QP CODE:

FOURTH SEMESTER UNIVERSITY EXAMINATION AUGUST 2024

B.Sc. ANIMATION AND MULTIMEDIA/B.Sc. GAME DESIGN AND DEVELOPMENT/ B.Sc.VISUAL
COMMUNICATION
INDIA AND INDIAN CONSTITUTION
2.5 Hours Max. Marks: 60

Instruction: Answer all sections

Q 1) National emergency is declared under which of the following articles?

a. Article 358

b. Article 352

c. Article 359

d. Article 360

Q 2) National emergency proclamation is issued in case of?

a. Armed rebellion

b. External aggression

c. War

d. All the above

Q 3) proclamation of emergency under article 352 is issued by which one of the

following?

a. Prime minister

b. President

c. Defence minister

d. Home minister

Q 4) emergency under article 356 is imposed by which one of the below?

a. Prime minister

b. Governor

c. Vice-president’

d. President
Q 5) Financial emergency is imposed under article?

a. Article 354

b. Article 365

c. Article 367

d. Article 360

Q 6) In real sense the Governor of the State is appointed by the President on the
advice of the following…….

a. Prime Minister

b. Chief Minister

c. Vice-President

d. Chief Justice

Q 7) The Governor of the State can be removed by which one of the following?

a. Chief Minister

b. Prime Minister

c. Union Home Minister

d. President

Q 8) Which of the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor?

a. Selection of Chief Minister

b. Provide advice to the President regarding President’s rule in the concerned state.

c. Returning back the bill to the State legislature for reconsideration.

d. All the above

Q 9) Among which of the followings are appointed by the Governor?

a. Advocate General

b. Chief secretary of the State

c. Vice-chancellors of universities

d. All the above

Q 10) Which one of the following article deals with the Governor of States?

a. Article 150

b. Article 153

c. Article 165

d. Article 167

Q 11Which of the following article of the Indian Constitution deals with the
constitution of the Parliament of India?

A. Article 73

B. Article 78

C. Article 79

D. Article 72

Q 12. Which of the following article deals with the composition of council of states (
Rajya sabha) and the manner of election of its members?

A. Article 82

B. Article 81

C. Article 90

D. Article 80

Q. 13 The representatives of the state in the Rajya sabha are elected by which one
of the following?

A. Chief minister of the state

B. Elected members of the state legislative assembly

C. Governor

D. President

Q.14. The number of representatives of the Rajya sabha from states and union
territories are among which one of the following?

A. 238

B. 212

C. 200
D. 220

Q.15. How many number of members are nominated by the President to the Rajya
sabha?

A. 20

B. 18

C. 12

D. 15

Q.16. Which among the following is not a standing committee?

A. Public accounts committee

B. Ethics committee

C. Railway convention committee

D. Business advisory committee

Q.17. Consider the following statements. Which among them is/are NOT true?

I. Standing Committees are the permanent committees that are constituted on a regular
basis

II. Ad hoc committees are temporary committees that are dissolved when the task is
completed

III. Committee of Privileges is an ad-hoc committee

IV. Joint Committee on Fertilizer pricing is a standing committee

A. Only III and IV

B. Only I and II

C. Only I and III

D. Only II and IV

Q.18. What among the following is NOT true about the Public Accounts Committee?
I. The committee was first set up in 1919

II. It's main function is to audit the annual reports of Comptroller and Auditor General of
India (CAG)

III. It consists of 15 Lok Sabha members and 7 Rajya Sabha members

IV. The term of the office of the Public Accounts Committee is one year

A. Only I

B. Only II

C. Only III

D. All are true

Q.19. Which among the following is NOT true about the Estimates Committee?

I. The first Estimates Committee of the post-independence era was first set up in 1950

II. Estimates Committee has a right to question the policies approved by the Parliament

III. It consists of members that are both from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

IV. Chairman of the Estimates Committee is always from the Opposition party

A. Only IV

B. Only III

C. Only II and IV

D. Only II, III and IV

Q.20. Consider the following statements about the Committee on Government

Assurances. Which of the following is/are not true?
A. It was constituted in 1953

B. Its main function is to examine the assurances and undertakings given by the ministers
on the floor of the House and report back on the status of these assurances and promises

C. For the Lok Sabha, it consists of 15 members

D. For the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 10 members

Q.21. Which of the following is not a feature of Election system in India?

A. Universal Adult Franchise
B. Secret Voting
C. Reservation of seats in the legislature for the members of Scheduled Castes and
Scheduled Tribes
D. Communal Electorate

Q.22. Elections in India for Parliament and State Legislatures are conducted by.....
A. President
B. State Election Commission
C. Governor
D. Election Commission of India

Q.23. Members of Election Commission are appointed by........

A. President of India
B. Prime Minister of India
C. Elected by the people
D. Chief Justice of India

Q24. Which article of the Indian constitution says that will be an election
commission in India?
A. Article 124
B. Article 342
C. Article 324
D. Article 115

Q25. The number of seats reserved for scheduled caste in the Lok sabha is:
A. 59
B. 79
C. 89
D. 99
Q26. Which Articles in the Constitution give provisions for the electoral system in
our country?
A. Articles 124-128
B. Articles 324-329
C. Articles 256-259
D. Articles 274-279

Q27. The elections for Lok Sabha are held every:

A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. 6 years

Q28. Which among the following statements is/are false?

1. For qualifying to the Lok Sabha, a person must be at least 25 years of age
2. A person can be a member of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha at the same time
3. A person belonging to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe can contest elections
from a general seal also, and not just with the reserved seat
4. If a member of either of the Houses votes against the directions given by his party, he
can be deemed to be disqualified
Code:
A. Only 1
B. Only 2 and 4
C. Only 3
D. Only 2
Q29. What is the maximum allowed duration between the last session of the
dissolved Lok Sabha and the recalling of the Lok Sabha?
A. 2 months
B. 4 months
C. 5 months
D. 6 months

Q30. Which is the smallest Lok Sabha Constituency in General Elections by area?
A. Delhi Sadar
B. Mumbai South
C. Kolkata North West
D. Chandni Chowk, Delhi

Q31.Which of the following article of Indian Constitution dealt with the appointment
of attorney general of India?

(a) Article 72

(b) Article 74

(c) Article 76

(d) Article 68

Q32. Which of the following is true about the Attorney General of India?

(a) He has the right of audience in all the courts in India

(b) His term of the office and remuneration is decided by the president

(c) He advices the Government of India

(d) All the above

Q33. Who is the highest legal officer of the Union Government of India?

(a) Attorney General of India

(b) CAG

(c) President

(d) Solicitor General of India

Q34. To be eligible for appointment as Attorney General of India, a person must

possess the qualifications prescribed for a............

(a) Judge of Supreme Court of India

(b) Judge of a high court

(c) A renown lawyer

(d) Solicitor General of India

Q35. Which one is not true about the Attorney General of India?

(a) He is the legal advisor to the Government of India

(b) His tenure and salary is decided by the President

(c) He has the voting right in the proceeding of the Parliament

(d) He appears before high courts and Supreme Court in cases involving union
government.

Q36. Who prepared the preamble of the Indian Constitution?

(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru

(b) Vallabh Bhai Patel

(c) Rajendra Prasad

(d) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Q37. Preamble of our country reads that India is a …………

(a) Sovereign & secular

(b) Secular & Democratic

(c) Secular, Sovereign, Democratic

(d) Secular, Sovereign, Democratic, Democratic and Republic

Q38. Which of the following describes India as a secular state

(a) Fundamental rights

(b) Directive principles of state policy

(c) Fifth schedule

(d) Preamble of the Constitution

Q39. Inclusion of the word “ fraternity is proposed by

(a) Dr. Ambedkar

(b) J.L. Nehru

(c) J.B. Kriplani

(d) Shyama Prasad Mukherjee

Q40. Supreme court held that the Preamble is not a part of the constitution in which
of the following cases:

(a) Berubari Union case (1960) and Kesavanand Bharti case (1973)

(b) Unni Krishnan vs Union of India

(c) Minnerva Mills vs. the union of India and other states

(d) Sunil Batra vs. Delhi Government

Q41.Who said that the preamble is the keynote to the constitution?

(a) Earnest Barker

(b) B.R. Ambedkar

(c) K.M. Munshi

(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru

Q42. Which feature of Indian constitution is not taken from American constitution?

(a) Preamble

(b) Single citizenship

(c) Judicial Review

(d) Fundamental Rights

Q43. Procedure for the amendment of the constitution is taken form:

(a) USA

(b) Russia

(c) South Africa

(d) Canada

Q44. The concept of Federal System in Indian constitution is taken from:

(a) Ireland

(b) Australia

(c) Germany

(d) Canada

Q45. Which of the following statement is true regarding the Indian constitution?

(a) Law making procedure is taken from Britain

(b) Concept of single citizenship is taken from United kingdom

(c) Concept of judicial review is taken from Canada

(d) Appointment of the governor in different states is taken from Australia

Q.46. Which Government of India Act has the most influence on the current
constitution of India?

(a) Government of India Act, 1935

(b) Pits India Act, 1784

(c) Government of India Act, 1919

(d) Indian Constitution Act,1909

Q.47. The Idea of a constituent assembly to frame a constitution for India was first
mooted by:

(a) M.N. Roy in 1927

(b) Indian National Congress in 1936

(c) The Muslim League in 1905

(d) The all parties conference in 1946

Q.48. Article 17 of the Indian constitution is related to:

(a) Prohibition of Child labour

(b) Equality before law

(c) Prohibition of untouchability

(d) Abolition of Titles

Q.49. Under which Article, Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion,

race, caste, sex and place of birth is mentioned:

(a) Article 17

(b) Article 14
(c) Article 17

(d) Article 15

Q.50. Article 21A of Indian constitution deals with:

(a) Protection against arrest and detection in certain cases

(b) Right to education

(c) Freedom of speech

(d) Equality before law

Q.51To which of the following states, Article 370 if the Indian constitution is
related:

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Meghalaya

(c) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Jammu & Kashmir

Q52. Article 370 is drafted in the part………of the Indian Constitution.

(a) XXI

(b) XIX

(c) XII

(d) IXX

Q53. Article 370 which gives special status to Jammu & Kashmir exist in the Indian
constitution because of the agreement between............

(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru and Farukh Abdullah

(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru and Maharaja Hari Singh

(c) Ballabh Bhai Patel and Maharaja Hari Singh

(d) Muhammad Ali Jinnah and J.L. Nehru

Q.54. Which statement is NOT correct about the Jammu& Kashmir

(a) Jammu & Kashmir has its own Constitution.

(b) No decision regarding the disposition of the state of the Jammu& Kashmir can be
made by the government of India without the consent of the state government.

(c) Residuary power in respect of Jammu & Kashmir rest with the state government and
not the union government.

(d) All of the above are incorrect.

Q.55. Which Indian state has its own constitution?

(a) Sikkim

(b) Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Meghalaya

(d) None of these

Q.56. Under which ministry, Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)

organisation comes:

(a) Ministry of Finance

(b) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

(c) Ministry of Foreign Trade

(d) Home Ministry

Q.57. When the Directorate General of Anti-Dumping & Allied Duties was was
constituted?

(a) 1998

(b) 1988

(c) 1963

(d) 1985

Q.58. Which one of the following is a subordinate office?

(a) Offices of Development Commissioner of Special Economic Zones (SEZs)

(b) Directorate General of Anti-Dumping & Allied Duties (DGAD)

(c) Directorate General of Supplies and Disposal (DGS&D)

(d) Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)

Q.59. Where is the head quarter of the Directorate General of Foreign Trade
(DGFT)?

(a) Mumbai

(b) Bangaluru

(c) New Delhi

(d) kolkata

Q.60. Where is the head office of pay and accounts office (supply)?

(a) Kolkata

(b) New Delhi

(c) Dehradun

(d) Mumbai