Test ID : 211

GREEN PARK EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS, NAMAKKAL

.CUMULATIVE TEST - 3)
Std : XI (S.B - NEET) Max. Marks: 480
Test Date : 07.11.2022 Time : 2 Hrs.
Note :
For every correct answer four marks will be awarded. For every wrong answer one mark
will be reduced. For unanswered questions zero mark.
Choose the correct answer : 120 x 4 = 480
1. A 10 kg stone is suspended with a rope of 1) (mn-1 – mn)g sin θ 2) zero
breaking strength 30 kg-wt. The minimum 3) mng cos θ 4) None of these
time in which the stone can be raised through 4. Two weights w1 and w2 are suspended from
a height 10 m starting from rest is (taking g =
the ends of a light string passing over a
10 N/kg)
smooth fixed pulley. If the pulley is pulled up
1) 0.5 second 2) 1.0 second with acceleration g, the tension in the string
2 will be
3) s 4) 2.0 second
3 4w1w 2 2w1w 2
1) 2)
2. In the given arrangement n number of equal w1 + w 2 w1 + w 2
masses are connected by strings of negligible
w1 − w 2 w 1w 2
masses. The tension in the string connected to 3) 4)
w1 + w 2 2(w1 − w 2 )
nth mass is
5. A ball of mass 400 gm is dropped from a
height of 5m. A boy on the ground hits the ball
vertically upwards with a bat with an a
average force of 100 N, so that it attains a
vertical height of 20 m. The time for which the
ball remains in contact with the bat is
mMg mMg (g = 10 m/s2)
1) 2)
nm + M nmM 1) 0.12 second 2) 0.08 second
3) mg 4) mng
3) 0.04 second 4) 12 seconds
3. n- block of different masses are placed on the
6. A particle of mass ‘m’ is moving under the
frictionless inclined plane in contact. They are
released at the same time. The force of variable force F . If | F | is constant, then the
interaction between (n -1)th and nth block is possible path the particle can never be
1) rectilinear 2) circular
3) parabolic 4) elliptical
7. A lift is going up. The total mass of the lift
and the passenger is 1500 kg. The variation in
the speed of the lift is as given in the graph.
 2 Test ID : 211
The tension in the rope pulling the lift at t = 13. A bullet comes out of the barrel of gun of
11th seconds will be length 2m with a speed 80 m/s. The average
acceleration of the bullet is
1) 1.6 m/s2 2) 160 m/s2
3) 1600 m/s2 4) 16 m/s2
14. Three forces acting on a body are shown in the
figure. To have the resultant force only along
the y-direction, the magnitude of the minimum
1) 17400 N 2) 14700 N additional force needed is
3) 12000 N 4) zero
8. In the above question, the height to which the
lift takes the passenger is
1) 3.6 m 2) 8 m
3) 1.8 m 4) 36 m
9. A bullet moving with a velocity of 100 m/s
can just penetrate two planks of equal 3
1) N 2) 3 N
thickness. The number of such planks 4
penetrated by the same bullet, when the 3) 0.5 N 4) 1.5 N
velocity is doubled. 15. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal
1) 4 2) 6 frictionless surface by a rope of mass ‘m’.
Force P is applied at one end of rope. The
3) 8 4) 10
force which the rope exerts on the block is
10. 80 railway wagons all of same mass 5 x 103 kg
P P
are pulled by an engine with a force of 1) 2)
(M − m) M(m + M)
4 x 105N. The tension in the coupling between
30th and 31st wagon from the engine is PM PM
3) 4)
1) 25 x 104 N 2) 20 x 104 N (m + M) (M − m)
3) 32 x 104 N 4) 40 x 104 N 16. A mass M is suspended by a rope from a rigid
support at A as shown in figure. Another rope
11. A particle moves in the x-y plane under the
is tied at the end B and it is pulled horizontally
influence of a force such that its linear with a force F. If the rope AB makes an angle
momentum is p (t) = A( î cos(kt) - ĵ sin (kt)), θ with the vertical, then the tension in the
where A and k are constants. The angle string AB is
between the force and the momentum is
1) 0o 2) 30o
3) 45o 4) 90o
12. A body of mass 10 kg is moving with a
constant velocity of 10 m/s. When a constant
force acts for 4 s on it, it moves with a F
velocity 2 m/s in the opposite direction. The 1) F sin θ 2)
sin θ
acceleration produced in it is
F
1) 3 m/s2 2) – 3 m/s2 3) F cos θ 4)
cos θ
3) 0.3 m/s2 4) – 0.3 m/s2
 3 Test ID : 211
17. A rod of length L and mass M is acted on by g
1) g 2)
two unequal forces F1 and F2 (< F1) as shown 2
in the following figure. The tension in the rod g g
3) 4)
at a distance ‘y’ from the end A is given by 3 4
21. In the following figure, the pulley P1 is fixed
and the pulley P2 is movable. If W1 = W2 =
100 N, what is the angle AP2P1? (The pulleys
 y y are frictionless)
1) F1  1 −  + F2  
 L L
 y y
2) F2  1 −  + F1  
 L L
y
3) (F1 – F2) 1) 30o 2) 60o
L
3) 90o 4) 120o
4) None of these
22. If 3 equal masses of 1 kg as shown in figure
18. Bullets of 0.03 kg mass each hit a plate at the are accelerated with an acceleration a = 2 m/s2,
rate of 200 bullets per second, with a velocity then the tension, T2 is
of 50 m/s and reflect back with a velocity of
30 m/s. The average force acting on the plate
in newton is 1) 2 N 2) 6 N
1) 120 2) 180 3) 4 N 4) None of these
3) 300 4) 480 23. A force of FN is applied as shown in the
figure. Find the tension in the string between
19. Three forces are acting on a particle of mass
BC, if the friction force is negligible.
‘m’ initially in equilibrium. If the first 2 forces
(R1 and R2) are perpendicular to each other
and suddenly the third force (R3) is removed,
then the acceleration of the particle is F F
1) 2)
R3 R1 + R 2 3 2
1) 2) 3) F 4) None of these
m m
24. A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with
R − R2 R
3) 1 4) 1 a velocity 1200 m/s. The man holding it can
m m exert a maximum force of 144 N on the gun.
20. Two masses M1 = 5kg and M2 = 10 kg are How many bullets can he fire per second at the
connected at the ends of an inextensible string most?
passing over a frictionless pulley as shown. 1) One 2) Four
When the masses are released, then the 3) Two 4) Three
acceleration of the masses will be 25. A chain consisting of 5 links, each of mass
0.1 kg is lifted vertically with a constant
acceleration of 2.5 m/s2. The force of
interaction between the top link and link
immediately below it will be
1) 6.15 N 2) 4.92 N
3) 9.84 N 4) 2.46 N
 4 Test ID : 211
26. A block is dragged on a smooth plane with the 30. Three equal weights of 3 kg each are hanging
help of a rope with moves with a velocity ‘v’ on a string passing over a frictionless pulley as
as shown in the figure. The horizontally shown in figure. The tension in the string
velocity of the block is between masses II and III will be
(Take g = 10 m/s2)

v
1) v 2)
sin θ
v 1) 5 N 2) 6 N
3) v sin θ 4)
cos θ 3) 10 N 4) 20 N
27. A body of mass 3 kg hits a wall at an angle of 31. Increasing oxidation number order for
60o and returns at the same angle. The impact i) MnO ii) Mn2O iii) MnO4−
time was 0.2 second. The force exerted on the 1) i > ii > iii 2) iii < ii < i
wall 3) ii < i < iii 4) iii < i < ii
32. Which of the following is not a reducing
agent?
1) CO2 2) SO2
3) H2O2 4) NO2
33. In the reaction,
1) 150 3 N 2) 50 3 N 2Ag + 2H2SO4 → Ag2SO4 + 2H2O + SO2
3) 100 N 4) 75 3 N the sulphuric acid (H2SO4) acts as
1) reducing agent
28. A lift of mass 1000 kg which is moving with
2) oxidizing agent
acceleration of 1 m/s2 in upward direction,
then the tension developed in string which is 3) both as oxidizing and reducing agent
connected to lift is 4) neither reducing agent nor oxidizing agent
34. Which of the following is disproportionation
1) 9800 N 2) 10800 N
reaction?
3) 11000 N 4) 10000 N
1) C + O2 → CO2
29. P, Q and R are three coplanar forces acting at
2) CuSO4 + Zn → ZnSO4 + Cu
a point and are in equilibrium. Given P =
3) P4 → PH3 + H2PO2−
1.9318 kg wt (sin θ1 = 0.9659), the value of R
(in kg wt) is 4) MnO4− + Mn+2 → MnO2
35. xMnO4− + yH+ + zFe+2 → Mn+2 + Fe+3 + H2O,
x, y, z are
1) 1, 8, 5 2) 8, 1, 5
3) 2, 3, 4 4) 5, 2, 4
36. What is valency factor of KMnO4 in acidic
medium converts to Mn+2? (M.wt, E.wt of
1) 0.9659 2) 2 KMnO4 are 158, 31.6)
1 1) 2 2) 3
3) 1 4) 3) 4 4) 5
2
 5 Test ID : 211
37. Valency factor of Br2 in the reaction 44. The number of moles of oxalate ions oxidized
Br2 → Br− + BrO3− by two mole of MnO4− in the following
3 5 equation
1) 2)
5 3 MnO −4 + C2O4−2 → Mn+2 + CO2
10 12 1
3) 4) 1) 2) 5
3 5 5
38. The standard reduction potential of Mg, Al, 2 5
Cu are –2.36, –1.66, 0.34 volts respectively, 3) 4)
5 2
the order of reducing power is 45. In which of the following Cl has different
1) Mg < Al < Cu 2) Cu < Al < Mg oxidation number?
3) Al < Cu < Mg 4) Cu < Mg < Al 1) ClO2 2) CaOCl2
39. What is indicator in oxalic acid (vs) potassium 3) CaCl2 4) Cl2O7
permanganate titration? 46. Oxidation number of carbon in sequence in
1) H2C2O4 2) K2Cr2O7 C3O2 is [O=C=C=C=O]
3) Diphenyl amine 4) KMnO4 1) 2, 2, 2 2) 0, 2, 2
40. In which titrations iodine is liberated during 3) 2, 0, 2 4) 2, 0, 0
chemical reactions? 47. C3H8 + nO2 → CO2 + H2O. In this equation,
1) Permanganate titration ratio of the coefficients of CO2 and H2O is
2) Dichromate titration 1) 3 : 8 2) 3 : 4
3) Iodimetric titration 3) 8 : 3 4) 4 : 3
4) Iodometry
48. The oxidation number of sulphur in S4O6−2 is
41. Cl2 + NaOH → NaCl + NaClO3 + H2O ; 1) 2.5 2) 1.5
( E w )Cl 2
= ? (M = Molar mass of Cl2) 3) 3 4) 2
M M 49. One mole of N2H4 loses 10 moles of electrons
1) 2) to form a new compound ‘Y’. Assuming that
5 3
3M 5M all nitrogen appear in the new compound.
3) 4) What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in Y
5 3
(There is no change in oxidation state of
42. Given that E 0Fe+2 / Fe = −0.44V ,
hydrogen)
E 0Zn +2 / Zn = −0.76V , E 0Cu +2 /Cu = 0.34V . Based on
1) -1 2) -3
this data, which of the following is the 3) +3 4) +5
strongest reducing agent?
50. In which of the following reactions H2O2 is a
1) Zn 2) Cu
+2
reducing agent?
3) Zn 4) Fe
1) Cl2 + H2O2 → 2HCl + O2
43. When a strip of metallic zinc is placed in an
2) 2FeCl2 + 2HCl + H2O2 → 2FeCl3 + H2O
aqueous solution of copper sulphate, the ions
3) 2HI + H2O2 → 2H2O + I2
formed ore of
4) H2SO3 + H2O2 → H2SO4 + H2O
1) Cu+2 2) Zn+2
51. Oxidation number of chromium in CrO5 is
3) NO3− 4) NO2−
1) +6 2) +10
3) +5 4) +8
 6 Test ID : 211
52. Positive standard reduction potential indicates 59. Oxidation number of ‘H’ in NaH, H2O, H2
that redox couple is 1) +1, –1, 0 2) –1, +1, 0
1) weaker oxidizing agent than H+/H2 couple 3) –1, 0, +1 4) 0, –1, +1
2) stronger oxidizing agent than H+/H2 couple 60. Which reaction involves neither oxidation nor
3) stronger reducing agent than H+/H2 couple reduction?
4) both (1) and (3) 1) CrO4−2 → Cr2O7−2
53. Which of the following acts as reducing agent 2) Cr → CrCl3
only? 3) Na → Na+
1) H2S 2) H2SO4 4) 2S2O3−2 → S4O6−2
3) HNO3 4) Cl2 61. Statement- I : Bryophytes are attached to the
54. Which of the following acts as oxidizing agent substratum by unicellular rhizoids only
only? Statement – II : Bryophytes are attached to
1) H2SO4 2) Br2 the substratum by both uni and multicellular
3) HNO3 4) both (1) and (3) rhizoids.
55. Which of the following acts as both oxidizing 1) Both the statements are correct
agent and reducing agent? 2) Both the statements are incorrect
1) SO2 2) SO3 3) Statement- I is correct, statement – II is
3) HNO3 4) H2SO4 incorrect
56. Statement-I: Oxidation state of reducing 4) Statement- I is incorrect, statement – II is
agent is increases. correct
Statement-II : Element in maximum 62. Find out how many statements are incorrect?
oxidation number acts as oxidizing agent only A) The main plant body of the bryophytes is
1) Both statements I and II are true sporophyte
2) Both statements I and II are false B) The sex organs in bryophytes are
3) Statement I is true, II is false unicellular
4) Statement I is false, II is true C) In bryophytes antheridium produce
57. How many moles of FeSO4 reacted with one biflagellated antherozoids
mole of KMnO4 in acidic medium? D) An antherozoid fuse with male gamete and
2 produce zygote
1) 2) 5
5 1) 4 2) 3
1 1 3) 2 4) 1
3) 4)
2 5 63. Find odd one w.r.t mosses
58. SO2 under atmospheric condition changes to 1) Funaria 2) Polytrichum
SOx2-. If oxidation number of ‘S’ in SOx2- is 3) Marchantia 4) Sphagnum
+6. How many electrons are transferred in this 64. Protonema and prothallus are respectively
process and what is the value of ‘x’ 1) diploid and diploid
respectively? 2) haploid and diploid
1) 1, 2 2) 3, 4 3) diploid and haploid
3) 2, 4 4) 5, 3 4) haploid and haploid
 7 Test ID : 211
65. Statement- I : In general bryophytes are of 70. The sporophyte of mosses is
little ecological importance. 1) Parasite
Statement – II : Bryophytes are of great 2) Free living
economic importance 3) Differentiated in to root, stem and leaves
1) Both the statements are correct 4) Partial parasite
2) Both the statements are incorrect 71. Independent nature of gametophyte and
3) Statement- I is correct, statement – II is sporophyte generations can be seen in the life
incorrect cycle of
4) Statement- I is incorrect, statement – II is 1) Bryophytes 2) Pteridophytes
correct 3) Gymnosperms 4) Both (1) and (2)
66. Which of the following bryophyte is used as 72. Which of the following statement is incorrect
packing material for trans-shipment of living regarding bryophytes?
material 1) They are dependent on water for sexual
1) Marchantia 2) Funaria reproduction
3) Sphagnum 4) Polytrichum 2) The main plant body diploid
67. In liver worts after meiosis spores are 3) They usually occur in damp, humid and
produced with in the shady localities

1) Gametangium 4) They play an important role in plant

succession on bare rocks
2) Capsule
73. Which of the following along with lichens are
3) Seta and capsule
the first organisms to colonise on rocks?
4) Seta, Foot and Capsule
1) Liverworts 2) Mosses
68. Find out which statements is/are correct
3) Ferns 4) Algae
A) Marchantia reproduce asexually by 74. In funaria, 20 chromosomes are present in
budding rhizoids. Then the number of chromosomes in
B) In mosses the sex organs are produced at gametophyte, seta and capsule respectively
the apex of the leafy shoots will be
C) Liver worts have an elaborate mechanism 1) 40, 40, 20 2) 20, 10, 10
of spore dispersal 3) 20, 40, 40 4) 20, 40, 20
D) Polytrichum species are attached to the soil 75. Select the mismatch
through multicellular and unbranched 1) Sphenopsida – Equisetum
rhizoids 2) Pteropsida – Adiantum
1) C only 2) B and D 3) Psilopsida – Selaginella
3) B only 4) A, B, C and D 4) Lycopsida – Lycopodium
69. Selaginella belongs to the ____ class of 76. Heterosporous pteridophyte is
pteridophyta 1) Salvia 2) Salvinia
1) Sphenopsida 2) Pteropsida 3) Psilotum 4) Spirulina
3) Lycopsida 4) Psilopsida
 8 Test ID : 211
77. In pteridophytes, fusion of gametes takes place 88. During germination, Sphagnum spore
in produces
1) External medium 2) Antheridium 1) Gametophyte 2) Prothallus
3) Sporangium 4) Archegonium 3) Protonema 4) Theca
78. In gymnosperms pollination is exclusively by 89. First and last archegoniates in plant kingdom
1) Hydrophily 2) Entamophily respectively are
3) Anemophily 4) Zoophily 1) Algae and pteridophyte
79. Gymnosperms bear seeds but lack fruits
2) Bryophytes and pterdiophytes
because they lack
3) Pteridophytes and gymnosperms
1) cotyledon 2) ovary
4) Bryophytes and gymnosperms
3) ovule 4) embryo
80. A gymnosporic leaf cell has 16 chromosomes. 90. In Bryophytes
What would be the number of chromosomes in 1) Gametophytes are dependent up on
cell of archegonia sporophyte
1) 16 chromosome 2) 8 chromosome 2) Sporophyte itself completes the life cycle
3) 24 chromosome 4) 32 chromosome 3) Sporophyte and gametophyte generations
81. The megaspore mother cell is differentiated are independent
from one of the cells of the 4) Sporophyte is dependent upon gametophyte
1) Pollen grain 2) Microsporangia 91. A decrease in plasma albumin levels is likely
3) Nucellus 4) Both (1) and (2) to affect
82. Which of the following posses vascular tissues 1) clot formation
but lacks of seeds?
2) oxygenation of heamoglobin
1) Marchantia 2) Adiantum
3) osmotic balance
3) Sphagnum 4) Funaria
4) defense mechanisms
83. In pteridophytes, spores germinate to give rise
to 92. End of T wave marks the
1) Prothallus 2) Protonema 1) end of atrial systole
3) Leaf stage 4) Strobili 2) end of ventricular systole
84. In pteridophytes, development of zygote into 3) end of atrial diastole
young embryo within the female gametophyte 4) end of ventricular diastole
is a precursor to the 93. Haemoglobin in healthy individual
1) Aquatic habit 2) Autotrophic habit 1) 12 - 20 g / 10 ml of blood
3) Seed habit 4) Parasitic habit 2) 12 - 16 g / 100 ml of blood
85. A plant with persistent pinnate leaves among
3) 18 - 25 g / 100 ml of blood
the following is
1) Pinus 2) Ginkgo 4) 16 - 20 g / 10 ml of blood
3) Cycas 4) Pine 94. Histamine in the blood is secreted by
86. Corolloid roots are associated with nitrogen 1) mast cells 2) macrophages
fixing 3) eosinophils 4) basophils
1) Mycorrhizae 2) Bacteria 95. Which of the following cells will play a role in
3) Blue green algae 4) Algae inflammatory reactions?
87. Protonema is the stage in the life cycle of 1) Eosinophils 2) Basophils
1) Cycas 2) Marchantia 3) Lymphocytes 4) Neutrophils
3) Selaginella 4) Funaria
 9 Test ID : 211
96. Match the list - I with list - II and choose the 101. Which stimulates the platelets in the blood to
correct option. activate mechanism of coagulation?
List - I List - II 1) Thrombin 2) Trauma
++
A) Platelets i) Secrete histamine 3) Ca 4) Thrombokinase
102. The inter atrial septum in the human heart can
B) Neutrophils ii) Help in coagulation
be best described as
C) Basophils iii) Phagocytic cells 1) A thin fibrous tissue
iv) Responsible for 2) A thin muscular wall
D) Lymphocytes
immune response 3) A thick muscular wall
1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv 4) A thick fibrous tissue
2) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv
103. The sinoatrial node is the pacemaker of the
3) A - iii, B - i, C - iv, D - ii
human heart because
4) A - ii, B - iii, C - i, D - iv
1) It is located in the right atrium
97. A person with AB blood group
2) It is the only part of the conducting system
1) has A and B antigens in his plasma
that can generate impulse
2) lacks antibodies on RBC surface
3) It can generate maximum number of action
3) can receive blood transfusion from a person potentials in the conducting system
of his own group
4) It can generate minimum number of action
4) can donate blood to all other blood groups potentials
98. When the plasma of a person has both anti A 104. The opening between the right atrium and
and anti B antibodies the blood group of this right ventricle is guarded by the valve named
person would be
1) bicuspid valve 2) tricuspid valve
1) A 2) B
3) mitral valve 4) semilunar valve
3) AB 4) O
105. The duration of cardiac cycle is
99. Find out the incorrect among the following.
1) 0.6 seconds 2) 0.7 seconds
1) Spleen is the graveyard of RBC
3) 0.8 seconds 4) 8.0 seconds
2) Clotting factors present in plasma are
106. Doctors use a stethoscope to hear the sounds
inactive form
produced during each cardiac cycle. The
3) RBCs are devoid of nucleus in all the second sound is heard due to
mammals
1) opening of AV valves
4) Neutrophils are most abundant cells
2) opening of semilunar valves
100. Match the following.
3) closure of atrioventricular valves
p) Platelets e) Amphibians 4) closure of semilunar valves
q) Mixed blood f) Tissue fluid 107. The systolic pressure of healthy heart is

r) Fibrins g) RBC 1) 120 mm Hg 2) 80 mm Hg

s) Rh- antigen h) Blood clot 3) 140 mm Hg 4) 90 mm Hg
1) p - g, q - h, r - e, s - f 108. Lymphocytes in the lymph are responsible for

2) p - f, q - e, r - h, s - g 1) immune responses of the body

3) p - e, q - h, r - g, s - f 2) phagocytic function
4) p - e, q - h, r - f, s - g 3) clotting function
4) both 2 and 3
 10 Test ID : 211
109. The stroke volume of left ventricle in a person 116. In fishes the heart pumps
is 75 ml. His cardiac output is 6000 ml what 1) oxygenated blood
will be heart rate?
2) deoxygenated blood
1) 72 per minute 2) 75 per minute
3) mixed blood
3) 80 per minute 4) 100 per minute
4) only plasma
110. The number of action potential generated by
SAN 117. The hepatic portal system is

1) 70 - 75 times per minute 1) between digestive and hypothalamus

2) 50 - 60 times per minute 2) between digestive tract and liver
3) exact 70 times per minute 3) between liver and kidney
4) not more than 60 times per minute 4) between digestive tract and kidney
111. The route of action potential in heart is 118. Assertion (A): Fats are absorbed through
1) SA node → AV bundle → AV node lymph in the lacteals present in the intestinal
2) AV node → SA node → AV bundle villi.
3) SA node → AV node → AV bundle → Reason (R): Reduction in eosinophils lead to
Bundle of His excessive loss of blood from body.
4) Purkinje fibres → AV node → SA node 1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
112. Statement – I: Heart is protected by a single explanation of A
walled membranous bag pericardium. 2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
Statement – II: Few vertebrates only possess correct explanation of A
a muscular chambered heart. 3) A is true but R is false
1) Both Statements I and II are correct 4) both A and R are false
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is 119. Match the following.
incorrect List - I List - II
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is
A) Fishes i) Single circulation
correct
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect B) Amphibians ii) Double circulation
113. The machine taking the reading of electrical C) Reptiles iii) Mixed circulation
activity of heart is known as D) Birds
1) electrocardiogram
1) A - ii, B - ii, C - iii, D - i
2) electrocardiograph 2) A - iii, B - ii, C - iii, D - ii
3) MRI 3) A - i, B - i, C - ii, D - iv
4) biopsy 4) A - i, B - iii, C - iii, D - ii
114. How many leads are connected to a patient to
120. Which enzyme is responsible for the
obtain a standard ECG? conversion of inactive fibrinogen to fibrin?
1) 2 2) 3
1) Thrombokinase 2) Prothrombin
3) 4 4) 1
3) Thrombin 4) Platelets
115. By counting number of QRS completes one
can determine?
1) Rate of breathing 2) Cardiac output
3) Heart beat rate 4) Stroke volume

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