Science Quiz Olympaid Selection Test Preparation
2024-2025
Q1: Which of the following is a base quantity in the SI system?
a) Energy
b) Length
c) Velocity
d) Area
Answer: b) Length
Explanation: Length is a fundamental base quantity in the SI system,
whereas energy, velocity, and area are derived quantities.
Q2: If an object moves with a constant speed in a circle, what is true
about its velocity?
a) Constant
b) Zero
c) Changes direction continuously
d) Remains positive
Answer: c) Changes direction continuously
Explanation: Velocity involves both magnitude and direction. In circular
motion, the direction changes continuously even if the speed is constant.
Q3: According to Newton’s second law, force is proportional to:
a) Distance
b) Acceleration
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c) Mass squared
d) Velocity
Answer: b) Acceleration
Explanation: Newton’s second law states that \( F = ma \), meaning force is
directly proportional to acceleration.
Q4: What is the SI unit of pressure?
a) N/m
b) Pa
c) J/s
d) N/kg
Answer: b) Pa
Explanation: Pressure is measured in Pascals (Pa), where \(1 \, \text{Pa} = 1
\, \text{N/m}^2\).
Q5: Which of the following is a unit of energy?
a) Watt
b) Joule
c) Coulomb
d) Pascal
Answer: b) Joule
Explanation: Energy is measured in Joules (J), and 1 Joule = 1 Newton-
meter.
Q6: What term describes the maximum force a material can withstand
without breaking?
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a) Elastic limit
b) Breaking point
c) Stress limit
d) Ultimate tensile strength
Answer: d) Ultimate tensile strength
Explanation: Ultimate tensile strength refers to the maximum stress a
material can endure before it breaks.
Q7: What happens to the wavelength of a wave as it enters a denser
medium?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Depends on amplitude
Answer: b) Decreases
Explanation: When a wave enters a denser medium, its speed decreases, and
so does its wavelength.
Q8: What occurs when two waves meet in phase?
a) Destructive interference
b) Constructive interference
c) Refraction
d) Diffraction
Answer: b) Constructive interference
Explanation: When two waves meet in phase, their amplitudes add up,
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resulting in constructive interference.
Q9: Which of the following is a conductor?
a) Plastic
b) Rubber
c) Copper
d) Wood
Answer: c) Copper
Explanation: Copper is a good conductor of electricity due to the presence
of free electrons.
Q10: What is the potential difference across a 10-ohm resistor carrying
a current of 2 A?
a) 5 V
b) 10 V
c) 20 V
d) 50 V
Answer: c) 20 V
Explanation: By Ohm’s Law, \( V = IR = 2 \times 10 = 20 \, V \).
Q11: Which particle is found outside the nucleus?
a) Proton
b) Neutron
c) Electron
d) Alpha particle
Answer: c) Electron
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Explanation: Electrons orbit the nucleus in shells.
Q12: What is the molar mass of water (H₂O)?
a) 10 g/mol
b) 16 g/mol
c) 18 g/mol
d) 20 g/mol
Answer: c) 18 g/mol
Explanation: \( H_2O \) has 2 Hydrogen atoms (2 × 1) + 1 Oxygen atom
(16), totaling 18 g/mol.
Q13: Which bond type involves sharing of electrons?
a) Ionic
b) Metallic
c) Covalent
d) Hydrogen
Answer: c) Covalent
Explanation: In covalent bonding, atoms share electrons to achieve a full
outer shell.
Q14: An exothermic reaction:
a) Absorbs heat
b) Releases heat
c) Has no heat exchange
d) Converts heat to work
Answer: b) Releases heat
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Explanation: Exothermic reactions release heat into the surroundings.
Q15: What happens to the mass of a cathode during electrolysis?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains the same
d) Changes unpredictably
Answer: a) Increases
Explanation: At the cathode, reduction occurs, and metal ions gain electrons
to form solid metal.
Q16: Which group contains the halogens?
a) Group 1
b) Group 2
c) Group 17
d) Group 18
Answer: c) Group 17
Explanation: Halogens are located in Group 17 and include elements like
chlorine and iodine.
Q17: What effect does increasing temperature have on the rate of a
reaction?
a) No effect
b) Slows it down
c) Speeds it up
d) Stops it
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Answer: c) Speeds it up
Explanation: Higher temperatures increase particle movement, leading to
more collisions and a faster reaction rate.
Q18: What structure controls the movement of substances into and out
of a cell?
a) Nucleus
b) Cytoplasm
c) Cell membrane
d) Cell wall
Answer: c) Cell membrane
Explanation: The cell membrane regulates what enters and exits the cell.
Q19: Which factor does NOT affect enzyme activity?
a) Temperature
b) pH
c) Enzyme concentration
d) Light intensity
Answer: d) Light intensity
Explanation: Light intensity does not affect enzyme activity; temperature
and pH are more relevant factors.
Q20: Which process moves water through the plant?
a) Osmosis
b) Transpiration
c) Active transport
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d) Photosynthesis
Answer: b) Transpiration
Explanation: Transpiration involves the movement of water from roots to
leaves, driven by evaporation.
Here are the remaining 30 MCQs with answers and explanations.
Q21: What is the main function of ribosomes?
a) Store genetic material
b) Produce energy
c) Synthesize proteins
d) Transport nutrients
Answer: c) Synthesize proteins
Explanation: Ribosomes are responsible for protein synthesis by translating
mRNA into polypeptides.
Q22: Which enzyme breaks down starch into maltose?
a) Lipase
b) Amylase
c) Protease
d) Catalase
Answer: b) Amylase
Explanation: Amylase is an enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of starch
into maltose.
Q23: What kind of molecule is glucose?
a) Protein
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b) Lipid
c) Carbohydrate
d) Nucleic acid
Answer: c) Carbohydrate
Explanation: Glucose is a simple sugar and a carbohydrate that provides
energy to cells.
Q24: During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
a) G1 phase
b) G2 phase
c) S phase
d) M phase
Answer: c) S phase
Explanation: DNA replication occurs during the S (synthesis) phase of the
cell cycle.
Q25: Which nucleic acid carries the genetic code from DNA to
ribosomes?
a) tRNA
b) rRNA
c) mRNA
d) ATP
Answer: c) mRNA
Explanation: mRNA (messenger RNA) carries genetic information from
DNA to ribosomes for protein synthesis.
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Q26: In plants, which tissue transports water?
a) Phloem
b) Xylem
c) Epidermis
d) Cambium
Answer: b) Xylem
Explanation: Xylem transports water and minerals from roots to other parts
of the plant.
Q27: What pigment in red blood cells binds with oxygen?
a) Hemoglobin
b) Chlorophyll
c) Myoglobin
d) Carotene
Answer: a) Hemoglobin
Explanation: Hemoglobin in red blood cells binds to oxygen, enabling its
transport throughout the body.
Q28: Which organ is responsible for gas exchange in humans?
a) Heart
b) Liver
c) Lungs
d) Kidney
Answer: c) Lungs
Explanation: The lungs facilitate gas exchange, absorbing oxygen and
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releasing carbon dioxide.
Q29: What is the basic unit of all living organisms?
a) Atom
b) Molecule
c) Cell
d) Tissue
Answer: c) Cell
Explanation: Cells are the basic structural and functional units of all living
organisms.
Q30: Which disease is caused by Plasmodium species?
a) Tuberculosis
b) Malaria
c) Cholera
d) Dengue
Answer: b) Malaria
Explanation: Malaria is caused by Plasmodium parasites transmitted by
Anopheles mosquitoes.
Q31: What is the monomer of proteins?
a) Nucleotides
b) Fatty acids
c) Amino acids
d) Monosaccharides
Answer: c) Amino acids
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Explanation: Proteins are composed of amino acids linked together by
peptide bonds.
Q32: Which force acts against motion?
a) Gravitational force
b) Friction
c) Centripetal force
d) Electrostatic force
Answer: b) Friction
Explanation: Friction is a force that opposes the motion of objects in
contact.
Q33: What does the pH scale measure?
a) Light intensity
b) Temperature
c) Hydrogen ion concentration
d) Salinity
Answer: c) Hydrogen ion concentration
Explanation: The pH scale measures the acidity or alkalinity of a solution
based on hydrogen ion concentration.
Q34: Which gas is released during photosynthesis?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Nitrogen
c) Oxygen
d) Methane
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Answer: c) Oxygen
Explanation: During photosynthesis, plants release oxygen as a byproduct.
Q35: What is the primary energy source for cellular processes?
a) DNA
b) RNA
c) ATP
d) NADPH
Answer: c) ATP
Explanation: ATP (adenosine triphosphate) provides energy for cellular
activities.
Q36: Which state of matter has no fixed shape but a definite volume?
a) Solid
b) Liquid
c) Gas
d) Plasma
Answer: b) Liquid
Explanation: Liquids have a definite volume but take the shape of their
container.
Q37: Which element is essential for the formation of bones and teeth?
a) Sodium
b) Calcium
c) Potassium
d) Iron
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Answer: b) Calcium
Explanation: Calcium is necessary for the development and maintenance of
bones and teeth.
Q38: What is the chemical formula of methane?
a) CO₂
b) CH₄
c) H₂O
d) NH₃
Answer: b) CH₄
Explanation: Methane consists of one carbon atom bonded to four hydrogen
atoms.
Q39: Which substance speeds up chemical reactions in biological
systems?
a) Enzyme
b) Substrate
c) Hormone
d) Antibody
Answer: a) Enzyme
Explanation: Enzymes act as biological catalysts that speed up chemical
reactions.
Q40: What is the charge on an electron?
a) +1
b) -1
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c) +2
d) 0
Answer: b) -1
Explanation: Electrons carry a negative charge of -1.
Q41: What type of wave is sound?
a) Transverse
b) Longitudinal
c) Electromagnetic
d) Stationary
Answer: b) Longitudinal
Explanation: Sound waves are longitudinal, with particles vibrating parallel
to the direction of wave propagation.
Q42: What type of bond forms between sodium and chlorine in sodium
chloride?
a) Covalent
b) Ionic
c) Metallic
d) Hydrogen
Answer: b) Ionic
Explanation: Sodium and chlorine form an ionic bond by transferring
electrons.
Q43: Which organelle is responsible for cellular respiration?
a) Ribosome
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b) Mitochondrion
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Nucleus
Answer: b) Mitochondrion
Explanation: The mitochondrion is the powerhouse of the cell, where
respiration takes place.
Q44: Which group of elements is known as noble gases?
a) Group 1
b) Group 17
c) Group 18
d) Group 2
Answer: c) Group 18
Explanation: Noble gases are found in Group 18 and are known for being
chemically inert.
Q45: What is the SI unit of electric current?
a) Volt
b) Ampere
c) Ohm
d) Watt
Answer: b) Ampere
Explanation: Electric current is measured in amperes (A).
Q46: Which molecule stores genetic information?
a) RNA
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b) DNA
c) Protein
d) Lipid
Answer: b) DNA
Explanation: DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) stores the genetic information of
an organism.
Q47: What is the process of cell division in which identical daughter
cells are formed?
a) Meiosis
b) Mitosis
c) Binary fission
d) Budding
Answer: b) Mitosis
Explanation: Mitosis results in two identical daughter cells from a single
parent cell.
Q48: Which element is most abundant in the Earth's crust?
a) Oxygen
b) Hydrogen
c) Iron
d) Silicon
Answer: a) Oxygen
Explanation: Oxygen is the most abundant element in the Earth's crust by
weight.
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Q49: Which particle has no electric charge?
a) Proton
b) Electron
c) Neutron
d) Positron
Answer: c) Neutron
Explanation: Neutrons are neutral particles with no electric charge.
Q50: What is the process by which plants make food using sunlight?
a) Respiration
b) Transpiration
c) Photosynthesis
d) Fermentation
Answer: c) Photosynthesis
Explanation: Photosynthesis is the process by which plants use sunlight,
water, and carbon dioxide to produce glucose and oxygen.
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