BIT International College

Siquijor,Siquijor
College of Education
Prelim Exam/ELT 3
Issue Date Prepared by: Reviewed by: Approved by:

Erma Mae M. Jumalon Zosima L. Revita,Ph.D Valentina D. Ramiso, Ph. D.

Instructor Program Chair Dean

Examination Period/Subject

Name: ___________________________________________________ Admission Number: _______________

Date Administered: ____________________ Score: __________________

Multiple Choice : Read and encircle the correct answer.

1. Which theory emphasizes the importance of social interaction in language acquisition?

A) Behaviorism
B) Innatism
C) Constructivism
D) Sociocultural Theory
2. Who proposed the "Zone of Proximal Development" as part of their theory on language learning?
A) B.F. Skinner
B) Jean Piaget
C) Lev Vygotsky
D) Noam Chomsky
3. Which theory posits that language is acquired through imitation, repetition, and reinforcement?
A) Behaviorism
B) Cognitive Theory
C) Interactionism
D) Universal Grammar
4. The Critical Period Hypothesis suggests that:
A) Older learners can't learn a new language.
B) There is a specific age range for optimal language acquisition.
C) L1 acquisition is different from L2 acquisition.
D) Motivation is the key to language learning.
5. Who is associated with the idea of Universal Grammar?
A) B.F. Skinner
B) Stephen Krashen
C) Jean Piaget
D) Noam Chomsky
6. Which theory focuses on the internal mental processes involved in language learning?
A) Behaviorism
B) Innatism
C) Cognitivism
D) Sociocultural Theory
7. Which theory believes that language is best learned in meaningful contexts and not in isolated
bits?
A) Behaviorism
B) Input Hypothesis
C) Constructivism
D) Interactionism
8. The Input Hypothesis is associated with:
A) Stephen Krashen
B) Lev Vygotsky
C) Jean Piaget
D) Noam Chomsky
9. Which theory emphasizes the importance of innate language structures?
A) Behaviorism
B) Constructivism
C) Innatism
D) Sociocultural Theory
10. Which of the following is NOT a stage in Krashen's Theory of Second Language Acquisition?
A) Acquisition-Learning Hypothesis
B) Monitor Hypothesis
C) Critical Period Hypothesis
D) Natural Order Hypothesis
11. Who is associated with the "Affective Filter Hypothesis"?
A) Jean Piaget
B) Lev Vygotsky
C) Stephen Krashen
D) Noam Chomsky
12. According to constructivist theories, learning occurs best when:
A) Learners are passive recipients of information.
B) Learning is teacher-centered.
C) Learners construct their own understanding through experiences.
D) Language is learned in isolation from context.
13. Which theory emphasizes the role of interaction and negotiation in language learning?
A) Behaviorism
B) Innatism
C) Interactionism
D) Cognitivism

14. The "Silent Period" observed in some second language learners can be explained by:
A) Behaviorism
B) Universal Grammar
C) Input Hypothesis
D) Critical Period Hypothesis
15. Which theory suggests that the process of language learning involves a series of
interconnected systems?
A) Behaviorism
B) Constructivism
 C) Systems Theory
D) Sociocultural Theory
16. What is the primary purpose of conducting a needs analysis?
A) To identify available resources
B) To determine the specific training requirements of an organization or individual
C) To evaluate the effectiveness of a completed project
D) To assign tasks to team members
17. Which of the following is NOT typically included in a needs analysis?
A) Evaluation of current performance levels
B) Identification of skill gaps
C) Determining the budget for a project
D) Assessing future organizational goals
18. Which stakeholder group is most directly involved in the data collection phase of a needs
analysis?
A) Senior management
B) Human resources
C) Employees or learners
D) External consultants

19. What is the main outcome of a needs analysis report?

A) A detailed training plan
B) A financial budget for implementation
C) A list of potential vendors
D) A marketing strategy
20. Which of the following methods is NOT commonly used in needs analysis?
A) Surveys and questionnaires
 B) Interviews
C) Random selection
D) Observations
21. What does a gap analysis refer to in the context of needs analysis?
A) Identifying areas where resources exceed requirements
B) Identifying the difference between current and desired performance levels
C) Analyzing competitor strategies
D) Evaluating customer feedback
22. Which type of needs analysis focuses on identifying the broader organizational goals and
objectives?
A) Task analysis
B) Competency analysis
C) Strategic needs analysis
D) Individual needs analysis
23. Why is it essential to involve various stakeholders in the needs analysis process?
A) To distribute responsibility
B) To ensure a comprehensive understanding of requirements

C) To reduce costs
D) To expedite the decision-making process
24. What role does feedback play in the needs analysis process?
A) It is irrelevant and should be ignored.
B) It helps validate findings and identify potential areas of improvement.
C) It determines the budget allocation.
D) It dictates the timeline for implementation.
25. After completing a needs analysis, what is the next logical step?
A) Implementing the training plan immediately
B) Ignoring the findings and proceeding with existing plans
C) Developing a comprehensive action plan based on findings
D) Assigning blame for existing gaps
26. What is the primary focus of a learning-centered approach?
 A) Teacher-centered instruction
B) Assessment-centered instruction
C) Learning and understanding by students
D) Parent-centered instruction
27. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a learning-centered classroom?
A) Emphasis on student engagement
B) Teachers as the sole source of information
C) Active participation of students
D) Differentiated instruction
28. In a learning-centered environment, what role does the teacher typically assume?
A) Facilitator
B) Dictator
C) Evaluator
D) Observer

29. Why is student feedback crucial in a learning-centered approach?

A) To grade the students
B) To measure teacher performance
C) To adjust teaching methods and content
D) To create competition among students
30. Which of the following best describes the assessment methods in a learning-centered
classroom?
A) Primarily standardized tests
B) Solely teacher evaluations
C) Diverse and inclusive of various formats
D) Only summative assessments
31. How does a learning-centered approach view student differences?
A) As obstacles to learning
B) As a basis for standardized instruction
C) As opportunities for differentiation and personalized learning
 D) Irrelevant to the learning process
32. In a learning-centered classroom, what is the primary source of motivation for students?
A) Grades and rewards
B) Teacher directives
C) Intrinsic interest and understanding
D) Peer pressure
33. What is the main goal of instruction in a learning-centered environment?
A) To cover the curriculum quickly
B) To facilitate deep understanding and mastery
C) To ensure all students get the same material
D) To prepare students for standardized tests
34. How does a learning-centered approach view mistakes or errors by students?
A) As failures to be penalized
B) As opportunities for learning and growth
C) As evidence of a lack of effort
D) As irrelevant to the learning process

35. Which of the following best describes the classroom culture in a learning-centered
approach?
A) Competitive and individualistic
B) Passive and teacher-dominated
C) Collaborative and student-centered
D) Strict and discipline-oriented
36. What is the primary emphasis of instruction in a learning-centered approach?
A) Memorization of facts
B) Rote learning techniques
C) Understanding and application
D) Teacher lectures
37. In a learning-centered environment, how are classroom materials and resources typically
selected?
A) Based solely on the teacher's preference
 B) Through standardized textbook adoption
C) According to student needs and interests
D) Without consideration of student backgrounds
38. What role does technology play in supporting a learning-centered approach?
A) A replacement for teacher instruction
B) An optional supplement to traditional methods
C) A tool to enhance learning experiences and access
D) A distraction from the learning process

39. How does feedback occur in a learning-centered classroom setting?

A) Solely through written exams
B) Primarily through peer reviews
C) Through ongoing communication and assessment
D) Only during parent-teacher conferences
40. What is a key benefit of implementing a learning-centered approach in education?
A) Standardized outcomes across all students
B) Decreased teacher workload and responsibility
C) Enhanced student engagement and motivation
D) Elimination of formative assessment
 BIT International College
Siquijor,Siquijor
College of Education
Answer Key/ELT 3
Issue Date Prepared by: Reviewed by: Approved by:

Erma Mae M. Jumalon Zosima L. Revita,Ph.D Valentina D. Ramiso, Ph. D.

Instructor Program Chair Dean

1. B 13. B 25. C
2. B 14. C 26. B
3. A 15. C 27. A
4. C 16. A 28. B
5. B 17. B 29. B
6. C 18. C 30. A
7. A 19. C 31. A
8. B 20. A 32. C
9. C 21. A 33. C
10. C 22. C 34. B
11. A 23. B 35. A
12. C 24. B 36. B
 37. B 39. B
38. C 40. C

BIT International College

Siquijor,Siquijor
College of Education
Midterm Exam/ELT 3
Issue Date Prepared by: Reviewed by: Approved by:

Erma Mae M. Jumalon Zosima L. Revita,Ph.D Valentina D. Ramiso, Ph. D.

Instructor Program Chair Dean

Examination Period/Subject

Name: ___________________________________________________ Admission Number: _______________

Date Administered: ____________________ Score: __________________

Multiple Choice : Read and encircle the correct answer.

1. What does language skills integration refer to?

A) Mixing different languages.
B) Combining reading, writing, listening, and speaking skills.
C) Using only one language skill at a time.
D) Focusing solely on grammar.
2. Which of the following is NOT a component of language skills integration?
A) Reading comprehension
 B) Vocabulary expansion
C) Learning different alphabets
D) Listening exercise

3. Why is integrating language skills important?

A) It makes learning more complicated.
B) It enhances language proficiency in real-life contexts.
C) It focuses only on grammar rules.
D) It reduces vocabulary learning.
4. Incorporating speaking and writing exercises in a lesson can help students to:
A) Improve only their listening skills.
B) Develop their pronunciation and grammar.
C) Limit their vocabulary.
D) Avoid real-life communication scenarios.
5. Which activity best integrates reading and speaking skills?
A) Listening to a podcast
B) Writing a summary of a text
C) Debating a topic after reading an article
D) Memorizing vocabulary lists
6. Which skill is primarily targeted when using role-play exercises?
A) Writing
B) Listening
C) Speaking
D) Reading
7. When teachers integrate language skills, they aim to create lessons that are:
A) Narrow and focused
B) Isolated from real-world scenarios
C) Broad and interconnected
D) Solely focused on grammar rules
8. Which of the following activities best combines listening and writing skills?
A) Reading a poem aloud
B) Taking notes during a lecture
C) Role-playing a conversation
D) Using flashcards
9. Which statement best describes the benefit of integrating language skills in a classroom?
A) It helps students focus on one skill at a time.
B) It provides students with a holistic language learning experience.
C) It reduces the need for interactive activities.
D) It limits exposure to diverse language contexts.
10. Which of the following activities is an example of integrating reading and listening skills?
A) Writing a diary entry
B) Watching a movie without subtitles
C) Reading a dialogue script aloud
D) Listening to a song and translating it
11. In language skills integration, why is context essential?
A) It limits understanding.
B) It provides a framework for meaningful communication.
C) It makes the learning process more complicated.
D) It focuses only on grammar structures.
12. Which skill is most closely linked to pronunciation and intonation?
A) Reading
B) Listening
C) Writing
D) Speaking

13. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of integrating language skills?

A) Enhancing overall language proficiency
B) Making lessons more monotonous
C) Creating a holistic learning experience
 D) Preparing students for real-life communication
14. What does the integration of language skills help students develop?
A) A narrow perspective on language use
B) A limited vocabulary
C) A holistic and multifaceted understanding of language
D) A focus only on grammar rules
15. Which activity is an example of integrating speaking and listening skills?
A) Writing a report
B) Watching a silent movie
C) Engaging in a group discussion
D) Reading a novel silently
16. What does cultural competence refer to?
A) Knowing about one's own culture only
B) Understanding and respecting cultural differences
C) Using culture as a marketing tool
D) Promoting one's own culture over others
17. Why is cultural sensitivity important in healthcare?
A) To ensure compliance with regulations
B) To prevent cultural misunderstandings and improve patient care
C) To increase profits for healthcare institutions
D) To prioritize one culture over others

18. What does the term "ethnocentrism" mean?

A) Valuing one's own culture above others
B) Understanding multiple cultures equally
C) Having no cultural bias
D) Celebrating cultural diversity
19. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of cultural competence?
A) Improved communication with patients
B) Increased healthcare costs
 C) Better patient satisfaction
D) Enhanced patient trust
20. What can be a potential consequence of cultural incompetence in healthcare?
A) Enhanced patient trust
B) Improved patient outcomes
C) Misdiagnosis or inadequate treatment
D) Decreased waiting times
21. Which approach emphasizes the importance of understanding an individual's cultural
background to provide effective care?
A) Colorblind approach
B) Cultural relativism
C) Cultural competence
D) Assimilationist approach
22. Stereotyping can lead to:
A) Enhanced understanding of cultural nuances
B) Reduced misunderstandings
C) Overgeneralizations and biases
D) Increased empathy

23. What does "cultural humility" emphasize?

A) Mastering all cultures equally
B) Recognizing one's limitations in understanding other cultures
C) Promoting one's culture above others
D) Ignoring cultural differences
24. In a diverse workplace, why is cultural awareness essential?
A) To create a competitive advantage
B) To reduce employee turnover
C) To foster inclusivity and respect
D) To eliminate all cultural differences
25. Cultural competence training is primarily aimed at:
A) Forcing one culture's beliefs on another
 B) Promoting cultural superiority
C) Providing individuals with skills to work effectively in diverse settings
D) Ignoring cultural differences
26. Which of the following materials is known for its high strength-to-weight ratio?
A) Aluminum
B) Glass
C) Rubber
D) Wood
27. What does the acronym 'Nanotechnology' refer to in material science?
A) Large-scale material fabrication
B) Material manipulation at the atomic or molecular level
C) Traditional methods of material extraction
D) High-temperature material processing

28. Which technology is used to make transparent materials scratch-resistant?

A) Electroplating
B) Nanocoating
C) Melting
D) Dyeing
29. What is a 'smart material'?
A) Material that is easy to produce
B) Material that can change its properties based on external stimuli
C) Material with a basic composition
D) Material resistant to heat
30. Which material is commonly used in 3D printing?
A) Glass
B) Rubber
C) PLA (Polylactic Acid)
D) Wood
31. What is the primary advantage of using composite materials?
A) Low cost
B) High flexibility
C) Enhanced properties from combined materials
D) Easy availability
32. Which technology involves manipulating materials at the atomic or molecular level to
enhance properties?
A) Biotechnology
B) Nanotechnology
C) Petrochemical technology
D) Optical technology

33. What are 'shape memory alloys' primarily known for?

A) High conductivity
B) Memory retention of a particular shape
C) Transparency
D) Flexibility
34. Which technology is NOT commonly associated with material development?
A) 3D Printing
B) Machine Learning
C) X-ray Diffraction
D) Electron Microscopy
35. What is the primary purpose of 'material testing'?
A) Production
B) Destruction
C) Evaluation of material properties
D) Cleaning
36. Which material is known for its superconducting properties at extremely low temperatures?
A) Copper
B) Silicon
 C) Graphene
D) Yttrium barium copper oxide
37. What does 'biomimicry' in material development refer to?
A) Using materials found in nature without modification
B) Creating materials inspired by natural processes or structures
C) Manufacturing materials from biological waste
D) Using materials that degrade in a natural environment

38. Which technology allows for the modification of a material's surface properties without
altering its bulk properties?
A) Surface coating
B) Melting
C) Casting
D) Extrusion
39. What is the primary purpose of 'material characterization'?
A) Identifying the material
B) Destructive testing
C) Understanding and defining material properties
D) Recycling
40. Which technology focuses on improving material properties through thermal treatment?
A) Cryogenic treatment
B) Heat treatment
C) Ultrasonic treatment
D) Chemical treatment
 BIT International College
Siquijor,Siquijor
College of Education
Midterm Exam/ELT 3
Issue Date Prepared by: Reviewed by: Approved by:

Erma Mae M. Jumalon Zosima L. Revita,Ph.D Valentina D. Ramiso, Ph. D.

Instructor Program Chair Dean

Answer Key/Subject

1. B 13. B 25. C
2. C 14. C 26. A
3. B 15. C 27. B
4. B 16. B 28. B
5. C 17. B 29. B
6. C 18. A 30. C
7. C 19. B 31. C
8. B 20. C 32. B
9. B 21. C 33. B
10. C 22. C 34. C
11. B 23. B 35. C
12. D 24. C 36. D
 37. B 39. C
38. A 40. B

BIT International College

Siquijor,Siquijor
College of Education
Semi-Finals Exam/ELT 3
Issue Date Prepared by: Reviewed by: Approved by:

Erma Mae M. Jumalon Zosima L. Revita,Ph.D Valentina D. Ramiso, Ph. D.

Instructor Program Chair Dean

Examination Period/Subject

Name: ___________________________________________________ Admission Number: _______________

Date Administered: ____________________ Score: __________________

Multiple Choice : Read and encircle the correct answer.

1. Which of the following best describes assessment?

A. Assigning grades to students
B. Determining the effectiveness of a teaching method
C. Measuring a student's knowledge and skills
D. Observing classroom behavior

2. Formative assessment is used to:

A. Assign final grades
B. Assess learning throughout a course
C. Measure achievement at the end of a unit
D. Evaluate teacher performance

3. Which of the following is NOT typically considered a formative assessment strategy?

A. Homework assignments
B. Midterm exams
C. Class discussions
D. Quizzes

4. Summative assessments are used to:

A. Monitor student progress
B. Provide feedback during instruction
C. Evaluate student learning at the end of an instructional period
D. Guide future instruction

5. Authentic assessment refers to:

A. Standardized tests
B. Real-world tasks that demonstrate meaningful application of knowledge and skills
C. Multiple-choice tests
D. Timed exams

6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of effective assessment?

A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Bias
D. Authenticity

7. Rubrics are useful for:

A. Providing feedback
B. Assigning grades
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

8. Which of the following is a disadvantage of standardized testing?

A. Provides a snapshot of student performance
B. Measures a narrow range of skills
C. Encourages rote memorization
D. Allows for individualized feedback

9. Which assessment method allows students to demonstrate knowledge through projects,

presentations, or portfolios?
A. Multiple-choice tests
B. Performance-based assessment
C. Oral exams
D. True/false test

10. Validity in assessment refers to:

A. Consistency of measurement
B. Measuring what it's intended to measure
C. Absence of bias
D. Variety in assessment method

11. Reliability in assessment means:

A. The assessment is fair for all students
B. The assessment produces consistent results over time
C. The assessment is aligned with instructional goals
D. The assessment measures a broad range of skills

12. Which assessment type is primarily concerned with the student's ability to perform tasks in real-
life situations?
A. Traditional tests
B. Authentic assessments
C. Standardized tests
D. Diagnostic tests

13. Which of the following best describes evaluation?

A. Grading students based on performance
B. Making judgments about the effectiveness of an instructional program
C. Conducting standardized tests
D. Assigning homework to students

14. Feedback in assessment is essential because it:

A. Motivates students
B. Identifies areas of improvement
C. Reinforces learning
D. All of the above

15. Which assessment strategy focuses on identifying a student's strengths and weaknesses to guide
future instruction?
A. Summative assessment
B. Formative assessment
C. Authentic assessment
D. Benchmark assessment

16. Which of the following best defines adaptation?

A. The process of sticking to one method regardless of its effectiveness.
B. The ability to change or be changed in order to deal effectively with a new situation.

C. The resistance to change under any circumstance.

D. The act of maintaining a rigid mindset.

17. Why is adaptability important in the workplace?

A. It ensures that employees never make mistakes.
B. It helps employees develop a routine and stick to it.
C. It allows employees to respond effectively to changing circumstances.
D. It guarantees job security.
18. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of flexible thinking?
A Being open-minded.
B. Embracing change.
C. Being resistant to new ideas.
D. Adapting to new situations.
19. In biology, what does the term 'adaptation' refer to?
A. The process of learning new skills.
B. The ability of an organism to change its color.
C. The evolutionary process where organisms develop traits to better survive in their environment.
D. The ability to resist change.
20. Which statement best describes the difference between adaptability and flexibility?
A. Adaptability is the ability to change one's thinking, while flexibility is about physical changes.
B. Adaptability is about changing one's mindset, while flexibility refers to changing one's actions.
C. There is no difference; both terms are synonymous.
D. Flexibility refers to rigid thinking, while adaptability refers to being open-minded.
21. Which of the following is a benefit of being adaptable?
A. Increased stress levels.
B. Reduced ability to cope with change.
C. Improved problem-solving skills.
D. Inflexibility in thinking.
22. How can individuals enhance their adaptability skills?
A. By avoiding new experiences.
B. By sticking to a rigid routine.
C. By seeking out challenges and learning opportunities.
D. By resisting change at all costs.
23. What role does resilience play in adaptation?
A. Resilience makes adaptation unnecessary.
B. Resilience helps individuals bounce back from setbacks, aiding in adaptation.
C. Resilience prevents individuals from adapting.
D. Resilience is irrelevant to the process of adaptation.
24. Which factor contributes most to an organization's adaptability?
A. Having strict rules and regulations.
B. Encouraging a culture that values innovation and change.
C. Avoiding challenges and risks.
D. Maintaining the status quo.
25. What is the primary benefit of fostering a culture of flexibility in an organization?
A. It ensures that employees always agree with management decisions.
B. It encourages employees to think creatively and adapt to new situations.
C. It eliminates the need for training and development programs.
D. It discourages employees from voicing their opinions.
26.What is the primary goal of Quality Assurance (QA)?
A. Fixing defects after development.
B. Testing software.
C. Preventing defects before they occur.
D. Monitoring the production environment.
27.Which of the following best describes the role of QA in the software development lifecycle?
A. Creating software requirements.
B. Writing code.
C. Validating that requirements are met.
D. Managing the project timeline.
28.What does the term 'test coverage' refer to in QA?
A. The number of defects found.
B. The percentage of code tested.
C. The number of testers involved.
D. The time taken for testing.
29.Which QA principle emphasizes that a system should be designed correctly from the start to
minimize defects?
A. Continuous Integration.
B. Agile Development.
C. Test-Driven Development.
D. Prevention over inspection.
30.In QA, what does the acronym 'CI' stand for?
A. Continuous Inspection.
B. Continuous Integration.
C. Code Integration.
D. Continuous Implementation.
31.What is the primary purpose of a 'test plan' in QA?
A. To write code.
B. To track defects.

C. To document the approach and objectives of testing.

D. To manage project finances.
32.Which type of testing is performed to evaluate the system's compliance with specified
requirements?
A. Unit testing.
B. Regression testing.
C. Validation testing.
D. Load testing.
33.What is the main objective of 'Regression Testing'?
A. Testing new features.
B. Validating system requirements.
C. Ensuring that changes don't adversely affect existing functionality.
D. Load testing.
34.Which QA technique involves comparing actual outcomes with expected outcomes to identify
discrepancies?
A. White-box testing.
B. Black-box testing.
C. Risk-based testing.
D. Defect tracking.
35.What is the primary focus of 'Usability Testing'?
A. Evaluating system performance under load.
B. Ensuring the system meets all functional requirements.
C. Assessing the user interface and user experience.
D. Testing the security aspects of the system.

36. What is the primary goal of Project-Based Learning (PBL)?

A. Memorization of facts
B. Developing critical thinking and problem-solving skills
C. Standardized testing preparation
D. Passive learning through lectures

37. Which of the following is a key characteristic of an effective project in Project-Based Learning?

A. Limited student autonomy

B. Short duration with minimal complexity
C. Real-world relevance and authenticity
D. Strict adherence to a predetermined curriculum

38. What role does the teacher typically play in a Project-Based Learning environment?
A. Sole provider of information
B. Facilitator and guide
C. Strict disciplinarian
D. Evaluator of individual performance

39. Why is collaboration emphasized in Project-Based Learning?

A. To reduce workload for individual students

B. To foster competition among students
C. To mimic traditional classroom settings
D. To promote teamwork and communication skills

40. How does assessment differ in Project-Based Learning compared to traditional assessment
methods?

A. Emphasis on rote memorization

B. Focus on individual test scores
C. Sole reliance on standardized tests
D. Assessment based on project outcomes and process
 BIT International College
Siquijor,Siquijor
College of Education
Answer Key/ELT 3
Issue Date Prepared by: Reviewed by: Approved by:

Erma Mae M. Jumalon Zosima L. Revita,Ph.D Valentina D. Ramiso, Ph. D.

Instructor Program Chair Dean

Examination Period/Subject
1. C. Measuring a student's knowledge and skills
2. B. Assess learning throughout a course
3. B. Midterm exams
4. C. Evaluate student learning at the end of an instructional period
5. B. Real-world tasks that demonstrate meaningful application of knowledge and skills
6. D. Authenticity
7. C. Both A and B
8. B. Measures a narrow range of skills
9. B. Performance-based assessment
10. B. Measuring what it's intended to measure
11. B. The assessment produces consistent results over time
12. B. Authentic assessments
13. B. Making judgments about the effectiveness of an instructional program
14. D. All of the above
15. B. Formative assessment
16. B. The ability to change or be changed to deal effectively with a new situation
17. C. It allows employees to respond effectively to changing circumstances
18. C. Being resistant to new ideas
19. C. The evolutionary process where organisms develop traits to better survive in their environment
20. B. Adaptability is about changing one's mindset, while flexibility refers to changing one's actions
21. C. Improved problem-solving skills
22. C. By seeking out challenges and learning opportunities
23. B. Resilience helps individuals bounce back from setbacks, aiding in adaptation
24. B. Encouraging a culture that values innovation and change
25. B. It encourages employees to think creatively and adapt to new situations
26. C. Preventing defects before they occur
27. C. Validating that requirements are met
28. B. The percentage of code tested
29. D. Prevention over inspection
30. B. Continuous Integration
31. C. To document the approach and objectives of testing
32. C. Validation testing
33. C. Ensuring that changes don't adversely affect existing functionality
34. B. Black-box testing
35. C. Assessing the user interface and user experience
36. B. Developing critical thinking and problem-solving skills
37. C. Real-world relevance and authenticity
38. B. Facilitator and guide
39. D. To promote teamwork and communication skills
40. D. Assessment based on project outcomes and process
 BIT International College
Siquijor,Siquijor
College of Education
Final Exam/ELT 3
Issue Date Prepared by: Reviewed by: Approved by:

Erma Mae M. Jumalon Zosima L. Revita,Ph.D Valentina D. Ramiso, Ph. D.

Instructor Program Chair Dean

Examination Period/Subject

Name: ___________________________________________________ Admission Number: _______________

Date Administered: ____________________ Score: __________________

Multiple Choice : Read and encircle the correct answer.

1. What is the primary purpose of ethical considerations in research?

a) To ensure profit generation
b) To provide participants with incentives
c) To protect the rights and well-being of participants
d) To increase the speed of research
2. Which ethical principle emphasizes telling the truth and not deceiving participants?
a) Autonomy
b) Justice
c) Beneficence
d) Veracity

3. Informed consent means:

a) Forcing participants to join the study
b) Participants being aware of the study's purpose and agreeing to participate
c) Keeping participants uninformed
d) Ignoring participants' rights
4. What does the term "confidentiality" in research ethics refer to?
a) Sharing participants' information widely
b) Keeping participants' information private
c) Selling participants' data
d) Publishing all details without consent
5. Which ethical principle relates to treating individuals fairly and distributing benefits and burdens
equally?
a) Autonomy b) Veracity
c) Justice
d) Beneficence
6. Harm to participants in research is:
a) Always acceptable if the results are important
b) Never permissible
c) Only acceptable if approved by the research institution
d) Permissible if the benefits outweigh the risks
7. What is the role of the Institutional Review Board (IRB) in research ethics?
a) To maximize profit for researchers
b) To oversee and approve research involving human participants
c) To promote research without any oversight
d) To dictate research methodologies
8. Which ethical principle focuses on doing no harm and maximizing potential benefits?
a) Autonomy
b) Justice
c) Beneficence
9. Coercion in research refers to:
a) Providing too much information to participants
b) Forcing participants to provide false information
c) Forcing or compelling participants to participate against their will
d) Involving too many participants in a study
10. Which ethical principle respects individuals' right to make decisions about their participation?
a) Justice
b) Beneficence
c) Autonomy
d) Veracity
11. Which is NOT a component of informed consent?
a) Participants' awareness of potential risks
b) A detailed scientific explanation of the research process
c) Participants' right to withdraw at any time
d) Participants' age and gender information
12. What does debriefing involve in research?
a) Recruiting participants
b) Obtaining informed consent
c) Providing participants with information after the study
d) Reporting research findings

13. Which of the following is an example of plagiarism in research ethics?

a) Referencing a source properly
b) Using someone else's ideas without giving credit
c) Discussing findings with colleagues
d) Citing common knowledge
14. Which ethical consideration ensures that participants can withdraw from the study at any time
without penalty?
a) Confidentiality
b) Beneficence
c) Autonomy
d) Veracity
15. Which ethical principle emphasizes the researcher's duty to do good and promote the well-being
of participants?
a) Autonomy
b) Justice
c) Beneficence
d) Veracity
16. Which of the following is NOT a common objective of professional development?
A) Enhancing technical skills
B) Developing leadership abilities
C) Reducing employee salaries
D) Improving interpersonal skills
17. What does CPD stand for?
A) Continuous Personal Development
B) Certified Professional Degree
C) Career Pathway Development
D) Continuous Professional Development

18. Which of the following is a benefit of ongoing professional development?

A) Decreased job satisfaction
B) Stagnation in skills
C) Increased employability
D) Reduced job opportunities
19. What is the primary purpose of a mentor in professional development?
A) To evaluate performance metrics
B) To provide emotional support only
C) To guide and advise
D) To critique without feedback
20. Which method is NOT typically used for professional development?
A) Online courses
B) Annual leave
C) Workshops and seminars
D) Job shadowing
21. Which skill is often considered a soft skill in professional development?
A) Computer programming
B) Time management
C) Financial analysis
D) Technical writing
22. What does SWOT stand for in the context of professional development planning?
A) Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
B) Skills, Work, Objectives, Training
C) Success, Workload, Outcome, Teamwork
D) Strategy, Work, Objectives, Training

23. Why is feedback crucial in professional development?

A) It helps in job termination.
B) It promotes continuous improvement.
C) It reduces collaboration.
D) It limits skill development.
24.Which statement best describes the concept of lifelong learning in professional development?
A) Learning is only relevant for young professionals.
B) Learning stops after formal education ends.
C) Professionals should cease learning after a certain age.
D) Continuous learning is essential throughout one's career.
25. What does the term "upskilling" refer to in professional development?
A) Downsizing the workforce
B) Training employees for a different role
C) Reducing employee benefits
D) Enhancing skills and knowledge in current roles
26.What is the primary goal of Project-Based Learning (PBL)?
A) To memorize facts and figures.
B) To develop soft skills only.
C) To promote deep understanding through real-world projects.
D) To focus solely on theoretical knowledge.
27.Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of effective PBL?
A) Student autonomy and voice.
B) Isolated tasks without relevance.
C) Collaboration among students.
D) Real-world connection.

28.In PBL, who primarily takes the role of a facilitator?

A) Students.
B) Experts from the industry.
C) Teachers.
D) Parents.
29.What does the 'driving question' in PBL serve as?
A) A question for the final exam.
B) A way to assess students.
C) A central, open-ended question that guides the project.
D) A question to be ignored during the project.
30. Which of the following is a benefit of PBL?
A) Standardized outcomes.
B) Passive learning.
C) Memorization of unrelated facts.
D) Improved problem-solving skills.

31. How does PBL support 21st-century skills development?

A) By encouraging rote memorization.
B) By promoting collaboration, critical thinking, and creativity.
C) By focusing only on textbook knowledge.
D) By avoiding technology integration.
32. Which stage in PBL involves students researching, experimenting, and exploring?
A) Reflection.
B) Presentation.
C) Production.
D) Investigation.

33.Why is reflection important in PBL?

A) It allows students to memorize facts.
B) It helps students identify what they've learned and how to improve.
C) It's a requirement for grading.
D) It provides a platform for teachers to give feedback.

34.In PBL, what role does technology often play?

A) As a replacement for teacher-led instruction.
B) As a tool for research, collaboration, and presentation.
C) As a distraction from the project.
D) As a way to avoid hands-on tasks.
35.Which of the following best describes a successful PBL project?
A) A project with predefined answers.
B) A project where students are passive recipients.
C) A project where students are actively engaged and produce authentic work.
D) A project without real-world connections.
36.How can assessment be integrated into PBL effectively?
A) Through standardized tests only.
B) Through regular quizzes and exams.
C) Through authentic and continuous assessment methods.
D) Through teacher-centered evaluations only.
37.What role does collaboration play in PBL?
A) It's not essential; individual work is more effective.
B) It's limited to the final presentation.
C) It's a cornerstone, promoting teamwork and shared responsibility.
D) It's only for selecting project topics.
38.Which aspect is often central to PBL?
A) Memorizing textbook content.
B) Completing worksheets.
C) Real-world problem-solving.
D) Avoiding practical applications.

39.What does scaffolding mean in the context of PBL?

A) Providing the entire solution to students.
B) Offering support and guidance as students work on their projects.
C) Assigning multiple projects simultaneously.
D) Ignoring students' progress.
40. How does PBL relate to lifelong learning skills?
A) It discourages continuous learning.
B) It promotes a fixed mindset.
C) It fosters a love for learning and skills that are relevant beyond school.
D) It focuses solely on short-term goals.
 BIT International College
Siquijor,Siquijor
College of Education
Final Exam/ELT 3
Issue Date Prepared by: Reviewed by: Approved by:

Erma Mae M. Jumalon Zosima L. Revita,Ph.D Valentina D. Ramiso, Ph. D.

Instructor Program Chair Dean

Answer Key/Subject
1. c) To protect the rights and well-being of participants
2. d) Veracity
3. b) Participants being aware of the study's purpose and agreeing to participate
4. b) Keeping participants' information private
5. c) Justice
6. d) Permissible if the benefits outweigh the risks
7. b) To oversee and approve research involving human participants
8. c) Beneficence
9. c) Forcing or compelling participants to participate against their will
10. c) Autonomy
11. b) A detailed scientific explanation of the research process
12. c) Providing participants with information after the study
13. b) Using someone else's ideas without giving credit
14. c) Autonomy
15. c) Beneficence
16. C) Reducing employee salaries
17. A) Continuous Personal Development
18. C) Increased employability
19. C) To guide and advise
20. B) Annual leave
21. B) Time management
22. A) Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats
23. B) It promotes continuous improvement.
24. D) Continuous learning is essential throughout one's career.
25. D) Enhancing skills and knowledge in current roles
26. C) To promote deep understanding through real-world projects.
27. B) Isolated tasks without relevance.
28. C) Teachers.
29. C) A central, open-ended question that guides the project.
30. D) Improved problem-solving skills.
31. B) By promoting collaboration, critical thinking, and creativity.
32. D) Investigation.
33. B) It helps students identify what they've learned and how to improve.
34. B) As a tool for research, collaboration, and presentation.
35. C) A project where students are actively engaged and produce authentic work.
36. C) Through authentic and continuous assessment methods.
37. C) It's a cornerstone, promoting teamwork and shared responsibility.
38. C) Real-world problem-solving.
39. B) Offering support and guidance as students work on their projects.
40. C) It fosters a love for learning and skills that are relevant beyond school.