lOMoAR cPSD| 15670278

1. E-commerce can be defined as:

a.the use of the Internet, the Web, and mobile apps to transact business.
b.The use of any Internet technologies in a firm's daily activities.
c. the digital enablement of transactions and processes within an organization.
d. any digitally enabled transactions among individuals and organizations.

2. Which of the following is an example of e-business?

a. Amazon's inventory control system
b. the Amazon.com website
c. an Amazon mobile app
d. Amazon's Pinterest page

3. Which of the following can be considered synonymous with the term e-commerce?
a. e-business
b. digital commerce
c. the Internet
d. the Web

4. The term e-commerce refers to the digital enabling of business processes both inside and outside
the firm.
True – False

5. E-commerce and e-business systems blur together at the business firm boundary, where internal
business systems link up with suppliers or customers.
True – False

6. Which of the following is not a unique feature of e-commerce technology?

a.interactivity
b.social technology
c.information asymmetry
d.richness

7. Which of the following features of e-commerce technology enables merchants to market and sell
"complex" goods and services to consumers via marketing messages that can integrate video, audio,
and text?
a.richness
b.ubiquity
c.information density
d.personalization

8. Which of the following features of e-commerce technology allows users to participate in the
creation of online content?
a.ubiquity
b.global reach
c.information density
d.social technology

9.Which of the following is the best definition of transaction cost?

a.the expense of changing national or regional prices
b.the cost of participating in a market
c.the cost of finding suitable products in the market
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d.the cost merchants pay to bring their goods to market

10.Which of the following features of e-commerce technology is related to the concept of network
externalities?
a.richness
b.interactivity
c.universal standards
d.information density

11.Which of the following statements is true about the traditional tradeoff between the richness and
reach of a marketing message prior to the development of the Web?
a.Marketing messages had little richness.
b.The smaller the audience reached, the less rich the message.
c.The larger the audience reached, the less rich the message.
d.Richness was unrelated to reach.

12.Interactivity in the context of e-commerce provides which of the following functionalities?

a.the ability to physically touch and manipulate a product
b.complexity and content of a message
c.the ability of consumers to create and distribute content
d.the enabling of two-way

13.The costs incurred by merchants in having to change product prices (such as the costs of
reentering prices into computer systems) are referred to as which of the following?
a.subscription costs
b.fixed costs
c.menu costs
d.variable costs

14.Which of the following refers to any disparity in relevant market information among partiesin a
transaction?
a.information asymmetry
b.unfair competitive advantage
c.imperfect competition
d. dynamic pricing

15.Which of the following is a physical place you visit in order to transact?

a.marketspace
b.marketplace
c.social network
d.the Internet
16.The total number of users or customers an e-commerce business can obtain is a measure ofwhich
of the following?
a.ubiquity
b.interactivity
c.reach
d.information density
17.Which of the following refers to the complexity and content of a message?
a.richness
b.reach
c.information density
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d.interactivity
18.E-commerce is available just about everywhere and anytime. This is known as:
a.richness.
b.information density.
c.ubiquity.
d.reach.

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19.Ubiquity lowers the cognitive energy required to transact in a marketspace.

Answer: TRUE/ FALSE

20.The fact that e-commerce is conducted based on universal standards decreases search costs for
consumers.
Answer: TRUE/FALSE ( câu này không chắc, có tài liệu đúng có tài liệu sai)

21.Universal standards make price discovery more costly, slower, and less accurate.
Answer: FALSE/TRUE

22.Price transparency refers to the ease with which consumers can find out what merchants payfor
products.
Answer: FALSE/TRUE

23.Personalization involves targeting marketing messages to specific individuals by adjusting the

message based upon a consumer's preferences or past purchasing behavior.
Answer: TRUE/FALSE

24.E-commerce technologies provide a unique, many-to-many model of mass communication.

Answer: TRUE/FALSE

25.Which type of e-commerce is distinguished by the type of technology used in the transactionrather
than by the nature of the market relationship?
a.consumer-to-consumer (C2C)
b.social e-commerce
c.mobile e-commerce
d.business-to-business (B2B)
26.Which of the following is an example of social e-commerce?
a.Amazon
b. eBay
c.Wikipedia ( not social e-commerce)
d. Facebook

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27.Business-to-consumer (B2C) e-commerce in the United States:

a.has grown at double-digit rates between 2010 and 2017.
b.has less revenue than C2C e-commerce.
c.now constitutes over 50% of the overall U.S. retail market.
d.is growing more slowly as it confronts its own fundamental limitations.

28.Which of the following is not true about the use of apps?

a.U.S. adult mobile Internet users spend almost 3-1/2 hours a day using apps.
b.Users still spend less time using apps than they do using desktops or mobile websites.
c.Apps are easier to control and monetize than websites.
d.Around 280 million people worldwide launch a smartphone app more than 60 times a day.

29.Which of the following is an example of an on-demand service company?

a.YouTube
b.Airbnb
c.Tumblr
d.Facebook
30.Which of the following is an example of B2B e-commerce?
a.Airbnb
b.Facebook
c.Groupon
d.Go2Paper

31.Which of the following is an example of C2C e-commerce?

a.Amazon
b.Groupon
c.Craigslist
d.Go2Paper

32.All of the following are examples of social networks except:

a.Instagram.
b.Twitter.
c.Y Combinator.
d.Pinterest.

33.B2B e-commerce is the largest type of e-commerce.

Answer: TRUE/ FALSE

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34.Which of the following statements about e-commerce, in the United States in 2017, is not
true?
a.Social e-commerce generates more revenue than mobile e-commerce.
b.Desktop advertising still accounts for almost 70% of all digital advertising spending.
C.On-demand service firms are fueling the growth of local e-commerce.
D.Growth rates for retail e-commerce are higher in Europe than in the United States.

35.Which of the following is not a major business trend in e-commerce in 2017-2018?

a.Mobile e-commerce continues to grow.
b.Small businesses and entrepreneurs are hampered by the rising cost of market entry
caused byincreased presence of industry giants.
c.On-demand service companies garner multibillion-dollar valuations.
d.Social e-commerce continues to grow.

1) Which of the following is not a major technology trend in e-commerce in 2017-2018?

A)Mobile messaging services become popular with smartphone users.
B)Firms are turning to business analytics to make sense out of big data.
C)The mobile computing and communications platform creates an alternative platform for online
transactions, marketing, advertising, and media viewing.
D)Growth of the Internet of Things slows down.

2)All of the following are major social trends in e-commerce in 2017-2018 except for:
A)concerns about the flood of temporary, poorly paid jobs without benefits being generated by on-
demand service companies.
B)the continuing conflict over copyright management and control.
C) participation of adults in social networks begins to decrease.
D) the growth of government surveillance of Internet communications.
.

3) Which of the following statements about the mobile platform is not true?
A) Over 93% of Americans used a mobile device to access the Internet at least some of the time
in 2017.
B) The size of the mobile app audience greatly exceeds that of the mobile web audience.
C) Retail purchases made on desktops account for almost two-thirds of all online purchases.
D) The time U.S. adults spend using mobile apps accounts for over 60% of total digital minutes
spent.

4) Which of the following describes the basic web policy of large firms during the Invention
period?
A) Integrate social networks and the mobile platform with website marketing.
B) Emphasize the necessity for the Web to generate profits.
C) Use the Web to sell complex goods and services online.
D) Maintain a basic, static website depicting the firm's brand.

5) It is estimated that by 2021, the size of the B2B market will reach:

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A) $760 million.
B) $7.6 billion.
C) $760 billion.
D) $7.6 trillion.
6) Which of the following statements about the Web is not true?
A) The Web is the technology upon which the Internet is based.
B) The Web was the original "killer app."
C) The Web provides access to pages written in Hypertext Markup Language.
D) The Web is both a communications infrastructure and an information storage system.

7) In 2017, there were more than Internet hosts.

A) 1 million
B) 10 million
C) 100 million
D) 1 billion

8) All of the following can be considered a precursor to e-commerce except:

A) the development of the smartphone.
B) Baxter Healthcare's PC-based remote order entry system.
C) the French Minitel.
D) the development of Electronic Data Interchange standards.

9) Which of the following was the first truly large-scale digitally enabled transaction system in
the B2C arena.
A) Telex
B) The Baxter Healthcare system
C) The French Minitel
D) EDI

10)In which year can e-commerce be said to have begun?

A) 1983
B) 1985
C) 1995
D) 2001

11) All of the following are issues facing Pinterest except:

A) copyright infringement.
B) inability to retain users.
C) spam.
D) scams.

12) Which of the following is a characteristic of e-commerce during the Invention period?
A) mobile technology
B) earnings and profit emphasis
C) disintermediation
D) extensive government surveillance

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13) All of the following are examples of Web 2.0 sites and applications except:
A) photo-sharing sites.
B) blogs.
C) wikis.
D) auction sites.

14) Which of the following is not a characteristic of a perfect competitive market?

A) Price, cost, and quality information are equally distributed.
B) A nearly infinite set of suppliers compete against one another.
C) Customers have access to all relevant information worldwide.
D) It is highly regulated.

15) All of the following were visions of e-commerce expressed during the early years of e-
commerce except:
A) a nearly perfect information marketspace.
B) friction-free commerce.
C) disintermediation.
D) fast follower advantage.

16) Unfair competitive advantages occur when:

A) one competitor has an advantage others cannot purchase.
B) market middlemen are displaced.
C) information is equally distributed and transaction costs are low.
D) firms are able to gather monopoly profits.

17) The early years of e-commerce were driven by all of the following factors except:
A) an emphasis on exploiting traditional distribution channels.
B) a huge infusion of venture capital funds.
C) an emphasis on quickly achieving very high market visibility.
D) visions of profiting from new technology.

18) The early years of e-commerce are considered:

A) the most promising time in history for the successful implementation of first mover
advantages.
B) an economist's dream come true, where for a brief time, consumers had access to all
relevant market information and transaction costs plummeted.
C) a stunning technological success as the Internet and the Web increased from a few
thousand to billions of e-commerce transactions per year.
D) a dramatic business success as 85% of dot-coms formed since 1995 became flourishing
businesses.

19) Which of the following best describes the early years of e-commerce?
A) They were a technological success but a mixed business success.
B) They were a technological success but a business failure.
C) They were a technological failure but a business success.

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D) They were a mixed technological and business success.

20) Which of the following is a characteristic of the Reinvention phase of e-commerce?

A) massive proliferation of dot-com start-ups
B) widespread adoption of broadband networks
C) rapid growth of search engine advertising
D) expansion of e-commerce to include services as well as goods

21) Which of the following is a characteristic of the Consolidation phase of e-commerce?

A) predominance of pure online strategies
B) emphasis on revenue growth versus profits
C) brand extension and strengthening becomes more important than creating new
brands
D) shift to a technology-driven approach

22) Which of the following is not true regarding e-commerce today?

A) Economists' visions of a friction-free market have not been realized.
B) Consumers are less price-sensitive than expected.
C) There remains considerable persistent price dispersion.
D) The market middlemen disappeared.

23) Which of the following statements is not true?

A) Information asymmetries are continually being introduced by merchants and marketers.
B) Intermediaries have not disappeared.
C) Overall transaction costs have dropped dramatically.
D) Brands remain very important in e-commerce.

24) Which of the following is an example of an e-commerce first mover that failed?
A) Etsy
B) eToys
C) eBay
D) E*Trade

25) Which of the following refers to the practice of researching a product online before
purchasing it at a physical store?
A) zooming
B) grazing
C) showrooming
D) webrooming

26) Which of the following was the original "killer app" that made the Internet commercially
interesting and extraordinarily popular?
A) e-commerce
B) The world wide web
C) social networks
D) mobile apps

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27) Which of the following refers to the displacement of market middlemen and the creation
of a new direct relationship between producers and consumers?
A) network effect
B) disintermediation
C) friction-free commerce
D) first mover advantage

28) Which of the following is not an element of friction-free commerce?

A) Information is equally distributed.
B) Transaction costs are high.
C) Prices can be dynamically adjusted to reflect actual demand.
D) Unfair competitive advantages are eliminated.

29) Retail e-commerce in the United States is not expected to continue growing at double-digit
growth rates in 2017-2018.
Answer: FALSE/ TRUE

30) The Internet is a worldwide system of computer networks. Answer: FALSE/TRUE

31) The Internet has shown similar growth patterns as other electronic technologies of the past.
Answer: FALSE/ TRUE
.

32) The emergence of mobile, social, and local e-commerce occurred during the Reinvention
period of e-commerce.
Answer: FALSE/ TRUE

33) The Reinvention period of e-commerce is as much a sociological phenomenon as it is a

technological or business phenomenon.
Answer: FALSE/ TRUE

34) Price dispersion has been eliminated in e-commerce Answer: TRUE/ FALSE

35) Above all, e-commerce is a phenomenon.

A) technology driven
B) finance-driven
C) sociological
D) government-driven

36) Which business application is associated with the technological development of local area
networks and client/server computing?
A) transaction automation (e.g., payroll)
B) desktop automation (e.g., word processing)
C) industrial system automation (e.g., supply chain management)
D) workgroup automation (e.g., document sharing)

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37) Which of the following is one of the three primary societal issues related to e-commerce?
A) liability
B) anonymity
C) equity
D) intellectual property

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1) and are typically the most easily identifiable aspects of a

company's business model.
A) Market strategy; market opportunity
B) Value proposition; revenue model
C) Value proposition; competitive environment
D) Revenue model; market
strategy
2) All of the following are using a subscription revenue model for music except:
A) Spotify.
B) Scribd.
C) Rhapsody.
D Pandora
3) Which element of the business model addresses what a firm provides that
other firms do not and cannot?
A) revenue model
B) competitive advantage
C) market strategy
D) value
proposition
4) Which element of the business model refers to the presence of substitute
products in the market?
A) value proposition
B) competitive environment
C) competitive advantage
D) market strategy
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5) Which of the following are Amazon's primary value propositions?

A) personalization and customization
B) selection and convenience
C) reduction of price discovery cost
D) management of product
delivery
6) A firm's describes how a firm will produce a superior return on invested capital.
A) value proposition
B) revenue model
C) market strategy
D) competitive
advantage
7) Which of the following is an example of the subscription revenue model?
A) eHarmony
B) eBay
C) E*Trade
D) Twitte
r
8) Stickiness is an important attribute for which of the following revenue models?
A) advertising revenue model
B) subscription revenue model
C) transaction fee revenue model
D) sales revenue
model
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9) Which of the following companies uses a transaction fee revenue model?

A) Yahoo
B) E*Trade
C) Twitter
D) Sears

10) Which of the following is an example of the affiliate revenue model?

A) Scribd
B) eBay
C) L.L. Bean
D) MyPoints

11) Which of the following involves a company giving away a certain level of
product or services without charge, but then charging a fee for premium levels of the
product or service?
A) advertising revenue model
B) subscription revenue model
C) freemium strategy
D) transaction fee revenue
model

12) Which of the following factors is not a significant influence on a

company's competitive environment?
A) how many competitors are active
B) what the market share of each competitor is
C) the availability of supportive organizational structures
D) how competitors price their
products
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13) Which of the following would be considered an indirect competitor of Priceline?

A) Travelocity
B) Expedia
C) Orbitz
D) TripAdvisor

14) The existence of a large number of competitors in any one market segment may indicate:
A) an untapped market niche.
B) the market is saturated.
C) no one firm has differentiated itself within that market.
D) a market that has already been tried without
success.

15) All of the following can be considered a direct or indirect competitor of Amazon except:
A) eBay.
B) Apple's iTunes Store.
C) Walmart.
D) Starbucks.

16) A perfect market is one in which:

A) there are no competitive advantages or asymmetries because all firms have
equal access to all the factors to production.
B) one firm develops an advantage based on a factor of production that other
firms cannot purchase.
C) one participant in the market has more resources than the others.
D) competition is at a minimum, as each niche market within an industry is
served by the company with the greatest competitive advantage.
 lOMoAR cPSD| 14238370

17) Organizations that typically provide an array of services to start-up

companies along with a small amount of funding are referred to as:
A) angel investors.
B) crowdfunders.
C) incubators.
D) Venture capital
investors.
18) A specifically details how you plan to find customers and to sell your product.
A) sales analysis
B) business plan
C) competitive strategy
D) market
strategy
19) Which of the following is not a community provider?
A) LinkedIn
B) Facebook
C) Priceline
D) Pinterest
20) Which of the following is not a variation of the e-tailer business model?
A) bricks-and-clicks
B) virtual merchant
C) market creator
D) manufacturer-
direct
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21) An example of a company using the content provider model is:

A) Priceline.
B) Rhapsody.
C) Dell.
D) eBay.
22) Which of the following is not an example of the bricks-and-clicks e-tailing business model?
A) Walmart
B) Sears
C) Bluefly
D) Staples
23) The overall retail market in the United States in 2015 was estimated at about:
A) $48 trillion.
B) $4.8 trillion.
C) $480 billion.
D) $48 billion.
24) In general, the key to becoming a successful content provider is to:
A) own the content being provided.
B) own the technology by which content is created, presented, and distributed.
C) provide online content for free.
D) provide other services as well as online
content.
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25) Which of the following was not able to successfully implement a freemium business model?
A) Pandora
B) Dropbox
C) LinkedIn
D) Ning
26) All of the following may lead to a competitive advantage except:
A) less expensive suppliers.
B) better employees.
C) fewer products.
D) superior
products.
27) Which of the following is an unfair competitive advantage?
A) brand name
B) access to global markets
C) lower product prices
D) superior
technology
28) Which of the following gives a business model the most credibility with outside investors?
A) the firm's management team
B) the firm's value proposition
C) the firm's market opportunity
D) the firm's market
strategy
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29) Which of the following statements about Foursquare is not true?

A) Foursquare combines a social network business model with location-based technology.
B) Foursquare began operating without a revenue model.
C) Foursquare's business model faces significant intellectual property concerns.
D) Foursquare has been able to command a high valuation from venture capital
investors despite unimpressive revenue and profits.

30) Which type of investor typically becomes interested in a start-up company

after it has begun generating revenue?
A) incubators
B) angel investors
C) crowdfunders
D) venture capital
investors

31) Which of the following is another name for a revenue model?

A) business model
B) business strategy
C) financial model
D) financial
statements

32) All of the following use a social network marketing strategy except:
A) Twitter.
B) YouTube.
C) Pinterest.
D) Amazon.
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33) The use by a company of its competitive advantage to achieve more

advantage in surrounding markets is known as .
A) market strategy
B) differentiation
C) leverage
D) focus

34) A wealthy individual who invests personal funds in a start-up in exchange for
an equity stock in the business is referred to as a(n) .
A) incubator
B) angel investor
C) venture capital investor
D) crowdfunder

35) Which of the following is not a key element of an elevator pitch?

A) exit strategy
B) growth metrics
C) legal structure
D) market
opportunity

36) A value proposition defines how a company's product or service fulfills

the needs of a customer.
Answer: TRUE /
FALSE

37) Firms that fail to produce returns greater than alternative investments
typically go out of business.
Answer: TRUE /
FALSE
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38) An asymmetry exists whenever all participants in a market have

equivalent resources. Answer: FALSE/ TRUE

39) First movers are often not as successful as

follower firms. Answer: TRUE/ FALSE

40) All firms need an organization to efficiently implement their business plans
and strategies. Answer: F A L S E / TRUE

41) The JOBS Act and issuance of enabling regulations by the Securities and
Exchange Commission allows a start-up company to use crowdfunding to solicit
accredited investors to invest in small and early-stage start-ups.
Answer: TRUE
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42) The business model of e-tailers is quite similar to that of:

A) e-distributors.
B) transaction brokers.
C) exchanges.
D) service providers.
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43) All of the following use an advertising revenue model except:

A) Twitter.
B) Yahoo.
C) Google.
D) Amazon.

44) Which of the following is not considered a portal?

A) Yahoo
B) MSN
C) Amazon
D) AOL LO:
2.2: Describe the major
B2C business models.

45) Portals primarily generate revenue in all of the following ways except:
A) charging advertisers for ad placement.
B) collecting transaction fees.
C) sales of goods.
D) charging subscription fees.

46) The basic value proposition of community providers is:

A) they offer a fast, convenient one-stop site where users can focus on their most
importantconcerns and interests.
B) they offer consumers valuable, convenient, time-saving, and low cost alternatives to
traditional service providers.
C) they create a digital electronic environment for buyers and sellers to meet, agree on a price,
and transact.
D) they increase customers' productivity by helping them get things done faster and more
cheaply.

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47) eBay uses all of the following business models except:

A) B2C market creator.
B) C2C market creator.
C) content provider.
D) e-commerce infrastructure provider.
48) All of the following are business models employed in the online music industry except:
A) subscription.
B) peer-to-peer streaming.
C) download-and-own.
D) cloud streaming.
49) The financial services, travel services, and job placement services industries typically use thebusiness
model.
A) community provider
B) transaction broker
C) market creator
D) e-tailer
50) In the business model, a Web-based business builds a digital environment in
which buyers and sellers can meet, display products, search for products, and establish prices.
A) market creator
B) community provider
C) e-tailer
D) portal
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51) On-demand service companies are characterized by the free sharing of resources between the
company and consumers.
Answer: FALSE
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52) All of the following are examples of business-to-business (B2B) business models except:
A) e-distributors.
B) e-procurement.
C) exchanges.
D) e-tailers.
53) What is the primary revenue model for an e-distributor?
A) sales
B) transaction fee
C) advertising
D) subscription
54) W.W. Grainger is an example of which of the following business models?
A) B2B service provider
B) exchange
C) e-distributor
D) industry consortia
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55) create and sell access to digital markets.

A) E-distributors
B) Portals
C) E-procurement firms
D) Market creators
56) Which of the following may offer its customers value chain management software?
A) e-distributors
B) e-procurement companies
C) exchanges
D) community providers
57) Over the past decade, the number of exchanges has:
A) greatly increased.
B) diminished sharply.
C) stayed about the same.
D) increased slowly but steadily.
58) SupplyOn is an example of a(n):
A) private industrial network.
B) exchange.
C) industry consortium.
D) e-distributor.
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59) A marketplace supplies products and services of interest to particular industries.

A) perfect
B) differentiated
C) horizontal
D) vertical
60) SaaS and PaaS providers can typically provide services at lower costs through scale
economies.
Answer: TRUE
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61) Which business strategy involves implementing a new, more efficient set of business
processes that other firms cannot yet obtain?
A) strategy of cost competition
B) scope strategy
C) customer intimacy strategy
D) focus/market niche strategy
62) Which of the following features of e-commerce technology changes industry structure by
lowering barriers to entry but greatly expands the market at the same time?
A) global reach
B) richness
C) interactivity
D) personalization
63) Which of the following is not a primary activity in a firm value chain?
A) outbound logistics
B) finance/accounting
C) operations
D) after-sales service
Difficulty: Moderate
64) A is a networked business ecosystem that coordinates a firm's suppliers,
distributors, and delivery firms with its own production needs using an Internet-based supplychain
management system.
A) value chain
B) value system
C) value web
D) business strategy
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65) If you wished to leverage the ubiquitous nature of the Web to differentiate your product, you
would:
A) enable individual customization of the product by consumers.
B) implement a strategy of commoditization.
C) adopt a strategy of cost competition.
D) develop a scope strategy to compete within a narrower market segment.
66) A strategy designed to compete within a narrow market or product segment is called a
strategy.
A) scope
B) differentiation
C) cost
D) focus
technologies are technologies that enable the incremental improvement of
products and services.
A) Sustaining
B) Differentiating
C) Disruptive
D) Commodity
68) Innovative entrepreneurs and their business firms that destroy existing business models are
referred to as .
A) crowdfunders
B) venture capitalists
C) disruptors
D) angel investors
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69) The term unfit fitness refers to a situation in which employees of a firm have the wrong skills
for the current environment.
Answer: TRUE/

70) Scale economies are efficiencies that result from flattening the hierarchy of an organization.
Answer: FALSE

71) A company's strong linkages with its customers increase switching costs.
Answer: TRUE/

72) The Internet's universal standards can change industry structure by increasing barriers to
entry and decreasing competition within an industry.
Answer:FALSE

73) Interactivity that enables product customization alters industry structure by increasing the
threat of substitutes.
Answer: FALSE

74) E-commerce has increased price competition in nearly all markets.

Answer: TRUE

75) Social technologies change industry structure by shifting programming and editorial
decisions to consumers and creating substitute entertainment products.
Answer: TRUE
 lOMoAR cPSD| 15670278

lOMoAR cPSD| 1567027

1) During which period of time did the Institutionalization phase of Internet development take
place?
A) 1950-1960
B) 1961-1974
C) 1975-1995
D) 1995-through the present

2) Which of the following occurred during the Commercialization phase of Internet

development?
A) The fundamental building blocks of the Internet were realized in actual hardware and
software.
B) Personal computers were invented.
C) The Domain Name System was introduced.
D) NSF privatized the operation of the Internet's
backbone.

3) During which phase of the development of the Internet was the Domain Name System (DNS)
introduced?
A) commercialization phase
B) institutional phase
C) innovation phase
D) consolidation phase

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4) Which of the following is not one of the basic technological foundations of the Internet?
A) client/server computing
B) FTP
C) TCP/IP
D) packet switching
5) The process of slicing digital messages into parcels, sending them along different
communication paths as they become available, and reassembling them at the destination point is
called:
A) routing.
B) the Transmission Control Protocol.
C) packet switching.
D) the File Transfer Protocol.
6) Which of the following is the core communications protocol for the Internet?
A) Telnet
B) FTP
C) TCP/IP
D) TLS
7) The Transport Layer of TCP/IP is responsible for which of the following?
A) placing packets on and receiving them from the network medium
B) addressing, packaging, and routing messages
C) providing communication with the application by acknowledging and sequencing the
packetsto and from the application
D) providing a variety of applications with the ability to access the services of the lower layers

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8) The Internet Layer of TCP/IP is responsible for which of the following?

A) placing packets on and receiving them from the network medium
B) addressing, packaging, and routing messages
C) providing communication with the application by acknowledging and sequencing the packets
to and from the application
D) providing a variety of applications with the ability to access the services of the lower layers
9) An IPv4 address is expressed as a:
A) 32-bit number that appears as a series of four separate numbers separated by semicolons.
B) 64-bit number that appears as a series of four separate numbers separated by semicolons.
C) 64-bit number that appears as a series of four separate numbers separated by periods.
D) 32-bit number that appears as a series of four separate numbers separated by periods.
10) The allows a natural language expression, such as Google.com to represent a
numeric IP address.
A) uniform resource locator system
B) Internet protocol addressing schema
C) domain name system
D) assigned numbers and names (ANN) system
11) The address used by a browser to identify the location of content on the Web is called:
A) a domain name.
B) a uniform resource locator.
C) an IP address.
D) a file path.

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12) Which of the following is not an advantage of client/server computing over centralized
mainframe computing?
A) It is easy to expand capacity by adding servers and clients.
B) Each client added to the network increases the network's overall capacity and
transmissionspeeds.
C) Client/server networks are less vulnerable, in part because the processing load is balanced
over many powerful smaller computers rather than concentrated in a single huge computer.
D) There is less risk that a system will completely malfunction because backup or mirror servers
can pick up the slack if one server goes down.

13) is a model of computing in computer processing, storage, software, and other

services which are provided as a shared pool of virtualized resources over the Internet.
A) Client/server computing
B) P2P computing
C) Mobile computing
D) Cloud
computing
14) Which of the following protocols is used to send mail to a server?
A) IMAP
B) FTP
C) HTTP
D) SSL
15) Where does TLS operate within TCP/IP?
A) between the Internet Layer and the Transport Layer
B) between the Transport Layer and the Application Layer
C) between the Network Interface Layer and the Transport Layer
D) between the Internet Layer and the Application Layer

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16) Which of the following statements about cloud computing is not true?
A) A public cloud is typically used by companies with stringent privacy and
securityrequirements.
B) Dropbox is an example of a public cloud.
C) Hybrid clouds offer both public and private cloud options.
D) A private cloud may be hosted internally or externally.
17) is used to allow remote login on another computer.
A) Telnet
B) FTP
C) HTTP
D) SSL
18) is a utility program that allows you to check the connection between your client
and a TCP/IP network.
A) Ping
B) Telnet
C) Tracert
D) Finger
19) Which of the following technologies has enabled the Internet to grow exponentially to
support millions of users, without overloading the network architecture?
A) fiber optics
B) Wi-Fi
C) IPv6
D) client/server
computing

5
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20) Which of the following are specialized computers that transmit message parcels along
available Internet communication paths and on to their destinations?
A) routers
B) Web servers
C) IP servers
D) packet servers
21) Which of the following is a set of rules for transferring data?
A) protocol
B) packet
C) router
D) IP address
22) Which of the following is not a basic type of cloud computing service?
A) IaaS
B) PaaS
C) SaaS
D) FiOS
23) Which of the following are central directories that list all domain names currently in use for
specific domains?
A) Web servers
B) root servers
C) client servers
D) DNS servers

6
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24) Which of the following was the original purpose of the Internet?
A) to provide a network that would allow businesses to connect with consumers
B) to link large mainframe computers on different college campuses
C) to develop a military communications system that could withstand nuclear war
D) to enable government agencies to track civilian communications
25) Which of the following is a utility program that allows you to track the path of a message
sent from a client computer to a remote computer on the Internet?
A) Telnet
B) Ping
C) IMAP
D) Tracert
26) Which of the following protocols enables the exchange of routing information among
different autonomous systems on the Internet?
A) HTTP
B) BGP
C) FTP
D) SMTP
27) Packet switching makes use of multiple circuits rather than one dedicated circuit.
Answer: TRUE
28) FTP is the protocol that permits users to transfer files from a server to their client computer,
and vice versa.
Answer: FALSE

29) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the Internet protocol used by a browser to transfer
web pages.
Answer: TRUE /
FLASE

30) A private cloud is operated for the benefit of multiple firms.

Answer: T R U E / FALSE

31) Amazon Web Services is an example of a private cloud.

Answer: T R U E / FALSE

32) HTTP/2 is supported by almost all the leading web browsers.

Answer: TRUE/ FALSE

33) In a hybrid cloud computing model, firms use their own infrastructure for their most essential
core activities.
Answer: TRUE/
FALSE

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34) Which of the following organizations monitor Internet policies and practices?
A) IETF
B) ISOC
C) W3C
D) ICAN
N

9
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35) TCP/IP operates in which layer of Internet architecture?

A) Network Technology Substrate layer
B) Middleware Services layer
C) Transport Services and Representation Standards layer
D) Applications layer
36) The Web runs in which layer of Internet architecture?
A) Network Technology Substrate layer
B) Middleware Services layer
C) Transport Services and Representation Standards layer
D) Applications
layer
37) The layer of Internet architecture that ties the applications to the communications network
and includes security and authentication services is called the:
A) Network Technology Substrate layer.
B) Middleware Services layer.
C) Transport Services and Representation Standards layer.
D) Applications layer.
38) The backbone of the Internet is formed by:
A) Internet Exchange Points (IXPs).
B) Tier 1 ISPs.
C) Network Access Points (NAPs).
D) Metropolitan Area Exchanges (MAEs).

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39) When talking about the physical elements of the Internet, the term redundancy refers to:
A) transmitting multiple copies of a single packet to safeguard against data loss.
B) the use of tiered high-speed switching computers to connect the backbone to regional and
local networks.
C) delays in messages caused by the uneven flow of information through the network.
D) multiple duplicate devices and paths in a network built so that data can be
rerouted if abreakdown occurs.

40) The is a consortium of corporations, government agencies, and nonprofit

organizations that monitors Internet policies and practices.
A) Internet Engineering Steering Group (IESG)
B) World Wide Web Consortium (W3C)
C) Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)
D) Internet Society
(ISOC)
41) The helps define the overall structure of the Internet.
A) IAB
B) IESG
C) W3C
D) ITU
42) Which of the following is not true about the mobile platform?
A) Most smartphones use Intel chips.
B) Smartphones and tablet computers are the primary means to access the Internet, both in the
United States and worldwide.
C) Most smartphones use either Google's Android or Apple's iOS operating systems.
D) Smartphones use flash memory chips.

11
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43) Which of the following organizations involved with Internet governance has the United
States recently given up control over?
A) ICANN
B) IGF
C) NTIA
D) IANA
44) In the United States, about of Internet traffic now occurs over IPv6.
A) 10%
B) 15%
C) 25%
D) 40%
Internet.

45) The major hubs in the United States where the Internet backbone intersects with regional and
local networks are now commonly referred to as Internet Exchange Points (IXPs).
Answer: TRUE /

46) T1 and T3 refer to international telephone standards for digital communication.

Answer: TRUE/

47) Bluetooth is a high-speed, fixed broadband wireless local area network for commercial and
residential use.
Answer: TRUE/
FLASE

48) Tier 1 ISPs provide Internet access to consumers and businesses.

Answer: TRUE/ FLASE

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49) Which of the following is not a concern about IoT?

A) the high cost of sensors
B) interoperability
C) security
D) privacy
the limitations of today's Internet and the potentialcapabilities of the Internet of the future.

50) How long does it take for 300,000 X-rays to be transmitted on a 100-gbps network?
A) 10 seconds
B) 1 minute
C) 10 minutes
D) 1 hour
limitations of today's Internet and the potentialcapabilities of the Internet of the future.

51) What type of Internet access technology are Google and Facebook hoping to use to provide
Internet access to remote parts of the world?
A) Bluetooth
B) drones
C) WLANs
D) DSL
52) Which of the following is not a limitation of the current Internet?
A) the continued reliance on cables and wires for connectivity
B) limited bandwidth, which causes congestion and cannot adequately handle video and voice
traffic
C) architectural restrictions, which stipulate that numerous requests for the same file must each
be answered individually, slowing network performance
D) the difficulty in expanding capacity by adding servers and
clients

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53) Which of the following statements about fiber-optic cable is not true?
A) It transmits more data at faster speeds than coaxial or twisted pair cable.
B) It is thinner and lighter than coaxial or twisted pair cable.
C) A majority of U.S. homes have fiber connections.
D) Telecommunications firms have made substantial investments in fiber optic systems in the
last decade.

54) The major technologies used with wireless local area networks are:
A) Wi-Fi and Bluetooth.
B) Wi-Fi and WiMax.
C) Bluetooth and 3G.
D) WiMax and 3G.
55) Which of the following is not a quality of service limitation of today's Internet?
A) latency
B) the uneven flow of information packets through the network
C) insufficient bandwidth in the backbone
D) low level of guaranteed service
56) All of the following are involved in the effort to create standards for IoT except:
A) AllSeen Alliance.
B) Industrial Internet Consortium.
C) Open Connectivity Foundation.
D) W3C.

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57) Which of the following refers to delays in messages caused by the uneven flow of
information packets through the network?
A) redundancy
B) latency
C) Net neutrality
D) QOS
58) Microsoft's pilot program to provide broadband Internet access to rural areas uses which of
the following technologies?
A) satellites
B) drones
C) unused, low-powered television channels
D) high altitude balloons
59) Internet2 provides a nationwide 100 gigabit-per-second network.
Answer: TRUE

60) WLAN-based Internet access derives from the same technological foundations as telephone-
based wireless Internet access.
Answer: FLASE

61) The Internet of Things (IoT) is based on sensors that can collect data and connect to the
Internet.
Answer: TRUE

16
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62) The first web browser to make it possible to view documents on the Web with colored
background, images, and animations was:
A) Netscape Navigator.
B) Mosaic.
C) Mozilla.
D) Internet Explorer.
63) In the address http://www.company.com/clients.html, which of the following is the top-
level domain?
A) .com
B) company.com
C) www
D) http

64) You could expect to find all of the following services in a web server software package
except:
A) security services.
B) FTP.
C) search engine.
D) an RSS
aggregator.
65) Which of the following was the most popular web browser as of July 2017?
A) Internet Explorer
B) Safari
C) Chrome
D) Firefox

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66) The concept behind document formatting had its roots in which of the following?
A) XML
B) SGML
C) HTML
D) GML
67) All of the following are characteristics of HTML5 except:
A) a video element that replaces plug-ins such as Flash, QuickTime, and RealPlayer.
B) use of CSS3.
C) ability to access built-in functionality of mobile devices, such as GPS and swiping.
D) support for digital rights
management.
68) HTML is used to format the structure and style of a web page.
Answer: TRUE

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69) Cortana is a type of:

A) intelligent digital assistant.
B) widget.
C) gadget.
D) social network.
.

70) Which of the following enables Internet users to communicate with each other, although not
in real time?
A) mobile messaging
B) online forum
C) SMS messaging
D) VoIP

71) Which of the following is not a mobile messaging application?

A) Kik
B) WhatsApp
C) Viber
D) Feedly
72) A(n) allows users to easily add and edit content on a web page.
A) wiki
B) podcast
C) blog
D) RSS feed

20
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73) The protocol that enables the transmission of voice and other forms of audio communication
over the Internet is called:
A) VoIP.
B) IPTP.
C) VTP.
D) IP.

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74) Snapchat's Lenses feature is an example of which of the following?

A) virtual reality
B) artificial intelligence
C) augmented reality
D) chatbot

22
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75) All of the following statements about mobile apps are true except:
A) mobile apps have usurped television as the most popular entertainment medium.
B) iOS apps are cross-platform, open-source applications.
C) over 180 billion apps have been downloaded from the Apple App Store.
D) almost all the top 100 brands have a presence in at least one of the major app stores.

23
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lOMoAR cPSD| 156702

1) Offline media is typically used for all of the following marketing activities except:
A) education.
B) exposure.
C) conversation.
D) branding.
2) The cost of hardware, software, and telecommunications services needed to build a website
have over the last decade.
A) increased dramatically
B) increased moderately
C) decreased dramatically
D) decreased slightly
3) Which of the following types of e-commerce presence is best suited for creating an ongoing
conversation with one's customers?
A) website
B) e-mail
C) social media
D) offline media

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4) are the types of information systems capabilities needed to meet business

objectives.
A) Information requirements
B) System functionalities
C) System design specifications
D) Physical design specifications
5) Which of the following basic system functionalities is used to display goods on a website?
A) product database
B) digital catalog
C) shopping cart system
D) customer database system
6) Which system functionality must your website have to be able to personalize or customize a
product for a client?
A) an ad server
B) a site tracking and reporting system
C) an inventory management system
D) customer on-site
tracking
7) Which of the following are the two main components of a systems design?
A) logical design and physical design
B) behavioral design and technological design
C) business objectives and technology requirements
D) front-end systems and back-end systems

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8) Which of the following helps you engage your customers in a conversation?

A) shopping cart
B) product database
C) on-site blog
D) site tracking and reporting system
9) Which of the following is not one of the basic business objectives for an e-commerce site?
A) display goods
B) execute a transaction
C) provide production and supplier links
D) optimize system
architecture
10) All of the following are basic information requirements for a product database except:
A) product descriptions.
B) stock numbers.
C) customer ID numbers.
D) inventory levels.
11) Which of the following typically includes a data flow diagram (DFD) to describe the flow of
information for an e-commerce site?
A) physical design
B) logical design
C) testing plan
D) co-location plan
: 4.2: Explain the process that should be followed in building an e-commercepresence.

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12) Which of the following details the actual hardware components to be used in a system?
A) architecture plan
B) system functionalities plan
C) logical design
D) physical design
13) Which of the following verifies that the business objectives of the system are in fact
working?
A) system testing
B) acceptance testing
C) unit testing
D) implementation testing
14) Which of the following involves testing a site's program modules one at a time?
A) system testing
B) acceptance testing
C) unit testing
D) implementation testing
15) Most of the time required to maintain an e-commerce site is spent on:
A) debugging code.
B) responding to emergency situations.
C) general administration and making changes and enhancements to the system.
D) changes in reports, data files, and links to backend databases.

5
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16) All of the following are simple steps for optimizing web page content except:
A) reducing unnecessary HTML comments.
B) segmenting computer servers to perform dedicated functions.
C) using more efficient graphics.
D) avoiding unnecessary links to other pages on the site.
17) Which of the following is the minimum system architecture requirement for an e-commerce
website that processes orders?
A) single-tier architecture
B) two-tier architecture
C) three-tier architecture
D) multi-tier architecture
18) Which of the following does not offer website building tools?
A) Squarespace
B) Google Sites
C) WordPress
D) Apache

19) All of the following are major players in hosting/co-location/cloud services except:
A) GoDaddy.
B) WordPress.
C) Verio.
D) Liquid Web.

6
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20) Which form of testing compares a control page with one that is very different?
A) template test
B) new concept test
C) funnel test
D) system test
21) A template test is a form of which type of testing?
A) unit testing
B) system testing
C) acceptance testing
D) A/B testing
22) When using multivariate testing, if you wish to test two different versions of an image, a
button, and a piece of text, how many combinations will you need to test?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
23) The process of comparing a website with that of its competitors in terms of response speed,
quality of layout, and design is known as:
A) split testing.
B) funnel testing.
C) benchmarking.
D) system testing.

7
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24) The SDLC methodology helps developers to understand the business objectives of a system
and design an appropriate solution.
Answer:
TRUE / FALSE

25) When developing an e-commerce presence, it is important to understand that the technology
must drive the business, not the reverse.
Answer:
TRUE / FALSE

26) Using prebuilt templates is typically one of the most inexpensive options when building an e-
commerce site.
Answer:
TRUE / FALSE

27) In general, the annual system maintenance cost will roughly parallel the development cost.
Answer: TRUE/ FALSE
28) A multi-tier architecture typically includes only a web server and a database server.
Answer:
TRUE / FALSE

29) Apache web server software works with Linux and Unix operating systems.
Answer:
TRUE / FALSE

8
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30) All of the following might be part of a website's middle-tier layer except:
A) a database server.
B) an ad server.
C) legacy corporate applications.
D) a mail server.
31) The leading web server software is:
A) Apache.
B) Microsoft Internet Information Server.
C) Sun Solaris.
D) Google Enterprise Server.
32) All of the following are basic functionality provided by web servers except:
A) site management tools.
B) data capture tools.
C) security services.
D) a shopping cart.

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33) Which of the following is used to process certificates and private/public key information?
A) HTTP
B) Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security
C) File Transfer Protocol
D) data capture tools
34) Which of the following would you use to verify that links on web pages are valid?
A) HTTP
B) FTP
C) data capture tools
D) site management
tools
35) Which of the following is an example of a CMS?
A) Apache
B) Drupal
C) Dreamweaver CC
D) Webtrends Analytics
36) Advantages of dynamic page generation include all of the following except:
A) lowered menu costs.
B) market segmentation.
C) nearly cost-free price discrimination.
D) client-side execution of
programming.

11
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37) Which of the following cannot be used to retrieve objects from a database?
A) CGI
B) ASP
C) JSP
D) HTML
38) Which of the following types of application server monitors and controls access to a main
web server, and implements firewall protection?
A) proxy server
B) list server
C) groupware server
D) mail server
39) Which of the following technologies is used to separate the design and presentation of
content from the content creation process?
A) CGI
B) proxy server
C) shopping cart
D) CMS
40) MySQL is which of the following?
A) open source database software
B) scripting language embedded in HTML documents
C) web server software
D) website analytics software

12
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41) All of the following are basic functionality provided by e-commerce merchant server
software except:
A) a product catalog.
B) marketing analytics.
C) a shopping cart.
D) credit card processing.
42) are a kind of middleware software that provides the glue connecting traditional
corporate systems to the customer as well as all the functionality needed to conduct e-commerce.
A) Application servers
B) Web page servers
C) Database servers
D) Content management servers
43) Which of the following is a standard that makes it possible to access data from any
application regardless of the database and operating system software being used?
A) CGI
B) ODBC
C) MySQL
D) HTTP
44) The web server software used has a significant impact on how a website's web pages look on
a user's computer.
Answer: FALSE

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45) Prior to the development of e-commerce, websites primarily delivered static HTML pages.
Answer: TRUE
46) Dynamic page generation makes it easier to segment markets.
Answer: TRUE/

47) Objects can be retrieved from the database using Java Server Pages.
Answer: TRUE/FALSE

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48) The term stateless refers to the fact that:

A) no one government entity controls the Internet.
B) the server does not have to maintain an ongoing dedicated interaction with the
clientcomputer.
C) system performance degrades as more simultaneous users require service.
D) web servers may maintain multiple instances of server software to handle requests.
49) Which of the following types of sites typically needs a high percentage of secure pages?
A) web services
B) customer self-service
C) trading
D) publishing/subscription
50) Which of the following is not a main factor in determining the overall demand on an e-
commerce site?
A) file sizes of web pages being served
B) number of simultaneous users in peak periods
C) speed of legacy applications that are needed to supply data to web pages
D) whether content is dynamic or static
51) All of the following are steps one can take to right-size a website's hardware platform and
meet demands for service except:
A) scaling hardware vertically.
B) scaling hardware horizontally.
C) replacing static pages with dynamically generated pages.
D) improving processing architecture.

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52) All of the following are methods of improving the processing architecture of a website
except:
A) separating static content from dynamic content.
B) optimizing ASP code.
C) optimizing the database schema.
D) adding web
servers.
53) Upgrading a server from a single processor to multiple processors is an example of scaling a
site vertically.
Answer:FALSE

54) Storing HTML pages in RAM rather than on a server's hard drive is an expensive way to
fine-tune the processing architecture of a website.
Answer: TRUE

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55) Django is based on which of the following?

A) PHP
B) Python
C) Perl
D) Ruby on Rails
56) Ruby on Rails is based on which of the following philosophies?
A) SLDC
B) CoC
C) LAMP
D) Ajax
57) Which of the following is the most commonly used server-side scripting language?
A) Ruby on Rails
B) Django
C) PHP
D) Perl

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58) All of the following are website design features that annoy customers except:
A) slow-loading pages.
B) pop-under ads.
C) splash pages.
D) multi-browser
functionality.
59) All of the following are important factors in search engine optimization except:
A) selecting keywords and page titles.
B) encouraging other sites to link to your site.
C) buying search engine ads.
D) adhering to privacy
policies.
60) provides a set of standards for communicating between a browser and a program
running on a server that allows for interaction between the user and server.
A) CGI
B) ColdFusion
C) JavaScript
D) VBScript
61) is a programming language invented by Netscape used to control the objects on an
HTML page and handle interactions with the browser.
A) VBScript
B) ActiveX
C) ColdFusion
D) JavaScript

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62) The primary way a website is able to personalize the content presented to a visitor is through
the use of:
A) privacy policies.
B) cookies.
C) accessibility rules.
D) site management tools.
63) Which of the following is not part of the LAMP open source web development model?
A) Linux
B) Apache
C) Microsoft IIS
D) PHP
64) Django follows the _ programming principle.
A) CoC
B) WYSIWYG
C) DRY
D) LAMP
65) PHP is an open source, general purpose scripting language that is most frequently used in
server-side Web applications to generate dynamic web page content.
Answer:
TRUE/ FALSE

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66) All of the following are key design principles of responsive web design except:
A) flexible grid-based layouts.
B) media queries.
C) coding by convention.
D) flexible images and media.
67) Which of the following is a server-side technique that detects the attributes of the device
making the request, and using predefined templates, loads a version of a site optimized for the
device?
A) LAMP
B) AWD
C) mobile first design
D) RoR
68) Which of the following statements about responsive web design (RWD) is not true?
A) RWD works best for sites that have complex functionality.
B) RWD tools include HTML5 and CSS3.
C) RWD makes it possible to design a website that automatically adjusts its layout and display
according to the screen resolution of the device on which it is being viewed.
D) RWD can be costly.

69) Building which of the following is the most expensive path to creating a mobile presence?
A) native app
B) mobile website
C) mobile web app
D) hybrid HTTP

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70) Which of the following statements about mobile websites is not true?
A) Mobile websites run on a firm's servers, just like a traditional website.
B) Mobile websites can be built using standard web tools such as server-side HTML, Linux,
PHP and SQL.
C) Generally, mobile websites operate more quickly than traditional websites viewed
on adesktop computer connected to a broadband office network.
D) Most large firms today have mobile websites.
71) Beginning the e-commerce development process with a mobile presence rather than a
desktop website is referred to as which of the following?
A) RWD
B) AWD
C) mobile first design
D) RESS
72) An HTML5 app is one designed to specifically operate using a mobile device's hardware and
operating system.
Answer:
TRUE/ FALSE

73) Native web apps need to be developed for different mobile platforms.
Answer:
TRUE/ FALSE

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lOMoAR cPSD| 1567027

1) Confidentiality is sometimes confused with:

A) privacy.
B) authenticity.
C) integrity.
D) nonrepudiation.
2) is the ability to ensure that e-commerce participants do not deny their online
actions.
A) Nonrepudiation
B) Authenticity
C) Availability
D) Integrity
3) is the ability to identify the person or entity with whom you are dealing on the
Internet.
A) Nonrepudiation
B) Authenticity
C) Availability
D) Integrity

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4) Which of the following is an example of an integrity violation of e-commerce security?

A) A website is not actually operated by the entity the customer believes it to be.
B) A merchant uses customer information in a manner not intended by the customer.
C) A customer denies that he is the person who placed the order.
D) An unauthorized person intercepts an online communication and changes its
contents.
5) is the ability to ensure that an e-commerce site continues to function as intended.
A) Nonrepudiation
B) Authenticity
C) Availability
D) Integrity
6) Which of the following is an example of an online privacy violation?
A) your e-mail being read by a hacker
B) your online purchasing history being sold to other merchants without your consent
C) your computer being used as part of a botnet
D) your e-mail being altered by a hacker
7) is the ability to ensure that messages and data are only available to those authorized
to view them.
A) Confidentiality
B) Integrity
C) Privacy
D) Availability

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8) Typically, the more security measures added to an e-commerce site, the slower and more
difficult it becomes to use.
Answer:
TRUE / FLASE

9) Which of the following statements about data breaches in 2016 is not true?
A) According to Symantec, the number of major breaches in 2016 increased from the number in
2015.
B) According to Symantec, the total number of data breaches in 2016 increased significantly
from the number in 2015.
C) According to Symantec, the total number of identities exposed by data breaches in 2016
increased to 1.1 billion.
D) According to the Identity Theft Resource Center, data breaches involving the business sector
represented over 45% of all breaches.

10) Bitcoins are an example of:

A) digital cash.
B) virtual currency.
C) a stored value payment system.
D) an EBPP system.

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11) The overall rate of online credit card fraud is of all online card transactions.
A) less than 1%
B) around 5%
C) around 10%
D) around 15%
12) Which of the following has the Internet Advertising Bureau urged advertisers to abandon?
A) HTML
B) HTML5
C) Adobe Flash
D) Adobe Acrobat
13) Accessing data without authorization on Dropbox is an example of a:
A) social network security issue.
B) cloud security issue.
C) mobile platform security issue.
D) sniffing issue.
14) Which of the following is not a key factor for establishing e-commerce security?
A) data integrity
B) technology
C) organizational policies
D) laws and industry standards

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15) Conficker is an example of a:

A) virus.
B) worm.
C) Trojan horse.
D) botnet.
16) Which of the following is the leading cause of data breaches?
A) theft of a computer
B) accidental disclosures
C) hackers
D) DDoS attacks
Learning Objective:
5.2: Identify the key
security threats in the
e-commerce
environment.

17) Software that is used to obtain private user information such as a user's keystrokes or copies
of e-mail is referred to as:
A) spyware.
B) a backdoor.
C) browser parasite.
D) adware.

18) According to Symantec, almost half of the e-mail addresses involved in business e-mail
compromise (BEC) phishing that it analyzed had an IP address originating in:
A) China.
B) Russia.
C) Nigeria.
D) North Korea.

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19) What is the most frequent cause of stolen credit cards and card information today?
A) lost cards
B) the hacking and looting of corporate servers storing credit card information
C) sniffing programs
D) phishing attacks
20) Which dimension(s) of security is spoofing a threat to?
A) integrity
B) availability
C) integrity and authenticity
D) availability and integrity
21) Which of the following is not an example of malicious code?
A) scareware
B) Trojan horse
C) bot
D) sniffer
22) The attack on Dyn Inc., in October 2016 is an example of which of the following?
A) SQL injection attack
B) browser parasite
C) DDoS attack
D) MitM attack

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23) Angler is an example of which of the following?

A) worm
B) exploit kit
C) phishing
D) hacktivism
24) Malware that comes with a downloaded file that a user requests is called a:
A) Trojan horse.
B) backdoor.
C) drive-by download.
D) PUP.
25) Which of the following is not an example of a PUP?
A) adware
B) browser parasite
C) drive-by download
D) spyware
.

26) Which of the following was designed to cripple Iranian nuclear centrifuges?
A) Stuxnet
B) Flame
C) Snake
D) Storm

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27) Automatically redirecting a web link to a different address is an example of which of the
following?
A) sniffing
B) social engineering
C) pharming
D) DDoS attack
28) According to Symantec, the number of data breaches in 2016 increased by
compared to 2015.
A) 100%
B) 15%
C) 150%
D) 20%

29) According to Ponemon Institute's 2017 survey, which of the following was not among the
causes of the most costly cybercrimes?
A) malicious insiders
B) malicious code
C) denial of service
D) botnets
30) typically attack governments, organizations, and sometimes individuals for
political purposes.
A) Crackers
B) White hats
C) Grey hats
D) Hacktivists

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31) The Internet Advertising Bureau has urged advertisers to abandon Adobe Flash in favor of
HTML5.
Answer:
TRUE/ FLASE

32) A Trojan horse appears to be benign, but then does something other than expected.
Answer: TRUE/ FLASE
33) Phishing attacks rely on browser parasites.
Answer: TRUE/ FLASE
34) WannaCry is an example of ransomware.
Answer: TRUE/ FLASE
35) Spoofing is the attempt to hide a hacker's true identity by using someone else's e-mail or IP
address.
Answer:
TRUE/FLASE
36) Exploit kits can be purchased by users to protect their computers from malware.
Answer: TRUE/ FLASE
37) A drive-by download is malware that comes with a downloaded file that a user intentionally
or unintentionally requests.
Answer:
TRUE/ FLASE

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38) Changeup is an example of a software vulnerability.

Answer: TRUE/ FLASE

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39) Next generation firewalls provide all of the following except:

A) an application-centric approach to firewall control.
B) the ability to identify applications regardless of the port, protocol, or security evasion tools
used.
C) the ability to automatically update applications with security patches.
D) the ability to identify users regardless of the device or IP address.
channels and protect networks, servers, and clients.

40) symmetric key cryptography is also known as:

A) public key cryptography.
B) secret key cryptography.
C) PGP.
D) PKI.

41) All the following statements about symmetric key cryptography are true except:
A) in symmetric key cryptography, both the sender and the receiver use the same key to encrypt
and decrypt a message.
B) the Data Encryption Standard is a symmetric key encryption system.
C) symmetric key cryptography is computationally slower.
D) symmetric key cryptography is a key element in digital envelopes.
channels and protect networks, servers, and clients.

42) The Data Encryption Standard uses a(n) -bit key.

A) 8
B) 56
C) 256
D) 512

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43) All of the following statements about public key cryptography are true except:
A) public key cryptography uses two mathematically related digital keys.
B) public key cryptography ensures authentication of the sender.
C) public key cryptography does not ensure message integrity.
D) public key cryptography is based on the idea of irreversible mathematical functions.
channels and protect networks, servers, and clients.

44) Which of the following is the current standard used to protect Wi-Fi networks?
A) WEP
B) TLS
C) WPA2
D) WPA3

45) All of the following statements about PKI are true except:
A) the term PKI refers to the certification authorities and digital certificate procedures that are
accepted by all parties.
B) PKI is not effective against insiders who have a legitimate access to corporate systems
including customer information.
C) PKI guarantees that the verifying computer of the merchant is secure.
D) the acronym PKI stands for public key infrastructure.

46) A digital certificate contains all of the following except the:

A) subject's private key.
B) subject's public key.
C) digital signature of the certification authority.
D) digital certificate serial number.

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47) Which of the following dimensions of e-commerce security is not provided for by
encryption?
A) confidentiality
B) availability
C) message integrity
D) nonrepudiation

48) All of the following are methods of securing channels of communication except:
A) SSL/TLS.
B) digital certificates.
C) VPN.
D) FTP.
49) A is hardware or software that acts as a filter to prevent unwanted packets from
entering a network.
A) firewall
B) virtual private network
C) proxy server
D) PPTP
50) Proxy servers are also known as:
A) firewalls.
B) application gateways.
C) dual home systems.
D) packet filters.

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51) All of the following are used for authentication except:

A) digital signatures.
B) certificates of authority.
C) biometric devices.
D) packet filters.
52) An intrusion detection system can perform all of the following functions except:
A) examining network traffic.
B) setting off an alarm when suspicious activity is detected.
C) checking network traffic to see if it matches certain patterns or preconfigured rules.
D) blocking suspicious
activity.
53) Which of the following is not an example of an access control?
A) firewalls
B) proxy servers
C) digital signatures
D) login passwords
54) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) A VPN provides both confidentiality and integrity.
B) A VPN uses both authentication and encryption.
C) A VPN uses a dedicated secure line.
D) The primary use of VPNs is to establish secure communications among business partners.

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55) Which of the following statements is not true?

A) Apple's Touch ID stores a digital replica of a user's actual fingerprint in Apple's iCloud.
B) Biometric devices reduce the opportunity for spoofing.
C) A retina scan is an example of a biometric device.
D) Biometric data stored on an iPhone is encrypted.
56) Face ID is an example of which of the following?
A) biometrics
B) encryption
C) IDS
D) firewall
57) Which of the following is the most common protocol for securing a digital channel of
communication?
A) DES
B) SSL/TLS
C) VPN
D) HTTP
58) SSL/TLS cannot provide irrefutability.
Answer: TRUE/ FALSE

59) The easiest and least expensive way to prevent threats to system integrity is to install anti-
virus software.
Answer:
TRUE/FALSE

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60) What is the first step in developing an e-commerce security plan?

A) Create a security organization.
B) Develop a security policy.
C) Perform a risk assessment.
D) Perform a security audit.
61) To allow lower-level employees access to the corporate network while preventing them from
accessing private human resources documents, you would use:
A) access controls.
B) an authorization management system.
C) security tokens.
D) an authorization policy.
62) Which of the following statements is not true?
A) A majority of states require companies that maintain personal data on their residents to
publicly disclose when a security breach affecting those residents has occurred.
B) The USA Patriot Act broadly expanded law enforcement's investigative and surveillance
powers.
C) The Cybersecurity Information Sharing Act was strongly supported by most large
technologycompanies and privacy advocates.
D) The Federal Trade Commission has asserted that it has authority over corporations' data
security practices.

63) All of the following are examples of social/mobile peer-to-peer payment systems except:
A) Venmo.
B) Bill Me Later.
C) Square Cash.
D) Google Wallet.

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64) All of the following statements about Apple Pay are true except which of the following?
A) Apple Pay is subject to regulations issued by the Bureau of Consumer Financial
Protectionapplicable to GPR transactions.
B) Apple Pay is based on Touch ID biometric fingerprint scanning.
C) Apple Pay can be used for mobile payments at the point of sale at a physical store.
D) Apple Pay relies on NFC chip technology.
65) PayPal is an example of what type of payment system?
A) online stored value payment system
B) digital checking system
C) accumulating balance system
D) digital credit card system
66) PCI-DSS is a standard established by which of the following?
A) the banking industry
B) the credit card industry
C) the federal government
D) the retail industry
67) Which of the following is not a major trend in e-commerce payments in 2017-2018?
A) Mobile retail payment volume decreases.
B) PayPal remains the most popular alternative payment method.
C) Google refocuses Google Wallet solely on sending and receiving money.
D) Payment by credit and/or debit card remains the dominant form of online payment.

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68) All of the following are limitations of the existing online credit card payment system except:
A) poor security.
B) cost to consumers.
C) cost to merchant.
D) social equity.
69) Linden Dollars, created for use in Second Life, are an example of:
A) digital cash.
B) virtual currency.
C) EBPP.
D) peer-to-peer payment systems.
70) Which of the following is a set of short-range wireless technologies used to share
information among devices within about two inches of each other?
A) DES
B) NFC
C) IM
D) text messaging
71) PayPal is the most popular alternative payment method in the United States.
Answer: TRUE/ FLASE
72) Apple Pay uses near field communication (NFC) chips.
Answer: TRUE/ FALSE

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73) Digital cash is legal tender that is instantly convertible into other forms of value without the
intermediation of any third parties.
Answer:
TRUE/FALSE

74) There is a finite number of Bitcoins that can be created.

Answer: TRUE/ FALSE

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lOMoAR cPSD| 1567027

1) Which of the following online advertising formats attracted the least amount of spending in
2017?
A) search
B) classifieds
C) rich media
D) e-mail

2) Which of the following is not one of the main stages of the online purchasing process?
A) post-purchase service and loyalty
B) awareness
C) engagement
D) conversation

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3) What is the approximate Internet penetration rate for individuals that have attained less than a
high-school education?
A) 58%
B) 68%
C) 78%
D) 88%

4) All of the following are online communications that are used to support the evaluation of
alternatives stages of the consumer decision process except:
A) search engines.
B) online catalogs.
C) social networks.
D) targeted banner
ads.

5) In modeling online consumer behavior, the concept of "consumer skills" refers to the:
A) education level of the consumer.
B) communication skills of the consumer.
C) knowledge consumers have about how to conduct online transactions.
D) product evaluation skills of the consumer.

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6) In the early years of e-commerce, prior to 2000, single, white, young college-educated males
with high income dominated the Internet in terms of percentage of Internet usage.
Answer:
TRUE/FALSE

7) Consumers choose the online channel primarily due to social media influence.
Answer: TRUE/FALSE

8) The majority of online shoppers find vendors by clicking on display ads.

Answer: TRUE/FALSE
9) Research shows the two key factors shaping the decision to purchase online are utility and
trust.
Answer:
TRUE/FALSE
10) Google introduced which of the following changes to its search algorithm to weed out low
quality sites from search results?
A) Penguin
B) Hummingbird
C) Panda
D) Knowledge Graph

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11) Which of the following forms of online advertising is expected to grow the fastest between
2017 and 2021?
A) paid search
B) sponsorships
C) search engines
D) rich media
12)Which of the following is not one of the four main methods advertisers use to behaviorally
target ads?
A) Nielsen ratings
B) data collected from social networks
C) integration of online data with offline data
D) clickstream data
13. Which of the following search engine algorithm updates enables Google's search engine
toevaluate an entire sentence rather than just a key word?
E) Panda
F) Penguin
G) Hummingbird
H) Graph Search
13) Which of the following is not true about search engine advertising?
A) Spending on search engine advertising constitutes over 45% of all online advertising
spending.
B) The top three search engine providers supply over 95% of all online searches.
C) The click-through rate for search engine marketing has been fairly steady over the years.
D) Search engine advertising is the fastest growing type of online
advertising.

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14) Which of the following is not a practice that degrades the results and usefulness of
searchengines?
A) social search
B) link farms
C) content farms
D) click fraud
advertising strategies and tools.

15) Amazon's Associates program is an example of which of the following?

A) viral marketing
B) local marketing
C) affiliate marketing
D) lead generation marketing
16) Ad blockers operate in a manner similar to which of the following?
A) anti-virus software
B) firewalls
C) Flash cookies
D) anonymous browsing
17) Which of the following is not a primary source of ad fraud?
A) browser extensions that insert ads into a premium publisher's website and then list the ads as
available on a programmatic ad exchange
B) ad targeting firms that create bots that imitate the behavior of real shoppers and then charge
advertisers
C) botnets hired by publishers to click on web pages to create phony traffic
D) native advertising that is displayed on a social media
site

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18) The percentage of all e-mail that is spam averaged around _ in 2017.
A) 55%
B) 65%
C) 75%
D) 85%
.

19) Which of the following statements about CAN-SPAM is not true?

A) CAN-SPAM went into effect in January 2004.
B) CAN-SPAM prohibits unsolicited e-mail (spam).
C) CAN-SPAM prohibits the use of deceptive subject lines and false headers.
D) Large spammers are among CAN-SPAM's biggest supporters.
20) Which of the following statements about Canada's anti-spam law is not true?
A) Canada's law is based on an opt-in model.
B) The law has no impact on companies located within the United States.
C) The first phase of the law went into effect in 2014.
D) The law applies to e-mail, texts, and social media messaging.
21) Which of the following is the most important tool in establishing a relationship with
thecustomer?
A) company website
B) company CRM system
C) Facebook
D) search engine display ads

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22) All of the following are "traditional" online marketing tools except:
A) affiliate marketing.
B) e-mail and permission marketing.
C) social marketing.
D) sponsorship marketing.
23) All of the following are among those most frequently affected by ad-blocking except:
A) gaming sites.
B) newsgroup/forums.
C) social network sites.
D) online retailers.
24) The Nike iD program is an example of which of the following marketing techniques?
A) customer co-production
B) transactive content
C) price discrimination
D) permission marketing
25) The incremental cost of building the next unit of a good is called the:
A) Law of One Price.
B) variable cost.
C) marginal cost.
D) fixed cost.

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26) Which of the following statements about a free pricing strategy is false?
A) Free products and services can knock out potential and actual competitors.
B) The free pricing strategy was born in the early days of the Web.
C) It is difficult to convert free customers into paying customers.
D) Free products and services can help build market awareness.
27) Creating multiple variations of information goods and selling these to different market
segments at different prices is called:
A) bundling.
B) customization.
C) dynamic pricing.
D) versioning.
28) All of the following are fixed price strategies except:
A) bundling.
B) versioning.
C) free pricing.
D) yield
management.
29) Which of the following involves getting customers to pass along a company's marketing
message to friends, family, and colleagues?
A) affiliate marketing
B) viral marketing
C) native advertising
D) lead generation marketing

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30) Google's AdSense is an example of which of the following?

A) context advertising
B) SEO
C) programmatic advertising
D) viral marketing
31) Which of the following is based on the idea of complete price transparency in a perfect
information marketplace?
A) the Law of One Price
B) dynamic pricing
C) price discrimination
D) versioning
32) Which of the following industries accounts for the highest percentage of spending on online
advertising?
A) financial services
B) retail
C) automotive
D) entertainment
33) Which of the following statements about native advertising is not true?
A) Native advertising is controversial.
B) Native advertising is a new form of advertising found only online.
C) Native advertising is growing rapidly, especially on social networks.
D) Consumers look at native ads much more frequently than display ads.

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34) Which of the following is an automated, auction-based method for matching demand and
supply for online display ads?
A) retargeting
B) behavioral targeting
C) programmatic advertising
D) keyword advertising
35) Research has found that most of the ad impressions served across display advertising
platforms are not viewable.
Answer:
TRUE / FALSE

36) The highest amount of online advertising spending is for online video ads.
Answer: T R U E / FALSE

37) Evidence suggests that real-time customer chat increases the dollar value of transactions.
Answer: TRUE/ FLASE

38) Consumers tend to look at native ads more frequently than they look at display ads.
Answer: TRUE/ FALSE

39) Lead generation marketing firms specialize in inbound marketing.

Answer: TRUE/ false

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40) An ad is considered viewable if half of the ad can be viewed for at least five consecutive
seconds.
Answer:
TRUE/ FALSE

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41) Which of the following would you implement to collect and analyze your company's big
data?
A) data warehouse
B) Hadoop
C) SQL
D) profiling
42) Which of the following statements about the Internet's impact on marketing is not true?
A) The Internet has broadened the scope of marketing communications.
B) The Internet has decreased the impact of brands.
C) The Internet has increased the richness of marketing communications.
D) The Internet has expanded the information intensity of the marketplace.

43) Which of the following features of e-commerce technology has reduced the cost of
delivering marketing messages and receiving feedback from users?
A) ubiquity
B) richness
C) information density
D) universal
standards
44) Which feature of e-commerce technology decreases the cost of delivering
marketingmessages and receiving feedback from users?
A) personalization/customization
B) universal standards
C) ubiquity
D) interactivity

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45) The richness made possible by e-commerce technologies does which of the following?
A) It reduces the cost of delivering marketing messages and receiving feedback from users.
B) It allows consumers to become co-producers of the goods and services being sold.
C) It allows video, audio, and text to be integrated into a single marketing
message andconsuming experience.
D) It enables worldwide customer service and marketing communications.
46) Which of the following is a Google algorithm update related to local search?
A) Penguin
B) Hummingbird
C) Panda
D) Possum
47) All of the following statements about cookies are true except:
A) cookies can be used to create cross-site profiles of users.
B) the data typically stored in cookies includes a unique ID and e-mail address.
C) cookies make shopping carts possible by allowing a site to keep track of a user's actions.
D) the more cookies are deleted, the less accurate ad server metrics become.
48) A web beacon is:
A) a cookie that carries a virus.
B) an executable cookie.
C) an automated applet for performing web searches.
D) a tiny graphics file embedded in an e-mail or web
page.

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49) is an open source database that can store and analyze both structured and
unstructured data.
A) ASP
B) PHP
C) Hadoop
D) JSP
50) A is a repository of customer information that records all contacts that a customer
has with a firm and generates a customer profile available to everyone in the firm with a need to
know the customer.
A) customer service chat system
B) CRM system
C) data warehouse
D) transactive content system
51) The marketing technique known as involves merchants offering many products for
which there is little demand.
A) long tail marketing
B) flash marketing
C) yield management
D) bait-and-switch
52) Which of the following provides web marketers with a very quick means of identifying a
customer and understanding his or her behavior at a site?
A) transaction logs
B) cookies
C) registration forms
D) data warehouses

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53) Transaction logs are built into client software.

Answer: T R U E / FALSE

54) Regular in-app cookies can be shared between apps.

Answer: TRUE/ FALSE

55) If you want to determine the size of your website's audience, the metric you will use for the
most accurate measurement will be:
A) page views.
B) unique visitors.
C) hits.
D) reach.

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56) Cross-platform attribution refers to:

A) how to assign credit to different marketing initiatives.
B) understanding why visitors to a website purchase a product.
C) understanding how impressions lead to visits.
D) understanding why people click on ads.
57) VTR measures the _ response rate to an ad.
A) 30-minute
B) 24-hour
C) 7-day
D) 30-day
58) Uber has been criticized for using which of the following?
A) flash marketing
B) bundling
C) surge pricing
D) freemium
59) What kinds of ads have the lowest CTR?
A) video ads
B) e-mails to an in-house list
C) social network display ads
D) banner display ads

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60) Purchasing an online ad on a CPA basis means that the advertiser:

A) pays for impressions in 1,000 unit lots.
B) pays a pre-negotiated fee for each click an ad receives.
C) pays only for those users who perform a specific action, such as registering, purchasing,
etc.
D) exchanges something of equal value for the ad space.
61) eCPM measures the ROI of an ad by dividing the total earnings of the ad by which of the
following?
A) the total number of impressions
B) the total number of impressions in hundreds
C) the total number of impressions in thousands
D) the total number of impressions in millions
62) Which of the following measures the average length of stay at a website?
A) loyalty
B) stickiness
C) page views
D) retention rate
63) Acquisition rate is a measure of the:
A) percentage of visitors who indicate an interest in a site's products by registering or
visiting aproduct's pages.
B) percentage of visitors who become customers.
C) percentage of existing customers who continue to buy on a regular basis.
D) percentage of shoppers who do not return within a year after their initial purchase.

64) Recency refers to the:

A) percentage of customers who do not return during the next year after an initial purchase.
B) time elapsed since the last visit made by a customer.
C) percentage of existing customers who continue to buy on a regular basis.
D) percentage of customers who return to the site within a year to make additional purchases.
65) View-to-cart ratio is a measure of the:
A) percentage of visitors who indicate an interest in a site's products by registering or visiting a
product's pages.
B) percentage of views that lead to an add-to-cart action.
C) percentage of existing customers who continue to buy on a regular basis.
D) percentage of shoppers who do not return within a year after their initial purchase.
66) Which of the following measures the ratio of items purchased to product views?
A) conversion rate
B) cart conversion rate
C) browse-to-buy ratio
D) view-to-cart ratio
67) Which of the following measures the percentage of e-mails that could not be delivered?
A) abandonment rate
B) unsubscribe rate
C) bounce-back rate
D) attrition rate
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68) Which of the following is the most meaningful metric for video ads?
A) view time
B) CTR
C) completion rate
D) skip rate
69) Which of the following measures the percentage of times an ad is clicked?
A) retention rate
B) CTR
C) loyalty rate
D) conversion rate

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