HEMATOLOGY - BOARD EXAM 7.

What is the procedure useful in screening

large numbers of people for the presence of
1. The bleeding is prolonged in: Hbs? The positive reaction in this procedure is
the capacity of the solution.
1. Thrombocytopenia A. Acid slide elution test
2. Von willebrand’s disease B. Dithionite solubility test
3. Afibrinogenemia C. Ascorbate cyanide test
4. Ingestion of aspirin D. Schumm test
A. 2,3 C. 1,2
B. 1,2,3 D. 1,2,3,4 8. The passage of red to brown urine upon
rising from sleep is highly suggestive of what
2. Which of the following was designed to of the following conditions?
allow standardization of prothrombin time A. Cryoglobulinemia
reporting worldwide for monitoring patient or B. Cold agglutinin test
oral anticoagulant? C. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
A. International normalized ratio D. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
B. International committee on thrombin
and hemostasis 9. Which of the following conditions is
C. International commission on associated with thrombocytosis?
standardization in hematology A. Wiskott-aldrich syndrome
D. International sensitivity index B. May hegglin anomaly
C. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
3. Which of the following is not anemia due to D. Polycythemia vera
intracorpuscular defect in the RBCs?
A. Hereditary stomatocytosis 10. Macrocytic anemia is not seen in which of
B. Hemolytic diseases of the newborn the following conditions?
C. Unstable hemoglobin disease A. Folic acid deficiency
D. Favism B. D. Latum infection
C. Thalassemia
4. Deficiency of which of the following D. Vitamin B12 deficiency
substances prolongs prothrombin clotting
time? 11. Which of the following stains will
A. Prothrombin demonstrate ringed sideroblasts in a bone
B. Fibrinogen marrow smear?
C. Antihemophilic factor A. Wright’s C. Sudan
D. Plasma thromboplastin component black B
B. Peroxidase D. Prussian blue
5. What abnormal red cell shape results from
the premature release of red blood cells, 12. What is a large cell with characteristic
usually in periods of erythropoetic stress and mirror-image nuclei and prominent nucleoli,
in circumstances in which accelerated likened to an owl’s eye?
hemoglobin synthesis occurs? A. Osteoclast
A. Acanthocytes C. Microcytes B. Gaucher’s cell
B. Macrocytes D. Dacrocytes C. Ferrata cell
D. Reed-Sternberg cell
6. With automated or direct chamber count,
eosinophilia is present when the count 13. What is the antibody usually associated
exceeds: with cold agglutinin disease?
A. 0.70 x 10^9/L C. 0.35 x 10^9/L A. IgM C. IgG
B. 0.50 x 10^9/L D. 0.60 x 10^9/L B. IgA D. IgE
14. Which of these drugs will cause 4. Nuclear chromatin is arranged in a
neutropenia by immunologically mediated configuration resembling the spokes of
destruction of neutrophils? a wheel
A. Anti-thyroid compounds A. 1,2,3,4 C. 2,4
B. Amidopyrine B. 1,2 D. 1,2,3
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Digitalis 22. Marked basophilic stippling of the red
blood cells may be observed in:
15. The last stage in the granulocytic A. Glutathione reductase deficiency
maturation series to undergo mitosis is: B. G6PD deficiency
A. Myelocyte C. Promyelocyte C. Pyrimidine 5’ nucleotides deficiency
B. Myeloblast D. Metamyelocyte D. Pyruvate kinase deficiency

16. Which of the following can be detected 23. What is the appearance of the red cells on
microscopically in a modified brilliant cresyl the peripheral smear of patients with iron
blue test? deficiency anemia?
A. Hgb S C. Hgb A A. Normocytic, normochromic
B. Hgb F D. Hgb H B. Macrocytic, normochromic
C. Microcytic, hypochromic
17. Which of the following is characteristic of D. Microcytic, normochromic
the macrophage in Gaucher’s disease?
A. The cytoplasm has crumpled tissue 24. Which of these veins is generally chosen
paper appearance for venipuncture because of its large, close to
B. The cytoplasm has eosinophilic the skin, and does not roll when punctured?
globules A. Median cubital vein
C. It has striking blue color B. Median antibrachial
D. None of the above C. Median basilica
D. Cephalic
18. Leukopenia implies WBC count in an adult
below: 25. What are the immediate precursors of
A. 5.0 x 10^9/L C. 2.0 x 10^9/L mature neutrophils?
B. 4.0 x 10^9/L D. 3.0 x 10^9/L A. Promyelocyte C. Myelocytes
B. Band neutrophils D. Metamyelocytes
19. Which of these tests are usually prolonged
in fibrinogen disorder? 26. Which of the following peripheral blood
1. APTT C. Thrombin time finding is increased in iron deficiency anemia?
2. Prothrombin time D. Reptilase time A. RDW C. MCV
A. 1,2,3,4 C. 1,2 B. RBC count D. Reticulocytes
B. 1,2,3 D. 2,3
27. Which of these anemias is the result of
20. What is the primary substance responsible abnormal DNA synthesis because of a single
for fibrinolysis? or combined deficiency of folate or vitamin
A. Adenosine C. Thrombomodulin B12?
B. Plasmin D. Prostacyclin A. Hemolytic anemia
B. Sideroblastic anemia
21. Which of the following are features of a C. Myelodysplastic anemia
plasma cell? D. Myeloblastic anemia
1. An eccentric round nucleus
2. A well-defined, clear zone adjacent to 28. Which of the following RBC abnormalities
the nucleus are seen in the blood smear of patient with
3. Abundant, blue cytoplasm megaloblastic anemia?
A. Schistocytes C. Macrocytes
B. Macrovalocytes D. Spherocytes
29. What is the anticoagulant of choice for 37. Which of the following coagulation factors
platelet counting? can be activated prematurely at refrigerator
A. EDTA temperatures?
B. Sodium citrate A. Factors I and II
C. Double oxalate mixture B. Factors V and VIII
D. Heparin C. Factors X and XII
D. Factors VII and XI
30. What is the substance secreted by the
platelets that promote platelet aggregation? 38. Which of the following is not true about
A. Serotonin C. ADP zeta sedimentation ratio?
B. Plasminogen D. Factor V A. It requires a small amount of blood
B. It does not require special instrument
31. What are blood cells involved in C. It is not affected by anemia
Diguglielmo’s syndrome? D. It has one expected range for males
A. Platelets C. Monocytes and females
B. Lymphocytes D. RBC
39. The diagnostic hallmark of Hodgkin’s
32. Which of the following conditions is
disease are the:
associated with the presence of
A. Gaucher’s cell
hypersegmented neutrophils in the peripheral
B. Reed Sternberg cells
blood smear?
C. Sezary cells
A. Severe infection
D. Niemann pick cells
B. Allergy
C. Infectious mononucleosis
40. Which of the following is not typical finding
D. Vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiency
in Von Willebrand’s disease?
33. Given a leukocyte count of 15 x 10^9/L A. Prolonged bleeding time
and an nRBC count of 25 per 100 WBCs, what B. Increased ristocetin-induced platelet
is the corrected WBC count? aggregation
A. 13 x 10^9/L C. 11 x 10^9/L C. Decrease factor VIII clotting and
B. 10 x 10^9/L D. 12 x 10^9/L antignic assays
D. Decrease platelet retention
34. All of the following conditions can be
associated with neutropenia, except: 41. In the myeloid series, the first appearance
A. Hypersplenism of cytoplasmic granules is seen in what cells?
B. Cancer chemotherapy A. Myelocytes C. Promyelocytes
C. Felty’s syndrome B. Metamyelocytes D. Myeloblasts
D. Emotional factors like anger and
42. Which of the following conditions will
stress
cause basophilia?
35. What method of detecting fibrin clot A. Hay fever
formation depends on the increase in light B. Systemic mast cell disease
scattering? C. Infectious mononucleosis
A. Electrochemical D. Whooping cough
B. Visual
C. Photo-optical 43. Which of the following diluting fluids
D. Determination of kinetic reaction contains substances that will not lyse RBCs?
A. Turk’s fluid C. Hayem’s fluid
36. A patient is suffering from gaucher’s B. 2% acetic acid D. 3% HCl
disease. What inclusions are likely to be seen
in his macrophages? 44. Basophils contain large amounts of which
A. Sphingomyelin of the following secretory products?
B. Beta galactosidase A. Histamine C. Immuneglobins
C. Glucocerebroside B. Acid phosphatase D. Myeloperoxidase
D. Alpha galactosidase
45. Which of the following cells are used for A. Acts as accentuator
the leukocyte alkaline phosphatase scoring B. Stains the eosinophils red
process? C. Lyses red blood cells
A. Metamyelocyte C. Myeloblasts D. Prevents clumping of red cells
B. Mature neutrophils D. Myelocytes
53. In the HiCN method, these forms of
hemoglobin are converted hemoglobin
46. Which if the following tests is calculated in
cyanide?
the automatic blood cell counter as an index of
1. Hb 3. Hi
RBC size differences?
2. HbC2 4. HbCO
A. RBC count
A. 2,3 C. 1,2
B. Red cell indices
B. 1,2,3,4 D. 1,2,3
C. Reticulocyte count
D. Red cell distribution width 54. Which of the following is not a diluent in
the manual WBC count?
47. Which of the following cells are decreased A. 2% glacial acetic acid
in numbers in acquired immunodeficiency B. Drabkin’s reagent
syndrome? C. Turk’s solution
A. T suppressor cells C. B cells D. 1% HCl
B. T helper cells D. T cells
55. Total WBC count time % of each type of
leukocytes in the differential count is the
48. In the absence of erythropoietin, what
formula for:
marrow cells cease production?
A. Corrected cell count
A. Megakaryocytes C. Platelets
B. Direct relative count
B. RBCs D. WBCs
C. Absolute cell count
D. Indirect relative cell count
49. What is the term used to describe the
variation in hemoglobin content when both 56. Which of the following conditions will
hypochromic and normochromic red blood produce a false negative tube solubility
cells are seen in the same blood smear? sickling test?
A. Poikilocytosis C. Anisocytosis 1. Hb value less than 7 g/dL
B. Macrocytosis D. Anichromia 2. Outdated reagents
3. Use of 10 x 75 mm test tube
50. What is the action of potassium 4. Patient recently transfused with
ferricyanide in the drabkin’s reagent? normal blood
A. Provides cyanide ions A. 1,2,3 C. 2,3
B. Enhance lysis of RBCs B. 1,2 D. 1,2,3,4
C. Shortens conversion time of
hemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin 57. In normal erythrocyte, one hbg unit in g/dL
D. Oxidise hemoglobin to hemoglobin is usually equivalent to ___ hematocrit unit in
%.
51. Which of the following statements about A. 2 C. 3
platelets is false? B. 4 D. 1
A. Mature circulating platelets have no
58. Which of the following lab tests uses fresh
nucleus
whole blood as controls?
B. They are fragments of cytoplasm of
1. Osmotic fragility
megakaryocytes
2. Auto hemolysis
C. They may appear as satellites around
3. Kleihauer betke
the cytoplasm of neutrophils
4. Heat precipitation test for Heinz bodies
D. They have a life span of 20 days
A. 1,2,3 C. 1,2
B. 1,2,3,4 D. 2,3
59. What is the substance not present in blood
52. What is the action of phyloxine in the
but which can be released from endothelial
diluting fluid for direct eosinophil count?
cells or other body tissues that activates the A. Dense granule deficiency
clotting mechanism? B. Alpha granule deficiency
A. Calcium ions C. Combined dense and Alpha granule
B. Tissue thromboplastin deficiencies
C. Platelet factor 3 D. Platelet cyclo-oxygenase deficiency
D. Factor XIII
69. What is the additive in the blue top
60. What is the basic principle involved when evacuated tube used in blood collection?
cell counting and sizing in a multichannel A. Citrate C. Heparin
counter based on the detection and B. Sodium fluoride D. EDTA
measurement of changes in electrical
resistance produced by cells as they pass 70. If anticoagulated blood is centrifuged,
through a sensing aperture? separates into three main layers, EXCEPT:
A. Cytochemical differential A. Cell mass C. Plasma
B. Light scattering B. Buffy coat D. Clot
C. Pattern recognition
D. Electronic impedance 71. Laboratory counting chamber consist of
nine large squares, each measuring:
61. In the absence of this hormone, red cell
A. 1 mm^2 C. 3 mm^2
production ceases
B. 2 mm^2 D. 4 mm^2
A. Erythropoiesis C. Erythropoietin
B. Leukopoietin D. Thrombopoietin
72. The first drop of blood after finger prick is
62. Which of the following conditions will discarded because it is:
demonstrate excessive hemolysis when A. Contaminated with alcohol
exposed to complement containing serum at B. Contaminated with epidermal cells
low pH? C. Mixed with interstitial fluid
A. Sideroblastic anemia D. Arteriolar blood
B. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
C. Hereditary elliptocytosis 73. Smallest leukocyte is:
D. Stomatocytosis A. Lymphocyte C. Monocyte
B. Eosinophil D. Neutrophil
63. Numerous and unevenly distributed
granules which may obscure the nucleus are 74. Chose the unit of measure for MCH:
frequently observed in what normal cells? A. G/dL C. Pictogram
A. Lymphocytes C. Neutrophils B. Femtoliter D. %
B. Basophils D. Eosinophil
75. The value of 0.40 hematocrit repeatedly
65. What evacuated top is needed to collect obtained form a reference of 0.40, five times
blood for prothrombin time? by five diferent medical technologists is
A. Blue top C. Green top considered as:
B. Red top D. Lavender top A. Accurate C. Accurate and precise
B. Precise D. Any of the above
66. A calibrated miller disk is used as aid in
the counting process of what type of cell? 76. The LE cell is consists of:
A. Reticulocyte C. Platelets A. Macrophage and RBC
B. Leukocyte D. Nucleated RBCs B. Phagocyte and engulfed homogenous
basophilic nuclear body
67. What is the maturation time for C. A basophilic nuclear body and
megakaryocyte in the bone marrow? surrounding segmented neutrophils
A. About 1 hr C. About 6 days (rosette)
B. About 1 day D. About 7 hours D. Mononuclear cell and basophil
68. What deficiency causes gray platelet 77. The youngest cell in the granulocytic
syndrome? series is:
 A. Lymphoblast C. Plasmoblast before drawing blood. During venipuncture,
B. Monoblast D. Myeloblast tourniquet should be placed approximately 7.5
to 10 cm above the intended punctured site.
78. The administration of coumarin interferes
A. First statement is true, second
with the synthesis of factors:
statement is false
A. II,VII,IX,X C. I,V,IV,XI
B. First statement is false, second
B. V,VI,VII,XI D. III,VI,VIII,XII
statement is true
79. This is the predominant leukocyte type in C. Both statement is true
whooping cough: D. Both statement is false
A. Basophil C. Eosinophil
B. Neutrophil D. Lymphocyte 87. All of the following will cause the reptilase
time to prolong, except:
80. When fully saturated, each gram of A. Fibrin split products
hemoglobin holds ___ of oxygen: B. Immunologic antithrombin
A. 134 mL C. 1.34 mL C. Hypofibrinogenemia
B. 134 grams D. 1.34 grams D. None of the above
81. Hemoglobin with iron unassociated with
88. All of the following statements are true
oxygen is known as:
regarding congenital aplastic anemia, except:
A. Reduced hemoglobin
A. It is also known as diamond blackfan
B. Carboxyhemoglobin
anemia
C. Sulfhemoglobin
B. Bone marrow biopsy is
D. Methemoglobin
characteristically hypoplastic to
82. Schilling leukemia is known as: aplastic
A. Acute hypergranular promyelocyte C. Peripheral blood is characteristically
B. Acute microgranular promyelocytic pancytopenic
leukemia D. Patients often have renal and thumb
C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia abnormalities
D. Acute monocytic leukemia
89. Increased EOFT is typical to which of the
83. Thin blood film can be produced by doing following cells?
all of the following, except: A. Codocytes C. Spherocytes
A. Decreasing angle of spreader slide B. Drepanocytes D. Both A and B
from the stationary slide
B. Decreasing the size of the drop of 90. The following statements regarding
blood hemoglobin types are true, except:
C. Increasing pressure A. Portland hemoglobin is composed of a
D. Increasing speed of spreading pair of zeta and a pair of gamma
chains
84. When the 6th amino acid beta chain, B. Gower 1 hemoglobin is composed of a
glutamine, is replaced by valine, which of the pair of gamma and a pair of epsilon
following hemoglobin will form? chains
A. Hemoglobin C C. Hemoglobin O arab C. Gower 2 hemoglobin is composed of a
B. Hemoglobin D D. Hemoglobin S pair of alpha and a pair of epsilon
chains
85. All of the following can cause a shift to the
D. Hemglobin A2 is composed of a pair of
right in the dissociation curve, except:
alpha and a pair of delta chains
A. Increased pH
B. Increased blood temperature
C. Increased 2,3 DPG
91. Which tests provides the best means of
D. Increased carbon dioxide
stardardizing measurement of prothrombin
86. In patients under IV therapy, IV lines
time (PT) to montor oral anti-coagulant
should be stopped for approximately 5 mins
therapy?
 A. Plasma thrombin time
B. International normalized ratio (INR) 99. Aged plasma lacks which of the following
C. Partial thromboplastin time coagulation factors?
D. None of the above 1. Factor I 3. Factor II
2. Factor V 4. Factor VIII
92. Patient's platelets count may decrease A. 1,2,3 C. 2,4
normally in what circumstance? B. 1,3 D. 1,2,3,4
A. During strenuous exercises
B. During persistent cold temperature 100. 1 to 6 WBCs per high power field is
C. Just before menstruation approximately equivalent to a WBC count of:
D. None of the above A. 13,000 to 18,000/cumm
B. 10,000 to 13,000/cumm
93. Differentiation of hemoglobin S from C. 7,000 to 10,000/cumm
hemoglobin D may be accomplished by: D. 4,000 to 7,000/cumm
A. Agar gel electrophoresis at pH 8.6
B. Agar gel electrophoresis at acid pH
C. The ham acid test
D. None of the above

94. Blood smears of patients with chronic

lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) frequently reveal:
A. Hypersegmented neutrophils
B. Auer rods inclusions
C. Barr bodies
D. Smudge cells

95. The method of choice for detecting

disorders in the extrinsic system is:
A. Clot retraction
B. Lee white test
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time
D. Prothrombin time

96. The thrombin time is useful in estimation of

adequate levels of:
A. Prothrombin C. Factor VIII
B. Factor V D. Fibrinogen

97. Dohle bodies are composed of:

A. RNA C. Denatured hemoglobin
B. Protein D. Iron

98. Which of the following test results would

be expected in a patient with severe iron
deficiency anemia?
1. Serum iron = 45 ug/dL
2. Serum total iron binding capacity =
440 ug/dL
3. Ferritin levels = 10 ug/dL
4. Prussian blue stain of bone marrow =
negative
A. 1,2,3 C. 2,4
B. 1,3 D. 1,2,3,4