Basic C1
1. If an airworthy aircraft is sold, what is done with the Certificate of Airworthiness
a. It must be endorsed by a license holder to indicate that the aircraft is still airworthy
b. It becomes invalid until the aircraft is re-inspected and returned to service
c. It is declared void and new certificate is issued upon application by the new owner
d. It is transferred with the aircraft
2. Which part of the Directorate General of Air Communications governs the issuance of a
Certificate of Airworthiness
a. Part 23
b. Part 21
c. Part 25
d. Part 39
3. Which of the following issues Airworthiness Directive
a. National Transportation Safety Board
b. Air Transport Association
c. Manufacturers
d. Directorate General of Air Communication
4. Which of the following is generally contained in Aircraft Spesifications or Type
Certificate Data Sheet
a. Empty weight of the aircraft
b. Useful load of aircraft
c. Payload of aircraft
d. Control surface movements
5. Which of the following would provide information regarding instrument range markings
for an airplane certificate in the normal category
a. CASR Part 21
b. CASR Part 25
c. CASR Part 91
d. CASR Part 23
6. What is the maintenance recording responsibility of the person who complies with an
Airworthiness Directive
a. Advise the aircraft owner/operator of the work performed
b. Make an entry in the maintenance record of the equipment
c. Advise the DGAC office of the work performed by submitting a DGAC Form 43-337
d. Record entry is not required of the person performing the work. The aircraft
owner/operator is responsible for recording maintenance
7. The AME holders of Ratings in Category Airframe and Engine may exercise the
following privilege
a. Certify for satisfactory completion of major repairs
b. Sign the certificates of approved maintenance organization
c. Certify fitness for flight on a maintenance release
d. All answer are correct
Basic C1
8. Who has the authority to approve an aircraft for return to service after a 100-hour
inspection
a. The holder of an AME license
b. The holder of an Approved Maintenance Organization
c. Both answer A and B
d. A person working under supervision of a holder AME license
9. Who is primarily responsible for the airworthiness of its aircraft, including airframe,
aircraft engines, propellers, appliances and part thereof
a. AMO certificate holder
b. Air Operator Certificate holder
c. DGCA
d. Manufacturer
10. With respect to maintenance time record, time in service means
a. Time recorded from the moment the aircraft begins to taxi until it returns to the ramp
b. Time as recorded on the Hobbs meter
c. Time from the moment an aircraft leaves the surface of the earth until it touches it at
next point of landing
d. Time as recorded on the flight data recording start working
11. A thyristor is commonly used for
a. Overvolts regulation
b. Voltage regulation
c. Rectification
d. Current regulation
12. The voltage drop of a silicon diode is
a. 5 volt
b. 1 volt
c. 0.7 volt
d. 0.3 volt
13. Forward biasing of a solid state device will cause the device to
a. Conduct via Zener breakdown
b. Conduct via resistor breakdown
c. Conduct
d. Turn off
14. In an N-P-N transistor application, the solid state device is turned on when the
a. Base is positive with respect to the emitter
b. Base is negative with respect to the emitter
c. Emitter is positive with respect to the base
d. Collector is positive with respect to the base
15. The common collector amplifier is sometimes called the emitter follower circuit because
the emitter voltage follows the
a. Collector voltage
b. Collector current
c. Emitter voltage
d. Base voltage
Basic C1
16. A FET when compared to a junction transistor is
a. Low voltage
b. High current
c. Low impedance
d. High impedance
17. If the reverse bias voltage across a diode is too high the load current
a. Reduces to zero
b. Increases rapidly
c. Reverses
d. Same as its resistant
18. Typical application for zener diodes is as
a. Full-wave rectifiers
b. Half-wave rectifiers
c. Voltage regulators
d. Current divider
19. Which logic gate can be represented as a parallel circuit
a. OR gate
b. NOR gate
c. NAND gate
d. Exclusive OR gate
20. What is the advantages of series over parallel message sending
a. Only one pair of conductors
b. More information sent
c. Quicker
d. Only one pair of conductors
21. The binary coded decimal number 110010 expressed as a decimal number is
a. 80
b. 50
c. 34
d. 27
22. An ARINC 429 bus uses
a. A twisted shielded pair of wires
b. Two bi-directional twin sheathed and earthed wires
c. A single twin wire cable for each transmitter
d. A triple synchro wire cable for each transmitter
23. An ARINC 429 system uses a
a. 16-bit word over a bi-directional bus
b. 20-bit word over a twisted pair of wires
c. 28 bit word over a twisted pair of wires
d. 32 bit word over a twisted pair of wires
24. An ARINC 429 word label format is
a. Hexadecimal
b. Octal
c. Binary
Basic C1
d. Decimal
25. The purpose of the parity bit on an ARINC 429 bus is to indicate
a. If the data is analogue
b. That the data is digital
c. To the receiver that the data is valid
d. To the receiver which the data is transferred
26. What is serial to parallel and vice-versa called
a. Switching
b. Flip Flop register
c. Encoder / Decoder
d. Multiplex / Demultiplex
27. In an ARINC 429 wordstring, bits 1 to 8 represent the
a. Destination LRU address
b. Monitored parameter
c. Source sign matrix
d. Message
28. ARINC 573 is related to what system
a. Weather Radar
b. FDR
c. INS
d. Auto Flight
29. On an EFIS system the weather radar is displayed on the
a. FMC CDU
b. EADI
c. EHSI
d. EICAS
30. If the glideslope pointer is below the centre mark the aircraft is
a. On the ground
b. Below the glideslope
c. On the glideslope
d. Above the glideslope
31. A weather radar image can be displayed on the ND on all modes except
a. ARC
b. PLAN
c. VOR Rose
d. NAV Rose
32. What does EICAS mean
a. Electronic indicator and control alerting system
b. Engine indicating and Crew alerting system
c. Electronic indicator and crew alerting system
d. Engine indicating and cabin addressing system
Basic C1
33. What does ECAM mean
a. Engine Centralised Aircraft Management System
b. Engine Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System
c. Electronic Cabin Aircraft Monitoring System
d. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System
34. What is the colour of the middle marker beacon
a. Amber
b. Red
c. Blue
d. White
35. The advantage of VHF communication over HF communications is
a. Long range capability
b. High fidelity sound
c. Line of sight transmission
d. Satellite communication capability
36. HIRF is acronym for
a. Heavily Ionised Radio Frequencies
b. High Intensity Radiated Field
c. High Intensity Radio Frequencies
d. Heavily Intereference Radiated Field
37. To reduce HIRF on radio equipment
a. Ensure all static wicks are in place
b. Periodically check bonding leads for condition
c. Transmit on all radio frequencies to determine which frequencies are causing the
interference
d. Ensure all static wicks are in place
38. Static discharge help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into the
atmosphere at
a. High voltage levels
b. High current levels
c. Low resistance levels
d. Low current levels
39. A flight deck CRT LRU is being replaced. What does the ESDS label indicate
a. Wrist straps should be warn
b. Do not touch plug pins or leave them exposed
c. Remove power before connecting
d. Do not trow plug pins or leave them exposed
40. VHF communication is Line of Sight which mean
a. The higher the aircraft is flying the greater the range that can be expected
b. The aircraft needs to fly low to stay in the direct line of sight
c. You must always be able to see the another radio visually so range is never greater
than 30NM
d. None of the above
Basic C1
41. In general, the purpose of an aircraft transponder is to
a. Monitor aircraft speed, altitude, heading, and attitude whenever the autopilot system
is engaged
b. Continuously transmit heading, speed, rate of climb information to ATC
c. Receive an integration signal from a ground station and automatically send a replay
back
d. Indicate the distance of the airplane is from the end of the runway
42. During testing of ATC altitude function the pressure altimeter is set to
a. Sea level pressure
b. 1013.25 hPa
c. 1010 hPa
d. Prevailing local pressure obtain from the control tower
43. ACARS in an acronym for
a. ARINC Communicating Addressing and Reporting System
b. Airborne Communicating Addressing and Reporting System
c. Aircraft Communicating Addressing and Reporting System
d. Aircraft Communication, Avionic and Radio System
44. The position of aircraft relative to the VOR station is refer to as
a. Bearing
b. Radial
c. Course
d. Heading
45. Aircraft heading (HDG) is the angle between
a. True north and the actual track
b. True north and the desired track
c. True north and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
d. Magnetic north and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
46. TO-FROM pointer on a Horizon Situation Ind is operated by an output signal of
a. ADF
b. DME
c. ILS
d. VOR
47. Airborne equipment used to determine the distance of an aircraft to a ground station is
the
a. ADF
b. DME
c. ILS
d. VOR
48. The working principle of DME system is the conversion of
a. Triangulation process
b. Successive integration of acceleration function
c. Transmitting signal and reflecting signal elapsed time
d. Transmitting signal and replay signal elapsed time
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49. Azimuth calculated by ADF receiver is then added to the magnetic heading to obtain
a. Relative bearing
b. Magnetic bearing
c. Quadrantile bearing
d. Heading bearing
50. The function of ADF sense antenna is used to receive
a. Bearing information
b. Heading information
c. Distance information
d. Identification information
51. Part of the ADF system used on aircraft includes
a. Sense and loop antennas
b. RMI indicator antenna
c. Marker beacon antenna
d. Glideslope and Localizer antenna
52. The loop antenna of ADF system is used to receive
a. Bearing information
b. Distance information
c. Satellite communication
d. Altitude information
53. A DME antenna should be located in a position on the aircraft that will
a. Permit interruptions in DME operation
b. Eliminate the radiate of the DME
c. Eliminate the possibility of the DME locking on a station
d. Not be blanked by the wing when the aircraft is banked
54. The purpose of a localizer is to
a. Set the airplane on the proper approach angle to the runway
b. Align the airplane with the center of the runway
c. Provide for automatic altitude reporting to a ground station
d. Indicate the distance the airplane is from the end of the runway
55. Localizer and Glideslope of ILS properly followed will guide or direct the aircraft to land
on the
a. Runway centre line
b. Front of the runway
c. Centre touch down zone
d. Threshold down zone
56. The purpose of Glideslope system is to
a. Assist the pilot in marking correct angle of descend to the runway
b. Align the aircraft with the centre of the runway
c. Provide for automatic altitude reporting to a ground station
d. Indicate the distance the aircraft is from ground station
Basic C1
57. Whats colour of lamp of the marker beacons which flash to indicate that the aircraft is
passing over the middle marker
a. Red
b. Amber
c. Blue
d. White
58. The marker beacon transmitter operates in frequency of
a. 75 Mhz
b. 121,5 Mhz
c. 108.0 Mhz - 112.0 Mhz
d. 329.3 Mhz - 335.0 Mhz
59. Doublers are used whe antennas are installed to
a. Reinstate the structural strength of the aircraft skin
b. Prevent moisturize built up on the skin
c. Prevent oil canning of the skin
d. Eliminate antenna vibration
60. How may the battery replacement date be verified for an emergency locator transmitter
(ELT)
a. By activating the transmitter and measuring the signal strength
b. By triggering the transmitter on test-mode for measuring the signal strength in 1
minute
c. By observing the battery replacement date marked on the outside the transmitter
d. By removing the batteries and testing them under a measured load to determine if
50 percent of the useful life remains
61. An emergency locator transmitter (ELT) battery must be capable of furnishing power for
signal transmission for at least
a. 48 hours
b. 72 hours
c. 36 hours
d. 24 hours
62. What are the outputsfrom digital clocks used for
a. Flight data acquisition unit, Flight management computer and Voice recorder
b. VOR, ILS and DME
c. Weather Radar, TCAS and ACARS
d. ADIRU ( Air Data Inertial Unit )
63. Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System is used to
a. Make telephone calls
b. Allow the pilot of an aircraft to talk to base
c. Download aircraft status reports
d. Print aircraft status maintenance reports
64. IRS accelerometers are mounted
a. 300 to each other
b. 450 to each other
c. 600 to each other
d. 900 to each other
Basic C1
65. An IRS Laser gyro provides detection of the
a. Speed of the gyro used to detect aircraft position
b. Rate of movement about an aircraft axis
c. Earths gravitational force to establish true north
d. Earths rotation to establish true north
66. In a fly by wire system , if the pilot control input is derived from a side stick controller
a. There is no control surface feedback to the stick
b. Control surface feedback is fed to the side stick
c. There will be only control surface feedback to the side stick after a computer failure
d. No respond from the control surface
67. A basic IRS platform has
a. 2 accelerometers and 2 laser gyros
b. 2 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros
c. 3 accelerometers and 2 laser gyros
d. 3 accelerometers and 3 laser gyros
68. An FMS navigation database is updated
a. Once a month
b. Every 28 days
c. Every 60 days
d. At the operators request
69. The basic principle of radar is based upon
a. The amount of power in the signal returned
b. The rate of air humidity change
c. The time delay between outward and returning pulse
d. Ultrasonic wave propagation
70. What system does the ADC feed
a. Altimeter / FMS / secondary radar
b. Cabing pressure controller sensor / machmeter / Altimeter
c. Standby altimeter and machmeter
d. Standby Altimeter and Airspeed Indicator
71. Pitch control of a fly by wire system is achieved by
a. Stabilizer and elevator
b. Rudder and Wheel steering
c. Elevators only
d. Stabilizer only
72. Which of the following provides manual maneuverability of the aircraft while the
autopilot is engaged
a. Servo amplifier
b. Turn and Bank Indicator
c. Flight controller
d. Flight Director on Attitude indicator / PFD
Basic C1
73. In an autopilot which signal nullifies the input signal to the ailerons
a. Course signal
b. Command signal
c. Followup signal
d. Displacement signal
74. What component of an autopilot system applies torque to the control surface of an
aircraft
a. Gyro
b. Servo
c. Amplifier
d. Controller
75. What is the main purpose of a servo in an autopilot system
a. Move the control surface as commanded
b. Correct for displacement of the aircraft about its axis
c. Change mechanical energy to electrical energy
d. Give an accurate indication of autopilot system
76. What component is the sensing device in an electromechanical autopilot system
a. Servo
b. Gyro
c. Controller
d. Symbol Generator
77. Dutch roll, a combination yawing and rolling oscillation that affects many sweptwing
aircraft, is counteracted with
a. A flight director system
b. A yam damper system
c. Auto Thrust System
d. An aileron damper system
78. A radar altimeter determines altitude by
a. Transmitting a signal and receiving back a reflected signal
b. Means of transponder interrogation
c. Receiving signal transmitted from other aircraft to avoid collision
d. Receiving signal transmitted from ground radar stations
79. A radar altimeter indicates
a. Altitude above sea level
b. Altitude above ground level
c. Flight level (pressure) altitude
d. Flight level from the nearest ground station
80. The rising runway is positioned from information derived from
a. Barometric height
b. Radio altimeter
c. Vertical speed
d. GPS altimeter
Basic C1
81. An IRS Laser gyro provides detection of the
a. Rate of movement about an aircraft axis
b. Rate of static pressure change
c. Earths gravitational force to establish true north
d. Earths rotation to establish true north
82. What is the aircraft system used to alert the flight crew to the existence condition due to
terrain proximity (this system reduce CFIT)
a. IVSI
b. EICAS
c. GPS
d. GPWS
83. What is the colour and orientation of the position lights for navigation on civil airplanes
a. Left side red, right side green, rear aft white
b. Left side white, right side green, rear aft red
c. Left side green, right side red, rear aft white
d. Left side blue, right side yellow, rear aft red
84. In a typical Glass Cockpit EICAS provides the following
a. Engine parameters and system warnings only
b. Engine parameters and engine warnings only
c. Engine warning only
d. Engine parameters and system warnings only
85. In modern aircraft, the output from the clock is used to
a. Synchronise the signals on the control bus
b. Provide a clock pulse for CRT
c. Provide a clock pulse for other system
d. Give GMT details to the flight recorder and other system
86. A method used in modern aircraft for reporting in flight faults to an engineering and
monitoring ground station is
a. TCAS II
b. ACARS
c. TAWS
d. EGPWS
87. Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitoring System
a. Performs in-flight and ground test of aircraft system by carrying out a BITE
interrogation
b. Performs in-flight BITE interrogation only
c. Give red warnings and amber cautions to display system status
d. Give local warnings and amber cautions to display system status
88. How many satellite signals are required to achieve precise 3D positioning
a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 4
Basic C1
89. The movement of fly-by-wire control surfaces are
a. Hydraulically controlled and electrically actuated
b. Both electrically controlled and electrically actuated
c. Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated
d. electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated
90. As a minimum requirement, when must a cockpit voice recorded start recording
a. From the start of the aircraft take off run
b. After take off when airborne
c. On first engine start
d. On first engine start
91. What information is required before completion of the alignment of an inertial
Navigation System
a. Aircraft present position
b. Heading and altitude
c. Aircraft present position and heading
d. Aircraft present position
92. A FMS navigation database is updated
a. Once a month
b. Every A week
c. Every 28 days
d. At the operator request
93. The minimum requirement for a cockpit voice recorder to begin operating is
a. On engine start-up
b. On commencing the take off roll
c. Once established in the en-route climb
d. On engine start-up
94. Aircraft Communications Addressing and Reporting System is used to
a. Download aircraft status reports
b. Make telephone calls
c. Allow the pilot of an aircraft to talk to base
d. Download aircraft status reports
95. In modern aircraft, the output from the clock is used to
a. Synchronise the signals on the control bus
b. Provide a clock pulse for CRT
c. Give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems
d. Give GMT details to the flight recorder and other systems
96. In the landing configuration GPWS typically monitors the radio (radar) altimeter, air
data computer, instrument landing system and
a. Landing gear and flap positions
b. Aileron, elevator, and rudder positions
c. Aileron, rudder, and elevator positions
d. Spoiler, slat, and stabilizer positions
Basic C1
97. What is the fixed line mark attached to the compass bowl of a magnetic compass
called
a. Course line
b. Lubber line
c. Reference line
d. Reeder line
98. When swinging a magnetic compass, the compensators are adjusted to correct for
a. Magnetic influence deviation
b. Magnetic variations
c. Damping compensation
d. Compass card oscillations
99. Magnetic compass bowl are filled with a liquid to
a. Retard precession of the float
b. Reduce temperature effect
c. Reduce deviation errors
d. Dampen the oscillation of the float
100. One of purposes for schematic diagrams is to show the
a. Functional location of components within a system
b. Physically location of components within a system
c. Size and shape of components within a system
d. Finding a part number of a system part
