TamilNadu Uniform Services Recruitment Board

jkpo;ehL rPUilg; gzpahsu; Nju;T thupak;

Recruitment of Sub-Inspectors of Police (Taluk & AR)
rhu;G Ma;thsu;fs; Nju;T (jhY}fh kw;Wk; MAjg;gil)

Written Examination for Open Candidates / nghJ tpz;zg;gjhu;fSf;fhd vOj;J Nju;T

Questions Booklet Series Enrolment No. / Nru;f;if vz;

Number / tpdhj;jhspd;
Question Booklet Serial
/ tpdhj;jhspd; tif

tupir vz;
A OMR Answer Sheet Number /
OMR tpilj;jhspd; vz;

Duration : 2 hours 30 minutes fhyk; : 2 kzp 30 epkplq;fs;

Total Marks : 70 nkhj;j kjpg;ngz;fs; : 70

INSTRUCTIONS
1. This question paper should be opened only after receiving the instruction from the examination hall invigilator.
2. This question paper contains 80 questions in Part A (General Knowledge) and 60 questions in Part B (Tamil, English,
Psychology).
3. Answer all the questions.
4. Each correct answer has half mark.
5. Write the Enrolment No. and SL No. of the OMR answer sheet at the appropriate place in the front page of the question
paper.
6. The type of question booklet series and the correct answers to the questions (A, B, C or D) should be shaded in the
relevant circles using blue or black ball point pen. The answer sheet without shading the type of question booklet
series will not be evaluated.
7. For each question only one answer is to be chosen and shaded.
8. For wrong, multiple and improper shading in answer sheets, no marks will be given for that answer.
9. If there is any printing error, or error in Page No. in the question paper, the same should be brought to the notice of
the invigilator immediately and obtained a new question paper before the commencement of written examination.
10. All the questions are bilingual except language questions (English & Tamil).
mwpTiufs;
1. ,e;j tpdhj;jhis NjHT miw fz;fhzpg;ghsupd; mwpTWj;jy; ngw;w gpd;dNu jpwf;f Ntz;Lk;.
2. ,t;tpdhj;jhspy; gFjp „m… (nghJ mwpT) gpuptpy; 80 tpdhf;fSk; kw;Wk; gFjp „M… (jkpo;> Mq;fpyk;> cstpay;)
rk;ge;jkhd ghlq;fspy; 60 tpdhf;fSk; cs;sd.
3. midj;J tpdhf;fSf;Fk; tpilaspf;f Ntz;Lk;.
4. xt;nthU rupahd tpilf;Fk; miu kjpg;ngz; toq;fg;gLk;.
5. NrHf;if vz; kw;Wk; OMR tpilj;jhspd; vz;iz mjw;Fupa ,lq;fspy; tpdhj;jhspd; Kjy; gf;fj;jpy; vOjTk;.
6. ,e;j tpdhj;jhspd; tif kw;Wk; rupahd tpilfis tpilj;jhspy; (A, B, C or D) mjw;Fz;lhd ,lj;jpy; ePyk;
(my;yJ) fUg;G epw ghy; ghapd;l; Ngdhit nfhz;L gl;il jPll ; Tk;. tpdhj;jhspd; tifia gl;il
jPl;lhtpl;lhy;> me;j tpilj;jhs; kjpg;gplg;glkhl;lhJ.
7. xU tpdhtpw;F xU tpilia kl;LNk NjHT nra;J gl;il jPll ; Tk;.
8. jtwhfNth> xU tl;lj;jpw;F Nky;gl;il jPl;bdhNyh> mbj;jy; jpUj;jq;fs; nra;jhNyh me;j tpilf;F kjpg;ngz;
fpilahJ.
9. tpdhj;jhspy; VNjDk; mr;Rg; gpioNah> gf;fq;fs; rupahf ,y;yhtpl;lhNyh> Nkw;ghHitahsuplk; Kiwapl;L
vOj;J NjHT njhlq;Ftjw;F Kd; rupahd kw;WnkhU tpdhj;jhisg; ngw;W nfhs;SkhW mwpTWj;jg;gLfpwJ.
10. ghlg;gFjp (Mq;fpyk; kw;Wk; jkpo;) tpdhf;fis jtpHj;J midj;J tpdhf;fSk; ,uz;L nkhopfspYk;
nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;sd.
 KANIYAN IAS ACADEMY
OMR SHEET (MODEL)
Recruitment of Sub-Inspectors of Police (Taluk & AR)
rhu;G Ma;thsu;fs; Nju;T (jhY}fh kw;Wk; MAjg;gil)
Name of the Candidate :
Register Number :
Subject :
Center : KANIYAN IAS ACADEMY
Date & SessioN :
Marks : /140
Use Black or Blue Ballpoint Pen Only.

Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer Q.No. Answer

1 36 71 106
2 37 72 107
3 38 73 108
4 39 74 109
5 40 75 110
6 41 76 111
7 42 77 112
8 43 78 113
9 44 79 114
10 45 80 115
11 46 81 116
12 47 82 117
13 48 83 118
14 49 84 119
15 50 85 120
16 51 86 121
17 52 87 122
18 53 88 123
19 54 89 124
20 55 90 125
21 56 91 126
22 57 92 127
23 58 93 128
24 59 94 129
25 60 95 130
26 61 96 131
27 62 97 132
28 63 98 133
29 64 99 134
30 65 100 135
31 66 101 136
32 67 102 137
33 68 103 138
34 69 104 139
35 70 105 140

Nju;tupd; ifnahg;gk; / Signature of the Candidate fz;fhzpg;ghshpd;ifnahg;gk; /Signature of the Invigilator

(After the examination is over /Nju;T Kbe;j gpd;du;) (After the examination is over /Nju;T Kbe;j gpd;du;)
 fzpad; IAS mfhlkp
101, tf;fPy; GJj;njU> rpk;kf;fy; g]; ];lhg; vjpupy;> kJiu - 1
njhlu;Gf;F : 7845454747
Njjp : 05.04.2023 rhu;G Ma;thsu; Nju;T - 6 Neuk; : 2 kzp 30 epkplq;fs;
<----->

PART - A GENERAL STUDIES

gFjp - m - nghJmwpT
1. What is the scientific name of the plant that squeaks when touched?
a) Helianthus annuls b) Mimosa Pudica c) Desmodium Gyrens d) Leucaena leucocephala
<----->

njhl;lhy; rpZq;fp jhtuj;jpd; mwptpay; ngau;?

a) `Pypahe;j]; md;Dt]; b) ikNkhrh Gbfh
c) nl];Nkhbak; ifud;]; d) ypANfhNr‡ghyh
<----->

2. Which Roots have roots at an angle of 180 degrees?

1. Rhizophora
2. Respiratory roots
3. Mycorrhiza
a) 1 Only b) 1, 2 Only c) 2, 3 Only d) 1, 2, 3 Only
<----->

ve;j Ntu;fs; 𝟏𝟖𝟎° Nfhzj;jpy; nrq;Fj;jhd Ntu;fis nfhz;lit

1) iuNrhNghuh 2) Rthr Ntu;fs; 3) ikf;Nfhiurh
<----->

a) 1 kl;Lk; b) 1>2 kl;Lk; c) 2>3 kl;Lk; d) 1>2>3 kl;Lk;

<----->

3. Match the following

i) Torsion Bending 1) Common Stuff (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) Darkness Bending 2) Tulipa is Fragrant a) 3 4 2 1
iii) Thermal Bending 3) Brunichia Oveta b) 3 1 2 4
iv) Optical bending 4) Lucina Leuco Cebala c) 3 4 1 2
d) 3 1 4 2
<----->

nghUj;Jf:
i. eLf;fKW tisjy; 1. rhkhdpNa rhkhd; i ii iii iv
ii. ,USW tisjy; 2. Lypgh rpw;wpdk; a) 3 4 2 1
iii. ntg;gKW tisjy; 3. GUdpr;rpah xNtl;lh b) 3 1 2 4
iv. xspAW tisjy; 4. ypArPdh ypANfh Nr‡ghyh c) 3 4 1 2
d) 3 1 4 2
<----->

4. Which day is celebrated as Deworming Awareness Day in India?

a) February 8 b) February 10 c) February 11 d) February 12
<----->

,e;jpahtpy; Flw;GO ePf;f tpopg;Gzu;T ehshf ve;j ehs; nfhz;lhlg;gLfpwJ?

a) gpg;utup 8 b) gpg;utup 10 c) gpg;utup 11 d) gpg;utup 12
<----->

5. Which part of a bird has become wings?

a) Forefoot b) Hind leg c) Chest d) Stomach
<----->

gwitapd; ve;j gFjp ,wf;iffshf khwpAs;sJ?

a) Kd;dq;fhy; b) gpd;dq;fhy; c) khu;G d) tapW
<----->

6. Match the Following (Bisyllabic Noun)

i) Cockroach 1) Asterius Rubens (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) Snail 2) Phyllo Globosa a) 3 4 2 1
iii) Leech 3) Poiplaneto Amokana b) 3 2 4 1
iv) Starfish 4) Hirutinoia granulosa c) 3 1 2 4
d) 3 4 1 2
<----->

-( 1 )-
 fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
nghUj;Jf: ,Unrhw;ngau;
i. fug;ghd; G+r;rp 1. m];bupa]; &ngd;]; i ii iii iv
ii. ej;ij 2. igNyh FNshNghrh a) 3 4 2 1
iii. ml;il 3. ngupg;gpshdl;lh mnkupf;fhdh b) 3 2 4 1
iv. el;rj;jpukPd; 4. `pUbNdupah fpuhDNyhrh c) 3 1 2 4
d) 3 4 1 2
<----->

7. What are the correct steps of classification based on?

a) Module → World → Family → Order b) Order → Class → Family → Sexuality
c) World → Module → Class → Order d) Sexuality → Genus→ Order → Class
<----->

tifg;ghl;bd; rupahd gbepiyfs; tupirapy; mike;jJ?

a) njhFjp → cyfk; → FLk;gk; → tupir b) tupir → tFg;G → FLk;gk; → rpw;wpdk;
c) cyfk; → njhFjp → tFg;G → tupir d) rpw;wpdk; → Ngupdk; → tupir → tFg;G
--->
<----->

8. Sugar found in honey and sugarcane?

a) Sucrose b) Lactose c) Maltose d) Galactose
<----->

NjdpYk;> fUk;gpYk; fhzg;gLk; ru;f;fiu?

a) Rf;Nuh]; b) yhf;Nlh]; c) khy;Nlh]; d) fhyf;Nlh];
<----->

9. What are the proportions of carbon, oxygen and hydrogen in carbohydrates respectively?
a) 1:2:1 b) 1:1:2 c) 1:1:1 d) 2:3:1
<----->

fhu;Nghi`l;Nuby; cs;s fhu;gd;> Mf;]p[d;> i`l;u[dpd; tpfpjq;fs; KiwNa?

a) 1:2:1 b) 1:1:2 c) 1:1:1 d) 2:3:1
<----->

10. Match the following

i) Vitamin b3 1) Phyretoxin (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) Vitamin B1 2) Niacin a) 4 3 1 2
iii) Vintamin B2 3) Riboflavin b) 2 4 3 1
iv) Vitamin B6 4) Thiamine c) 3 4 1 2
d) 4 2 1 3
<----->

nghUj;Jf:
i. itl;lkpd; 𝑩𝟑 1. iguplhf;]pd; i ii iii iv
ii. itl;lkpd; 𝑩𝟏 2. epahrpd; a) 4 3 1 2
iii. itl;lkpd; 𝑩𝟐 3. upNghgpNstpd; b) 2 4 3 1
iv. itl;lkpd; 𝑩𝟔 4. ijakpd; c) 3 4 1 2
d) 4 2 1 3
<----->

11. Which vitamin is known as heat light vitamin?

a) A b) B c) C d) D
<----->

#upa xsp itl;lkpd; vd miof;fg;gLfpwJ?

a) A b) B c) C d) D
<----->

12. Father of the White Revolution?

a) Swaminathan b) Norman Borlaug c) Varghese Kuriyan d) Louis Pasteur
<----->

ntz;ikg; Gul;rpapd; je;ij?

a) Rthkpehjd; b) ehu;kd; Nghyhf; c) tu;fP]; #upad; d) Y}ap gh];lu;
<----->

13. In which year the Government of India introduced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act?
a) 1954 b) 1955 c) 1956 d) 1957
<----->

,e;jpa murhq;fk; czT fyg;gl jLg;Gr; rl;lk; nfhz;L te;j Mz;L

a) 1954 b) 1955 c) 1956 d) 1957
<----->

-( 2 )-
 fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
14. Correct Statement
a) It was Nageli who coined the name Akatisu (Meristos).
b) Progenitors are immature cells that continue to divide
c) Pluming introduced the term myiasis
d) Pharm discovered mitosis cell division
<----->

a) All Correct b) i,ii,iii c) i,ii d) ii,iii

<----->

rupahd $w;Wfisf; fhz;f:

i) Mf;fj;jpR (nkup];Nlh];) vd;w ngaiu #l;batu; eNfyp Mthu;
ii) Mf;fj;jpR vd;gJ njhlu;e;J gFg;gilAk; jd;ik nfhz;l Kjpu;rr
; p milahj nry;fs;
iii) kpahrp]; vd;w thu;ji
; jia mwpKfg;gLj;jpatu; gpskpq;
iv) ikl;lhrp]; nry;gFg;ig fz;Lgpbj;jtu; ‡ghu;ku;
<----->

a) midj;Jk; rup b) i,ii,iii c) i,ii d) ii,iii

<----->---->

15. Which of simple tissue is non-living?

a) Parenchyma b) Golanchyma c) Sclerenchyma d) Sylem
<----->

vspajpRtpy; vJ capuw;wJ?
a) ghud;ifkh b) Nfhyd;ifkh c) ];fpspud;ifkh d) iryk;
<-----><---

16. Father of Histology?

a) Maher b) Moifrancois Soire Bisep c) Plumming d) Barmer
<----->

`p];lhyh[papd; je;ij vd;W miof;fg;gLgtH ahH?

a) kN`u; b) Nkup‡gpuhd;fha;]; Nrhapau; ‡gpNrg; c) gpskpq; d) ghu;ku;
<-----><---

17. What protects the body from injury, dehydration and infection?
a) Columnar epithelium b) Cuboidal epithelium c) Squamous epithelium d) Ciliated epithelium
<----->

cliy fhaq;fs;> twz;L Nghjy; kw;Wk; Neha;f;fpUkpfs; GFjypy; ,Ue;J ghJfhg;gJ vJ?
a) J}z; vgpjPypak; b) fdrJu tbnthj;j vgpjPypak;
c) jl;il vgpjPypak; d) FWapio vgpjPypak;
<----->

18. -nghUj;Jf:
i. fdrJu tbnthj;j vgpjpypak; 1. Fly; Rug;gp i ii iii iv
ii. J}z; vgpjpypak; 2. ,iug;ig a) 3 2 1 4
iii. Ruf;Fk; vgpjpypak; 3. ijuha;L b) 2 3 1 4
iv. FWapio vgpjpypak; 4. Rthrf;Foha; c) 2 3 4 1
d) 3 2 4 1
<----->

19. Which is the most famous white cell?

a) Monocyte b) Lympocyte c) Neutrophil d) Eosinophil
<----->

kpfg;ngupa nts;isaZ vJ?

a) NkhNdhirl;L b) ypk;Nghirl;L
c) epA+l;Nuhgpy; d) <NrhNdhgpy;
<----->

20. Mitosis is a simple step of cell division

a) Meta level, Deolo level, Pro level, Ana level b) Meta level, Deolo level, Ana level, Pro level
c) Pro level, Meta level, Deolo level, Ana level d) Pro level, Meta level, Ana level, Deolo level
<----->

ikl;lhrp]; nry; gFg;gpd; rupahd gbepiy

a) nkl;lh epiy> BNyh epiy> GNuh epiy> mdh epiy
b) nkl;lh epiy> BNyh epiy> mdh epiy> GNuh epiy
c) GNuh epiy> nkl;lh epiy> BNyh epiy> mdh epiy
d) GNuh epiy> nkl;lh epiy> mdh epiy> BNyh epiy
<----->

-( 3 )-
 fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
21. Mention the number of human milk teeth?
a) 10 b) 20 c) 32 d) 40
<----->

kdpj ghy; gw;fspd; vz;zpf;ifapd; msitf; Fwpg;gpLf?

a) 10 b) 20 c) 32 d) 40
<----->

22. How long is the human Esophagus?

a) 22 m b) 22 cm c) 10 cm d) 6 cm
<----->

kdpj czTf;Foypd; ePsk; vd;d?

a) 22 kP b) 22 nr.kP c) 10 nr.kP d) 6 nr.kP
<----->

23. The basic functional unit of the kidney

a) Neuron b) Nepron c) Sarcomere d) Bocardium
<----->

rpWePufj;jpd; mbg;gil nray; myF

a) epA+uhd; b) neg;uhd; c) rhu;Nfhkpau; d) ngupfhu;bak;
<----->

24. In which year was the first kidney transplant performed?

a) 1954 b) 1953 c) 1952 d) 1950
<----->

Kjd; Kjypy; rpWePuf mWitr;rpfpr;if nra;ag;gl;l Mz;L?

a) 1954 b) 1953 c) 1952 d) 1950
<----->

25. Statement : Latice cells secrete the male reproductive hormone androgen.
Reason : Androgen Causes changes in men like beard, moustache, deep voice.
a) Statement and Reason True b) Statement and Reason False
c) Statement is false, Reason is True d) Statement is True, Reason is false
<----->

$w;W A : Mz; ,dg;ngUf;f `u;Nkhd; Mz;lN ; uh[id yhbf; nry;fs; Ruf;fpwJ.

fhuzk; R : Mz;l;Nuh[d; jhb> kPir> fdj;j Fuy; Mfpa khw;wq;fis Mz;fspy; Vw;gLfpwJ.
a) $w;W rup> fhuzk; rup b) $w;W> fhuzk; ,uz;Lk; jtW
c) $w;W jtW> fhuzk; rup d) $w;W rup> fhuzk; jtW
<----->

26. Which hormone does the job of implanting the fertilized egg in the uterus, forming the placenta and
maintaining the pregnancy?
a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Relaxine d) Vasopressin
<----->

fu;g;gg;igapy; fUTw;w Kl;ilia gjpa itj;jy;> eQ;Rf; nfhb cUthjy; kw;Wk; fu;gg ; j;jpid
guhkupj;jy; Nghd;w Ntiyfisr; nra;Ak; `hu;Nkhd; vJ?
a) <];l;Nuh[d; b) GNuhn[];buhd; c) upyhf;]pd; d) thN]hg;gpu]pd;
<----->

27. Match the following

i) Nitrogen fixation 1) Pseudomonas (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) Ammonia 2) Putrefactive Bacteria, Fungi a) 3 2 1 4
iii) Nitration 3) Acetobacter, Nasdaq b) 3 2 4 1
iv) Nitrogen Excretion 4) Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter c) 3 1 4 2
d) 4 1 3 2
<----->

nghUj;Jf:
i. iel;u[d; epiyepWj;Jjy; 1. #NlhNkhdh]; i ii iii iv
ii. mk;Nkhdpahthjy; 2. mOfitf;Fk; ghf;Bupahf;fs;> G+Q;irfs; a) 3 2 1 4
iii. iel;Nul;lhjy; 3. mrl;Nlh ghf;lu;> eh];lhf; b) 3 2 4 1
iv. iel;u[d; ntspNaw;wk; 4. iel;NuhNrhNkhdh];> iel;Nuhghf;lu; c) 3 1 4 2
d) 4 1 3 2
<----->

28. Which of the following is a rootless Plant?

a) Lotus b) Wolffia c) Water hyacinth d) Velambasi
<----->

fPo;ff
; z;ltw;Ws; vJ Ntu; ,y;yhj jhtuk;?
a) jhkiu b) my;gpah c) Mfhaj;jhkiu d) Ntyk;ghrp
<----->

-( 4 )-
 fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
29. Find the correct ones
a) Dry Climates increase the rate of evaporation
b) Intermediate plants have cutlets on the upper side of the leaf to retain moisture and reduce water loss
c) Bats are the only mammals that can fly
d) The bat's hind legs have evolved into wings.
<----->

rupahdtw;iwf; fhz;f:
i) twz;l epyj;jhtuq;fs; ePuhtpg;Nghf;fpd; Ntfj;ij mjpfupf;fpd;wd
ii) ,ilepiyj; jhtuq;fspy; ,iyapd; Nkw;gFjpapy; fpAl;bfs; ,Ug;gjhy; <ug;gjj;ij jLj;J ePu;
,og;G Fiwf;fg;gLfpwJ.
iii) ntsthy;fs; kl;LNk gwf;ff;$ba ghY}l;bahFk;.
iv) ntsthypd; gpd;dq;fhy;fs; ,wf;iffshf khwpAs;sd.
<----->

a) i,ii,iii b) ii,iii c) i,ii d) i,iii,iv

<----->

30. When is world Water Day observed?

a) March 21 b) March 22 c) April 21 d) April 23
<----->

cyf ePu; jpdk; ve;ehspy; nfhz;lhlg;gLfpwJ?

a) khu;r; 21 b) khu;r; 22 c) Vg;uy; 21 d) Vg;uy; 23
<----->

31. Statement (A) : The plougman's friend is the earthworm.

Reason (R) : After composting the organic matter, they leave a nitrogen-rich waste known as defolated
soil.
a) Statement and Reason Correct b) Statement and Reason wrong
c) Statement is Correct, Reason is Wrong d) Statement is Wrong, Reason is Correct
<----->

$w;W A : cotdpd; ez;gd; kz;GOthFk;.

fhuzk; R : fupkg; nghUl;fis nrupkhdk; nra;jgpd; ,it iel;u[d; rj;J epiwe;j GOtpyf;fpa kz;
vdg;gLk; fopit ntspNaw;Wk;.
a) $w;W> fhuzk; ,uz;Lk; rup b) $w;W> fhuzk; ,uz;Lk; jtW
c) $w;W rup> fhuzk; jtW d) $w;W jtW> fhuzk; rup
<----->

32. In which year was the Prime Minister's Crop Insurance Scheme introduced?
a) February 8, 2016 b) February 18, 2017 c) February 18, 2016 d) February 18, 2018
<----->

gpujk ke;jpupapd; gapu;f; fhg;gPlL; j; jpl;lk; mwpKfg;gLj;jg;gl;l Mz;L?

a) 2016 gpg;utup 8 b) 2017 gpg;utup 18 c) 2016 gpg;utup 18 d) 2018 gpg;utup 18
>-
<-----><--- ---->

33. Which bacterium lives in the rhizomes of leguminous plants?

a) Rado Spirillum b) Azospirillum c) Azotobacter d) Rhizobium
<----->

ny$kpd]; jhtuq;fspd; Ntu;Kbr;Rfspy; thOk; ghf;Bupak;?

a) NuNlh ];igupy;yk; b) mNrh];igupy;yk; c) mNrhl;Nlhghf;lu; d) iuNrhgpak;
<----->

34. What is called floating nitrogen factory?

a) Rhizobium b) Azospirillum c) Azotobacter d) Azola
<----->

kpjf;Fk; iel;u[d; njhopw;rhiy vd miof;fg;gLtJ?

a) iuNrhgpak; b) mNrh];igupy;yk; c) mrpl;Nlhghf;lu; d) mNrhyh
<----->

35. Match the following

i) Father of Ayurvedic medicine 1) Agastya (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) Father of Unani Medicine 2) Samuel Hahnemann a) 4 3 2 1
iii) Siddha is the father of medicine 3) Hippocrates b) 3 4 2 1
iv) Father of Homeopathic Medicine 4) Saraha Samgita c) 4 3 1 2
d) 2 3 4 1
<----->

-( 5 )-
 fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
nghUj;Jf:
i. MAu;Ntj kUj;Jtj;jpd; je;ij 1. mf];jpau; i ii iii iv
ii. Adhdp kUj;Jtj;jpd; je;ij 2. rhKNty; `d;Nkd; a) 4 3 2 1
iii. rpj;jh kUj;Jtj;jpd; je;ij 3. fpg;NlhfpNul;]; b) 3 4 2 1
iv. N`hkpNahgjp kUj;Jtj;jpd; je;ij 4. ru`h rk;fpjh c) 4 3 1 2
d) 2 3 4 1
<----->

36. Reserpine is obtianed from which plant?

a) Raulbia Serpentina b) Cinchona abyssinalis c) Eucalyptus Glolus d) Carica papaya
<----->

upnru;igd; kUe;J ve;j jhtuj;jpy; ,Ue;J ngwg;gLfpwJ?

a) uTy;gpah nru;gd;bdh b) rpd;Nfhdh mgprpdhyp];
c) Af;fypg;l]; FNshy]; d) iul;bah bq;Nlhupah
<----->

37. An alkaloid used in the treatment of blood cancer (leukaemia) is obtained from which plant?
a) Raulbia Serpentina b) Eucalyptus Glolus c) Carica Papaya d) Catharanthus Roseus
<----->

,uj;jg; Gw;WNeha;f;F (YAf;Nfkpah) kUe;jhfg; gad;gLk; my;fyha;L ve;j jhtuj;jpypUe;J

ngwg;gLfpwJ?
a) uTy;gpah nru;gz;bdh b) Af;fypg;l]; FNshy]; c) fhupfh gg;ghah d) Nfj;juhe;j]; Nuh]pa];
<----->

38. Anthraquinine drug is obtained from which plant?

a) Aloevera b) Hemidesmus indica c) Raulbia Serpentina d) Catharanthus Roseus
<----->

Me;ju; hf; Fapidd; kUe;J ve;j jhtuj;jpy; ,Ue;J ngwg;gLfpwJ?

a) mNyhtpuh b) n`kpnl];k]; ,d;bf]; c) uTy;gpah nru;gz;bdh d) Nfj;juhe;j]; Nuh]pa];
<----->

39. Correct Statement :

a) Mushrooms belong to the class of fungi called Pesidiomycetes.
b) A spawn is a collection of mushroom seeds.
c) The Optimum temperature for mushroom growth is 15°C to 23°C.
<----->

a) i b) ii c) iii d) i,ii,iii
<----->

rupahd $w;Wfis fhz;f:

i) fhshd;fs; ngrpbNahikrpl;]; vd;w G+Q;irfs; tFg;igr; rhu;ej
; J.
ii) ];ghd; vd;gJ fhshd; tpijahFk;.
iii) fhshd; tsu;tjw;F cfe;j ntg;gepiy 𝟏𝟓° Kjy; 𝟐𝟑°𝑪
<----->

a) i b) ii c) iii d) i,ii,iii
<----->

40. Match the following

i) Hydroponics 1) Soilless Aquatic Media Plant Cultivation System (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) Aeroponics 2) Aquatic Media Plant Cultivation System a) 1 3 2 1
iii) Aqua Phoenix 3) Air Media Plant Cultivation System b) 1 2 3 1
c) 2 3 1 2
d) 2 1 3 2
<----->

nghUj;Jf:
i. i`l;Nuh Nghdpf;]; 1. kz;zpy;yh ePu; Clf jhtu tsu;gG ; Kiw i ii iii
ii. VNuh Nghdpf;]; 2. ePut
; ho; capupd Clf jhtu tsu;g;G Kiw a) 1 3 2
iii. mf;th Nghdpf;]; 3. fhw;W Clf jhtu tsu;gG ; Kiw b) 1 2 3
c) 2 3 1
d) 2 1 3
<----->

41. Who is the called the father of history?

a) Herodotus b) Hippocrates c) Demurugartis d) Aristotle
<----->

tuyhw;wpd; je;ij vd miof;fg;gLgtu; ahH?

a) n`NuhNlhl]; b) `pg;NghfpNul;l]; c) nlku;ful;b]; d) mup];lhby;
<----->

-( 6 )-
 fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
42. Who invented the first ancient instrument in India?
a) William James b) James Pinsep c) Alexander Cunningham d) Rober Bruceputt
<----->

,e;jpahtpy; Kjy; goq;fw;fhy fUtpia fz;Lgpbj;jtu; ahH?

a) tpy;ypak; N[hd;]; b) N[k;]; gpupd;nrg; c) mnyf;]hz;lu; fd;dpq;fhk; d) ,uhgu;l; G&];‡G+l;
<----->

43. Examine the Statement and Reason:

Statement : The first Evidence of pottery and agriculture in Tamil Nadu has been found at Baiyampalli.
Reason : Grains such as Kelvaraku, Kollu and green gram are available here.
a) Assertion, Reason Both correct. A Reasonable Explanation of the Reason statement
b) Assertion, Reason Both correct. A Reasonable is not a valid explanation for a claim
c) Assertion correct, Reason wrong d) Assertion Wrong, Reason Correct
<----->

$w;W kw;Wk; fhuzq;fis Muha;f:

$w;W : jkpofj;jpy; Kjd;Kjypy; kl;ghz;lq;fSk; Ntshz;ik nra;jjw;fhd rhd;WfSk;
igak;gs;spapy; fpilj;Js;sd.
fhuzk; : ,q;F Nfo;tuF> nfhs;S> gr;irg;gaW Mfpa jhdpaq;fs; fpilj;Js;sd.
a) $w;W> fhuzk; ,uz;Lk; rup. fhuzk; $w;Wf;fhd rupahd tpsf;fk;
b) $w;W> fhuzk; ,uz;Lk; rup. fhuzk; $w;Wf;fhd rupahd tpsf;fky;y
c) $w;W rup> fhuzk; jtW d) $w;W jtW> fhuzk; rup
<----->

44. Who was a contemporary of the Indus Valley and Egyptain Civilizations?
a) Mesopotamians b) The Pharaohs c) Sumerians d) Babyonians
<----->

rpe;Jntsp kw;Wk; vfpg;jpa ehfupfq;fspd; rkfhyj;jtiuf; Fwpg;gpLf?

a) nkrgNlhkpau;fs; b) ghNuhf;fs; c) RNkupau;fs; d) ghgpNyhdpau;fs;
<----->

45. Match the following

i) Harapa 1) Panjab, Pakistan (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) Mohanjataro 2) Sindhu, Pakistan a) 1 2 3 4
iii) Tolavira 3) Gujarat b) 2 1 3 4
iv) Panawali 4) Rajasthan c) 1 2 4 3
v) Rukota 5) Gujarat d) 2 1 3 5
<----->

nghUj;Jf:
i. `ug;gh 1. gQ;rhg;> ghfp];jhd; i ii iii iv v
ii. nkhfQ;rjhNuh 2. rpe;J> ghfp];jhd; a) 1 2 3 4 5
iii. Njhytpuh 3. F[uhj; b) 2 1 3 4 5
iv. ghdthyp 4. uh[];jhd; c) 1 2 4 3 5
v. Ru;nfhl;lh 5. F[uhj; d) 2 1 3 5 4
<----->

46. What image was featured on the Indus seals?

a) Fish b) Bull c) Elephant d) Cow
<----->

rpe;Jntsp Kj;jpiufspy; ,lk;ngw;w cUtk;

a) kPd; b) fhis c) ahid d) gR
<----->

47. What was the first form of language used in Tamil Nadu?
a) Pictorial format b) Devanagari c) Lettering d) Tamil Brahmi
<----->

jkpofj;jpy; Kjd;Kjyhf gad;gLj;jg;gl;l nkhopapd; tuptbtk;

a) rpj;jpu tbtk; b) Njtehfup c) tl;nlOj;J d) jkpo; gpuhkp
<----->

48. In Which year were the stones with Tamilbrami inscriptions found at Puliman Gompa, Theni District?
a) 2004 b) 2006 c) 2003 d) 2005
<----->

Njdp khtl;lk; Gypkhd; Nfhk;igapy; jkpo;gpuhkp fy;ntl;LfSld; $ba eLfw;fs; ve;j Mz;L
fz;nlLf;fg;gl;lJ?
a) 2004 b) 2006 c) 2003 d) 2005
<----->

-( 7 )-
 fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
---->

49. Capital of the Cheras

a) Musiri b) Thondi c) Vanji d) Kanji
<----->

Nruu;fspd; jiyefuk; vJ?

a) Krpwp b) njhz;b c) tQ;rp d) fhQ;rp
<----->

50. Match the following (Book and Authors)

i) Populus on the Arethrian See 1) Kautilya i ii iii iv
ii) Natural History 2) Ptolemy a) 1 2 3 4
iii) Geography 3) Pliny b) 4 3 2 1
iv) Arthasastra 4) The name of the teacher does not matter c) 1 2 4 3
d) 4 3 1 2
<----->

nghUj;Jf: E}y;fs; - Mrpupau;fs;

i. vupj;jpupad; flypd; ngupg;s]; 1. nfsby;au; i ii iii iv
ii. ,aw;if tuyhW 2. jhykp a) 1 2 3 4
iii. Gtpapay; 3. gpspdp b) 4 3 2 1
iv. mu;jj; rh];jpuk; 4. Mrpupau; ngau; njupahJ c) 1 2 4 3
d) 4 3 1 2
<----->
<----->

51. The birth place of Mahavira?

a) Lumbini b) Kusi c) Bavapuri d) Kundagram
<----->

tu;jj; khd kfhtPuu; vq;F gpwe;jhH?

a) Yk;gpdp b) F\p efH c) ghtGup d) Fe;jfpuhkk;
<----->

52. A true democracy cannot be implemented by sitting in a group of 20. Who said it was meant to be
implemented by every villager at the bottom?
a) Rajendra Prasath b) Jawaharlal Nehru c) Ambedkar d) Mahathma Gandhi
<----->

'Xu; cz;ikahd kf;fshl;rpia 20 Ngu; FOthf mku;e;J nfhz;L nray;gLj;j KbahJ. ,J

fPo;epiyapYs;s xt;nthU fpuhk kf;fshy; nray;gLj;jg;gLtjhFk;" vd;W $wpatu;?
a) uhN[e;jpugpurhj; b) [t`h;yhy; NeU c) mk;Ngj;fhu; d) kfhj;kh fhe;jp
<----->

53. Examine the Statement and Reason

Statement : The year of the first general Election the history of India
Reason : Election of necessary members for the Central Assembly and the Provincial Assembly took place.
a) Assertion, Reason Both correct. A Reasonable Explanation of the Reason statement
b) Statement is Correct, Reason is false
c) Assertion, Reason Both correct. A Reasonable is not a valid explanation for a claim
d) Statement is false, Reason is Correct
<----->

$w;W kw;Wk; fhuzj;ij Muha;f:

$w;W : ,e;jpa tuyhw;wpd; Kjy; nghJj;Nju;jy; eilngw;w Mz;L 1920
fhuzk; : kj;jpa rl;lrigf;Fk;> khfhz rl;lrigf;Fk; Njitahd cWg;gpdu;fisj; Nju;en ; jLf;f
eilngw;wJ.
a) $w;W> fhuzk; ,uz;Lk; rup. fhuzk; $w;Wf;fhd rupahd tpsf;fk;
b) $w;W rup> fhuzk; jtW
c) $w;W> fhuzk; ,uz;Lk; rup. fhuzk; $w;Wf;fhd rupahd tpsf;fky;y
d) $w;W jtW> fhuzk; rup
<----->

54. National Voter's Day is celebrated on Which day?

a) February 21 b) Septemper 15 c) July 11 d) Janaury 25
<----->

Njrpa thf;fhsu; jpdk; ve;ehspy; nfhz;lhlg;gLfpwJ?

a) gpg;utup 21 b) nrg;lk;gu; 15 c) [_iy 11 d) [dtup 25
<----->

55. Which of the following is a false statement among the participants in the Indian presidential election?
a) Elected members of both houses of Parliament
-( 8 )-
 fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
b) Exclude Members of State Legislature
c) Elected Members of Legislative Assmebly in Union Territories
d) Appointed Members of both Houses of Parliament
<----->

,e;jpa FbauRj; jiytu; Nju;jypy; gq;F nfhs;gtu;fspy; jtwhd thf;fpak; vJ?

a) ghuhSkd;w ,U mitapd; Nju;e;njLf;fg;gl;l cWg;gpdu;fs;
b) khepy rl;lkd;wj;jpy; cs;s Nju;en ; jLf;fg;gl;l cWg;gpdu;fs;
c) A+dpad; gpuNjrq;fspy; cs;s Nju;en ; jLf;fg;gl;l rl;lkd;w cWg;gpdu;fs;
d) ghuhSkd;w ,U mitfspy; epakpf;fg;gl;l epakd cWg;gpdu;fs;
<----->

56. UDHR Definition

a) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
b) The Universal Difference of Human Rights
c) The United Development of Human Rights
d) The Uniform Development of Human Rights
<----->

UDHR vd;gjd; tpupthf;fk; vd;d?

a) The Universal Declaration of Human Rights
b) The Universal Difference of Human Rights
c) The United Development of Human Rights
d) The Uniform Development of Human Rights
<----->

57. How many types of Fundamental Rights are Provided in the Constitution of India?
a) Four b) Five c) Six d) Seven
<----->

,e;jpa murpayikg;gpy; vj;jid tifahd mbg;gil cupikfs; toq;fg;gl;Ls;sd?

a) ehd;F b) Ie;J c) MW d) VO
<----->

58. Fundamental duty was added by which amendment?

a) 44th Amendment Act, 1978 b) 42th Amendment Act, 1978
c) 42th Amendment Act, 1976 d) 44th Amendment Act, 1976
<----->

mbg;gil flik ve;j rl;lj;jpUj;jk; %yk; Nru;f;fg;gl;lJ?

a) 44tJ rl;lj;jpUj;jk;> 1978 b) 42 tJ rl;lj;jpUj;jk;> 1978
c) 42 tJ rl;lj;jpUj;jk;> 1976 d) 44 tJ rl;lj;jpUj;jk;> 1976
<----->

59. Examine the Statement

Statement 1: Kailash Satyarthi is the founder of Bachpan Bachav Andolan
Statement 2 : 86000 children have been rescued by this organization from activities against children.
a) Statement is Correct, Reason is false b) Statement and Reason Both False
c) Statement and Reason Both Correct d) Statement is false, Reason is True
<----->

$w;Wfis Muha;f:
$w;W 1 : 'gr;gd; gr;rht; me;Njhyd;" vDk; mikg;ig Vw;gLj;jpatu; ifyh\; rj;ahu;jj ; p
$w;W 2 : Foe;ijfSf;F vjpuhd eltbf;iffspypUe;J ,e;j mikg;G %yk; 86000 Foe;ijfs;
kPlf
; g;gl;ldu;.
a) $w;W rup> fhuzk; jtW
b) $w;W> fhuzk; ,uz;Lk; jtW
c) $w;W> fhuzk; ,uz;Lk; rup
d) $w;W jtW> fhuzk; rup
<----->

60. What was inappropriate about Ambedkar's law for women?

a) Miners Maternity Benefi Act b) Girl Child Education Act
c) Women Labor Welfare Fund Act d) Reversal of ban on women working in coal mines
<----->

B.R.mk;Ngj;fu; ngz;fSf;fhf nfhz;L te;j rl;lj;jpy; nghUj;jkw;wJ vJ?

a) Ruq;fj; njhopyhsu; NgWfhy ed;ikr; rl;lk;

-( 9 )-
 fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
b) ngz; Foe;ijf;fhd fy;tpr; rl;lk;
c) ngz; njhopyhsu; ey epjp rl;lk;
d) epyf;fupr; Ruq;fq;fspy; Ruq;fg; gzpfspy; ngz;fis <LgLj;Jtjw;fhd jilia kPln
; lLj;jy;
<----->

-->
61. Who said "When one man's will is threatened, every man's will is diminished"?
a) Gandhi b) B.R. Ambedkar c) Mandela d) John F. Kennadi
<----->

'xU kdpjDila cupik mr;RWj;jg;gLk; NghJ> xt;nthU kdpjDila cupikAk; Fiwf;fg;gLfpwJ"

- vd;w $w;iwf; $wpatu; ahH?
a) fhe;jp b) B.R.mk;Ngj;fu; c) kz;Nlyh d) [hd; F.nfd;db
<----->

62. What are the features of federal system in Indian Constitution?

a) Dual government b) A written Constitution c) Power Sharing d) Centralized authority
<----->

a) 1,2,4 Correct b) 1,2,3 Correct c) 2,3,4 Correct d) All Correct

<----->

,e;jpa murpayikg;gpy; $l;lhl;rp Kiw mk;rq;fs; vJ?

1) ,ul;il murhq;fk; 2) vOjg;gl;l murpayikg;G
3) mjpfhu gfpu;T 4) ikag;gLj;jg;gl;l mjpfhuk;
<----->

a) 1>2>4 rup b) 1>2>3 rup c) 2>3>4 rup d) midj;Jk; rup

<----->

>
<---

63. Match the following

i) Israel 1) Pokting (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) Germani 2) Starting a) 1 2 3 4
iii) Tenmark 3) Diet b) 5 4 3 2
iv) Japan 4) Keneset c) 4 5 1 3
v) Norway 5) Penthestock d) 4 3 5 2
<----->

nghUj;Jf:
i. ,];Nuy; 1. Nghf;bq; i ii iii iv v
ii. n[u;kdp 2. ];lhu;bq; a) 1 2 3 4 5
iii. nld;khu;f; 3. lal; b) 5 4 3 2 1
iv. [g;ghd; 4. nfnd]l; c) 4 5 1 3 2
v. ehu;Nt 5. ge;nj];lhf; d) 4 3 5 2 1
<----->

64. The head of government in a parliamentary system of government

a) Prime Minister b) President c) Governor d) Chief Minister
<----->

ehlhSkd;w Ml;rpKiwapy; murhq;fj;jpd; jiytu;

a) gpujku; b) FbauR jiytu; c) MSeu; d) Kjyikr;ru;
<----->

65. Match the following (Number of Fields)

i) Central List 1) 100 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) State List 2) 61 a) 1 2 3 1
iii) General List 3) 52 b) 3 2 1 3
c) 1 3 2 1
d) 3 1 2 3
<----->

nghUj;Jf: Jiwfspd; vz;zpf;if

i. kj;jpa gl;bay; 1. 100 i ii iii
ii. khepyg;gl;bay; 2. 61 a) 1 2 3
iii. nghJg;gl;bay; 3. 52 b) 3 2 1
c) 1 3 2
d) 3 1 2
<----->

66. Total National Happiness was implemented by the political system of the Government of Bhutan in which
year?
-( 10 )-
 fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
a) Janaury 1, 1970 b) April 4, 2000 c) July 18, 2008 d) July 8, 2016
<----->

nkhj;j Njrpa kfpo;r;rp G+lhd; murpd; murpay; mikg;gpdhy; ve;j Mz;L eilKiwg;gLj;jg;gl;lJ?
a) 1970> [dtup 1 b) 2000> Vg;uy; 4 c) 2008> [_iy 18 d) 2016> [_iy 8
<----->

67. Who is called father of local bodies?

a) Lord Mayo b) Lord Ribbon c) Lord Lytton d) Lord Dalhousie
<----->

'cs;shl;rp mikg;Gfspd; je;ij" vd miof;fg;gLgtu; ahH?

a) NkNah gpuG b) upg;gd; gpuG c) ypl;ld; gpuG d) ly;n`srp gpuG
<----->

68. Match the following

i) Balvantrai Mehta Committee 1) 1957 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) L.M. Singvi Committe 2) 1977 a) 1 2 3 4
iii) Ashok Mehta Committee 3) 1985 b) 1 4 2 3
iv) G.V.K Rav Committee 4) 1986 c) 4 3 2 1
d) 4 1 3 2
nghUj;Jf:
i. gy;te;j;uha; Nkj;jh FO 1. 1957 i ii iii iv
ii. L.M.rpq;tp FO 2. 1977 a) 1 2 3 4
iii. mNrhf; Nkj;jh FO 3. 1985 b) 1 4 2 3
iv. G.V.K. uht; FO 4. 1986 c) 4 3 2 1
d) 4 1 3 2
69. Who acts as inspector of village panchayat?
a) Secretary b) District Collector c) District Councillor d) Panchayat Commissioner
<----->

fpuhk Cuhl;rpapd; Ma;thsuhf nray;gLgtu; ahu;?

a) nrayu; b) khtl;l Ml;rpau; c) khtl;l fTd;rpyu; d) Cuhl;rp Mizau;
<----->

70. In which year the Tamil Nadu Local Bodies Act came into force?
a) 1950 b) 1992 c) 1994 d) 1985
<----->

jkpo;ehL cs;shl;rp mikg;Gfspd; rl;lk; eilKiwf;F te;j Mz;L vJ?

a) 1950 b) 1992 c) 1994 d) 1985
<----->

71. Which inscription tells about Kudavolai system?

a) Mehrali b) Tanjore Prahadeeswarar Temple c) Uttar Merur d) Mamallapuram
<----->

'FlNthiy Kiw" gw;wp $Wk; fy;ntl;L vJ?

a) nk`;uhyp b) jQ;ir ngupa Nfhtpy; c) cj;ju Nk&u; d) khky;yGuk;
<----->

72. Who said that the soul of India lives in the villages?
a) Rajendra Prasath b) Ambedkar c) Gandhi d) Nehru
<----->

,e;jpahtpd; Md;kh fpuhkq;fspy; tho;fpwJ vd;W $wpatu; ahH?

a) uhN[e;jpu gpurhj; b) mk;Ngj;fu; c) fhe;jp d) NeU
<----->

73. Match the Following

i) Corporation 1) Panchayat President (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) Municipality 2) District Colletor a) 1 2 3 4
iii) Village Panchayat 3) Commissioner b) 1 3 4 2
iv) Town Panchayat 4) Mayor c) 4 2 3 1
d) 4 3 2 1
<----->

nghUj;Jf:
i. khefuhl;rp 1. Cuhl;rp kd;w jiytu; i ii iii iv
ii. efuhl;rp 2. khtl;l Ml;rpau; a) 1 2 3 4
iii. fpuhk Cuhl;rp 3. Mizau; b) 1 3 4 2
iv. Ng&uhl;rp 4. Nkau; c) 4 2 3 1
d) 4 3 2 1
-( 11 )-
 fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
<----->
<----->

74. Which organization conducts elections to local Bodies?

a) Central Election Commission b) State Government
c) State Election Commission d) State Local Government
<----->

cs;shl;rp mikg;Gfspd; Nju;jiy elj;JtJ ve;j mikg;G?

a) kj;jpa Nju;jy; Mizak; b) khepy muR
c) khepy Nju;jy; Mizak; d) khepy cs;shl;rp Jiw
<----->

75. Tamil Brahmi inscription found at Mangulam refer to Which King?

a) Vetrivel Sezliyan b) Porgaipandian
c) Jadila Paranthaga Nedunchadayan d) Pandia Nedunchelziyan
<----->

khq;Fsj;jpy; fz;lwpag;gl;l jkpo; gpuhkp fy;ntl;Lfs; ve;j kd;didg; gw;wp Fwpg;gpLfpwJ?

a) ntw;wpNtw;nropad; b) nghw;ifg;ghz;bad;
c) [by guhe;jf neLQ;rilahd; d) ghz;bad; neLQ;nropad;
<----->

76. Match the following

i) Kurinchi 1) Mountain and hilly place (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ii) Mullai 2) Forest and forest based place a) 4 3 2 1
iii) Marutham 3) Field and field-realted place b) 1 2 3 4
iv) Neithal 4) Sea and maritime space c) 4 3 5 1
v) Palai 5) Sand and sandy Loam d) 1 2 4 3
<----->

nghUj;Jf:
i. FwpQ;rp 1. kiyAk; kiy rhu;e;j ,lKk; i ii iii iv v
ii. Ky;iy 2. fhLk; fhL rhu;ej
; ,lKk; a) 4 3 2 1 5
iii. kUjk; 3. taYk; tay; rhu;ej; ,lKk; b) 1 2 3 4 5
iv. nea;jy; 4. flYk; fly; rhu;ej
; ,lKk; c) 4 3 5 1 2
v. ghiy 5. kzYk; kzy; rhu;ej ; ,lKk; d) 1 2 4 3 5
<----->
<----->

77. Who are mentioned as Keralputras in Ashoka's incriptions?

a) Serar b) Cholas c) Pandiyas d) Pallavar
<----->

mNrhfupd; fy;ntl;Lfspy; NfusGj;jpuu;fs; vd;W Fwpg;gplg;gLgtu;fs; ahu;?

a) Nruu; b) Nrhou; c) ghz;bau; d) gy;ytu;
<----->

78. Which book mentions the pantheon of deities?

a) Silappathikaram b) Tholkapiyam c) Manimekalai d) Nannol
<----->

Ie;jpizf;Fupa topghl;L nja;tq;fisg; gw;wp Fwpg;gpLk; E}y; vJ?

a) rpyg;gjpfhuk; b) njhy;fhg;gpak; c) kzpNkfiy d) ed;D}y;
<----->

79. Where is the Kodumanam (Kodumanal) mentioned in the Sanga literature Pathirupattu now?
a) Erode b) Neelgiri c) Selam d) Karur
<----->

rq;f ,yf;fpakhd gjpw;Wg;gj;J Fwpg;gpLk; nfhLkzk; (nfhLkzy;) jw;NghJ ve;j khtl;lj;jpy;

cs;sJ?
a) <NuhL b) ePyfpup c) Nryk; d) f&u;
<----->

80. The Place where the Buddha gave his first teaching
a) Lumbini Park b) Saranath, Deer ParK c) Bhuthagaiya d) Mahopathi Temple
<----->

Gj;ju; jdJ Kjy; Nghjidia epfo;jj ; pa ,lk; vJ?

a) Yk;gpdp G+q;fh b) rhuehj;> khd;G+q;fh c) Gj;jifah d) k`hNghjp Nfhtpy;
<----->

-( 12 )-
 fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
PART - B PSYCHOLOGY
gFjp - M - cstpay;
81. INTELLIGIBLE
a) Dull b) Foolish c) Garbled d) Confused
<----->

82. ROUGH
a) Refined b) Charming c) Smooth d) Polite
<----->

83. BLOCK
a) Clean b) Ease c) Cure d) Clear
<----->

84. BLESSING
a) Dull b) Curse c) Hurt d) Harse
<----->

85. HOSTILE
a) Friendly b) Sudden c) Costly d) Unfair
<----->

86. CALLOUS
a) Sensitive b) Soft c) Kind d) Generous
<----->

87. ATHEIST
a) Rationalist b) Theologies c) Believer d) Ritualistic
<----->

88. NADIR
a) Modernity b) Zenith c) Liberty d) Progress
<----->

89. ARID
a) Cloudy b) Juicy c) Marshy d) Wet
<----->

90. CURTAIL
a) Detail b) Enlarge c) Promote d) Exaggerate
<----->

91. Fw;wpaYfuk; - gphpj;J vOJf.

a) Fw;wp + Yfuk; b) Fw;wp + ,a + cfuk; c) Fw;wpy; + cfuk; d) FWik + ,ay; + cfuk;
<----->

92. nkhopf;F Kjypy; tUk; Ifhuf; FWf;fj;jpw;F khj;jpiuapd; msT vd;d?

a) 1/2 b) 1 c) 1 1/2 d) 2
<----->

93. 'Fkud; te;jhH" tOtikjp vd;d?

a) jpiz tOtikjp b) ghy; tOtikjp c) fhy tOtikjp d) ,l tOtikjp
<----->

94. tpdh vj;jid tifg;gLk;?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7
<----->

95. FwpQ;rp epyj;jpw;Fhpa nja;tj;ijf; Fwpg;gpLf.

a) KUfd; b) jpUkhy; c) ,e;jpud; d) tUzd;
<----->

96. 'Jg;ghHf;F Jg;gha Jg;ghf;fpj; Jg;ghHf;Fj;" - vd;w Fwspy; gapd;W te;Js;s vJif> Nkhid fhz;f?
a) ,iz Nkhid> ,iz vJif b) nghopg;G Nkhid> Kw;W vJif
c) Kw;W vJif> Kw;W Nkhid d) Kw;W Nkhid> Kw;W vJif
<----->

97. jpUg;ghzho;thH gpwe;j CH

a) ciwa+H b) fhQ;rpGuk; c) NtY}H d) =tpy;ypGj;J}H
<----->

98. 'rphpj;j E}zh" vd;w E}iy vOjpatH ahH?

a) Kbaurd; b) thzpjhrd; c) ukp d) B kw;Wk; C
<----->

99. tPuk; ,y;yhj tho;Tk>; tpNtfkpy;yhj tPuKk; tPzhFk; vd;W $wpatH ahH?
a) Rthkp tpNtfhde;jH b) mk;Ngj;fH c) gRk;nghd; Kj;Juhkypq;fdhH d) ts;syhH
<----->

100. rNfhlaho; vj;jid euk;Gfis nfhz;lJ?

a) 19 b) 14 c) 21 d) 9
<----->

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101. In this question, five words are given which of them will come in the first if all of them are arranged
alphabetically as in a dictionary
Electric, Election, Earning, Earing, Economics
a) Election b) Earing c) Earining d) Electric
<----->

,e;j Nfs;tpapy;> Ie;J thu;ji ; jfs; nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;sd> mit midj;Jk; mfuhjpapy; cs;sijg; Nghy
mfu tupirg;gb mikf;fg;gl;lhy;> mtw;wpy; vJ Kjypy; tUk;.
Electric, Election, Earning, Earing, Economics
a) Election b) Earing c) Earining d) Electric
<----->

102. In this question, five words are given which of them will come in the fourth if all of them are arranged
alphabetically as in a dictionary
1. punctuate 2. propose 3. preposition 4. preference 5. practice
<----->

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 2
<----->

,e;j Nfs;tpapy;> Ie;J thu;ji; jfs; nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;sd> mit midj;Jk; mfuhjpapy; cs;sijg; Nghy
mfu tupirg;gb mikf;fg;gl;lhy; mtw;wpy; vJ ehd;fhtjhf tUk;.
1. punctuate 2. propose 3. preposition 4. preference 5. practice
<----->

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 2
<----->

103. In this question, five words are given which of them will come in the middle if all of them are arranged
alphabetically as in a dictionary
A) century B) cement C) ceiling D) carpenter E) cosmic
<----->

a) C b) B c) E d) A
<----->

,e;j Nfs;tpapy;> Ie;J thu;ji

; jfs; nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;sd> mit midj;ijAk; xU mfuhjpapy; cs;sgb
mfu tupirg;gb mikj;jhy;> mtw;wpy; vJ eLtpy; tUk;.
A) century B) cement C) ceiling D) carpenter E) cosmic
a) C b) B c) E d) A
<----->

104. Arrange the word in alphabetical series:

1. missile 2. military 3. mutual 4. multiplication 5. memory
<----->

a) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3 b) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4 c) 5, 2, 1, 4, 3 d) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
<----->

thu;ji; jia mfutupirapy; tupirg;gLj;jTk;:

1. missile 2. military 3. mutual 4. multiplication 5. memory
<----->

a) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3 b) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4 c) 5, 2, 1, 4, 3 d) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
<----->

105. Arrange the word in alphabetical series:

butter, butterfly, buffer, buffalo, bucket
a) bucket, buffalo, butterfly, butter, buffer b) bucket, butter, butterfly, buffalo, buffer
c) bucket, buffer, buffalo, butterfly, butter d) bucket, buffalo, buffer, butter, butterfly
<----->

thu;ji; jia mfutupirapy; tupirg;gLj;jTk;:

butter, butterfly, buffer, buffalo, bucket
a) bucket, buffalo, butterfly, butter, buffer b) bucket, butter, butterfly, buffalo, buffer
c) bucket, buffer, buffalo, butterfly, butter d) bucket, buffalo, buffer, butter, butterfly
<----->

106. In this question, five words are given which of them will come in the last if all of them are arranged
alphabetically as in a dictionary
1. shuttle 2. shutdown 3. shoulder 4. silver 5. shadow
<----->

a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 1
<----->

,e;j Nfs;tpapy;> Ie;J thu;ji

; jfs; nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;sd> mit midj;ijAk; xU mfuhjpapy; cs;sgb
mfu tupirg;gb mikj;jhy;> mtw;wpy; vJ filrpapy; tUk;.
1. shuttle 2. shutdown 3. shoulder 4. silver 5. shadow
<----->

a) 2 b) 4 c) 5 d) 1
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 fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
<----->

107. In this question, five words are given which of them will come in the second if all of them are arranged
alphabetically as in a dictionary
Arithmetic, Aeroplane, Aeronautic, Astronomy, Accurate
a) Aeronautic b) Aeroplane c) Astronomy d) Accurate
<----->

,e;j Nfs;tpapy;> Ie;J thu;ji; jfs; nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;sd> mit midj;Jk; mfuhjpapy; cs;sijg; Nghy
mfu tupirg;gb mike;jhy; ,uz;by; vJ tUk;.
Arithmetic, Aeroplane, Aeronautic, Astronomy, Accurate
a) Aeronautic b) Aeroplane c) Astronomy d) Accurate
<----->

108. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CORPORATE each of which has as many letters in the
same sequence between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
a) None b) One c) Two d) Three
<----->

CORPORATE vd;Dk; nrhy;ypy; cs;s vOj;Jfspy; vj;jid N[hb vOj;Jfs; Mq;fpy mfuhjpapy;
mike;Js;sJ Nghd;W mNj ,ilntsp mikg;gpy; mike;Js;sJ.
a) vJTk; ,y;iy b) xd;W c) ,uz;L d) %d;W
<----->

109. If only the first half of the alphabet is reversed, how many letters will be there between K and R?
a) 6 b) 10 c) 14 d) 16
<----->

vOj;Jf;fspd; Kjy; ghjpia kl;Lk; jiyfPohf khw;wpdhy;> K kw;Wk; R f;F ,ilapy; vj;jid vOj;Jf;fs;
,Uf;Fk;?
a) 6 b) 10 c) 14 d) 16
<----->

110. If A interchanges position with B, similarly C and D interchange positions and so as E and F and so on up to
Y and Z, then which of the following will be seventh from the left?
a) A b) F c) I d) H
<----->

A kw;Wk; B xd;Wf;nfhd;W ,lk; khw;wg;gLfpwJ> mNj Nghy; C kw;Wk; D epiyfs;> E kw;Wk; F vd Y kw;Wk; Z
tiu> epiyfs; khw;wg;gLfpd;wd. vdpy; gpd;tUtdtw;wpy; vJ ,lJGwj;jpy; ,Ue;J VohtJ ,lj;jpy;
,Uf;Fk;?
a) A b) F c) I d) H
<----->

111. Which of the following letter is exactly midway between only letters falling between C and 5?
AB7CD9ZYP2M©KS3↑5NT@
a) K b) M c) P d) Y
<----->

nfhLf;fg;gl;l njhlu;tupirapy; C f;Fk; 5 f;Fk; eLNt mike;Js;s vOj;Jfspy; (Alphabet) eLtpy;

mike;Js;s vOj;J vJ?
AB7CD9ZYP2M©KS3↑5NT@
a) K b) M c) P d) Y
<----->

112. Each letter of the alphabet from Z to A has been given a value from 1 to 26 serially. What is the total value of
the word CONSEQUENCE?
a) 137 b) 154 c) 176 d) 196
<----->

Z Kjy; A tiuapyhd vOj;Jf;fspd; xt;nthU vOj;Jf;Fk; 1 Kjy; 26 tupirahf kjpg;G

nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;sJ. vdpy; CONSEQUENCE vd;w thu;ji
; japd; nkhj;j kjpg;G vd;d?
a) 137 b) 154 c) 176 d) 196
<----->

In the following 2 questions, a word has been given, followed by four other words, one of which cannot be
formed by using the letters of the given word. Find that word.
gpd;tUk; 2 Nfs;tpfspy;> xU nrhy; nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;sJ> mijj; njhlu;eJ ; ehd;F nrhw;fs;
nfhLf;fg;gl;Ls;sJ> nfhLf;fg;gl;l thu;ji ; japd; vOj;Jf;fisg; gad;gLj;jp mjpy; ve;j xd;iw
cUthf;f KbahJ vd;gijf; fz;Lgpb.
113. EDUCATIONAL
A) NATIONAL B) NEAT C) DEAN D) LION
<----->

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 fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
EDUCATIONAL
A) NATIONAL B) NEAT C) DEAN D) LION
<----->

114. ATTRACTION
a) CAUTION b) TRACTION c) RATION d) CARTON
<----->

ATTRACTION
a) CAUTION b) TRACTION c) RATION d) CARTON
<----->

In each of the following questions, choose one word, which can be formed from the letters of the given word
gpd;tUk; xt;nthU Nfs;tpapYk;> nfhLf;fg;gl;l thu;ji ; japd; vOj;Jf;fspy; ,Ue;J cUthf;ff;$ba
xU thu;ji ; jiaj; Nju;e;njLf;fTk;
115. CHOCOLATE
a) TELL b) HEALTH c) LATE d) COOLER
<----->

CHOCOLATE
a) TELL b) HEALTH c) LATE d) COOLER
<----->

116. VENTURESOME
a) ROSTRUM b) SERMON c) TRAVERSER d) SEVENTEEN
<----->

VENTURESOME
a) ROSTRUM b) SERMON c) TRAVERSER d) SEVENTEEN
<----->

117. A meaningful word starting with A is made from the first, the second, the fourth, the fifth and the sixth letters
of the word CONTRACT. Which of the following is the middle letter of that word?
a) C b) O c) R d) T
<----->

CONTRACT vd;w thu;ji

; japd; Kjy;> ,uz;lhtJ> ehd;fhtJ> Ie;jhtJ kw;Wk; MwhtJ vOj;Jf;fspy;
,Ue;J A ,y; njhlq;Fk; mu;jj; Ks;s thu;ji
; j cUthf;fg;gLfpwJ. me;j thu;ji
; japd; eL vOj;J vJ?
a) C b) O c) R d) T
<----->

118. If a meaningful word can be formed with the third, fifth, seventh and tenth letters of the word PROJECTION,
then the third letter of that word is the answer. If no such word can be formed, then 'X' is the answer and if
more than one such words can be formed, then give 'M' as the answer.
a) T b) N c) M d) X
<----->

PROJECTION vd;w thu;j;ijapd; %d;whtJ> Ie;jhtJ> VohtJ kw;Wk; gj;jhtJ vOj;Jf;fisf; nfhz;L
xU mu;jj ; Ks;s thu;ji
; jia cUthf;f KbAk; vdpy;> me;j thu;ji
; japd; %d;whtJ vOj;J tpilahFk;.
mg;gb ve;j thu;ji; jAk; cUthf;fg;gl Kbatpy;iynadpy;> …X… vd;gJ tpilahFk;. kw;Wk; xd;Wf;F
Nkw;gl;l thu;ji
; jfis cUthf;f Kbe;jhy;> mjw;F gjpyhf …M… nfhLf;fTk;.
a) T b) N c) M d) X
<----->

119. How many meaningful English words can be formed by using any two letters of the word 'NOT'?
a) One b) Two c) Three d) More than three
<----->

…NOT… vd;w thu;ji

; japy; cs;s vOj;Jfspy; VNjDk; ,uz;L vOj;Jf;fisg; gad;gLj;jp vj;jid
mu;jj; Ks;s Mq;fpy thu;ji
; jfis cUthf;f KbAk;?
a) xd;W b) ,uz;L c) %d;W d) %d;Wf;Fk; Nkw;gl;lit
<----->

120. 35 cycles were produced in 5 days by a company then______ cycles will be produced in 21 days.
a) 150 b) 70 c) 100 d) 147
<----->

xU epWtdj;jhy; 5 ehl;fspy; 35 kpjptz;bfs; jahupf;fg;gl;ld> vdpy; ______ kpjptz;bfs; 21 ehl;fspy;

jahupf;fg;gLk;.
a) 150 b) 70 c) 100 d) 147
<----->

121. An aircraft can accommodate 280 people in 2 trips. It can take ______trips to take 1400 people.
a) 8 b) 10 c) 9 d) 12
<----->

xU tpkhdj;jpy; 2 gazq;fspy; 280 Ngu; gazpf;f KbAk;. 1400 Ngiu mioj;Jr; nry;y ______ gazq;fs;
gazpf;f Ntz;Lk;.
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 fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
a) 8 b) 10 c) 9 d) 12
<----->

122. A farmer has enough food for 144 ducks for 28 days. If he sells 32 ducks, how long will the food last?
a) 32 days b) 36 days c) 42 days d) 56 days
<----->

xU tptrhaplk; 28 ehl;fSf;F 144 thj;JfSf;F NghJkhd czT cs;sJ. mtu; 32 thj;Jfis tpw;why;>
czT vt;tsT fhyk; ePbf;Fk;?
a) 32 ehl;fs; b) 36 ehl;fs; c) 42 ehl;fs; d) 56 ehl;fs;
<----->

123. It takes 120 minutes to weed a garden with 6 gardeners If the same work is to be done in 30 minutes, how
many more gardeners are needed?
a) 18 b) 16 c) 24 d) 20
<----->

xU Njhl;lj;jpy; fisnaLf;f 6 Njhl;lf;fhuu;fSf;F 120 epkplk; MfpwJ. mNj Ntiyia 30

epkplq;fspy; Kbf;f Ntz;Lnkd;why;> ,d;Dk; vj;jid Njhl;lf;fhuu;fs; $Ljyhf Njit?
a) 18 b) 16 c) 24 d) 20
<----->

124. A printer, prints a book of 300 pages at the rate of 30 pages per minute. Then, how long will it take to print
the same book if the speed of the printer is 25 pages per minute?
a) 10 minutes b) 12 minutes c) 15 minutes d) 18 minutes
<----->

xU gpupz;lu;> epkplj;jpw;F 30 gf;fq;fs; tPjk; 300 gf;fq;fs; nfhz;l Gj;jfj;ij mr;rpLfpwJ. gpwF>
gpupz;lu; Ntfk; epkplj;jpw;F 25 gf;fq;fs; vd khwpdhy; mNj Gj;jfj;ij mr;rpl vt;tsT Neuk; MFk;?
a) 10 epkplq;fs; b) 12 epkplq;fs; c) 15 epkplq;fs; d) 18 epkplq;fs;
<----->

125. A truck requires 108 liters of diesel for covering a distance of 594 km. How much diesel will be required to
cover a distance of 1650 km?
a) 200 liters b) 256 liters c) 280 liters d) 300 liters
<----->

xU thfdj;jpw;F 594 fpkP J}uj;ij flg;gjw;F 108 ypl;lu; Bry; Njitg;gLfpwJ. vdpy;> 1650 fpkP J}uj;ij
flf;f vt;tsT Bry; Njitg;gLk;?
a) 200 ypl;lu; b) 256 ypl;lu; c) 280 ypl;lu; d) 300 ypl;lu;
<----->

126. 10 farmers can plough a field in 21 days. Find the number of days reduced if 14 farmers ploughed the same
field?
a) 12 days b) 14 days c) 15 days d) 20 days
<----->

10 tptrhapfs; 21 ehl;fspy; xU taiy coyhk;. xNu taypy; 14 tptrhapfs; cOjhy; Ntiy Kba MFk;
ehl;fisf; fz;lwpaTk;?
a) 12 ehl;fs; b) 14 ehl;fs; c) 15 ehl;fs; d) 20 ehl;fs;
<----->

127. A flood relief camp has food stock by which 80 people can be benefited for 60 days. After 10days 20 more
people have joined the camp. Calculate the number of days of food shortage due to the addition of 20 more
people?
a) 28 days b) 40 days c) 36 days d) 30 days
<----->

nts;s epthuz Kfhkpy; 80 egu;fSf;F 60 ehl;fSf;Fg; gad;ngWk; czTg; nghUs;fs; cs;sd. 10

ehl;fSf;F gpwF NkYk; 20 Ngu; Kfhkpy; Nru;eJ ; s;sdu;. NkYk; 20 Ngiu Nru;jj ; jhy; czT vj;jid
ehl;fSf;F NghJkhdjhf ,Uf;Fk;?
a) 28 ehl;fs; b) 40 ehl;fs; c) 36 ehl;fs; d) 30 ehl;fs;
<----->

128. Six men can complete a work in 12 days. Two days later, 6 more men joined them. How many days will they
take to complete the remaining work?
a) 5 days b) 8 days c) 7 days d) 4 days
<----->

MW Ngu; xU Ntiyia 12 ehl;fspy; Kbf;f KbAk;. ,uz;L ehl;fSf;Fg; gpwF> NkYk; 6 Ngu; mtu;fSld;
Nru;ej; du;. kPjKs;s gzpfis Kbf;f vj;jid ehl;fs; MFk;?
a) 5 ehl;fs; b) 8 ehl;fs; c) 7 ehl;fs; d) 4 ehl;fs;
<----->

129. If 5 persons can do 5 jobs in 5 days, then 50 persons can do 50 jobs in ________ days.
a) 1 day b) 4 days c) 5 days d) 50 days
<----->

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5 egu;fshy; 5 ehl;fspy; 5 Ntiyfisr; nra;a Kbe;jhy;> 50 egu;fs; ________ ehl;fspy; 50 Ntiyfisr;
nra;ayhk;.
a) 1 ehs; b) 4 ehl;fs; c) 5 ehl;fs; d) 50 ehl;fs;
<----->

130. A alone can do a piece of work in 35 days. If B is 40% more efficient than A, then B will finish the work in
___________days.
a) 20 day b) 25 days c) 30 days d) 32 days
<----->

xU Ntiyia xUtNu 35 ehl;fspy; nra;JtpLthu;. A I tpl B 40% mjpf jpwd; nfhz;ltuhf ,Ue;jhy;>
B Mdtu; ___________ehl;fspy; Ntiyia Kbj;JtpLthu;.
a) 20 ehs; b) 25 ehl;fs; c) 30 ehl;fs; d) 32 ehl;fs;
<----->

131. 210 men working 12 hours a day can finish a job in 18 days. How many men are required to finish the job in
20 days working 14 hours a day?
a) 105 men b) 162 men c) 156 men d) 144 men
<----->

xU ehisf;F 12 kzp Neuk; tPjk; Ntiy nra;Ak; 210 Mz;fs; 18 ehl;fspy; xU Ntiyia Kbf;f KbAk;.
mNj Ntiyia xU ehisf;F 14 kzpNeuk; tPjk; Ntiy nra;J 20 ehl;fspy; Ntiyia Kbf;f vj;jid
Mz;fs; Njit?
a) 105 Mz;fs; b) 162 Mz;fs; c) 156 Mz;fs; d) 144 Mz;fs;
<----->

132. A soap factory produces 9600 soaps in 6 days working 15 hours a day. In how many days will it produce
14400 soaps working 3 hours more a day?
1 1 1 1
a) 7 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 b) 4 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 c) 5 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 d) 8 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
<----->
2 2 2 2
xU Nrhg;G njhopw;rhiy xU ehisf;F 15 kzp Neuk; Ntiy nra;J 6 ehl;fspy; 9600 Nrhg;Gfis cw;gj;jp
nra;fpwJ. vdpy;> xU ehisf;F 3 kzpNeuk; $Ljyhf Ntiynra;jhy; 14400 Nrhg;Gfis vj;jid
ehl;fspy; cw;gj;jp nra;a KbAk;?
1 1 1 1
a)7 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 b)4 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 c)5 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠 <)8 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
<----->
2 2 2 2
133. 5 boys or 3 girls can do a science project in 40 days. How long will it take for 15 boys and 6 girls to do the
same project?
a) 4 days b) 6 days c) 8 days d) 12 days
<----->

5 rpWtu;fs; my;yJ 3 rpWkpfs; 40 ehl;fspy; xU mwptpay; jpl;lj;ijr; nra;ayhk;. 15 rpWtu;fs; 6 rpWkpfs;

xNu jpl;lj;ijr; nra;a vt;tsT Neuk; MFk;?
a) 4 ehl;fs; b) 6 ehl;fs; c) 8 ehl;fs; d) 12 ehl;fs;
<----->

134. If 32 men working 12 hours a day can do a work in 15 days, how many men working 10 hours a day can do
double that work in 24 days?
a) 36 men b) 42 men c) 48 men d) 54 men
<----->

xU ehisf;F 12 kzp Neuk; ciof;Fk; 32 Mz;fshy; xU Ntiyia 15 ehl;fspy; nra;a KbAk; vd;why;>
ehnshd;Wf;F 10 kzp Neuk; Ntiy nra;Ak; vj;jid Mz;fshy; 24 ehl;fspy; mNj Nghd;W ,Uklq;F
Ntiyia Kbf;f KbAk;?
a) 36 Mz;fs; b) 42 Mz;fs; c) 48 Mz;fs; d) 54 Mz;fs;
<----->

135. A camp had provisions for 490 soldiers for 65 days. After 15 days, more soldiers arrived and the remaining
provisions lasted for 35 days. How many soldiers joined the camp?
a) 210 b) 240 c) 196 d) 188
<----->

xU Kfhkpy; 65 ehl;fSf;F 490 tPuu;fSf;fhd czTg;nghUl;fs; ,Ue;jd. 15 ehl;fSf;Fg; gpwF> NkYk;

mjpfkhd tPuu;fs; te;J Nru;e;jdu;. kPjKs;s czTg;nghUl;fs; 35 ehl;fSf;F ePbj;jd. vdpy;> Kfhkpy;
vj;jid te;J tPuu;fs; Nru;ej ; du;?
a) 210 b) 240 c) 196 d) 188
<----->

136. A small–scale company undertakes an agreement to make 540 motor pumps in 150 days and employs 40
men for the work. After 75 days, the company could make only 180 motor pumps. How many more men
should the company employ so that the work is completed on time as per the agreement?

-( 18 )-
 fzpad; IAS mfhlkp> kJiu. njhlu;Gf;F : 78 4545 4747
a) 32 men b) 30 men c) 36 men d) 40 men
<----->

xU rpwpa mstpyhd epWtdk; 150 ehl;fspy; 540 Nkhl;lhu; gk;Gfis cUthf;f xg;ge;jk; nra;J 40
Ml;fis Ntiyf;F mku;jj ; pAs;sJ. 75 ehl;fSf;Fg; gpwF> epWtdj;jhy; 180 Nkhl;lhu; gk;Gfis kl;LNk
jahupf;f Kbe;jJ. xg;ge;jg;gb rupahd Neuj;jpy; Ntiyia Kbf;f epWtdk; ,d;Dk; vj;jid Ngiu
Ntiyf;F mku;jj; Ntz;Lk;?
a) 32 Ml;fs; b) 30 Ml;fs; c) 36 Ml;fs; d) 40 Ml;fs;
<----->

137. If 6 container lorries can transport 135 tonnes of goods in 5 days, how many more lorries are required to
transport 180 tonnes of goods in 4 days?
a) 86 b) 90 c) 94 d) 102
<----->

6 fz;nla;du; yhupfs; 5 ehl;fspy; 135 ld; ruf;Ffis Vw;wpr; nry;y KbAk; vd;why;> 4 ehl;fspy; 180 ld;
ruf;Ffis Vw;wpr; nry;y ,d;Dk; vj;jid yhupfs; Njit?
a) 86 b) 90 c) 94 d) 102
<----->

138. 16 men can finish a work in 24 days and 48 boys can finish the same work in 16 days. 12 men started the
work and after 4 days 12 boys joined them. In how many days can they finish the remaining work?
a) 6 b) 12 c) 16 d) none these
<----->

16 Mz;fs; xU Ntiyia 24 ehl;fspYk;> 48 rpWtu;fs; mNj Ntiyia 16 ehl;fspYk; Kbf;f KbAk;. 12

Mz;fs; Ntiyiaj; njhlq;fpdu;> 4 ehl;fSf;Fg; gpwF 12 rpWtu;fs; mtu;fSld; Nru;ej ; du;. vdpy;>
kPjKs;s Ntiyia vj;jid ehl;fspy; Kbf;f KbAk;?
a) 6 b) 12 c) 16 d) ,it vJTk; ,y;iy
<----->

139. 8 men can complete a piece of work in 20 days. 8 women can complete the same work in 32 days. In how
many days will 5 men and 8 women together complete the same work?
a) 10 days b) 12 days c) 14 days d) 16 days
<----->

8 Mz;fs; xU Ntiyia 20 ehl;fspy; Kbf;f KbAk;. 8 ngz;fs; xNu Ntiyia 32 ehl;fspy; Kbf;f
KbAk;. 5 Mz;fSk; 8 ngz;fSk; Nru;eJ ; mt;Ntiyia vj;jid ehl;fspy; Kbg;ghu;fs;?
a) 10 ehl;fs; b) 12 ehl;fs; c) 14 ehl;fs; d) 16 ehl;fs;
<----->

140. 4 men and 6 women can complete a work in 8 days. while 3 men and 7 women can complete it in 10 days. In
how many days will 10 women complete it?
a) 35 b) 40 c) 45 d) 50
<----->

4 Mz;fSk; 6 ngz;fSk; xU Ntiyia 8 ehl;fspy; Kbf;f KbAk;. 3 Mz;fSk; 7 ngz;fSk; ,ij 10

ehl;fspy; Kbf;f KbAk;. vdpy;> 10 ngz;fs; vj;jid ehl;fspy; mt;Ntiyia Kbg;ghu;fs;?
a) 35 b) 40 c) 45 d) 50
<----->

-( 19 )-
NjHT
Njjp tFg;G ghlk; - gphpT cstpay; tpdhf;fs;
vz;
➢ xj;jj;jd;ik
mwptpay; - caphpay;
6 k; tFg;G ➢ fzpjf;FwpaPl;L nray;fs; 140 tpdhf;fs;
1 19.03.2023
gUtk;: 1> 2> 3 ➢ vz;zpay; 2 kzp 30 epkplk;
r%f mwptpay; - tuyhW> Fbikapay;
➢ Idioms> Phrases
➢ vz;fspd; thpir
mwptpay; - caphpay;
7k; tFg;G ➢ vz;fspd; ,lkhw;wk; 140 tpdhf;fs;
2 22.03.2023
gUtk;: 1> 2> 3 ➢ kP.ngh.t> kP.rp.k 2 kzp 30 epkplk;
r%f mwptpay; - tuyhW> Fbikapay;
➢ Tenses
➢ vOj;Jfs; njhlHghd
mwptpay; - caphpay; fzf;Ffs;
➢ Mq;fpy vOj;Jfspd;
140 tpdhf;fs;
3 26.03.2023 8k; tFg;G rpwg;Gj;njhlH
2 kzp 30 epkplk;
➢ fhyKk; NtiyAk;-Foha;
r%f mwptpay; - tuyhW> Fbikapay; fzf;Ffs;
➢ Synonyms
140 tpdhf;fs;
4 29.03.2023 jpUg;Gjy; - 1 NjHT vz; - 1> 2> 3
2 kzp 30 epkplk;
6k; tFg;G (gUtk;: 1> 2> 3 ) 100 tpdhf;fs;
5 02.04.2023 jkpo;
(1 Kjy; 9 ,ay;fs;) 1 kzp 30 epkplk;
➢ Mq;fpy mfuhjp
mwptpay; - caphpay;
➢ thHj;ij cUthf;fk; 140 tpdhf;fs;
6 05.04.2023 9k; tFg;G
➢ NeHkhwy;> vjpHkhwy; 2 kzp 30 epkplk;
r%f mwptpay; - tuyhW> Fbikapay;
➢ Antonyms
NjHT
Njjp tFg;G ghlk; - gphpT cstpay; tpdhf;fs;
vz;
➢ thHj;ijfSk; kW
mwptpay; - caphpay; FwpaPLk;
➢ fUj;jpay; njhlHghd 140 tpdhf;fs;
7 09.04.2023 10k; tFg;G thHj;ijfs; 2 kzp 30 epkplk;
r%f mwptpay; - tuyhW> Fbikapay; ➢ jdptl;b> $l;L tl;b
➢ Prefix> Suffix
140 tpdhf;fs;
8 12.04.2023 jpUg;Gjy; - 2 NjHT vz; - 6> 7
2 kzp 30 epkplk;

7k; tFg;G (gUtk;: 1> 2> 3 ) 100 tpdhf;fs;

9 16.04.2023 jkpo;
(1 Kjy; 9 ,ay;fs;) 1 kzp 30 epkplk;

➢ jpirfs;
mwptpay; - ,aw;gpay;> Ntjpapay;
6k; tFg;G ➢ fhy msitfs; 140 tpdhf;fs;
10
19.04.2023 gUtk;: 1> 2> 3 ➢ rjtPjk; 2 kzp 30 epkplk;
r%f mwptpay; - Gtpapay;> nghUshjhuk;
➢ Question Tags
➢ fbfhuq;fs;
mwptpay; - ,aw;gpay;> Ntjpapay;
7k; tFg;G ➢ ,uj;j cwTfs; 140 tpdhf;fs;
11
23.04.2023 gUtk;: 1> 2> 3 ➢ ,yhg el;lk; 2 kzp 30 epkplk;
r%f mwptpay; - Gtpapay;> nghUshjhuk;
➢ Active and Passive
➢ FwpaPL> kW FwpaPL
mwptpay; - ,aw;gpay;> Ntjpapay;
➢ juthpir 140 tpdhf;fs;
12 8k; tFg;G
26.04.2023 ➢ tpfpjk;-tpfpjhr;rhuk; 2 kzp 30 epkplk;
r%f mwptpay; - Gtpapay;> nghUshjhuk;
➢ Compound Words
140 tpdhf;fs;
13 30.04.2023 jpUg;Gjy; - 3 NjHT vz; -10> 11> 12
2 kzp 30 epkplk;
NjHT
Njjp tFg;G ghlk; - gphpT cstpay; tpdhf;fs;
vz;

8k; tFg;G 100 tpdhf;fs;

14 03.05.2023 jkpo;
(1 Kjy; 9 ,ay;fs;) 1 kzp 30 epkplk;

mwptpay; - ,aw;gpay;> Ntjpapay; ➢ jHf;fKiw fhuzkwpjy;

➢ ntz;glk; 140 tpdhf;fs;
15 9k; tFg;G
07.05.2023 ➢ taJ fzf;Ffs; 2 kzp 30 epkplk;
r%f mwptpay; - Gtpapay;> nghUshjhuk; ➢ Subject Verb Agreement

mwptpay; - ,aw;gpay;> Ntjpapay; ➢ gFg;gha;T

140 tpdhf;fs;
16 10.05.2023 10k; tFg;G ➢ ruhrhp
2 kzp 30 epkplk;
r%f mwptpay; - Gtpapay;> nghUshjhuk; ➢ Non Finite Verbs

140 tpdhf;fs;
17 14.05.2023 jpUg;Gjy; - 4 NjHT vz; - 14> 15> 16
2 kzp 30 epkplk;

9k; tFg;G 100 tpdhf;fs;

18 17.05.2023 jkpo;
(1 Kjy; 9 ,ay;fs;) 1 kzp 30 epkplk;

jpUg;Gjy; - 5 6 Kjy; 10k; tFg;G tiu 140 tpdhf;fs;

19 21.05.2023
nghJ mwpT (mwptpay;> r%f mwptpay;) 2 kzp 30 epkplk;

jpUg;Gjy; - 6 100 tpdhf;fs;

20 24.05.2023 6 Kjy; 10k; tFg;G tiu(jkpo;)
jkpo; - jFjp Njh;T 1 kzp 30 epkplk;
NjHT
Njjp tFg;G ghlk; - gphpT cstpay; tpdhf;fs;
vz;

tuyhW - KOtJk;
(Kf;fpaj;Jtk; nfhLf;f Ntz;ba ghlq;fs;)
1. Fg;jHfs;
2. mNugpa JUf;fpa tUif
3. gpw;fhy NrhoH> ghz;baHfs;
4. Kfyhag; NguuR
5. kuhj;jpaH
6. INuhg;gpah; tUif ➢ #o;epiy tpdhf;fs;
11k; tFg;G 7. Mq;fpyau; Ml;rpapy; njhlf;fhy 140 tpdhf;fs;
21 28.05.2023 ➢ Gs;spapay;
vjpHg;Gfs; 2 kzp 30 epkplk;
➢ Parts of Speech
,aw;gpay; - KOtJk;
(Kf;fpaj;Jtk; nfhLf;f Ntz;ba ghlq;fs;)
1. ,af;f tpjpfs;
2. Ntiy> Mw;wy; kw;Wk; jpwd;
3. ntg;gKk; ntg;g ,af;fKk;
mf;Nlhgh; - 2022 (PDF toq;fg;gLk;)
elg;G epfo;T

nghUspay;
1. ,e;jpag; nghUshjhuk;
2. ,e;jpag; nghUshjhuk; Rje;jpuj;jpw;F
Kd;dUk; gpd;dUk;
3. ,e;jpahtpd; Nkk;ghL mDgtq;fs;
4. Cuf nghUshjhuk; ➢ jfty;fSk;
11k; tFg;G mDkhdq;fSk; 140 tpdhf;fs;
22 31.05.2023 5. jkpo;ehl;Lg; nghUshjhuk;
➢ ,uapy; fzf;Ffs; 2 kzp 30 epkplk;
Ntjpapay; - KOtJk;
(Kf;fpaj;Jtk; nfhLf;f Ntz;ba ghlq;fs;) ➢ Adjective
1. jdpkq;fspd; Mth;j;jd tifg;ghL
2. fiury;fs;
3. Rw;Wr;#oy; Ntjpapay;
elg;G epfo;T etk;gH - 2022 (PDF toq;fg;gLk;)
NjHT
Njjp tFg;G ghlk; - gphpT cstpay; tpdhf;fs;
vz;

murpay; mwptpay;
1. kf;fshl;rp
2. NjHjy; kw;Wk; gpujpepjpj;jtk;
3. cs;shl;rp murhq;fk;
4. r%f ePjp
5. jkpofj;jpy; murpay; tsHr;rp
11k; tFg;G ➢ glthpir
6. jkpof murpay; rpe;jidfs; 140 tpdhf;fs;
23 04.06.2023 jhtutpay; - KOtJk; ➢ njhiyT fzf;Ffs;
2 kzp 30 epkplk;
(Kf;fpaj;Jtk; nfhLf;f Ntz;ba ghlq;fs;) ➢ Adverb
1. capup cyfk;
2. jhtu cyfk;
3. xspr;NrH;f;if
4. Rthrpj;jy;
elg;G epfo;T brk;gH - 2022 (PDF toq;fg;gLk;)
Gtpapay;
1. #hpaf;FLk;gk;> ePh;f;Nfhsk;
2. tspkz;lyk;> caph;f;Nfhsk;
3. NghplH Nkyhz;ik
11k; tFg;G ➢ jHf;f mwpT
tpyq;fpay; - KOtJk; 140 tpdhf;fs;
24 07.06.2023 (Kf;fpaj;Jtk; nfhLf;f Ntz;ba ghlq;fs;) ➢ Gs;sp tpgu tiuglk;
2 kzp 30 epkplk;
1. nrhpj;jy; cl;fpufpj;jy; ➢ Condition
2. Rthrk;
3. cly; jputq;fs; kw;Wk; Rw;Nwhl;lk;
elg;G epfo;T [dthp - 2023 (PDF toq;fg;gLk;)
140 tpdhf;fs;
25 11.06.2023 jpUg;Gjy; - 7 NjHT vz; - 21> 22> 23> 24
2 kzp 30 epkplk;
NjHT
Njjp tFg;G ghlk; - gphpT cstpay; tpdhf;fs;
vz;

tuyhW - KOtJk;
(Kf;fpaj;Jtk; nfhLf;f Ntz;ba ghlq;fs;)
1. ,e;jpahtpy; Njrpaj;jpd; vOr;rp
2. jPtpu Njrpathjj;jpd; vOr;rpAk; RNjrp
,af;fk;
3. fhe;jpabfs; Njrpa jiytuhf
cUntLj;J kf;fis xd;wpizj;jy;
➢ ntz;glf; fzf;Ffs;
12k; tFg;G 4. ,e;jpa Njrpa ,af;fj;jpd; ,Wjpf; fl;lk; 140 tpdhf;fs;
26 14.06.2023 5. fhydpaj;Jf;Fg; gpe;ija ,e;jpahtpd; ➢ mstpay; (2D)
2 kzp 30 epkplk;
kW fl;likg;G ➢ Singular> Plural
,aw;gpay; - KOtJk;
(Kf;fpaj;Jtk; nfhLf;f Ntz;ba ghlq;fs;)
1. kpd;Ndhl;ltpay;
2. fhe;jtpay;> xspapay;
3. mZ kw;Wk; mZf;fU ,aw;gpay;
elg;G epfo;T gpg;utup - 2023 (PDF toq;fg;gLk;)
nghUspay;
1. Njrpa tUtha;
2. gztpay; nfhs;if
➢ glq;fspd; vz;zpf;if
3. tq;fpapay; 140 tpdhf;fs;
4. gd;dhl;L nghUshjhu mikg;Gfs; ➢ mstpay; (3D)
2 kzp 30 epkplk;
5. epjpg;nghUspay; ➢ Conjuction
12k; tFg;G 6. Rw;Wr;#oy; nghUspay;
27 18.06.2023 Ntjpapay; - KOtJk;
(Kf;fpaj;Jtk; nfhLf;f Ntz;ba ghlq;fs;)
1. cNyhftpay;
2. p njhFjp jdpkq;fs; - I
3. p njhFjp jdpkq;fs - II
4. md;whl tho;tpy; Ntjpapay;
elg;G epfo;T khHr; - 2023 (PDF toq;fg;gLk;)
12k; tFg;G murpay; mwptpay; - KOtJk; 140 tpdhf;fs;
NjHT
Njjp tFg;G ghlk; - gphpT cstpay; tpdhf;fs;
vz;

(Kf;fpaj;Jtk; nfhLf;f Ntz;ba ghlq;fs;) 2 kzp 30 epkplk;

1. ,e;jpa murikg;G
2. rl;lkd;wk;
3. Ml;rpj;Jiw
4. ,e;jpa ePjpj;Jiw
5. ,e;jpahtpy; $l;lhl;rp
➢ RUf;Ff
6. ,e;jpahtpy; epHthf mikg;G
28 21.06.2023 ➢ vz; fzf;Ffs;
jhtutpay; - KOtJk;
(Kf;fpaj;Jtk; nfhLf;f Ntz;ba ghlq;fs;) ➢ Sentence Pattern
1. ghuk;ghpa kugpay;
2. Rw;Wr;#oy; gpur;ridfs;
3. nghUshjhu gaDs;s jhtuq;fSk;
njhopy; KidT jhtutpaYk;
elg;G epfo;T Vg;uy; - 2023 (PDF toq;fg;gLk;)
Gtpapay;
1. kf;fs; njhif Gtpapay;
2. tsq;fs;
3. njhopy;fs;
4. Gtpj;jftypay;
5. NghplH Nkyhz;ik
➢ Kf;Nfhztpay;
12k; tFg;G tpyq;fpay; - KOtJk; 140 tpdhf;fs;
29 25.06.2023 ➢ ,aw;fzpjk;
(Kf;fpaj;Jtk; nfhLf;f Ntz;ba ghlq;fs;) 2 kzp 30 epkplk;
➢ Preposition
1. kdpj ,dg;ngUf;fk;
2. %yf;$W kugpay;
3. kdpj eyd; kw;Wk; Neha;fs;
4. Neha;j;jilf; fhg;gpapay;
5. kdpj eydpd; Ez;ZapHfs;
elg;G epfo;T Nk - 2023 (PDF toq;fg;gLk;)
NjHT
Njjp tFg;G ghlk; - gphpT cstpay; tpdhf;fs;
vz;

140 tpdhf;fs;
30 28.06.2023 jpUg;Gjy; - 8 NjHT vz; - 26> 27> 28> 29
2 kzp 30 epkplk;
BOOK BACK QUESTION
6 Kjy; 10k; tFg;G
tiu BOX QUESTION
➢ klf;iffs; 140 tpdhf;fs;
31 02.07.2023 (ALL SUBJECT) ➢ fzq;fs; 2 kzp 30 epkplk;
Ke;ija Mz;L
2015> 2020> 2022
tpdhj;jhs;
BOOK BACK QUESTION
➢ epfo;jfT 140 tpdhf;fs;
32 05.07.2023 11k; tFg;G BOX QUESTION
➢ tho;tpay; fzpjk; 2 kzp 30 epkplk;
(ALL SUBJECT)
BOOK BACK QUESTION
➢ rkr;rPh; jd;ik 140 tpdhf;fs;
33 09.07.2023 12k; tFg;G BOX QUESTION
➢ jfty; nrayhf;fk; 2 kzp 30 epkplk;
(ALL SUBJECT)

KO jpUg;Gjy; NjHTfs;
Kjd;ik NjHT - 140 tpdhf;fs; 2 kzp 30 epkplk;
34 12.07.2023 6 Kjy; 12k; tFg;G tiu KO jpUg;Gjy; NjHT - 1
jkpo; jFjp NjHT - 100 tpdhf;fs; 1 kzp 30 epkplk;
Kjd;ik NjHT - 140 tpdhf;fs; 2 kzp 30 epkplk;
35 16.07.2023 6 Kjy; 12k; tFg;G tiu KO jpUg;Gjy; NjHT - 2
jkpo; jFjp NjHT - 100 tpdhf;fs; 1 kzp 30 epkplk;
Kjd;ik NjHT - 140 tpdhf;fs; 2 kzp 30 epkplk;
36 19.07.2023 6 Kjy; 12k; tFg;G tiu KO jpUg;Gjy; NjHT - 3
jkpo; jFjp NjHT - 100 tpdhf;fs; 1 kzp 30 epkplk;
Kjd;ik NjHT - 140 tpdhf;fs; 2 kzp 30 epkplk;
37 23.07.2023 6 Kjy; 12k; tFg;G tiu KO jpUg;Gjy; NjHT - 4
jkpo; jFjp NjHT - 100 tpdhf;fs; 1 kzp 30 epkplk;