nature Congo Red appears:
b) Causes Splenomegaly a) Pink
c) Is a common cause of Hepatic Failure b) Blue
d) Deposited Extracellularly c) Vacuoles
e) Is a known cause of Nephrotic Syndrome d) Apple Green Birifringence
e) Granulated
Which of the following is associated with The following are causes of Secondary
deposition of Amyloid AL: Immunodeficiency except:
a) Osteoarthritis a) Infection
b) Intestinal Schistosomiasis b) Malnutrition
c) Multiple Myeloma c) Aging
d) Systemic Lupus Erythematous d) DiGeorge's Syndrome
e) Crohn's Disease e) Radiotherapy
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 General Pathology MCQs
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Cellular Immunodeficiceny predisposes to all of For demonstration of Amyloid Tissue, Biopsy is

the following except: taken from:
a) Viral Infections a) Cardiac Muscle
b) Pyogenic Infections b) Brain Aspirate
c) Fungal Infections c) Spleen Puncture
d) TB d) Bone Marrow Aspirate
e) Malignancy e) Renal Biopsy

The worst prognosis is found in Amyloidosis Sago Spleen is seen in:

associated with: a) Sarcoidosis
a) Alzahimer's b) ALL Leukemia
b) Multiple Myloma c) Portal Hypertension
c) Chronic Inflammation d) Amyloidosis
d) Localized Type e) Repeated Attacks of Malaria
e) Renal Failure
Endocrine Amyloidosis is associated with:
Which of the following is most likely to be a) Papillary Carcinoma of Thyroid
found in a 30 year old female who has SLE: b) Medullary Carcinoma of Thyroid
a) Severe Atherosclerosis c) Follicular Carcinoma of Thyroid
b) Glomerular Immune Deposits d) Anaplastic Carcinoma of Thyroid
c) Amyloid Deposition e) Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
d) Vascular Chronic Inflammation
e) Anti-Glomerular Basement Membrane Antibody Which cell in the Central Nervous System is
predominantly infected in HIV:
Deposition of Amyloid causes tissue injury by: a) Astrocyte
a) Releasing a Vasoactive Substance b) Oligodendrocytes
b) Inducing a Cell-Mediated Response c) Neurons
c) Releasing Toxic Substance d) Ependymal Cells
d) Causes Pressure Atrophy on Adjacent Tissues e) Microglia
e) Stimulating an Acute Inflammatory Response
Neoplasia
Type AA Amyloid is seen in the following
conditions except: Benign Tumours:
a) Bronchiectasis a) Commonly Metastasize
b) Renal Cell Carcinoma b) Are Encapsulated
c) Hodgkins Disease c) Have hyperchromatic nuclei
d) Multiple Myeloma d) Infiltrate surrounding tissue
e) Rheumatoid Arthritis e) Commonly recur after removal

Amyloid deposits in the kidney is a cause of: The following are associated with Cachexia
a) Nephritic Syndrome except:
b) Interstitial Nephritis a) Malignancy
c) Pyonephrosis b) Anemia
d) Nephrotic Syndrome c) Wasting
e) Acute Tubular Necrosis d) Hypoplasia
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 General Pathology MCQs
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e) Tumour Necrosis Factor Histologic Criteria for the Diagnosis of

Which of the following Tumors does not Follicular Carcinoma of the Thyroid are:
Metastasize: a) Trabecular Growth Pattern
a) Skin Squamous Cell Carcinoma b) Capsular Invasion
b) Male Breast Carcinoma c) Vascular Invasion
c) Gastric Carcinoma d) B & C
d) Skin Basal Cell Carcinoma e) All of the Above
e) Melano Carcinoma

Krukenberg Tumor of the Ovary is an example Which of the following is a Tumor Marker?
of a) Lymphatic Spread a) Thromboxane A2
b) Vascular Spread b) Acetylcholine
c) Transcolomic Spread c) Prostaglandin
d) Intraductal Spread d) ACTH
e) Transluminal Spread e) Ferritin

Acute effects of Ionizing Radiation do not Which of the following will predict a better
include: prognosis for breast cancer:
a) Leukemia a) The tumor is small in size
b) Anemia b) No metastasis are found in sampled lymph node
c) Skin Desquamation c) Numerous mitosis are seen
d) Pulmonary Oedema d) Tumor shows mild hyperchromatism
e) Vomitting e) Tumor cells show marked pleomorphism

Which of the following is true about Stem Cells: The activation of chemical procarcinogen
a) They are capable of Self-Renewal requires activation by:
b) They are found in the Basal Layer of the Skin a) Neuropeptidases
c) Their Proliferation of Self-Initation b) Dismutases
d) They produce a Single Cell c) Collagenase
e) They are resistant to Ionizing Radiation d) P450 dependent Oxygenase
e) Alkaline Phosphotase
Which of the following is not a Malignant
Tumor: Which of the following diseases is likely to be
a) Lung Hamartoma complicated by Malignancy:
b) Liver Hepatoma a) Familial Polyposis Coli
c) Brain Glioma b) Crohn's Disease
d) Skin Melanoma c) Ulcerative Colitis
e) Lymphoma d) Chronic Duodenal Ulcer
e) H. Pylori Gastritis
One of the following is not a Tumor Marker:
a) Thromboxan A2 Which of the following Uterine Lesions has a
b) Alpha Fetoprotein greatest potential to evolve into carcinoma:
c) Carcinoembryonic Antigen a) Simple Hyperplasia
d) Prostate Specific Antigen b) Complex Hyperplasia with Atypia
e) Chorionic Gonadotrophin c) Submucosal Fibroid
d) Intramural Fibroid
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 General Pathology MCQs
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d) Squamous Cell Carcinoma of Cervix

Which of the following is characteristic of e) Squamous Cell Carcinoma of Skin
neoplasm:
a) Recurrence following excision Which of the following is the most significant
b) Rapid increase in size indicator of Malignancy:
c) Sensitivity to radiation therapy a) Hyperchromatism
d) Uncontrolled (autonomous growth) b) Pleomorphism
e) Necrosis c) Increased Mitotic Activity
d) Metastasis
Which of the following is not a feature of stem e) Loss of Polarity
cells: Inhalation of which of the following will
a) Capable of self renewal increase the risk for Bronchogenic
b) Capable of linkage generation Carcinoma in Smokers:
c) They are the predominant population in a tissue a) Cotton Fibers
d) They belong to the terminal differentiation b) Silica Dust
compartment c) Fumes with Iron Particles
e) Both A and B d) Asbestos Crystals
e) Berryllium
Ionizing Radiation has a maximum effect at:
a) High Oxygen Tension Which of the following is a risk factor for
b) Low Oxygen Tension Transitional Cell Carcinoma of the Urinary
c) High CO2 Tension Bladder:
d) Low CO2 Tension a) Diabetes Mellitus
e) High Nitrogen Tension b) Recurrent Urinary Tract Infections
c) Therapy with Ampicillin
Fibrosis following Ionizing Radiation is due to d) Cigarette Smoking
a) Direct Damage and Necrosis to Tissu e) Use of NSAIDS
b) Stimulation of Fibroblast Proliferation by
Cytokines A smear showing Hyperchromatism &
c) Ischaemia due to injury of Endothelial Cells Pleomorphism is an example of:
d) Replacement of Atrophic Parenchymal Cells a) Dysplasia
e) All of the Above b) Metaplasia
c) Hypertrophy
Which of the following is not a feature of benign d) Hyperplasia
tumors: e) Atrophy
a) Grow Slowly
b) Well Demonstrated EBV is strongly associated with:
c) Infiltrate Adjacent Cells a) Hepatocellular Carcinoma
d) Can Secrete Hormones b) Burkett's Lymphoma
e) Named by adding suffix 'oma' to type of cell c) Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma
d) Both A & B
Which of the following malignant tumors has e) Both B & C
the best prognosis:
a) Hepatocellular Carcinoma
b) Renal Cell Carcinoma
c) Basal Cell Carcinoma
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 General Pathology MCQs
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Which of the following is not Malignant: Which of the following is not a Tumor Marker:
a) Melanoma a) AFP
b) Hamartoma b) Calcitonin
c) Adenocarcinoma c) Prostacyclin
d) Lymphoma d) ACTH
e) Liposarcoma e) PSA
Which of the following is a known complication
Which of the following is associated with of Asbestosis:
Hepatic Angiosarcoma: a) Adenocarcinoma
a) Benzene b) Bronchiectasis
b) Radon c) Lymphangiectasis
c) Cyclophosphamide d) Pleural Plaques
d) Abestos e) Pneumocystic carnii Pneumonia
e) Vinyl Chloride f) Pneumothorax

Which of the following is least sensitive to the Which of the following tumors is likely to rise
effect of Radiation: because of Loss of Tumor Suppressor Gene:
a) Ovarian Follicles a) Infiltrating Ductal Carcinoma of Breast
b) Small Intestinal Epithelium b) Small Cell Anaplastic Carcinoma of the Lung
c) Erythropoeitic cells of Bone Marrow c) Retinoblastoma of the Eye
d) Spermatogonia of Testicular Tubules d) Cerebral Astrocytoma
e) Neurons of Cerebral Cortex e) Chronic Myeloid Leukemia

Which of the following is not true about Inhalation of which of the following is
Carcinoma of the Nasopharynx: associated with Pleural Mesothelioma:
a) Common in children in Africa a) Cotton Fibers
b) Common in adults in Southern China b) Silica Dust
c) Is associated with EB Virus c) Fumes with Iron Particles
d) Is usually treated by Chemotherapy d) Asbestos Crystals
e) Is associated with Lymphoid Tissue e) Beryllium

Which of the following is not associated with Which of the following is the most common
Carcinoma of the Larynx: Testicular Tumor:
a) Tobacco Smoking a) Seminoma
b) Irradiation b) Embryonal Carcinoma
c) HPV c) Choriocarcinoma
d) EBV d) Mature Teratoma
e) Alcohol e) Leydig Cell Tumor

One of the following is not a Tumor Marker:

a) (AFP) Alpha Fetoprotein
b) (CEA) Carcinoembryonic Antigen
c) (PGI2) Prostacyclin
d) (PSA) Prostate Specific Antigen
e) (HCG) Chorionic Gonadotrophic Hormone

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 General Pathology MCQs
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Which of the following Malignant Tumors is Which of the following is not a Tumor Marker:
associated with Human Papilloma Virus a) ACTH
(HPV): b) CEA (Carcino Embryonic Antigen)
a) Squamous Cell Carcinoma c) AFP (Alfa Fetoprotein)
b) Adenocarcinoma d) Alfatoxin
c) Clear Cell Carcinoma e) Chorionic Gonadotrophin
d) Lymphoma
e) Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumor Exposure to UV light will give rise to which of
the following tumours:
Estimation of level CEA is most helpful in: a) Hepatocellular Carcinoma
a) Diagnosis of Pre-Invasive Colo-Rectal Cancer b) Basal Cell Carcinoma
b) Diagnosis of Metastatic Colo-Rectal Carcinoma c) Squamous Cell Carcinoma
c) Post-Surgical Follow-up of Colo-Rectal Cancer d) Both A and C
d) Malignant Change in Ulcerative Colitis e) Both B and C
e) Malignant Change in Crohn's Disease Who of the following is more likely to develop
Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin:
Which of the following is a feature of Chemical a) Sudanese
Carcinogens: b) Nigerians
a) They are Hetrophilic c) Kenyans
b) Amphophilic d) Scandinavian living in Zimbabwe
c) Electrophile e) Bantu South African
d) Nucleophilic
e) Inactive Cytochrome Oxidase In Acute Hemopoetic Syndrome following
Ionizing Radiation there is:
Which of the following is the most frequent risk a) Anemia
factor of Anaplastic Small Cell Carcinoma: b) Lymphopenia
a) Silicosis c) Thrombocytopenia
b) Radon Gas Exposure d) Both B and C
c) Smoking e) All of the Above
d) Asbestosis
e) Passive Smoking Which of the following is most likely to develop
skin cancer:
Of the following histopathologic finding, the one a) Clerk Typist
best indicates that a neoplasm is malignant b) Laboratory Technologist
is: c) Heavy Truck Driver
a)Pleomorphism d) Radiology Technologist
b) Atypia e) Supermarket Supervisor
c) Invasion
d) Increased Nuclear/Cytoplasmic Ratio Which of the following is most affected by
e) Necrosis Ionizing Radiation:
a) Kidney
b) Liver
c) Bone
d) Bone Marrow
e) Striated Muscle

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 General Pathology MCQs
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The Chemical Carcinogen, Alfatoxin B1, Which of the following is the best candidate as
derived from a fungus which may the origin of a Metastatic Neoplasm in the
contaminate peanuts, most commonly Liver:
induces: a) Carcinoma in situ of the uterine cervix
a) Transitional Cell Carcinoma of the Lung b) Adenocarcinoma of the cecum
b) Adenocarcinoma of the Rectum c) Renal Cell Carcinoma, right kidney
c) Hepatocellular Carcinoma d) Germ Cell Neoplasm of the testis
d) Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin e) Transitional Cell Carcinoma of the bladder
e) Renal Cell Carcinoma
The most important enzyme system for the
Which of the following is MOST likely to have a Metabolic Activation of Chemical
Malignant Potential: Carcinogens is:
a) Fibroadenoma a) Glutathione Reductase
b) Phyllodes Tumor b) Cytochrome-P450-dependednt
c) Both A & B Monooxygenases
d) Neither A nor B c) Epoxide Hydrolase
d) UDP-Glucuronic Acid Transferase
Select the incorrect statement. In the etiology of
human carcinogenesis: The ability of a Chemical Carcinogen to induce
a) Food components may play a role cancer in an animal is influence by:
b) Dietary Fat is known to initiate colon cancer a) DNA Repair Capacity of the Animal
c) Certain occupational exposures are known risk b) Ability of the Animal to Detoxify the
factors Carcinogen
d) Consumption of moldy food is a risk factor c) Ability of the Animal to Activate the
Carcinogen
All of the following are thought to be related to d) Presence of the Tumor Promoter
the capacity for tumor cells to invade e) All of the Above
except:
a) Elaboration of Type IV Collagenase Which factor(s) contribute(s) to selection of a
b) Expression of Laminin Receptors favored site of Metastatic Deposits for a
c) Mitotic Rate Tumor:
d) Production of Proteases a) The Ploidy of Tumor Cells
b) Compatibility of Cell Surface Characteristics of
Which of the following are characteristics of Tumor and the Receptor Tissue Site
Malignant Neoplasms: c) Both A and B
a) Encapsulation d) Neither A nor B
b) Expansile Growth
c) Both A and B Which of the following is not a Tumor Marker:
d) Neither A nor B a) AFP (Alfa-Feto Protein)
b) CEA (Carcino Embryonic Antigen)
c) PSA (Prostale Specific Antigen)
d) Aflatoxin
e) ACTH

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 General Pathology MCQs
Answers not sure 100%

Which of the following is a Hormone Secreting e) Affects only males

Tumor?
a) Breast Carcinoma There are no Y-linked disorders because:
b) Carcinoma of the Pancreas a) There are no mutations occurring in the Y
c) Fibroadenoma of the Breast chromosome
d) Bronchogenic Carcinoma b) The affected males die before adulthood
e) Carcinoma of the Cervix Uteri c) Affected males are infertile
d) Defects in the Y chromosome are autosomal
Which of the following tumors is likely to rise dominant
because of loss of Tumor Suppressor Gene: e) None of the above
a) Infiltrating Ductal Carcinoma of Breast
b) Small Cell Anaplastic Carcinoma of the Lung X-linked disorders:
c) Retinoblastoma of the Eye a) Males are always carriers
d) Cerebral Astrocytomy b) Females are always diseased
e) Chronic Myeloid Leukemia c) Are inherited from the father
d) Are inherited from the mother
 Genetic e) Sickle cell anemia is an example

Infertility and short stature in a woman with a Autosomal recessive disorders:

45x karyotype are typical of: a) Are inherited from the father only
a) Rlinefelter Syndrome b) Are inherited from the mother only
b) Turner Syndrome c) Are inherited commonly due to new mutations
c) Down Syndrome d) Are usually more severe than autosomal
d) Achondroplasia Dwarfism dominant disorders
e) Cystic Fibrosis e) None of the above

Down Syndrome is: Which of the following is NOT a feature of

a) Trisomy 21 Osteogenesis Imperfecta:
b) Trisomy 18 a) Caused by a Deficiency of Type I Collagen
c) Trisomy 13 b) Inherited as Autosomal Dominant
d) Autosomal Dominant c) Only affects Long Bone
e) Mothers are less than 30 years old d) Type II is associated with Multiple Fractures in
Utero & its Fatal
A Button-Hole Mitral Valve is most likely e) Patients have Blue Sclera
associated with:
a) Marfan's Syndrome Which of the following is needed for the
b) Congenital Heart Disease transport of Triglycerides from the Liver to
c) Rheumatic Heart Disease the Extrahepatic Tissues:
d) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus a) LDL
e) Atrial Myxoma b) VLDL
c) Chylomicrons
Mutations in mitochondrial genes are: d) HDL
a) Inherited from the father e) IDL
b) Common cause of disease
c) Inherited from the mother
d) Autosomal Recessive
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 General Pathology MCQs
Answers not sure 100%

Elevation of this component is a Negative Risk c) Cigarette Smoking

Factor for Atherosclerosis: d) Family History
a) LDL e) Genetic Abnormalities
b) VLDL
c) Chylomicrons Blue Sclerae seen in Osteogenesis Imperfecta is
d) HDL due t0: a) Deposition of Copper Salts
e) IDL b) Decrease in Collagen content and Translucency
of Sclera
Which of the following impairs hydrolysis of c) Increased Melanin Pigment in Irish
Triglycerides to Fatty Acids: d) Mucoid Degeneration of Sclera
a) Insulin e) Deposition of Bile Pigment
b) Glucagon
c) Cortisol Genetic Factors are not involved in the Etiology
d) Growth Hormone of a) Pernicious Anemia
e) Oxytocin b) Carcinoma of the Breast
c) Insulin Dependant Diabetes
Functions of Lipoproteins: d) Extrinsic Bronchial Asthma
a) Chylomicrons carry cholesterol to the tissues e) Chronic Active Hepatitis
b) LDL Transport exogenous triglycerides All of the following are features of Hemophilia
c) HDL carry Cholesterol away from tissues A EXCEPT:
d) IDL carry Triglycerides from Intestine to a) Females are usually carriers
Tissues b) It is more common than Christmas Disease
e) VLDL main function is producing HDL c) Chronic Arthritis is Uncommon
d) Can be treated by Cryoprecipitate
Which of the following is NOT true about e) Severity of Bleeding is related to Vactor VIII
Cystic Fibrosis: Concentration
a) It affects GIT, Respiratory Tract &
Reproductive Tract All of the following are autosomal recessive
b) Leads to Viscid Mucus Secretion except:
c) Associated with Squamous Metaplasia a) Cystic Fibrosis
d) There is a defect in Epithelial Calcium b) Sickle Cell Anemia
Transport c) Thalassemia
e) Associated with Bronchiectasis d) Hemochormatosis
e) Diabetes Mellitus
Which of the following is a feature of
Hemophilia A: Mendelian disorders are due to:
a) The PTT is prolonged a) Chromosomal abnormalities
b) The PT is prolonged b) Single gene defect
c) Bleeding Time is prolonged c) Environmental Factors
d) It is due to Factor IX deficiency d) Mitochondrial gene mutations
e) Platelet Count is Low e) X-linked mutations

Which of the following risk factors for

Atherosclerosis is controllable:
a) Increasing Age
b) Male Gender
28
 General Pathology MCQs
Answers not sure 100%

Which of the following is inherited as autosomal  Infection : Schistosoma

recessive disorders:
a) Familial polyposis coli Which of the following is not a feature of
b) Hemopilia A Schistosomal Portal Hypertension:
c) Cystic Fibrosis a) Ascites
d) Neurofibromatosis b) Esophageal Varices
e) Rheumatic Heart Disease c) Markedly Disturbed Liver Function
d) Copout Medusa
Which of the following is inherited as autosomal e) All of the Above
dominant disorders:
a) Familial polyposis coli Sandy Patches are feature of:
b) Hemopilia A a) Primary Tuberculosis
c) Cystic Fibrosis b) Urinary Schistosomiasis
d) Diabetes c) Tuberculoid Leprosy
e) Rheumatic Heart Disease d) Sarcoidosis
e) Tertiary Syphilis
Which of the following is inherited as an X-
linked recessive trait: Pipe-Stern Fibrosis is:
a) Familial polyposis coli a) Delayed Wound Healing
b) Hemopilia A b) Dystrophic Calcification
c) Cystic Fibrosis c) Liver Changes in Schistosomiasis
d) Neurofibromatosis d) Hilar Lymph Nodes in Primary TB
e) Rheumatic Heart Disease e) Healed Primary Chancre

Sickle Cell Anemia mode of inheritance is: In Bilharzial Portal Hypertension:

a) Autosomal Dominant a) There is increased incidence of hepatocellular
b) Autosomal Recessive carcinoma
c) Sex-Linked Recessive b) Liver cirrhosis occurs in 90% of cases
d) Random Mutation c) Hepatic Failure is an early complication
e) None of the Above d) Haematemesis is a common complication
e) Splenomegaly is due to proliferation of
Sickle Cell Anemia first presents as: macrophages
a) Adult Life
b) Birth When a Cercaria penetrate the skin of man, it is
c) Few Months after Birth transformed into:
d) Pre Notaily a) Metacaria
e) All of the Above b) Schistomulum
c) Sporocyst
d) Miracidium
e) Redia

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 General Pathology MCQs
Answers not sure 100%

Which of the following cannot be detected in a Which of the following is most significant in
Urine Dip Stick Analysis: Granuloma Formation in Schistosomiasis:
a) Glucose a) TNF
b) Ketones b) IL-10
c) Bilirubin c) CD4+
d) Ova of Bilharzia d) Prostaglandins
e) Nitrites e) IgE

Schistosoma Mansoni and Japonicum can Which of the following is not true about Hepatic
cause: Schistosomiasis:
a) Hematuria a) Pipe-Stem Fibrosis
b) Hepatocellular Carcinoma b) Presinusoidal Portal Hypertension
c) Rectal Polyps c) Liver is dark due to Deposition of Heme
d) Malabsorption Pigment
e) Colorectal Carcinoma d) Liver Functions shows only slight abnormality
e) Frequently complicated by Hepatocellular
One of the following is not true about bilharzial Carcinoma
portal hypertension:
a) Splenomegaly is of the congestive type Eosinophilia of Schistosomiasis is stimulated
b) Iron deficiency anemia is a complication by:
c) Periportal fibrosis is the cause a) C3b
d) There is an increased incidence of b) C5a
hepatocellular carcinoma c) TH2 inducing IL-4 and IL-5 production
e) Hepatic failure is not an early complication d) Tremor Necrosis Factor
e) None of the Above
Granuloma Formation in Schistosomiasis is
stimulated by: Which of the following is most likely to occur as
a) Adult Female Antigens a late complication of urinary
b) Adult Male Antigens schistosomiasis:
c) Soluble Egg Antigen a) Oesophageal Varices
d) Cercarial Antigens b) Ascites
e) All of the Above c) Carcinoma of Urinary Bladder
d) Pulmonary Hypertension
Which of the following is not associated with e) Cor Pulmonale
Schistosomiasis:
a) Portal Hypertension Hydroureter and Hydronephrosis are
b) Pulmonary Hypertension complications of:
c) Intestinal Pseudotumors a) Sarcoidosis
d) Anti-Basement Membrane Glomerulonephriti b) Widespread Cancer
e) Splenomegaly c) Typhoid Fever
d) Urinary Schistosomiasis
e) Portal Hypertension

30
 General Pathology MCQs
Answers not sure 100%

Syphilis The Primary Stage of Syphilis is best diagnosed

by:
Which of the following is not true about a) VDRL
Secondary Syphilis: b) RPR
a) Occurs a few years after Primary Infection c) Dark Ground Illumination
b) Generalized Lymphadenopathy d) TPHA
c) Snail Track Ulcers e) Widal Test
d) Conylomata Lata
e) Generalized Skin Rash Snail Track Ulcers are a feature of:
a) Intestinal Amoebiasis
The following are associated with b) Muco-cutaneous Leishmaniasis
Cardiovascular Syphilis, except: c) Dermal Sarcoidosis
a) Tree-Bark appearance of Aorta d) Secondary Syphilis
b) Inflammation of Vasa Vasora e) Post-Kale Agar Dermal Leishmaniasis
c) Aneurysm of Arch of Aorta
d) Aortic Stenosis Which of the following is not true about
e) Occlusion of Coronary Ostia Syphilitic Primary Chancre:
a) Occurs commonly on external genitalia
Which of the following is a Specific Test for b) Contains treponema pallidum spiroecele
Syphilis: c) Has a dense plasma cell infiltrate
a) VDRL (test) d) Does not heal spontaneously
b) Widal Test e) Occurs 3 weeks after contact with an infected
c) Kvein Test individual
d) Mantoux Test
e) TPI Test Shaped (Hutchinson's Teeth) are seen in babies
born to mothers suffering from:
Which of the following is not a feature of a) Mucosal Leishmaniasis
Primary Chanre of Syphilis: b) Syphilis
a) It is a hard very painful nodule c) Sarcoidosis
b) Develops at a site of infection d) Intestinal Tuberculosis
c) Persists for weeks and heals spontaneously e) AIDS
d) Leaves minimal scarring Which of the following is not a feature of
e) Contains many spirochaetes Secondary Syphilis:
a) Widespread Skin Rash
Peg-Shaped (Hutchinson's Teeth) are seen: b) Generalized Lymphadenopathy
a) Mucutaneous Leishmaniasis c) Condyloma Lata
b) Secondary Syphilis d) Hepar Lobatum
c) Oral Candida (fungal) infection e) Abundant Spirochaete
d) Congenital Syphilis
e) Gumma of Gingiva Which of the following is a Non-Specific Test
for Syphilis:
a) VDRL (test)
b) Widal Test
c) Kvein Test
d) Mantoux Test
e) Lepromin Test
31
 General Pathology MCQs
Answers not sure 100%

Syphilis Transmission is: Condyloma Lata are caused by:

a) Venereal a) Human Papilloma Virus
b) Through Placenta b) EB Virus
c) Accidental Inoculation c) Herpes Simplex Type II
d) Both A and B d) Spirochaetes
e) All of the Above e) LD Bodies

The hallmarks of Syphilis is (are): Condyloma Latum is seen in:

a) Endarteritis Obliteraus a) Secondary Syphilis
b) Heavy Plasma Cell Infiltrate b) Extra Intestinal Amoebiasis
c) Epitheloid Granuloma c) Intestinal Schistosomiasis
d) Both A and B d) Sarcoidosis
e) All of the Above e) Secondary TB

Which of the following is not true about Gummas most often appear in:
Cardiovascular Syphilis: a) Spleen
a) Affects Proximal Aorta b) Pancreas
b) Endarteritis and Periaorteritis of Vasa Vasora c) Liver and Testes
c) Aneurysmal Dilation of Arch of Aorta d) Kidneys
d) Tree-Bark Appearance of Media e) Thyroid
e) Aortic Valve Stenosis
The hallmark of Syphilis is:
Which of the following is a Specific Test for a) Endarteritis Obliterans
Diagnosis of Syphilis: b) Abominal Aneurysm
a) Rapid Plasma Reagim (RPR) c) Heavy Plasma Cell Infiltrate
b) VDRL (Venereal Disease Research Laboratory) d) Both A and B
c) Widal Test e) Both A and C
d) Mantoux Test
e) TPHA (Treponema Pallidum Hemagglutination Syphilitic Aortic Aneurysm:
Assay) a) Occurs in Thoracic Aorta
Endarteritis Obliterans is most closely b) Is due to Ischemic Destruction of Media and
associated with: Elastic Fibre
a) Mycotic Aneurysm c) There is Endarteritis of Vasa Vasora
b) Atherosclerotic Aneurysm d) All of the Above
c) Dissecting Aneurysm e) None of the Above
d) Syphilic Aneurysm
e) Berry Aneurysm Which of the following is a feature of
Cardiovascular Syphillis?
Hepar Lobatum is liver showing: a) Dissecting Aortic Aneurysm
a) Miliary Tuberculosis b) Mitral Stenosis
b) Multiple Gummas and Fibrosis c) Hemopericardium
c) Periportal Fibrosis d) Mycotic Aneurysm of the Thoracic Aorta
d) Amoebic Abscess e) Angina Pectoris
e) Sarcoid Granulomas

32
 General Pathology MCQs
Answers not sure 100%

Malaria In Falcifarum Malaria, Rosettes are formed by:

Complications of Plasmodium falciparum a) Adherence of Parasites to RBCs
malaria do not include: b) Adherence of Macrophages around Parasites
a) Bone Marrow Aplasia c) Adherence of Infected RBCs around Nuclei of
b) Nephrotic Syndrome Dead Hepatocytes
c) Hypoglycaemia d) Adherence of RBCs in Splenic Sinusoids
d) Haemoglobinuria e) Adherence of Infected RBCs around Uninfected
e) Severe Gastroenteritis Cells

Which of the following properties of Sickle Granuloma Formation is not a feature of:
Cells protect Sicklers against Malaria: a) Tuberculoid Leprosy
a) Decreased available Oxygen b) Sarcoidosis
b) Faster clearance of cells by Spleen c) Schistosoma mansoni infection
c) Low Intracellular pH d) Tuberculosis
d) All of the Above e) Cerebral Malaria
e) None of the Above
Individuals with Sickle Cell Trait are resistant
Which of the following lung changes occur in to Malaria because:
Falcifarum Malaria due to Secondary a) They have low hemoglobin
Involvement of Micro-circulation: b) Anopheles mosquito does not bite them
a) Pulmonary Oedema c) Their red blood cells sickle when parasitized
b) Interstitial Oedema and are removed by spleen
c) Hyaline Membrane Formation d) Their red blood cells contain antiparasite
d) All of the Above antibodies
e) Only A & B e) None of the Above

Which of the following does NOT cause Marrow The following occur in P. falciparum infection
Fibrosis: except:
a) Irradiation a) Jaundice
b) Tuberculosis b) Generalized Lymphadenopathy
c) Malaria c) Acute Renal Failure
d) Lymphoma d) Cerebral Petechial Hemorrhages
e) Leishmaniasis e) Splenomegaly

Which of the following is not true about Typhoid Fever / S.Typhi

Tropical Splenomegaly:
a) Marked Enlargement of the Spleen Which of the following is not a feature of
b) Atrophy of Lymphoid Follicles Typhoid Intestinal Lesions?
c) Increased Phagocytosis of WBCs and RBCs a) Organisms commonly settle in the mucosal
d) High Level of IgG & IgM against Malaria lymphoid aggregates
e) Thrombocytopenia b) Ulceration of Peyer's Patches
c) Infiltration by Plasma Cells
d) Infiltration by Neutrophils
e) Infiltration by Lymphocytes

33
 General Pathology MCQs
Answers not sure 100%

The carrier state of Typhoid Fever is due to: Which of the following is not associated
a) Persistent Bacteraemia with Initial Bacteremia phase of Enteric
b) Persistent Duodenal Lesions Fever:
c) Persistent Intestinal Ulcers a) Enlarged Spleen
d) Typhoid Cholecystitis b) Diagnosis by Blood Culture
e) Persistent Rose Spots c) Fever with Stair-Case Rise
d) Skin Rash
In Typhoid Fever: e) Leucocytosis
a) There is Tachycardia
b) The large intestine is commonly affected During the Intestinal Phase, Enteric Fever is
c) The white cell count is characteristically very best diagnosed by:
high a) Blood Culture
d) Rose spots appear in the intestinal mucosa b) Stool Culture
e) The gallbladder is infected c) Urine Culture
d) Widal Test
Serious complications of Typhoid Fever e) Intestinal Biopsy
include:
a) Intestinal Haemorrhage Which of the following is used for screening of
b) Amyloidosis food handlers for Typhoid:
c) Perforation of Intestine a) Blood Culture
d) Peritonitis b) Stool Culture
e) All of the Above c) Widal
d) Sputum Culture
The carrier state of Typhoid Fever is due to: e) Stools Hatching Test
a) Persistent Bacteraemia Which of the following causes enlarged
b) Persistent Duodenal Lesions prominent Peyers Patches:
c) Persistent Intestinal Ulcers a) Intestinal TB
d) Typhoid Cholecystitis b) Enteric Fever
e) Persistent Rose Spots c) Amoebiasis
d) Intestinal Schistosomiasis
Which of the following is associated with e) Visceral Leishmaniasis
inflammation and ulceration of Peyer
Patches: Pathological Lesions of Typhoid Fever are best
a) Intestinal Tuberculosis seen in:
b) Bacilliary Dysentery a) Ileo-Caecal Valve
c) Amoebiasis b) Appendix
d) Intestinal Schistosomiasis c) Peyers Patches
e) Typhoid Fever d) Anal Mucosa
e) 2nd Part of Duodenum
Which of the following is seen in Typhoid
Fever? Which of the following is not used for diagnosis
a) Haemaphagocytosis is Observed of Typhoid Fever:
b) Characteristically there is Tachycardia a) Blood Culture
c) The appendix is almost always involved b) Widal
d) There is leucocytosis c) Stool Culture
e) Necrotizing Granuloma is a feature d) VDRL
34
 General Pathology MCQs
Answers not sure 100%

Leishmaniasis
Which of the following is NOT used for the
Kala-zar means: diagnosis of Visceral Leishmaniasis:
a) Black Fever a) Liver Biopsy
b) Yellow Fever b) Renal Biopsy
c) Black Ulcer c) Bone Marrow Aspirate
d) Cutaneous Leishmaniasis d) Lymph Node Aspirate
e) Black Skin e) Splenic Puncture

One of the following is not a feature of visceral Which of the following features are of Visceral
leishmaniasis: Leishmaniasis, except:
a) Weight Loss a) Bone Marrow Failure
b) Splenomegaly b) Weight Loss
c) Bone Marrow Failure c) Epistaxis
d) Intermittent Fever d) Splenomegaly
e) Bleeding Tendency e) Pancytopenia

The killing of Parasites in Leishmaniasis is The course of Leishmania Infection is

mediated by: determined by:
a) The host T-cell Response
a) -Interferon
b) The species of the Leishmania
b) TNF-
c) The host B-cell Response
c) IL-4
d) Both A and B
d) Both A and B e) Both A and C
e) Both A and C
Which of the following is used for diagnosis of
The following are true about V. leishmaniasis
visceral leishmaniasis:
except:
a) Blood Culture
a) It is not common in Sudan
b) Nasal Smear
b) It can cause Thrombocytopenia
c) Skin Snip
c) It is transmitted by the Sand Fly
d) Widal Test
d) It is a Zoonotic Infection
e) Bone Marrow Smear
e) It can cause Immunodeficiency
In Sudan, Post Kalazar Dermal Leishmaniasis:
a) Soon follows treatment of visceral leishmaniasis Leprosy
b) The lesion heals spontaneously within few Which of the following is not seen in
months Tuberculoid Leprosy:
c) There is deep ulceration of the lesions a) Granuloma with Multinucleated Giant Cells
d) Both A and B b) Epidermis is Thin
e) Both A and C c) Swollen Nerves due to Proliferation of Schwann
Cells
Visceral Leishmaniasis is best diagnosed by the d) Large number of Bacilli in Lepra Cells
following: e) Hypopigmented Anesthetic Skin Lesions
a) Demonstration of LD bodies in Bone Marrow
b) Demonstration of LD bodies in Lymph Nodes
c) Demonstration of LD bodies in Spleen
d) Demonstration of LD bodies in Skin
e) Leishmania Test
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 General Pathology MCQs
Answers not sure 100%

In Lepromatous Leprosy: c) Multinucleated Giant Cells containing Asteroid

a) Epitheloid Granuloma Formation is Bodies
characteristic d) Lepromatous Cells contain many Bacilli
b) There is loss of the Rete Ridges of the epidermis e) Sub epidermal zone is clear of Infiltrate
c) Bacilli are scanty
d) Spontaneous cure may occur Which of the following clinical patterns of
e) Lepromin test is negative Leprosy is associated with a well developed
cell mediated response:
Immune-Complex Glomerulonephritis is seen a) Lepromatous Leprosy
with: b) Tuberculoid Leprosy
a) Primary TB c) Borderline Leprosy
b) Tuberculoid Leprosy d) Indeterminate Early Stage
c) Lepromatous Leprosy e) Borderline Lepromatous
d) Typhoid Fever
e) Amoebic Dysentery Mycobacterium leprae grows in the laboratory
in which of the following media:
Which of the following infectious agents is a) Blood agar
associated with transformation of tissue b) Maconkey agar
macrophages to epitheloid cells: c) Lowenston-Johnson Medium
a) Mycobacterium leprae d) All of the Above
b) Pseudomonas aeruginosa e) None of the Above
c) Cytomegalovirus
d) Giardia Lamblia Which of the following is (are) portal entry of
e) Staphylococcus aureus Lepra Bacilli:
a) Skin
Which of the following is a feature of b) Sexual Transmission
Lepromatous Leprosy: c) Upper Respiratory Tract
a) Scanty bacilli d) Both A and B
b) Granuloma formation e) Both A and C
c) Negative Lepromin Test
d) Thickening of nerves The following are true about Leprosy
e) Spontaneous recovery Antibodies except:
a) Antibody is not protective
The late Mitsuda Reaction is strongly positive b) Associated with Erythema Nodosum Leprosum
in: c) Causes Immune-Complex Glomerulonephritis
a) Lepromatous Leprosy d) Responsible for the Mitsuda Reaction
b) Tuberculoid Leprosy e) Its production is induced by IL-4
c) Indeterminate Leprosy
d) Borderline Leprosy Amoebia
e) Borderline Lepromatous Leprosy

Which of the following is not a feature of

Lepromatous Leprosy:
a) Involvement and perforation of Nasal Cartilage
b) Production of Antibodies to various antigens

36
 General Pathology MCQs
Answers not sure 100%

One of the following is not true about amoebic

liver abscess: others
a) There is Neutrophilia
b) The patient is febrile Which of the following diseases is characterized
c) Jaundice is always present by noncaseating granulomas?
d) The right lobe of the liver is commonly a) Sarcoidosis
involved b) Tuberculosis
e) Metronidazole is used for treatment c) Histoplasmosis
d) Diptheria
Hepatomegaly and very high leukocytes are e) Measles
features of:
a) Visceral Leishmaniasis Which of the following causes Lymphatic
b) Schistosomal Hepatosplenomegaly Oedema?
c) Typhoid Fever a) Sarcoidosis
d) Extra Intestinal Amoebiasis b) Schistosomiasis
e) Food Poisoning c) Filariasis
d) Syphilis e) Leishmaniasis
In Amoebic Liver Abscess:
a) There is marked neutrophilia In Onchocerciasis there is:
b) The liver in not enlarged a) Inflammatory Infiltrate around adult O. volvulus
c) Jaundice is a constant feature b) Inflammatory Infiltrate filarial or O. volvulus
d) The left lobe is commonly affected c) Collection of Filaria subcuatenously
e) The patient is afebrile d) Collection of Adult O. volculus in the muscle
e) None of the Above
In Amoebiasis:
a)Condylomata Lata is a feature Mazzotti Reaction is:
b) Granuloma Formulation is characteristic a) Damage of the skin by O. volvulus worms
c) The small intestine is always involved b) Damage of the skin by wolbachia
d) The perianal skin may be affected c) Due to treatment with Antifilarial Drugs
e) There is an intense infiltration in the lesions by d) Due to treatment with Doxycyclin
polymorphs e) None of the Above

Flask-shaped Ulcers are characteristically seen Chagas Disease can present as the following
in: except:
a) Intestinal Tuberculosis a) Dilated Cardiomyopathy
b) Bacillary Dysentery b) Cardiac Arryhthmias
c) Amoebiasis c) Dilated Colon
d) Intestinal Schistosomiasis d) Leptomeningitis
e) Typhoid Fever e) Dilated Esophagus

Flask-Shaped Ulcers are seen in: The Second Common Cause of Blindness in
a) Intestinal Schistosomiasis Africa is:
b) Intestinal Amoebiasis a) Diabetes Mellitus
c) Crohn's Disease b) Trachoma
d) Ulcerative Colitis c) Onchocericiasis
e) Enteric Fever d) Glucoma e) Hypertension
37
 General Pathology MCQs
Answers not sure 100%

A 12 year old child who lives in a mud hut in Pancytopenia is not a feature of:
Northeastern Brazil presents to the clinic in a) Severe Megaloblastic Anemia
Congestive Heart Failure. On physical b) Visceral Leishmaniasis
examination, she has Right Conjuctival c) Aplastic Anemia
Oedema, Preauricular Lymphadenopathy and d) Severe Hemolysis
Exophthalmos. The most likely etiology for
these findings is: A Psoas Cold Abscess is seen in:
a) Idiopathic Dilated Cardiomyopathy a) Staphylococcal Infection of an Ischemic Toe
b) Chagas Disease b) Pyogenic Infection of the Pleural Cavity
c) Endomyocardial Fibroelastosis c) Extra Intestinal Amoebiasis
d) Toxoplasmosis d) Infiltration of Caseous Material from Vertebra
e) Beriberi by Polymorph
e) Leprosy Ulcers
HIV associated Kaposi Sarcoma is more
prevalent among:
a) Homosexuals  Environmental
b) Heterosexuals
c) Drug Abusers Which of the following is a known complication
d) Hemophiliacs of Phenacetin Abuse:
e) Female Patients a) Papillary Necrosis
b) Focal Segmental Glomerulosclerosis
Female to Male Transmission of HIV is more c) Nephrocalcinosis
common in: d) Acute Interstitial Nephritis
a) Singapore e) Arteriosclerosis
b) Hong Kong
c) Thailand Which of the following is associated with
d) Philippines secretion of VMA (Vanillmandelic Acid):
e) Nepal a) Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
b) Conn's Syndrome
Cytoplasmic Negri Bodies are seen in: c) Hodgkin's Lymphoma
a) HIV Meningoencephalitis d) Neuroblastoma
b) Mad Cow Disease e) Adrenal Cortical Adenoma
c) Poliomyelitis
d) Rabies Which of the following is associated with
e) EBV Encephalitis Maternal DES (diethylstilbestrol)
Exposure:
Pancytopenia occurs in the following except: a) Vaginal Adenosis
a) Severe Megaloblastic Anemia b) HCG (human gonadotropin)
b) Visceral Leishmaniasis c) Alpha-Fetoprotein
c) Hypersplenism d) Lichen Sclerosis
d) Aplastic Anemia e) Condyloma Acuminata
e) Severe Hemolysis

38
 General Pathology MCQs
Answers not sure 100%

Which of the following is NOT strogly

associated with Smoking:
a) Thromboangitis Obliterans
b) Atherosclerosis
c) Type B- Chronic Gastritis
d) Renal Cell Carcinoma
e) Impotence

Which of the following is a major factor for

Atherosclerosis:
a) High Carbohydrate Intake
b) Obesity
c) Physical Activity
d) Cigarette Smoking
e) Post-Menopausal Oestrogen Deficiency

The active form of Vitamin D is:

a) Calcitonin
b) 1,25- Dihydroxycholecalciferol
c) 25- Hydroxycholecalciferol
d) Parathyroid Hormone
e) None of the Above

Which of the following is NOT associated with

Folate Deficiency:
a) Pregnancy
b) Hemolysis in Sickle Cell Anemia
c) Liver Disease
d) Diphyllobothrium Latum Infection
e) Celiac Disease

Lactating Mothers will most likely develop:

a) Iron Deficiency Anemia
b) B12 Deficiency
c) Folate Deficiency
d) Hemolytic Anemia
e) None of the Above

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