Universal Objective Forestry

Universal
Objective Forestry
(2nd Revised Edition)
(UPSC, PSCs, SRF/JRF/AFO, State PG & Ph.D. Entrance
examinations and interviews of all Forest services)

Mohit Husain
M.Sc. (Forestry)
(UG-Goldmedalist)
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Dedicated to my beloved parents
Mr. Amisher Khan
&
Mrs. Hanipha Khatoon
Preface
Forestry is a broad subject. It covers all the basic subject of science. Therefore
students have to pass through all the forestry related subject with elementary
courses during under graduation. After passing graduation, higher degrees
are done in specialized field of forestry, so there is no need to read all forestry
subject in M.Sc. and Ph.D. programme.

But for the preparation of various forestry competition examinations students

have to read all the basic books of forestry to cover the syllabus. And at that
time most of the students do not have all the necessary books and ample of
time to read them.

Therefore, to overcome these problems the author have tried his best to
write this book through reading various books, states forest reports and other
sources of forestry, to covers brief information of all the subjects in one book.

Covering all the subjects of forestry in one books is a very hard task
so some errors may be present, therefore your suggestions are invited
(mohit.husainchf@gmail.com) for further improvement of this book.

I express my appreciation for the hard work and affinity of my sincere and
respected professors who have guided me for bring all the content in this
single book.

The forbearance shown by my mother, Mrs. Hanipha Khatoon, father

Mr. Amisher Khan, brothers Mr. Kamil Hussain & Mr. Suhaiv Akhtar and
sister Ms. Nargis Khatoon, is worth placing high on record who always
favoured me in collecting and bearing the assignment.

I hope this book would be very helpful for those appearing in various
competition exams of forestry.

Mohit Husain
About the Author
Mr. Mohit Husain was born in Dhoondli (Bijnor), a small village in the
state of Uttar Pradesh. His father, Amisher Khan is a businessman and had
motivated him to pursue an under graduation studies in forestry science.

Mr. Mohit Husain, did his B.Sc. (Forestry) from college of Horticulture
and Forestry, Agricultural University Kota, Rajasthan in 2016. Currently,
he is pursuing his Master degree in forestry science from Sher-e-Kashmir
University of Agricultural Science and Technology of Kashmir. His current
research focuses on Vegetation analysis, Biomass production and carbon
stock in the grasslands of Gulmarg. He has qualified ICAR-UG and ICAR-PG
examinations and has received ICAR scholarship.

He was awarded gold medal in B.Sc. And was also awarded as Best student
of the year-2016 during the same.

Mr. Mohit Husain has attended various National and International conferences/
seminars and gave oral presentations as well as poster presentation. He has
done various trainings in both agricultural and Forestry field. He has published
23 research papers and articles in National and International journals.

He has also written a practical manual on tree physiology, forest nursery and
also edited a book, entitled objective forestry.
JRF Syllabus for Forestry
UNIT I: Importance of Agriculture/Forestry/Livestock in national econ-
omy. Basic principles of crop production. Important rural development
programmes in India Elementary principles of economics and agri-extension.
Organizational set up of Agricultural Research, education and extension in
India. Major diseases and pests of crops. Elements of statistics.

UNIT II: Forest-importance, types, classification, ecosystem, biotic and

abiotic components, ecological succession and climax, nursery and planting
technique, social forestry, farm forestry, urban forestry, community forestry,
forest management, silvicultural practices, forest mensuration, natural
regeneration, man-made plantations, shifting cultivation, taungya, dendrology,
hardwoods, softwoods, pulp woods, fuel woods, multipurpose tree species,
wasteland management. Agro forestry – importance and land use systems,
forest soils, classification and conservation, watershed management, forest
genetics and biotechnology and tree improvement, tree seed technology,
rangelands, wildlife – importance, abuse, depletion, management, major
and minor forest products including medicinal and aromatic plants, forest
inventory, aerial photo interpretation and remote sensing, forest depletion
and degradation – importance and impact on environment, global warming,
role of forests and trees in climate mitigation, tree diseases, wood decay
and discolouration, tree pests, integrated pest and disease management,
biological and chemical wood preservation, forest conservation, Indian forest
policies, Indian forest act, forest engineering, forest economics, joint forest
management and tribology.
NET Syllabus for Agroforestry
Unit 1. National Forest Policy 1894, 1952 and 1988; Indian Forest Act,
1927; Forest Conservation Act, 1980 and Wildlife Protection Act, 1972;
Forests-extent, basis for classification and distribution in India; Geographical
distribution and salient features of major world forest types; Phytogeographical
regions and vegetation of India; Role of forests in national economy -
productive, protective and ameliorative, tribal and rural livelihoods; Forest
types of India: distribution and types; Succession, climax and retrogression;
Concepts of biomass, productivity, energy flow and nutrient cycling in forest
ecosystem; Migration and dispersal mechanism.

Unit 2. Concept and definition of agroforestry, social forestry, community

forestry and farm forestry; Benefits and constraints of agroforestry;
Historical development of agroforestry and overview of global agroforestry
systems. Classification of agroforestry systems: structural, functional, socio-
economic and ecological; Diagnosis and design of agroforestry system; Land
capability classification and land use; Criteria of an ideal agroforestry design,
productivity, sustainability and adoptability; multipurpose tree species and
their characteristics suitable for agroforestry.

Unit 3. Plant management practices in agroforestry; Tree-crop interactions:

ecological and economic; Concept of complementarity, supplementarity
and competition; Productivity, nutrient cycling and light, water and nutrient
competition in agroforestry; Concept of allelopathy and its impact on
agroforestry; Energy plantations - choice of species and management;
Lopping of top-feed species such as frequency and intensity of lopping;
Organic farming; Financial analysis and economic evaluation of agroforestry
systems: cost benefit analysis and land equivalent ratio; Agroforestry practices
and systems in different agro - ecological zones of India.

Unit 4. Extent and causes of land denudation; Effects of deforestation on

soil erosion, land degradation, environment and rural economy; Wastelands:
their extent, characteristics and reclamation; Watershed management and its
role in social, economic and ecological development; Biomass production
for fuel wood, small timber, raw material for plant-based cottage industries,
non-wood forest products such as gums, resins & tannins, medicinal plants,
essential oils, edible fruits, spices, bamboo and canes; Wood quality and
wood preservation; Plywood and pulp industries.
xii t NET Syllabus for Agroforestry

Unit 5. Forest mensuration - definition, object and scope; Measurement of

diameter, girth, height, stem form, bark thickness, crown width and crown
length; Measurement methods and their principles. Measurement and
computation of volume of logs and felled/standing trees; Construction and
application of volume tables; Biomass measurement; Growth and increment;
Measurement of crops; Forest inventory: kinds of enumeration, sampling
methods, sample plots and photo interpretation; Geographic information
systems and remote sensing - concept and scope.

Unit 6. Definition, object and scope of silviculture; Site factors - climatic,

edaphic, physiographic, biotic and their influence on forest vegetation; Forest
regeneration: natural and artificial; Silvicultural systems - high forest and
coppice systems; Silviculture of important tree species - Populus, Eucalyptus,
Dalbergia, Acacia, Tectona, Shorea, Prosopis, Casurina, Pinus, Gmelina,
Azadirachta, Diospyros, Pterocarpus, Anogeissus, Santalum, Quercus and
Albizia.

Unit 7. Seed collection, processing, storage, viability and pre-treatment;

Seed dormancy and methods for breaking dormancy; Seed testing and
germination tests; Seed certification and ISTA Rules; Forest nursery - need,
selection and preparation of site, layout and design of nursery beds; Types of
containers; Root trainers; Growing media and sowing methods; Management
of nursery-shading, watering, manuring, fertilizer application, weed control,
insect pest and diseases control; Planting techniques: site selection, evaluation
and protection; Soil working techniques for various edaphic and climatic
conditions; Planting patterns; Plant spacing, manure and fertilizer application,
irrigation/moisture conservation techniques; Choice of species. Afforestation
on difficult sites: saline-alkaline soils, coastal sands, lateritic soils, wetlands,
ravines and sand dunes, dry and rocky areas, cold desert; Tending operations
- weeding, cleaning, climber cutting, thinning - mechanical, ordinary, crown
and selection thinning, improvement felling, pruning and girdling; Forest
fires: causes, types, impacts and control measures; Major forest pests and
weeds.

Unit 8. Forest management: definition and scope; Concept of sustained

yield and normal forest; Rotation; Estimation of growing stock, density and
site quality; Management of even aged and uneven aged forest; Regulation
of yield in regular and irregular forests by area, volume, increment and
number of trees; Working plan; Joint forest management; Conservation
and management of natural resources including wildlife; Forest evaluation;
Internal rate of return, present net worth and cost benefit analysis.
 NET Syllabus for Agroforestry t xiii

Unit 9. Tree improvement: nature and extent of variations in natural

population; Natural selection; Concept of seed source/ provenance; Selection
of superior trees; Seed production areas, exotic trees, land races; Collection,
evaluation and maintenance of germplasm; Provenance testing. Genetic gains;
Tree breeding: general principles, mode of pollination and floral structure;
Basics of forest genetics - inheritance, Hardyweinburg Law, genetic drift;
Aims and methods of tree breeding. Seed orchard: types, establishment,
planning and management, progeny test and designs; Clonal forestry - merits
and demerits; Techniques of vegetative propagation, tissue culture, mist
chamber; Role of growth substances in vegetative propagation.

Unit 10. Forestry in bio-economic productivity of different agro-eco-

systems and environmental management; Global overview and classification
of agroforestry systems; Tree-crop interaction in agroforestry; Biomass
production for fuel’ wood, small timber, raw material for plants-based cottage
industries, non-wood forest products such as gums, resins, tannins, medicinal
plants, essential oils, edible fruits, bamboos and canes; Principle and criteria
of plant selection in agroforestry; Resource use-efficiency in agroforestry.

Unit 11. Measurement of trees and stand – diameter, girth, height, form
and crown characteristics; Measurement methods and their principles;
Volume/biomass estimation, volume tables; Measurement of rangeland
productivity; Forest enumeration: sampling methods, sample plots, surveys
and photo interpretation; Concept and application of GIS and remote sensing;
Introduction to internal rate of return, present net worth, cost benefit analysis
and land equivalent ratio; Agroforestry and environmental conservation; Role
of green revolution in forest conservation in India.

Unit 12. Climate change: greenhouse effect, sources and sinks of green-
house gases, major greenhouses gases; Global climate change – its history and
future predictions; Impact of climate change on agriculture, forestry, water
resources, sea level; Livestock, fishery and coastal ecosystems; International
conventions on climate change; Global warming: effect of enhanced CO2 on
productivity; Ozone layer depletion; Disaster management, floods, droughts,
earthquakes; Tsunami, cyclones and landslides; Agroforestry and carbon
sequestration.

Unit 13. Statistics: definition, object and scope; Frequency distribution;

Mean, median, mode and standard deviation, introduction to correlation and
regression; Experimental designs: basic principles, completely randomized,
randomized block, Latin square and split plot designs.
Contents
Preface vii
About the Author viii
JRF Syllabus for Forestry ix
NET Syllabus for Agroforestry xi–xiii
1. General Forestry 1—34
2. Ecology and Environment 35—56
3. Forest Management 57—84
4. Wildlife Management 85—100
5. Forest Utilization 101—140
6. Plant and Wood Anatomy 141—152
7. Forest Mensuration 153—184
8. Remote Sensing 185—192
9. Rangeland Management 193—200
10. Forest Protection 201—208
11. Silviculture 209—240
12. Agroforestry 241—250
13. Social Forestry 251—256
14. Genetics & Tree Improvement 257—280
15. Tree Seed Technology 281—286
16. Soil Science 287—304
17. Agricultural Extension 305—314
18. Agricultural Statistics and Economics 315—322
19. Plant Physiology 323—346
20. Memory based JRF Paper 2015 347—356
21. Memory based JRF Paper 2016 357—376
22. Memory based NET Paper 2015 377—394
23. Memory based SRF Paper 2014 395—410
24. UPPSC ACF Exam Paper 2015 411—426
ICFRE Scientist-B (Forestry) 427—440
 General Forestry t 1

Chapter 1

General Forestry

1. Term forest is derived from-

a. Greek word b. Latin word
c. English word d. French word
2. Total forest cover as percentage of geographical area according, FSI-
2015-
a. 21.34 b. 23.14
c. 24.08 d. 19.75
3. Total tree cover as percentage of geographical area according, FSI-
2015-
a. 1.80 b. 2.82
c. 3.85 d. 4.55
4. State having largest total forest cover in India is-
a. Jammu & Kashmir b. Uttarakhand
c. Madhya Pradesh d. Assam
5. State having highest forest cover as % of its geographical area-
a. Mizoram b. Uttarakhand
c. Madhya Pradesh d. Assam
6. State having highest mangrove forest cover in India is-
a. Mizoram b. Uttarakhand
c. Madhya Pradesh d. West Bengal
7. Currently Mangrove cover in India is-
a. 1740 km² b. 2740 km²
c. 3740 km² d. 4740 km²

Answers
1. b 2. a 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. d
7. d
2 t Universal Objective Forestry

8. The total carbon stock in the country’s forest is around 7, 044 million
tonnes.
a. 4,044 mil tonnes b. 5,044 mil tonnes
c. 7,044 mil tonnes d. 9,044 mil tonnes
9. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Andhra Pradesh
according FSI, 2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.32 percent
10. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Andhra Pradesh-
a. 12 b. 30
c. 16 d. 11
11. State animal of Andhra Pradesh-
a. Deer b. Leopard
c. Blackbuck d. Tiger
12. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Arunchal Pradesh
according FSI, 2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.32 percent
13. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Arunachal Pradesh-
a. 10 b. 13
c. 23 d. 30
14. State animal of Arunchal Pradesh-
a. Sangai b. Rhinoceros
c. Gaur d. Mithun
15. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Assam according FSI,
2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.32 percent
16. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Assam -
a. 23 b. 30
c. 32 d. 35

Answers
8. c 9. a 10. c 11. c 12. b 13. b
14. d 15. c 16. a
 General Forestry t 3

17. State animal of Assam-

a. Rhinoceros b. Blackbuck
c. Hangul d. Asiatic lion
18. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Bihar according FSI,
2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.32 percent
19. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Bihar-
a. 10 b. 13
c. 18 d. 25
20. State animal of Bihar-
a. Ox b. Leopard
c. Blackbuck d. Tiger
21. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Chhattisgarh according
FSI, 2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.68 percent d. 2.32 percent
22. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Chhattisgarh-
a. 10 b. 14
c. 20 d. 22
23. State animal of Chhattisgarh-
a. Sangai b. Rhinoceros
c. Gaur d. Wild Buffalo
24. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Goa according FSI,
2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 08.78 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.32 percent
25. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Goa-
a. 5 b. 7
c. 10 d. 13
Answers
17. a 18. d 19. b 20. a 21. c 22. b
23. d 24. b 25. b
4 t Universal Objective Forestry

26. State animal of Goa-

a. Gaur b. Blackbuck
c. Hangul d. Asiatic lion
27. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Gujarat according FSI,
2015-
a. 4.04 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.32 percent
28. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Gujarat-
a. 27 b. 30
c. 35 d. 39
29. State animal of Gujarat-
a. Tiger b. Asiatic lion
c. Deer d. Leopard
30. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Haryana according
FSI, 2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 3.07 percent d. 2.32 percent
31. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Haryana-
a. 5 b. 7
c. 10 d. 15
32. State animal of Haryana-
a. Goat b. Blackbuck
c. Tiger d. Hangul
33. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Himanchal Pradesh
according FSI, 2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 1.36 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.32 percent
34. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Himanchal Pradesh-
a. 15 b. 23
c. 29 d. 33
Answers
26. a 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. c 31. c
32. b 33. b 34. d
 General Forestry t 5

35. State animal of Himanchal Pradesh-

a. Rhinoceros b. Blackbuck
c. Snow leopard d. Hangul
36. Percent forest area of total geographic area Jammu & Kashmir
according FSI, 2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 3.76 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.32 percent
37. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Jammu & Kashmir-
a. 12 b. 15
c. 19 d. 25
38. State animal of Jammu & Kashmir-
a. Rhinoceros b. Blackbuck
c. Snow leopard d. Hangul
39. Percent forest area of total geographic area in West Bengal according
FSI, 2015-
a. 2.35 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.32 percent
40. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in West Bengal-
a. 16 b. 21
c. 26 d. 29
41. State animal of West Bengal-
a. Hangul b. Fishing cat
c. Elephant d. Rhinoceros
42. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Jharkhand according
FSI, 2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 3.49 percent d. 2.32 percent
43. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Jharkhand-
a. 10 b. 12
c. 18 d. 29
Answers
35. c 36. b 37. c 38. d 39. a 40. b
41. b 42. c 43. b
6 t Universal Objective Forestry

44. State animal of Jharkhand-

a. Sangai b. Rhinoceros
c. Gaur d. Elephant
45. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Karnataka according
FSI, 2015-
a. 2.89 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.32 percent
46. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Karnataka-
a. 24 b. 28
c. 32 d. 37
47. State animal of Karnataka-
a. Swamp deer b. Blackbuck
c. Nilgai Thar d. Elephant
48. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Kerala according FSI,
2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 7.59 percent
49. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Kerala-
a. 14 b. 16
c. 23 d. 28
50. State animal of Kerala-
a. Swamp deer b. Blackbuck
c. Nilgai Thar d. Elephant
51. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Madhya Pradesh
according FSI, 2015-
a. 2.52 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.32 percent
52. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Madhya Pradesh-
a. 15 b. 24
c. 28 d. 34
Answers
44. d 45. a 46. c 47. d 48. d 49. c
50. d 51. a 52. d
 General Forestry t 7

53. State animal of Madhya Pradesh-

a. Swamp deer b. Blackbuck
c. Snow leopard d. Hangul
54. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Maharashtra according
FSI, 2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 3.11 percent
55. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Maharashtra-
a. 21 b. 28
c. 35 d. 47
56. State animal of Maharashtra-
a. Deer b. Tiger
c. Giant squirrel d. Blackbuck
57. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Manipur according
FSI, 2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 1.09 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.32 percent
58. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Manipur-
a. 2 b. 3
c. 7 d. 9
59. State animal of Manipur-
a. Sangai b. Rhinoceros
c. Gaur d. Elephant
60. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Meghalaya according
FSI, 2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 3.17 percent
61. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Meghalaya-
a. 5 b. 12
c. 16 d. 23
Answers
53. a 54. d 55. d 56. c 57. b 58. b
59. a 60. d 61. a
8 t Universal Objective Forestry

62. State animal of Meghalaya-

a. Deer b. Tiger
c. Clouded leopard d. Blackbuck
63. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Mizoram according
FSI, 2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.54 percent d. 2.32 percent
64. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Mizoram-
a. 7 b. 10
c. 15 d. 21
65. State animal of Mizoram-
a. Rhinoceros b. Blackbuck
c. Snow leopard d. Serow
66. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Nagaland according
FSI, 2015-
a. 2.30 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.32 percent
67. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Nagaland-
a. 2 b. 4
c. 8 d. 10
68. State animal of Nagaland-
a. Deer b. Mithun
c. Clouded leopard d. Blackbuck
69. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Odisha according FSI,
2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.56 percent d. 2.32 percent
70. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Odisha-
a. 15 b. 19
c. 21 d. 27
Answers
62. c 63. c 64. b 65. d 66. a 67. b
68. b 69. c 70. c
 General Forestry t 9

71. State animal of Odisha-

a. Rhinoceros b. Blackbuck
c. Snow leopard d. Sambar
72. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Punjab according FSI,
2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 3.07 percent d. 2.32 percent
73. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Punjab-
a. 8 b. 10
c. 13 d. 15
74. State animal of Punjab-
a. Deer b. Tiger
c. Giant squirrel d. Blackbuck
75. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Rajasthan according
FSI, 2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.42 percent
76. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Rajasthan-
a. 12 b. 19
c. 26 d. 30
77. State animal of Rajasthan-
a. Deer b. Tiger
c. Camel d. Blackbuck
78. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Sikkim according FSI,
2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 0.50 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.32 percent
79. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Sikkim-
a. 5 b. 8
c. 12 d. 19
Answers
71. d 72. c 73. c 74. d 75. d 76. d
77. c 78. b 79. b
10 t Universal Objective Forestry

80. State animal of Sikkim-

a. Rhinoceros b. Blackbuck
c. Snow leopard d. Red Panda
81. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Tamil Nadu according
FSI, 2015-
a. 3.46 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.32 percent
82. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Tamil Nadu-
a. 15 b. 20
c. 25 d. 34
83. State animal of Tamil Nadu-
a. Swamp deer b. Blackbuck
c. Nilgai Thar d. Elephant
84. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Telangana according
FSI, 2015-
a. 2.22 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.32 percent
85. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Telangana-
a. 8 b. 12
c. 18 d. 23
86. State animal of Telangana-
a. Phayre’s langur b. Blackbuck
c. Elephant d. Deer
87. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Tripura according FSI,
2015-
a. 2.22 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.32 percent
88. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Tripura-
a. 6 b. 9
c. 11 d. 13

Answers
80. d 81. a 82. d 83. c 84. a 85. b
86. d 87. a 88. a
 General Forestry t 11

89. State animal of Tripura-

a. Phayre’s langur b. Blackbuck
c. Elephant d. Deer
90. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Uttar Pradesh
according FSI, 2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 2.06 percent d. 2.92 percent
91. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Uttar Pradesh-
a. 12 b. 18
c. 25 d. 35
92. State animal of Uttar Pradesh-
a. Tiger b. Swamp deer
c. Blackbuck d. Cow
93. Percent forest area of total geographic area in Uttarakhand according
FSI, 2015-
a. 2.48 percent b. 0.91 percent
c. 1.41 percent d. 2.32 percent
94. Number of total protected area (national park plus wildlife sanctuary)
in Uttarakhand-
a. 10 b. 13
c. 18 d. 24
95. State animal of Uttarakhand-
a. Musk deer b. Blackbuck
c. Nilgai Thar d. Elephant
96. Advanced Research Centre for Bamboo and Rattan is situated in-
a. Aizawl b. Bhopal
c. Kerala d. New Delhi
97. Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development
Authority (APEDA)-
a. Kanpur b. Bangalore
c. Madhya Pradesh d. New Delhi

Answers
89. a 90. d 91. c 92. b 93. c 94. b
95. a 96. a 97. d
12 t Universal Objective Forestry

98. Arid Forest Research Institute (AFRI) is situated-

a. Jaipur b. Jodhpur
c. New Delhi d. Bombay
99. Headquarter of Botanical Survey of India (BSI)-
a. New Delhi b. Dehra Dun
c. Kolkata d. Lucknow
100. Center for Ecological Sciences is situated-
a. Kanpur b. Bangalore
c. Madhya Pradesh d. New Delhi
101. Center for International Forestry Research (CIFOR) is situated in-
a. India b. Geneva
c. Indonesia d. Japan
102. Center for Tropical Forest Science is located in-
a. Morgis b. Geneva
c. Glans d. Panama
103. Central Drug Research Institute is located in-
a. New Delhi b. Dehra Dun
c. Kolkata d. Lucknow
104. Centre for Forest-based Livelihoods and Extension is situated in-
a. Morgis b. Geneva
c. Glans d. Agartala
105. Centre for Social Forestry and Eco-Rehabilitation is located in-
a. Jaipur b. Allahabad
c. New Delhi d. Bombay
106. Forest Research Institute is located in-
a. New Delhi b. Dehra Dun
c. Kolkata d. Lucknow
107. Headquarter of Forest Survey of India is situated in-
a. New Delhi b. Kolkata
c. Mumbai d. Dehra Dun
108. Foundation for Revitalizations of Local Health Traditions (FRLHT)
is located in-
a. Kanpur b. Bangalore
c. Madhya Pradesh d. New Delhi
Answers
98. b 99. c 100. b 101. c 102. d 103. d
104. d 105. b 106. b 107. d 108. b
 General Forestry t 13

109. Himalayan Forest Research Institute is situated in-

a. New Delhi b. Kolkata
c. Mumbai d. Almora
110. Indian Grassland and fodder research institute (IGFRI) located in-
a. Uttar Pradesh b. Rajasthan
c. Odisha d. Kerala
111. Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM) is located in-
a. Aizawl b. Bhopal
c. Kerala d. New Delhi
112. Indian Institute of Plantation Management (IIPM) is situated-
a. New Delhi b. Kolkata
c. Mumbai d. Bangalore
113. Indian institute of Soil science (IISS) is located in-
a. Aizawl b. Bhopal
c. Kolkata d. New Delhi
114. Indian Institute of Natural Resins and Gums is situated in-
a. Dehra Dun b. Bihar
c. Ranchi d. Lucknow
115. Indian Plywood Industries Research and Training Institute is located-
a. New Delhi b. Kolkata
c. Mumbai d. Bangalore
116. Indira Gandhi National Forest Academy (IGNFA) located-
a. Dehra Dun b. Bihar
c. Ranchi d. Lucknow
117. Institute of Forest Biodiversity (IFB) is located in-
a. New Delhi b. Hyderabad
c. Mumbai d. Bangalore
118. Institute of Forest Genetics and Tree Breeding is located-
a. Coimbatore b. Mumbai
c. Dehra Dun d. Ranchi
119. Institute of Forest Productivity is located-
a. Coimbatore b. Mumbai
c. Dehra Dun d. Ranchi
Answers
109. d 110. a 111. b 112. d 113. b 114. c
115. d 116. a 117. b 118. a 119. d
14 t Universal Objective Forestry

120. Institute of Wood Science and Technology is located in-

a. New Delhi b. Hyderabad
c. Mumbai d. Bangalore
121. International Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources is located-
a. Geneva b. Rome
c. Washington d. Switzerland
122. International Union of Forest Research Organizations (IUFRO) is
located-
a. Switzerland b. Italy
c. Paris d. Austria
123. Headquarter of National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(NABARD)-
a. New Delhi b. Hyderabad
c. Mumbai d. Bangalore
124. Headquarter of National Biodiversity Authority is located-
a. Mumbai b. Dehra Dun
c. New Delhi d. Chennai
125. Headquarter of National Biodiversity Board is located in-
a. Mumbai b. Dehra Dun
c. New Delhi d. Chennai
126. National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) located in-
a. New Delhi b. Hyderabad
c. Mumbai d. Bangalore
127. National Bureau of Soil Survey and Land Use Planning located in
a. Faridabad b. New Delhi
c. Nagpur d. Bhopal
128. National Museum of Natural History is located-
a. Mumbai b. Dehra Dun
c. New Delhi d. Chennai
129. Headquarter of National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is
located-
a. New Delhi b. Hyderabad
c. Mumbai d. Dehra Dun
Answers
120. d 121. b 122. d 123. c 124. d 125. c
126. a 127. c 128. c 129. a
 General Forestry t 15

130. Rain Forest Research Institute (RFRI) situated in-

a. Faridabad b. New Delhi
c. Jorhat d. Bhopal
131. Headquarter of CITES is situated in-
a. Geneva b. Rome
c. Washington d. Switzerland
132. Headquarter of IUCN is situated in-
a. America b. Rome
c. Washington d. Switzerland
133. Tropical Forest Research Institute is located in-
a. Jabalpur b. New Delhi
c. Jorhat d. Bhopal
134. Wildlife Institute of India is situated in-
a. New Delhi b. Hyderabad
c. Mumbai d. Dehra Dun
135. Headquarter of World Agroforestry Center is located in-
a. Geneva b. Rome
c. Nairobi d. Switzerland
136. Central Arid Zone Research Institute situated in-
a. Jaipur b. Jodhpur
c. New Delhi d. Bombay
137. Central Institute of Cotton Research located in-
a. Faridabad b. New Delhi
c. Nagpur d. Bhopal
138. Central Plantation Crops Research Institute situated in-
a. Kochi b. Kasargod
c. Cuttack d. Shimla
139. Central Sheep and Wool Research Institute located in-
a. New Delhi b. Lucknow
c. Jodhpur d. Avikanagar
140. Central Soil Salinity Research Institute is located-
a. New Delhi b. Hyderabad
c. Mumbai d. Karnal
Answers
130. c 131. c 132. d 133. a 134. d 135. c
136. b 137. c 138. b 139. d 140. d
16 t Universal Objective Forestry

141. Central Tobacco Research Institute is located in-

a. Rajahmundry b. Nagpur
c. Assam d. Trivandrum
142. Directorate of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants Research is situated-
a. Anand b. Bhopal
c. Lucknow d. Dehra Dun
143. Directorate of Rapeseed & Mustard Research is located-
a. Faridabad b. New Delhi
c. Bharatpur d. Bhopal
144. Directorate of Seed Research is located-
a. Gujarat b. Rajahmundry
c. Mau d. Dehra Dun
145. Indian Agricultural Statistics Research Institute is situated-
a. New Delhi b. Hyderabad
c. Mumbai d. Dehra Dun
146. National Research Centre for Agroforestry is located-
a. Jhansi b. Debra Dun
c. Coimbatore d. New Delhi
147. National Research Centre on Camel is situated in-
a. Anand b. Bhopal
c. Lucknow d. Bikaner
148. National Research Centre on Orchids is situated-
a. Coimbatore b. Ajmer
c. Sikkim d. Almora
149. Sugarcane Breeding Research Institute is located-
a. Coimbatore b. Ajmer
c. Kanpur d. Almora
150. Per capita forest are available in India is-
a. 0.03 hectare b. 0.06 hectare
c. 0.64 hectare d. 1.6 hectare
151. Per capita forest are available in world is-
a. 0.03 hectare b. 0.06 hectare
c. 0.64 hectare d. 1.6 hectare
Answers
141. a 142. a 143. c 144. c 145. a 146. a
147. d 148. c 149. a 150. b 151. c
 General Forestry t 17

152. Total volume of water in the hydrosphere is-

a. 1.4 billion cubic kilometres b. 1.6 billion cubic kilometres
c. 1.8 billion cubic kilometres d. 2.4 billion cubic kilometres
153. How much percent fresh water is available on the earth-
a. 2.5% b. 2.8%
c. 4.0% d. 4.5%
154. Maximum angiospermic plants found in India-
a. Uttar Pradesh b. Tamil Nadu
c. Andhra Pradesh d. Karnataka
155. Minimum gymnospermic plants found in India-
a. Uttar Pradesh b. Tamil Nadu
c. Andhra Pradesh d. Karnataka
156. 19th Commonwealth Forestry Conference was held on-
a. 3rd April at FRI, Dehra Dun b. 3rd March at FRI, Dehra Dun
c. 6th May at FRI, Dehra Dun d. 6th June at FRI, Dehra Dun
157. The theme of 2017 International Day of Forest is-
a. Save the forest for future
b. Conserve natural resources for future
c. Forest and Energy
d. Forest and Climate change
158. The theme of 2017 International Day of Water is-
a. Save the water save life
b. Water conservation for life
c. Save environment and save the water
d. Why Waste Water
159. Chipko movement was started in the year-
a. 1956 b. 1974
c. 1976 d. 1987
160. Apiko movement was started in the year-
a. 1956 b. 1974
c. 1976 d. 1983
161. Indian forest service was started in the year-
a. 1893 b. 1948
c. 1966 d. 1983

Answers
152. a 153. a 154. b 155. c 156. a 157. c
158. d 159. b 160. d 161. c
18 t Universal Objective Forestry

162. Indian Administrative Service was started in the year-

a. 1893 b. 1948
c. 1966 d. 1983
163. Indian Police Service was started in the year-
a. 1893 b. 1948
c. 1966 d. 1983
164. Selvas in Brazil are-
a. Big grassland in plain b. Highland pastureland
c. Dense equatorial forest d. Open scrub forest
165. Golden Triangle in South East Asia is known in the world for-
a. Mustard oil production b. Opium production
c. Dense equatorial forest d. Gold mining
166. Chilgoza is obtained from-
a. Cycas revoluta b. Pinus gerardiana
c. Pinus roxburghii d. Pinus wallichiana
167. First country in the World to ban deforestation-
a. Canada b. Germany
c. Holland d. Norway
168. Average rainfall of India is-
a. 1000 mm b. 1194 mm
c. 1250 mm d. 1500 mm
169. Annual world precipitation is-
a. 1000 mm b. 1194 mm
c. 1250 mm d. 1500 mm
170. Geographical area of India is-
a. 128.84 m ha b. 228.94 m ha
c. 318.24 m ha d. 328.74 m ha
171. Regur refers to-
a. Red soil b. Black soil
c. Alluvial soil d. Sandy soil
172. Most predominant soil type in India is-
a. Sandy loam b. Black soil
c. Red soil d. Brown soil
Answers
162. a 163. b 164. c 165. b 166. b 167. d
168. b 169. a 170. d 171. b 172. c
 General Forestry t 19

173. World wetlands day is celebrated on-

a. Feb-02 b. Mar-03
c. Mar-21 d. Mar-22
174. World wildlife day is celebrated on-
a. Feb-02 b. Mar-03
c. Mar-21 d. Apr-22
175. Indian Penel Code was formulated in the year-
a. 1860 b. 1875
c. 1908 d. 1927
176. Indian forest Act-1927 contains-
a. 10 chapters and 85 sections b. 15 chapters and 85 sections
c. 13 chapters and 86 sections d. 17 chapters and 91 sections
177. Indian forest Act was formulated in the year-
a. 1860 b. 1886
c. 1927 d. 1976
178. International day of forest is celebrated on-
a. Mar-02 b. Mar-03
c. Mar-21 d. Apr-22
179. World water day is celebrated on-
a. Feb-02 b. Mar-03
c. Mar-21 d. Mar-22
180. Water (Prevention & control of pollution) Act was enacted in the
year-
a. 1927 b. 1974
c. 1972 d. 1976
181. Earth day is celebrated on-
a. May-02 b. June-05
c. Mar-21 d. Apr-22
182. Which chapter of Indian Forest Act (IFA-1927) deals with
Preliminary definition-
a. Chapter i b. Chapter ii
c. Chapter iii d. Chapter iv

Answers
173. a 174. b 175. a 176. c 177. c 178. c
179. d 180. b 181. d 182. a
20 t Universal Objective Forestry

183. Forest Conservation Act was enacted in the year-

a. 1927 b. 1980
c. 1972 d. 1986
184. Which chapter of Indian Forest Act (IFA-1927) deals with reserved
forests-
a. Chapter i b. Chapter ii
c. Chapter iii d. Chapter iv
185. World biodiversity day is celebrated on-
a. Mar-02 b. May-22
c. Mar-21 d. Apr-22
186. World environment day is celebrated on-
a. Jul-11 b. May-22
c. Mar-21 d. Jun-05
187. Criminal Procedure code was enacted in the year-
a. 1927 b. 1973
c. 1986 d. 1996
188. International year of desert and desertification-
a. 2001 b. 2004
c. 2006 d. 2009
189. Which chapter of Indian Forest Act (IFA-1927) deals with protected
forests-
a. Chapter i b. Chapter ii
c. Chapter iii d. Chapter iv
190. Air (Prevention & control of pollution) Act-
a. 1927 b. 1973
c. 1981 d. 1986
191. World International tiger day is celebrated on-
a. Jul-29 b. May-22
c. Mar-21 d. Jun-29
192. International year of biodiversity-
a. 2002 b. 2005
c. 2006 d. 2010

Answers
183. b 184. b 185. b 186. d 187. b 188. c
189. d 190. c 191. a 192. d
 General Forestry t 21

193. Which chapter of Indian Forest Act (IFA-1927) deals with village
forests-
a. Chapter i b. Chapter ii
c. Chapter iii d. Chapter iv
194. World lion day is celebrated on-
a. Jun-11 b. Mar-03
c. Sept-21 d. Aug-10
195. World elephant day is celebrated on-
a. May-23 b. Aug-12
c. Sept-23 d. Aug-10
196. International year of forests-
a. 2006 b. 2009
c. 2011 d. 2012
197. National Environment Protection Act was enacted in the year-
a. 1957 b. 1973
c. 1986 d. 1996
198. International ozone day is celebrated on-
a. Jun-11 b. May-22
c. Sept-16 d. Aug-23
199. International year of soils-
a. 2009 b. 2013
c. 2014 d. 2015
200. International year of pulses-
a. 2009 b. 2013
c. 2014 d. 2016
201. Which chapter of Indian Forest Act (IFA-1927) deals with cattle
tress pass-
a. Chapter ii b. Chapter iv
c. Chapter x d. Chapter iv
202. World rhino day is celebrated on-
a. May-23 b. Aug-12
c. Sept-22 d. Aug-10

Answers
193. c 194. d 195. b 196. c 197. c 198. c
199. d 200. d 201. c 202. c
22 t Universal Objective Forestry

203. Biosphere Reserve Schemes was enacted in the year-

a. 1957 b. 1973
c. 1986 d. 1996
204. Control over forests and lands not being the property government
deals chapter of IFA-1927-
a. Chapter v b. Chapter iv
c. Chapter ix d. Chapter xi
205. World animal day is celebrated on-
a. Jun-23 b. Sept-22
c. Oct-04 d. Dec-23
206. World soil day is celebrated on-
a. Jun-23 b. Sept-22
c. Oct-04 d. Dec-05
207. International mountain day is celebrated on-
a. Jun-11 b. Dec-11
c. Sept-27 d. Dec-22
208. Biodiversity Act was enacted in the year-
a. 1972 b. 1986
c. 2002 d. 2006
209. Which chapter of Indian Forest Act (IFA-1927) deals with forest
officers -
a. Chapter ii b. Chapter iv
c. Chapter x d. Chapter xi
210. Which chapter of Indian Forest Act (IFA-1927) deals with subsidiary
rules -
a. Chapter ix b. Chapter xi
c. Chapter xii d. Chapter xiii
211. Wind speed is measure by-
a. Actinometer b. Wind vane
c. Anemometer d. Audiometer
212. Barometer is used measure-
a. Heat of combustion b. Air pressure
c. Rate of evaporation d. Light intensity
Answers
203. c 204. a 205. c 206. d 207. b 208. c
209. d 210. c 211. c 212. b
 General Forestry t 23

213. Control over forests and lands not being the property government is
deals in the chapter, IFA-
a. Chapter ix b. Chapter v
c. Chapter xii d. Chapter xiii
214. Green revolution is related with-
a. Milk production b. Fish production
c. Rice and wheat production d. Onion production
215. Wind direction is measured-
a. Actinometer b. Wind vane
c. Anemometer d. Audiometer
216. The duty on timber and other forest-produce is deals in the chapter
of IFA, 1927-
a. Chapter vi b. Chapter iv
c. Chapter ix d. Chapter xi
217. Bomb calorimeter is used to measure-
a. Heat of combustion b. Air pressure
c. Rate of evaporation d. Light intensity
218. Potometer is used to measure-
a. Humidity b. Air pressure
c. Rate of evaporation d. Transpiration
219. The collection of drift and stranded timber is deals in the chapter of
IFA, 1927-
a. Chapter vi b. Chapter iv
c. Chapter viii d. Chapter xi
220. Hygrometer is used to measure-
a. Humidity b. Air pressure
c. Rate of evaporation d. Transpiration
221. Which chapter of Indian Forest Act (IFA-1927) deals with penalties
and procedure -
a. Chapter ix b. Chapter xi
c. Chapter xii d. Chapter xiii

Answers
213. b 214. c 215. b 216. a 217. a 218. d
219. c 220. a 221. a
24 t Universal Objective Forestry

222. The control of timber and other forest-produce in transit is deals in

the chapter of IFA, 1927-
a. Chapter vi b. Chapter v
c. Chapter vii d. Chapter xi
223. Rain gauge is used to measure-
a. Humidity b. Rainfall
c. Rate of evaporation d. Transpiration
224. Conference on Human Environment was held in 1972 at-
a. Stockholm b. Montreal
c. Rio-de-Jenerio d. Johncsberg
225. Conference on Montreal Protocol was held in 1987 at-
a. Stockholm b. Montreal
c. Rio-de-Jenerio d. Johncsberg
226. White revolution is related with-
a. Milk production b. Fish production
c. Rice and wheat production d. Onion production
227. Blue revolution is related with-
a. Milk production b. Fish production
c. Rice and wheat production d. Onion production
228. Conference on Earth Summit was held in 1992 at-
a. Stockholm b. Montreal
c. Rio-de-Jenerio d. Nairobi
229. Yellow revolution is related with-
a. Milk production b. Oilseeds production
c. Rice and wheat production d. Onion production
230. Conference on Kyoto Protocol was held in 1997 at-
a. Stockholm b. Montreal
c. Rio-de-Jenerio d. Kyoto
231. Red revolution is related with-
a. Milk production b. Tomato production
c. Rice and wheat production d. Onion production
232. Conference on United Nation was held in 1997 at-
a. Stockholm b. Montreal
c. Rio-de-Jenerio d. Nairobi
Answers
222. c 223. b 224. a 225. b 226. a 227. b
228. c 229. b 230. d 231. b 232. d
 General Forestry t 25

233. Golden revolution is related with-

a. Oilseeds production b. Fruit production
c. Rice and wheat production d. Onion production
234. Conference on World Summit was held in 2002 at-
a. Stockholm b. Johncsberg
c. Rio-de-Jenerio d. Nairobi
235. Agriculture is a-
a. Greek word b. Latin word
c. Arabic word d. French word
236. Round revolution is related with-
a. Onion production b. Potato production
c. Rice and wheat production d. Onion production
237. Extension is a-
a. Greek word b. Latin word
c. Arabic word d. French word
238. Black revolution is related with-
a. Onion production b. Potato production
c. Rice and wheat production d. Biofuel/Jatropa revolution
239. Monsoon is a-
a. Greek word b. Latin word
c. Arabic word d. French word
240. Pink revolution is related with-
a. Onion production b. Potato production
c. Rice and wheat production d. All sector of agriculture
241. Entomology is a-
a. Greek word b. Latin word
c. Arabic word d. French word
242. Rainbow revolution is related with-
a. Onion production b. Potato production
c. Rice and wheat production d. All sector of agriculture
243. Meteorology is a-
a. Greek word b. Latin word
c. Arabic word d. French word
Answers
233. b 234. b 235. b 236. b 237. b 238. d
239. c 240. a 241. a 242. d 243. a
26 t Universal Objective Forestry

244. Forest mensuration is a-

a. Greek word b. Latin word
c. Arabic word d. French word
245. Agro climatic zones of India is-
a. 10 b. 12
c. 15 d. 20
246. Silviculture is a-
a. Greek word b. Latin word
c. Arabic word d. French word
247. Forest Research Institute was established in the year-
a. 1901 b. 1906
c. 1919 d. 1947
248. Dendrology is a-
a. Greek word b. Latin word
c. Arabic word d. French word
249. Young ones of antelope is called-
a. Calf b. Fawn
c. Kid d. Lamb
250. Forest Pathology is a-
a. Greek word b. Latin word
c. Arabic word d. French word
251. Ergonomics is a-
a. Greek word b. Latin word
c. Arabic word d. French word
252. Young ones of camel and cattle is called-
a. Calf b. Fawn
c. Kid d. Lamb
253. Communication is a-
a. Greek word b. Latin word
c. Arabic word d. French word
254. Young ones of deer is called-
a. Calf b. Fawn
c. Kid d. Lamb
Answers
244. b 245. c 246. b 247. b 248. a 249. a
250. a 251. a 252. a 253. b 254. b
 General Forestry t 27

255. World environment day is celebrated on-

a. June-5 b. May-22
c. Mar-21 d. Jun-22
256. Economics is a-
a. Greek word b. Latin word
c. Arabic word d. French word
257. Young ones of tiger is called-
a. Calf b. Fawn
c. Cub d. Lamb
258. Group of camel is called-
a. Herd b. Flock
c. Caravan d. Pride
259. Young ones of rhinoceros is called-
a. Calf b. Fawn
c. Cub d. Lamb
260. Meat of cattle is called-
a. Chevon b. Mutton
c. Beef d. Venison
261. Group of leopard is called-
a. Herd b. Leap
c. Pack d. Pride
262. Young ones of sheep is called-
a. Calf b. Fawn
c. Cub d. Lamb
263. Meat of deer is called-
a. Chevon b. Mutton
c. Beef d. Venison
264. Group of lion is called-
a. Herd b. Leap
c. Pack d. Pride
265. Meat of goat is called-
a. Chevon b. Mutton
c. Beef d. Venison
Answers
255. a 256. a 257. c 258. c 259. a 260. c
261. b 262. d 263. d 264. d 265. a
28 t Universal Objective Forestry

266. Group of tiger is called-

a. Ambush b. Leap
c. Pack d. Pride
267. Group of red panda is called-
a. Ambush b. Leap
c. Pack d. Pride
268. ICAR was established in the year-
a. 1806 b. 1906
c. 1929 d. 1972
269. Headquarter of ICAR is situated in-
a. Dehra Dun b. New Delhi
c. Lucknow d. Mumbai
270. RBI was established in the year-
a. 1806 b. 1906
c. 1929 d. 1935
271. Headquarter of RBI is situated in-
a. Dehra Dun b. New Delhi
c. Lucknow d. Mumbai
272. AGMARK was established in the year-
a. 1806 b. 1906
c. 1929 d. 1937
273. Headquarter of AGMARK is situated in-
a. Dehra Dun b. New Delhi
c. Nagpur d. Mumbai
274. GATT was established in the year-
a. 1920 b. 1948
c. 1979 d. 1987
275. Headquarter of GATT is situated in-
a. Dehra Dun b. New Delhi
c. Geneva d. Mumbai
276. IUCN was established in the year-
a. 1875 b. 1906
c. 1938 d. 1948
Answers
266. a 267. c 268. c 269. b 270. d 271. d
272. d 273. c 274. b 275. c 276. d
 General Forestry t 29

277. Headquarter of IUCN is situated in-

a. Gland b. Morgis
c. Geneva d. Nairobi
278. IMD was established in the year-
a. 1875 b. 1938
c. 1961 d. 1985
279. Headquarter of IMD is situated in-
a. Dehra Dun b. New Delhi
c. Pune d. Mumbai
280. ICRAF was established in the year-
a. 1875 b. 1956
c. 1961 d. 1977
281. Headquarter of ICRAF is situated in-
a. Jhansi b. New Delhi
c. Geneva d. Nairobi
282. NABARD was established in the year-
a. 1835 b. 1948
c. 1982 d. 1991
283. Headquarter of NABARD is situated in-
a. Dehra Dun b. New Delhi
c. Lucknow d. Mumbai
284. ITTO was established in the year-
a. 1875 b. 1938
c. 1961 d. 1985
285. Headquarter of ITTO is situated in-
a. Dehra Dun b. New Delhi
c. Geneva d. Japan
286. WTO was established in the year-
a. 1895 b. 1995
c. 1999 d. 2000
287. Headquarter of WTO is situated in-
a. Washington b. New Delhi
c. Geneva d. Morgis
Answers
277. b 278. c 279. c 280. d 281. d 282. c
283. d 284. d 285. d 286. b 287. c
30 t Universal Objective Forestry

288. WWF was established in the year-

a. 1875 b. 1938
c. 1961 d. 1985
289. Headquarter of WWF is situated in-
a. Dehra Dun b. New Delhi
c. Nairobi d. Gland
290. FCI was established in the year-
a. 1875 b. 1964
c. 1982 d. 1985
291. Headquarter of FCI is situated in-
a. Dehra Dun b. New Delhi
c. Pune d. Mumbai
292. WIPO was established in the year-
a. 1925 b. 1967
c. 1975 d. 1985
293. Headquarter of WIPO is situated in-
a. Washington b. New Delhi
c. Geneva d. Morgis
294. CITES was established in the year-
a. 1875 b. 1967
c. 1975 d. 1985
295. Headquarter of CITES is situated in-
a. Washington b. New Delhi
c. Geneva d. Morgis
296. Botanical name of axlewood is-
a. Anogeissus latifolia b. Acrocarpus fraxinifolius
c. Bauhania variegata d. None
297. Tree of heaven is botanically know as-
a. Abies pindrew b. Adina cordifoia
c. Acacia auriculoformis d. Ailanthus excelsa
298. Devil’s tree is botanically know as-
a. Abies pindrew b. Alostonia scholaris
c. Acacia auriculoformis d. Ashoka indica
Answers
288. c 289. d 290. b 291. b 292. b 293. c
294. c 295. a 296. a 297. d 298. b
 General Forestry t 31

299. God Fruit tree is botanically know as-

a. Abies pindrew b. Alostonia scholaris
c. Aegle marmelos d. Ashoka indica
300. Kapok tree is botanically know as-
a. Ceiba patendra b. Alostonia scholaris
c. Aegle marmelos d. Bombax ceiba
301. Indian kapok tree is botanically know as-
a. Ceiba patendra b. Alostonia scholaris
c. Butea monosperma d. Bombax ceiba
302. Chironzi tree is botanically know as-
a. Ceiba patendra b. Buchanania lanzan
c. Bauhania variegata d. Ashoka indica
303. Forest flame tree is botanically know as-
a. Ceiba patendra b. Butea monosperma
c. Bauhania variegata d. Ashoka indica
304. Indian laburnum wood botanically know as-
a. Ceiba patendra b. Acacia catechu
c. Bauhania variegata d. Cassia fistlua
305. Beef wood botanically know as-
a. Ceiba patendra b. Butea monosperma
c. Casuarina equisitifolia d. Cassia fistlua
306. Sago palm botanically know as-
a. Pinus wallichiana b. Cycas revoluta
c. Pinus gerardiana d. Cedrus deodara
307. Rose wood botanically know as-
a. Azadirachta indica b. Cupresses torulosa
c. Dalbergia latifolia d. Cedrus deodara
308. Malawar wood botanically know as-
a. Hopea parviflora b. Cupresses torulosa
c. Dalbergia sissoo d. Cedrus deodara
309. Indian elm botanically know as-
a. Pinus wallichiana b. Abies pindrew
c. Ulmus wallichiana d. Holoptelia integrifolia

Answers
299. c 300. d 301. a 302. b 303. b 304. d
305. c 306. c 307. c 308. a 309. d
32 t Universal Objective Forestry

310. White teak is botanically know as-

a. Gmelia arborea b. Butea monosperma
c. Tecomella undulata d. Tectona grandis
311. Marwar teak is botanically know as-
a. Gmelia arborea b. Butea monosperma
c. Tecomella undulata d. Tectona grandis
312. Butter tree is botanically know as-
a. Gmelia arborea b. Butea monosperma
c. Tecomella undulata d. Madhuca indica
313. Drumstick is botanically know as-
a. Ceiba patendra b. Buchanania lanzan
c. Bauhania variegata d. Moringa oleifera
314. Midnight horror is botanically know as-
a. Oroxylum indicum b. Acacia nilotica
c. Holoptelia integrifolia d. Moringa oleifera
315. Bengal Kino is botanically know as-
a. Oroxylum indicum b. Acacia nilotica
c. Caryota urens d. Pterocapus marsupium
316. Ceylon oak botanically know as-
a. Schleria oleosa b. Cupresses torulosa
c. Quercus rubra d. Callistimon viminalis
317. White willow is botanically know as-
a. Gmelia arborea b. Adina cordifoia
c. Tecomella undulata d. Salix alba
318. Red cedar botanically know as-
a. Toona ciliata b. Cupresses torulosa
c. Dalbergia latifolia d. Cassia fistlua
319. Teak belong to family-
a. Combretaceae b. Myrtaceae
c. Verbenaceae d. Meliaceae
320. Marwar teak belong to family-
a. Combretaceae b. Myrtaceae
c. Verbenaceae d. Bignoniaceae
Answers
310. a 311. c 312. d 313. d 314. a 315. d
316. a 317. d 318. a 319. c 320. d
 General Forestry t 33

321. Sal belong to family-

a. Combretaceae b. Dipterocaarpaceae
c. Verbenaceae d. Mimoseae
322. Pink cedar belong to family-
a. Combretaceae b. Dipterocaarpaceae
c. Verbenaceae d. Legumniosae
323. Crocus sativus belong to family-
a. Combretaceae b. Meliaceae
c. Verbenaceae d. Iridaceae
324. Eucalyptus globulus belong to family-
a. Combretaceae b. Dipterocaarpaceae
c. Myrtaceae d. Iridaceae
325. Tendu belong to family-
a. Combretaceae b. Dipterocaarpaceae
c. Verbenaceae d. Ebenaceae
326. Kusum belong to family-
a. Rubiaceae b. Sapindaceae
c. Meliaceae d. Legumniosae
327. Cochlosprmum religiosum belong to family-
a. Rutaceae b. Iridaceae
c. Ebenaceae d. Bixaceae
328. Cycas belong to family-
a. Cycadaceae b. Iridaceae
c. Ebenaceae d. Bixaceae
329. Mysoore gum belong to family-
a. Myrtaceae b. Iridaceae
c. Ebenaceae d. Bixaceae
330. Gmelia arborea belong to family-
a. Rubiaceae b. Sapindaceae
c. Meliaceae d. Lamiaceae
331. Grewia tilifolia belong to family-
a. Combretaceae b. Malvaceae
c. Verbenaceae d. Legumniosae

Answers
321. b 322. d 323. d 324. c 325. d 326. b
327. d 328. a 329. a 330. d 331. b
34 t Universal Objective Forestry

332. Jatropha curcus belong to family-

a. Euphorbiaceae b. Sapindaceae
c. Meliaceae d. Lamiaceae
333. Lagerstomia parviflora belong to family-
a. Cycadaceae b. Iridaceae
c. Lytraceae d. Bixaceae
334. Madhuca indica belong to family-
a. Sapotaceae b. Iridaceae
c. Lytraceae d. Bixaceae
335. Picea smithiana belong to family-
a. Salicaceae b. Santalaceae
c. Verbenaceae d. Pineaceae
336. Populus ciliata belong to family-
a. Salicaceae b. Santalaceae
c. Verbenaceae d. Pineaceae
337. Elm belong to family-
a. Salicaceae b. Santalaceae
c. Ulmaceae d. Pineaceae
338. Wrightia tinctoria belong to family-
a. Combretaceae b. Myrtaceae
c. Verbenaceae d. Apocynaceae
339. Salix belong to family-
a. Combretaceae b. Salicaceae
c. Verbenaceae d. Pineaceae
340. Which climatic factor play most important role in vegetation
distribution on earth-
a. Rainfall b. Temperature
c. Topography d. Light
341. Pterocapus marsupium belong to family-
a. Combretaceae b. Dipterocaarpaceae
c. Verbenaceae d. Santalaceae
342. First organic state in India is-
a. Mizoram b. Kerala
c. Sikkim d. Meghalaya

Answers
332. a 333. c 334. a 335. d 336. a 337. c
338. d 339. b 340. b 341. b 342. c
 Ecology t 35

Chapter 2

Ecology

1. Term Ecology was given by-

a. E. Haeckel c. Reiter
b. E. P. Odum d. Mishra
2. Father of Ecology –
a. E. Haeckel c. Reiter
b. E. P. Odum d. Mishra
3. Study of the relationship of single species with its environment
called-
a. Morphology c. Synecology
b. Ecology d. Autecology
4. Study of the relationship of the group of the different species with
their environment called-
a. Synecology c. Autecology
b. Morphology d. Ecology
5. The smallest unit of ecological hierarchy and basic unit of ecological
study-
a. Organism c. Species
b. Population d. All
6. The basic unit of classification-
a. Population c. Organism
b. Species d. Community
7. The group of living organism similar in structure, function and can
interbreed under natural conditions and reproductively isolated from
the other group of organism-
a. Group c. Species
b. Population d. Community
Answers
1. a 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. a 6. b
7. c
36 t Universal Objective Forestry

8. A species which is found at a particular area is called-

a. Endangered species c. Endemic species
b. Rare species d. Extinct species
9. The species which have great influence on the community’s
characteristics relative to their low abundance and biomass are
called-
a. key stone species c. Dominant species
b. Apex species d. None
10. The activities of which species determine the structure of the
community-
a. Key species c. Apex species
b. Producer d. Decomposer
11. The behaviour of an individual to increase the chances of the survival
of other individuals of same species called-
a. Amensalism c. Mutualism
b. Commensalism d. Altruism
12. Several members of a species may cover a definite area for searching
food, mates and shelter, this is called-
a. Home range c. Habitat
b. Cover d. Territory
13. In home range particular geographic area/space marked by an
individual or group of breeding individuals for breeding called-
a. Habitat c. Home range
b. Cover d. Territory
14. According need of light a deep lake has differentiated into following
zone-
a. 3 c. 4
b. 5 d. 6
15. The zone which is found at bank of lake and have maximum diversity
(Rooted vegetation)-
a. Profundal zone c. Limnetic zone
b. Littoral zone d. Benthic zone

Answers
8. c 9. a 10. a 11. d 12. a 13. d
14. a 15. b
 Ecology t 37

16. This zone receive sufficient amount of light to entire surface area. In
this zone different types of floating plants, suspended and submerged
plants are present-
a. Limnetic zone c. Profundal zone
b. Littoral zone d. Benthic zone
17. It is the deep area of lake where light does not reach up to the bottom.
Only heterotrophs are present in this zone-
a. Profundal zone c. Limnetic zone
b. Littoral zone d. Benthic zone
18. Free floating small organisms can swim due to water current without
locomotory organs called-
a. Nekton c. Phytoplankton
b. Zooplankton d. Planktons
19. Microscopic, inactive floating plants called-
a. Phytoplankton c. Planktons
b. Zooplankton d. Nekton
20. Microscopic, inactive floating animals called-
a. Nekton c. Phytoplankton
b. Zooplankton d. Planktons
21. Those aquatic plants or animals which are capable of swimming
actively are called-
a. Phytoplankton c. Nektons
b. Zooplankton d. Planktons
22. The sedentary organisms of sea are called-
a. Planktons c. Phytoplankton
b. Zooplankton d. Benthonic
23. Winter sleep or period of dormancy called-
a. Hibernation c. Aestivation
b. Diapause d. Mitigation
24. Hibernation is shown by-
a. Polar bear c. Siberian crane
b. Star Fish d. Red Panda

Answers
16. a 17. a 18. d 19. a 20. b 21. c
22. d 23. a 24. a
38 t Universal Objective Forestry

25. Summer sleep or escape from heat of sun called-

a. Aestivation c. Hibernation
b. Diapause d. Mitigation
26. Transition form between two ecotypes called-
a. Eco-cline c. Ecotype
b. Ecotone d. Co-ecotone
27. Organism of same trophic level called –
a. Guild c. Herd
b. Troops d. Flocks
28. Under unfavourable conditions many zooplankton species in lakes
and ponds are known to enter –
a. Mitigation c. Hibernation
b. Aestivation d. Diapause
29. The phenotypes show variations due to difference in the
environmental conditions within the local habitat such types of
variations are known as –
a. Adaptation plasticity c. Genotypic plasticity
b. Phenotypic plasticity d. Ecological plasticity
30. Low lying area’s covered with shallow water are called-
a. Wet land c. Shallow land
b. Grassland d. Wasteland
31. Member of same species living in different climatic conditions have
some genetically variations called-
a. Ecotypes c. Ecological races
b. Breed d. All
32. Member of same species living in different climatic conditions have
some external variations (Genetically they are similar) called-
a. Ecades c. Ecophenes
b. Breed d. a and b
33. Group of different species that live in common area which are
interrelated and interdependent called-
a. Population c. Community
b. Species d. Group
Answers
25. a 26. a 27. a 28. d 29. b 30. a
31. d 32. a 33. c
 Ecology t 39

34. Lianas, epiphytes and epizones show-

a. Commensalism c. Amensalism
b. Mutualism d. Symbiosis
35. Association between two organism, when one behave as master and
another as slave called-
a. Commensalism c. Symbiosis
b. Mutualism d. Helotism
36. Association between the algae and fungi is called-
a. Lichen c. Mycorrhiza
b. Symbiosis d. None
37. Association of fungi with the roots of higher plants is called-
a. Mychorrhiza c. Lichen
b. Symbiosis d. None
38. Development of plant community on barren area is called-
a. Ecological succession c. Botanical succession
b. Biotic succession d. both a and c
39. The first community to inhibit an area during the succession called-
a. Climax community c. Pioneer community
b. Seral community d. both a and b
40. The last and stable community in an area during the succession
called-
a. Climax community c. Pioneer community
b. Seral community d. both a and b
41. In succession communities or stage which comes in between pioneer
community and climax called-
a. Climax community c. Pioneer community
b. Seral communities d. both a and b
42. The entire series of communities during succession called-
a. Community c. Sere
b. Ecosystem d. Succession series
43. Succession in fresh water called-
a. Hydrosere c. Halosere
b. Oxalosere d. Xerosere

Answers
34. a 35. d 36. a 37. a 38. a 39. c
40. a 41. b 42. c 43. a
40 t Universal Objective Forestry

44. Succession in salty water called-

a. Hydrosere c. Halosere
b. Oxalosere d. Xerosere
45. Succession in acidic water-
a. Hydrosere c. Halosere
b. Oxalosere d. Xerosere
46. Succession in dry region-
a. Lithosere c. Psamosere
a. Mesosere d. Xerosere
47. Succession on rock-
a. Lithosere c. Psamosere
b. Mesosere d. Serula
48. Succession in on sand-
a. Lithosere c. Psamosere
b. Mesosere d. Serula
49. Succession at moistened region-
a. Lithosere c. Psamosere
b. Mesosere d. Serula
50. Succession of microbes on decomposed matter-
a. Lithosere c. Psamosere
b. Mesosere d. Serula
51. Succession occurs in the barren area where there is no previously
any type of living matter present-
a. Primary succession c. Secondary succession
b. Tertiary succession d. Zero succession
52. Afforestation is also a type of succession-
a. Primary succession c. Secondary succession
b. Tertiary succession d. Allogenic succession
53. Succession occurs where previously vegetation was present but lost
due to natural or artificial causes called-
a. Primary succession c. Secondary succession
b. Tertiary succession d. Autogenic succession
Answers
44. c 45. b 46. d 47. a 48. c 49. b
50. d 51. a 52. a 53. c
 Ecology t 41

54. Reforestation is also a type of succession-

a. Primary succession c. Secondary succession
b. Tertiary succession d. Allogenic succession
55. Which grassland is a type of retrogressive succession (Forest to grass-
a. Savana c. Pampas
b. Veldts d. Down
56. Member of one or both the interacting species are benefitted but
neither is harmed called-
a. Positive interaction c. Negative interaction
b. Neutral interaction d. None
57. Member of one or both the interacting species are harmed called-
a. Positive interaction c. Negative interaction
b. Neutral interaction d. None
58. Total root parasite is-
a. Rafflesia c. Cuscuta
b. Santalum d. Viscum
59. Total stem parasite-
a. Viscum c. Rafflesia
b. Cuscuta d. Santalum
60. Partial root parasite-
a. Santalum c. Rafflesia
a. Viscum d. Cuscuta
61. Partial stem parasite-
a. Viscum c. Laranhus
b. Santalum d. both a and c
62. Organism eaten by own species called-
a. Cannabilism c. Macrophagy
b. Commensalism d. Autophagy
63. Transition zone between two communities having greater number of
species and diversity-
a. Ecotone c. Ecotype
b. Estuaries d. Eco cline
Answers
54. c 55. a 56. a 57. c 58. a 59. b
60. a 61. d 62. a 63. a
42 t Universal Objective Forestry

64. Species which occur most abundantly and spend their time in
ecotone are called-
a. Key stone species c. Pioneer species
b. Edge species d. Climax species
65. The tendency to increase variety and density of some organism at
the community border is known as-
a. Edge effect c. Edge habitat
b. Edge spectrum d. None
66. Ecological Niche term was given by-
a. Mohit Husain c. Grinnel
b. Haeckel d. E. P. Odum
67. The functional role of any species in an ecosystem or community or
its functional position or status in an ecosystem is called-
a. Niche c. Habitat.
b. Strata d. Trophic
68. Physical area where an organism lives called-
a. Niche c. Habitat
b. Strata d. Trophic
69. This principle state that two closely related species competing for the
same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the competitively
inferior are will be eliminated eventually-
a. Allen Rule
b. Mohit ’s competitive exclusion principle
c. Gause’s competitive exclusion principle
d. Grinnel ’s competitive exclusion principle
70. Gause’s competitive exclusion principle may be true if resources are-
a. Limited c. Unlimited
b. Neither limited nor unlimited d. None
71. Sub-division of habitat is called-
a. Micro climate c. Macro climate
b. Mega climate d. None
72. Term ecosystem was given by-
a. A. G. Tansley c. H. G. Tansley
b. S. G. Tansley d. G. A. Tansley

Answers
64. b 65. a 66. c 67. a 68. c 69. c
70. a 71. a 72. a
 Ecology t 43

73. Father of ecosystem ecology is-

a. Mishra c. Reiter
b. E. P. Odum d. Elton
74. Smallest structural and functional unit of the nature or environment-
a. Population c. Organism
b. Species d. Ecosystem
75. Every ecosystem is composed of following component-
a. Biotic component c. Living component
b. Abiotic component d. All of above
76. Biotic components of ecosystem are-
a. Plants c. Animals
b. Microbes d. All of above
77. Abiotic components of ecosystem are-
a. Light c. Air
b. Water d. All of above
78. All the autotrophs of an ecosystem called-
a. Producer c. Transducer
b. Converter d. All of the above
79. The ultimate source of energy on the earth-
a. Solar radiation c. Electromagnetic radiation
b. Ultra violet radiation d. Infra-red
80. Organism who are obtained their food directly from producers or
plants-
a. Primary consumer c. Secondary consumer
b. Tertiary consumer d. Top consumer
81. Primary consumer also called as-
a. Primary producers c. Secondary producers
b. Tertiary producer d. Decomposer
82. Organism who are obtained their food directly from primary
consumer-
a. Secondary consumers c. Primary carnivore
b. Tertiary consumer d. Both a and c
Answers
73. b 74. d 75. d 76. d 77. d 78. d
79. a 80. a 81. a 82. d
44 t Universal Objective Forestry

83. Those animals which kill other animal and eat them, but they are not
killed and eaten by other animal in the nature called-
a. Tertiary consumer c. Secondary consumers
b. Top consumers d. Decomposer
84. The main decomposers in an ecosystem are-
a. Bacteria c. Fungi
b. Earthworm d. All of above
85. In the process of decomposition some nutrients get tied up with the
biomass of microbes and become temporarily unavailable to other
organism, such incorporation of nutrient in living microbes (bacteria,
fungi) is called-
a. Nutrient immobilization c. Nutrient pumping
b. Nutrient leaching d. Nutrient cycling
86. Plant parasites in ecosystem called as-
a. Primary consumers c. Primary producers
b. Secondary consumers d. Secondary producers
87. Animal parasites in ecosystem called as-
a. Primary consumers c. Primary producers
b. Secondary consumers d. Secondary producers
88. In an ecosystem every organism depends on other organism for food
material and all organism are (herbivore to carnivore) arranged in a
series in which food energy is transferred through repeated eating
and being eaten called-
a. Food chain c. Food web
b. Food Pyramid d. Food Network
89. How many level are present in the ecosystem-
a. 3 c. 4
b. 5 d. 6
90. In food chain energy flow is-
a. Unidirectional c. Bidirectional
b. Multidirectional d. Non-directional
91. How many types of food chains are present in nature-
a. 2 c. 3
b. 4 d. 5

Answers
83. b 84. d 85. a 86. a 87. b 88. a
89. c 90. a 91. c
 Ecology t 45

92. Food chain which start from small organism and goes to big
organism called-
a. Grazing food chain c. Predatory food chain
b. Parasitic food chain d. Both a and c
93. Food chain which starts from producers but in successive order it
goes from big organism to small organism called-
a. Grazing food chain c. Predatory food chain
b. Parasitic food chain d. Detritus food chain
94. The food chain begins with decomposition of dead organic matter by
decomposer called-
a. Saprophytic food chain c. Detritus food chain
b. Parasitic food chain d. Both a and c
95. Graphical representation of ecological parameters at different
trophic level in ecosystem is called-
a. Trophics c. Food web
b. Pyramids d. Food chain
96. First of all ecological pyramid was formed by-
a. A. G. Tansley c. E. P. Odum
b. Mohit Husain d. Charls Elton
97. Which pyramid are mostly upright-
a. Number c. Biomass
b. Energy d. All of above
98. Pyramid of energy are always-
a. Upright c. Inverted
b. Irregular d. Linear
99. 10% law of energy was given by-
a. Lindeman c. Elton
b. Odum d. Clements
100. Total amount of living organic matter present in particular area in
particular time in an ecosystem is known as-
a. Standing form c. Standing state
b. Standing crop d. Standing matter

Answers
92. d 93. b 94. d 95. b 96. d 97. a
98. a 99. a 100. b
46 t Universal Objective Forestry

101. Total amount of inorganic matter present in particular area in

particular time in an ecosystem is known as-
a. Standing crop c. Standing state
b. Standing form d. Standing matter
102. Biomass is calculated by the formula-
a. Biomass = Volume x sp.gravity
b. Biomass= Weight x sp.gravity
c. Biomass = Volume x gravity
d. Biomass = Volume x weight
103. Pyramid of biomass are mostly-
a. Upright c. Inverted
b. Irregular d. Linear
104. In which ecosystem the pyramid of number is inverted-
a. Pond ecosystem c. Grassland ecosystem
b. Forest ecosystem d. Tree ecosystem
105. Network of many food chain called-
a. Food stock c. Food Chain
b. Food web d. Energy Chain
106. In which ecosystem the pyramid of number is inverted-
a. Pond ecosystem c. Grassland ecosystem
b. Tree ecosystem d. Desert ecosystem
107. The rate of biomass production (g/m2/yr.) called-
a. Productivity c. Respiration
b. Photosynthesis d. Transformation
108. The amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area
over a time period by plants during photosynthesis -
a. Primary productivity c. Secondary Productivity
b. Net Productivity d. Gross Productivity
109. The total amount of energy fixed in an ecosystem in unit time
including the organic matter used up in respiration during the
measurement is called-
a. Primary productivity c. Secondary Productivity
b. Net Primary Productivity d. Gross Primary Productivity

Answers
101. c 102. a 103. a 104. d 105. b 106. b
107. a 108. a 109. d
 Ecology t 47

110. Primary productivity can be divided into-

a. GPP c. NPP
b. TPP d. Both a and c
111. The amount of stored organic matter in plants tissue after respiratory
utilization is called-
a. Primary productivity c. Secondary Productivity
b. Net Primary Productivity d. Gross Primary Productivity
112. The rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers is called-
a. Primary productivity c. Gross Primary Productivity
b. Secondary Productivity d. Net Primary Productivity
113. Maximum productivity per unit area is found in-
a. Temperate forest c. Dry deciduous forest
b. Tropical rain forest d. Desert
114. Solar radiation before entering the atmosphere carries energy at a
constant rate i.e., 2 Cal cm-2 min-1 called-
a. Solar constant c. Energy constant
b. Energy coefficient d. Solar power
115. NPP is equal to-
a. NPP = GPP – R c. NPP = GPP + R
b. NPP = GPP × R d. NPP = SP – R
116. Range of photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) is-
a. 400-700 mm c. 400-700 nm
b. 400-700 um d. 400-700 cm
117. The tails, ears, limbs, snout of mammals are smaller in colder region
and larger in warmer region. This is called-
a. Allens rule c. Burger rule
b. Jordan rule d. Bergman rule
118. The ability of a surface to reflect the incoming radiation is called-
a. Emission c. Reflectivity
b. Transmission d. Albido
119. Albido value for forest and agriculture crops are respectively-
a. 5-10% & 33% c. 20-30% & 80%
b. 18% & 30% d. 50% & 30%
Answers
110. d 111. b 112. b 113. b 114. a 115. a
116. c 117. a 118. d 119. a
48 t Universal Objective Forestry

120. Albido value for snow and sand are respectively-

a. 80% & 20-30% c. 50% & 30%
b. 75% & 90% d. 90% & 10%
121. Every organism has minimum and maximum limit of tolerance
with respect to environmental factors like temperature, sunlight or
nutrient concentration in between those limits the central optimum
range are found in which organisms are found in which organisms
are abundant this is known as optimum zone of tolerance. This law
called-
a. Darwin law c. Allen law
b. Shelford law d. Lamarckism
122. The plants growing in high temperature throughout the year called-
a. Megatherms c. Mesotherms
b. Microtherms d. Hekistotherms
123. The plants growing in alternate high and low temperature called-
a. Hekistotherms c. Megatherms
b. Microtherms d. Mesotherms
124. The plants growing in low temperature throughout the year called-
a. Megatherms c. Mesotherms
b. Microtherms d. Hekistotherms
125. The plants growing in very low temperature throughout the year-
a. Hekistotherms c. Mesotherms
b. Megatherms d. Microtherms
126. The region where river enter into the ocean are known as-
a. Estuaries c. Gully
b. Reef d. Canal
127. The deeper part of ocean where light do not reach called-
a. Limnetic zone c. Sedimentation zone
b. Profundal zone d. Abyssal zone
128. Height of a place from mean sea level called-
a. Altitude c. Latitude
b. Pole d. Isohyet

Answers
120. a 121. b 122. a 123. d 124. b 125. a
126. a 127. d 128. a
 Ecology t 49

129. Distance of any place from the equator called-

a. Altitude c. Latitude
b. Isobar d. Isohyet
130. A transparent gaseous envelope surrounding the earth known as-
a. Atmosphere c. Climate
b. Environment d. Weather
131. Atmosphere is divided into how many layer-
a. 4 c. 5
b. 6 d. 7
132. Ozone layer is present in-
a. Troposphere c. Stratosphere
b. Mesosphere d. Thermosphere
133. Winds, clouds, spores, pollen & more than 90% atmospheric gases
are found-
a. Troposphere c. Stratosphere
b. Mesosphere d. Thermosphere
134. Satellite are launched in which region-
a. Stratosphere c. Troposphere
b. Mesosphere d. Thermosphere
135. In troposphere temperature decrease with increase in altitude. The
vertical temperature gradient over earth’s surface is called-
a. Lapse rate c. Albido
b. Pulse rate d. Emission rate
136. Lapse rate is equal to-
a. 5.5°C per 1000 meter c. 6.5°C per 1000 meter
b. 7.5°C per 1000 meter d. 8.5°C per 1000 meter
137. All the living and non-living things of the earth combine together to
constitute a big ecosystem called-
a. Biosphere c. Atmosphere
b. Ecosystem d. Lithosphere
138. Biosphere also called as-
a. Lithosphere c. Hydrosphere
b. Ecosphere d. Atmosphere
Answers
129. c 130. a 131. c 132. c 133. a 134. d
135. a 136. c 137. a 138. b
50 t Universal Objective Forestry

139. Biosphere is divide into how many spheres-

a. 2 c. 3
b. 4 d. 5
140. Which is not a component of Biosphere-
a. Hydrosphere c. Lithosphere
b. Atmosphere d. All of above
141. Smoke plus fog collectively called as-
a. Smog c. Fog
b. Smoke d. Smoke-fog
142. Word smog was given by-
a. Loss Angel c. Ringlmann
b. Desvoeux d. Mohit Husain
143. London smog also known as-
a. Nitrogen smog c. Sulphur smog
b. Hydrogen smog d. Photochemical smog
144. Loss Angles smog also known as-
a. Photochemical smog c. Sulphur smog
b. Hydrogen smog d. Nitrogen smog
145. Due to inhalation of H2SO4 vapours with fog 4000 people died in
1952 in-
a. India c. China
b. London d. America
146. Term acid rain was given by-
a. Michel August c. Meyer August
b. Albert August d. Robert August
147. 147. NO2 and SO2 released from different sources in the form of
smoke and dissolved in atmospheric water vapour to form sulphuric
acid and nitric acid. These acids come down on earth with rain water
called-
a. Basic rain c. Acid rain
b. Storm d. Flood
148. The pH of acid rain water is lesser than-
a. 5.6 c. 7.0
b. 8.6 d. 6.6
Answers
139. c 140. d 141. a 142. b 143. c 144. a
145. b 146. b 147. c 148. a
 Ecology t 51

149. Usually carbon dioxide is not consider as pollutant but its higher
concentration forms a thick layer above the earth’s surface and
checks the radiation of the heat from the earth surface. Because of
this temperature of earth’s surface increase this is called-
a. Green- house effect c. Global warming
b. CO2 effect d. All of the above
150. Main green-house gases which are responsible to increase the green-
house effect are-
a. CO2 (60%) c. CH4 (20%)
b. CFC (14%) d. All of above
151. At normal temperature and pressure thickness of ozone layer-
a. 3 mm c. 4 mm
b. 5 mm d. 6 mm
152. The aerosols like chloro floro carbon (CFC) release into atmosphere
from the refrigerators, air conditioners and jet planes deplete or
reduce the-
a. Oxygen layer c. Carbon layer
b. Ozone layer d. Chlorine layer
153. Due to ozone depleting substance the thickness of ozone is reduced
this is known as-
a. Ozone spot c. Ozone hole
b. Ozone width d. Ozone state
154. Ozone hole was first discovered by a satellite-
a. Nimbus-7 c. Nimbus-8
b. Nimbus-9 d. Nimbus-6
155. Ozone hole was first discovered by a satellite in 1985-
a. Antarctica region c. Artic region
b. Africa region d. Pacific region
156. Maximum ozone depleting substance is-
a. CFC-18 c. CFC-12
b. CFC-15 d. CFC-14

Answers
149. d 150. d 151. a 152. b 153. c 154. a
155. a 156. d
52 t Universal Objective Forestry

157. In this process of ozone depletion one chlorine atom of CFC convert-
a. One lakh O3 molecules into O2 by photo dissociation
b. One lakh O2 molecules into O3 by photo dissociation
c. One lakh O molecules into O3 by photo dissociation
d. One lakh O3 molecules into O by photo dissociation
158. Thickness of ozone layer is measured in-
a. Decibel unit (Db) c. Dobson unit (Du)
b. Hertz (Hz) d. Joule (J)
159. The amount of dissolved oxygen (D.O) needed by bacteria in
decomposing the organic wastes present in water called-
a. Biochemical oxygen demand c. Chemical oxygen demand
b. Bio magnification d. Bioremediation
160. Water having D.O content below 8.0 mgL–1 may consider as-
a. Hard water c. Fresh water
b. Polluted water d. Contaminated water
161. Water having D.O content below 4.0 mgL-1 may consider as-
a. Fresh water c. Polluted water
b. Heavily polluted d. Soft water
162. B.O.D for fresh is less than-
a. 1.0 mgL–1 c. 2.0 mgL–1
b. 3.0 mgL–1 d. 4.0 mgL–1
163. Who is the indicator of B.O.D. in a water ecosystem-
a. Traught c. Daphnia
b. Gambusia d. Lichen
164. D.O is measured by-
a. Oximeter c. Spectrophotometer
b. Lysimeter d. Doximometer
165. The amount of oxygen requirement by chemical for oxidation of
total organic matter (biodegradable and non-biodegradable) in water
called-
a. Chemical oxygen demand c. Bio magnification
b. Bioremediation d. Biochemical oxygen demand

Answers
157. a 158. c 159. a 160. d 161. b 162. a
163. c 164. a 165. a
 Ecology t 53

166. C.O.D value is always-

a. Lower than B.O.D value
b. Equal to B.O.D value
c. Higher than B.O.D value
d. Neither higher nor lower than B.O.D
167. The non-biodegradable pollutant such as DDT, Al, Hg, Fe etc. are
not decomposed by micro-organism. They get accumulated in tissue
in increasing concentration along the food chain is called-
a. Biological magnification c. Acclimation
b. Sublimation d. Eutrophication
168. The highest concentration of non-biodegradable pollutant occurs in-
a. Top consumer c. Primary consumer
b. Secondary consumer d. Tertiary consumer
169. High concentration of DDT disturb calcium metabolism, which
cause thinning of egg shell and their premature breaking, eventually
decline in-
a. Human population c. Avian population
b. Microorganism population d. Insect population
170. D.D.T (Dichloro Diphenyl Tri-chloroethane) and B.H.C (Benzene
Hexa Chloride) are-
a. Non-degradable pollutants
b. Eco-friendly degradable pollutants
c. Bio-degradable pollutants
d. Secondary pollutants
171. The process of nutrient enrichment of water and consequent loss of
species diversity (or death of aquatic animals) is referred-
a. Eutrophication c. Biological magnification
b. Ageing of lake d. Both a and b
172. The main reason of Eutrophication of lake is-
a. Algal Bloom c. Fungi Bloom
b. Lichen Bloom d. Mycorrhizal Bloom

Answers
166. c 167. a 168. a 169. c 170. a 171. d
172. a
54 t Universal Objective Forestry

173. A lake having high amount of organic materials and little amount of
oxygen is called-
a. Eutrophic lake c. Oligotrophic lake
b. Dystrophic lake d. Polytrophic lake
174. A lake having less amount of organic materials and little more
amount of oxygen is called-
a. Dystrophic lake c. Eutrophic lake
b. Oligotrophic lake d. Polytrophic lake
175. A lake having maximum amount of undecomposed organic materials
and more amount of oxygen is called-
a. Eutrophic lake c. Dystrophic lake
b. Oligotrophic lake d. Polytrophic lake
176. The process in which water of Pacific Ocean get warm, in this
process warm water current flows to equador and Peru in between 5
to 8 year Christmas time called-
a. ELNino effect c. EL-Nina effect
b. La -Nina effect d. La -Nino effect
177. The process in which water of Pacific Ocean get cold, in this process
cold water current flows to equador and Peru in between 5 to 8 year
Christmas time called-
a. La -Nino effect c. ELNino effect
b. EL-Nina effect d. La -Nina effect
178. Prairies grassland found in-
a. South America c. Europe and Asia
b. North America d. New Zealand
179. Pampas grassland found in-
a. North America c. South America
b. Europe and Asia d. New Zealand
180. Steppes grassland found in-
a. Europe and Asia c. South America
b. Japan d. North America
181. Tussocks grassland found in-
a. North America c. Africa
b. New Zealand d. New York
Answers
173. a 174. b 175. c 176. a 177. d 178. b
179. c 180. a 181. b
 Ecology t 55

182. Veldts grassland found in-

a. Brazil c. Africa
b. Pakistan d. India
183. Down grassland found in-
a. Japan c. India
b. Australia d. America
184. Savanah grassland found in-
a. Africa c. India
b. Brazil d. Holland
185. The study of interaction and inter-relationship of organism with their
environment-
a. Ecology c. Physiology
b. Morphology d. Anatomy
186. MoEF means-
a. Ministry of Forests
b. Ministry of Fuel and Energy
c. Ministry of Environment and Forests and climate change
d. Management of Environment and Forestry
187. “Earth provides enough to satisfy every man’s need, but not for every
man’s greed” words was given by-
a. Tagore c. Gandhi Ji
b. Nehru d. Indira Gandhi
188. The ocean covers percentage of Earth’s surface-
a. 51% c. 61%
b. 71% d. 95%
189. The main energy source for the environment is-
a. Solar energy c. Chemical energy
b. Hydro energy d. Electric energy
190. Moisture in the air is known as-
a. Water c. Snow
b. Dew d. Humidity

Answers
182. c 183. b 184. a 185. a 186. c 187. c
188. b 189. a 190. d
56 t Universal Objective Forestry

191. Ramsar Convention refers to the conservation of-

a. Grasslands c. Wetlands
b. Forests d. Deserts
192. The largest brackish water lake situated in Asia is in Orissa-
a. Dal lake c. Woolar lake
b. Chilka lake d. Manasbal lake
193. Plants adapted to open, sunny habitats are called-
a. Heliophytes c. Sciophytes
b. Mesophytes d. Epiphytes
194. Plants adapted to shady (shade loving) habitats are called-
a. Mesophytes c. Epiphytes
b. Sciophytes d. Heliophytes
195. The relationship between nitrogen fixing bacteria and leguminous
plants is an example for-
a. Parasitism c. Predation
b. Symbiosis d. Commensalism
196. The word Biophilia was coined by-
a. E. Hackle c. Darwin
b. Reiter d. E. O. Wilson
197. Ganga Action Plan in India was launched in the year-
a. 1985 c. 1895
b. 1976 d. 1927
198. The phenomenon of accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides
in human beings-
a. Bio magnification c. Bioaccumulation
b. Biodegradation d. Bioremediation
199. Which state proposed a ban on all types of polythene packing for the
first time in India-
a. Himachal Pradesh c. Uttar Pradesh
b. Karnataka d. Maharashtra
200. Who coined the slogan of ‘Chipko Movement ‘ ‘Ecology is Perma-
nent economy’-
a. Jawaharlal Nehru c. Salim Ali
b. Sunderlal Bahuguna d. Rachel Carson
Answers
191. c 192. b 193. a 194. b 195. b 196. d
197. a 198. c 199. a 200. b
 Forest Management t 57

Chapter 3

Forest Management

1. Forest management is defined as, ‘the practical application of the

scientific, technical and economic principles of forestry’ by-
a. Ram Prakash c. BCFT
b. MoEF & CC d. Jerram
2. Management of forest broadly classified into-
a. Control of composition and structure of the growing stock
b. Harvesting and marketing of forest produce
c. Administration of forest property personnel
d. All of the above
3. How much percent of Indian forests are under the state ownership-
a. 33% c. 95.8%
b. 98.5% d. 71%
4. India’s first forest policy was enunciated in
a. 1894 c. 1952
b. 1988 d. 2011
5. The sole objective of forest management of public forest in 1894
policy was-
a. Forest conservation c. Public benefits
b. Forest protection d. Private benefits
6. Indian Republic formulated its first National Forest Policy in-
a. 1952 c. 1947
b. 1988 d. 1994
7. National Forest Policy in 1952 classified the India’s forest into-
a. Two classes c. Three classes
b. Four classes d. Six classes

Answers
1. c 2. d 3. c 4. a 5. c 6. a
7. b
58 t Universal Objective Forestry

8. 1952 National Forest Policy classified the India’s forest into-

a. Protection forest c. National Forest
b. Village forest d. All of above
9. National Forest Policy 1952 suggested to keep a minimum of
country’s total land area under forests-
a. One third c. One fourth
b. Half d. One eighth
10. National Forest Policy 1952 suggested to keep how much percent
forest in Himalayas-
a. 20% c. 40%
b. 60% d. 98%
11. National Forest Policy 1952 suggested to keep how much percent
forest in plain-
a. 40% c. 50%
b. 60% d. 20%
12. The parliament by the 42nd Amendment to the Indian Constitution
in 1976, brought Forests and Wildlife on the Concurrent List in the-
a. Seventh Schedule c. Eight Schedule
b. Ninth Schedule d. Fifth Schedule
13. A written scheme of management aiming at continuity of policy,
controlling the treatment of a forest is called-
a. Forest act c. Working plan
b. Forest Policy d. Working circle
14. Working plan is based on the principle of-
a. Progressive yield c. Intermediate yield
b. Final yield d. Sustained yield
15. Which is the unit of forest management-
a. Coupe c. Beat
b. Working plan d. Working circle
16. A forest area organised with particular objects, and under one
Silviculture System and one set of Working Plan prescriptions is
called-
a. Working Circle c. Working plan
b. Beat d. Coupe
Answers
8. d 9. a 10. b 11. d 12. a 13. c
14. d 15. b 16. a
 Forest Management t 59

17. On the basis of geographical and climatic (ecological) forest are

classified into-
a. 4 c. 5
b. 6 d. 7
18. On the basis of functional classification forest are classified into-
a. 4 c. 5
b. 6 d. 8
19. On the basis of legal classification forest are classified into-
a. 2 c. 3
b. 4 d. 5
20. On the basis of territorial classification forest are classified into-
a. 2 c. 3
b. 4 d. 5
21. On the basis of management (Silvicultural) classification forest are
classified into-
a. 3 c. 4
b. 6 d. 5
22. A main territorial division of forest having a boundary and bearing a
local proper name called as-
a. Block c. Compartment
b. Sub-Compartment d. Coupe
23. The smallest permanent Working plan unit of management for
administration purpose called-
a. Block c. Sub-Compartment
b. Coupe d. Compartment
24. The size of compartment depends on
a. Intensity of management c. Need of management
b. Required output d. Conservation management
25. A Sub division of compartment designated with small letters for
temporary administration purpose is called-
a. Coupe c. Compartment
b. Sub-Compartment d. Block

Answers
17. c 18. a 19. b 20. c 21. d 22. a
23. d 24. a 25. b
60 t Universal Objective Forestry

26. Head quarter of Inspector General of Forest is situated in-

a. Dehra Dun c. New Delhi
b. Kolkata d. Uttarakhand
27. Sub division of block is called-
a. Compartment c. Coupe
b. Sub-compartment d. Beat
28. Head of forest force (HOFF) known as-
a. C.C.F b. D.C.F
b. P.C.C.F d. A.C.F
29. Kingpin of forest department is –
a. D.F.O c. A.C.F
b. R.F.O d. Forester
30. In our Indian set-up, direct recruitment to the Gazetted rank is made
at the level of a/an-
a. Assistant Conservator of Forest (A.C.F)
b. District Forest Officer (D.F.O)
c. Range Forest Officer (R.F.O)
d. Conservator of Forest (C.F)
31. A forest area forming the whole or part of a Working circle for
distribute felling and regeneration to maintain or create a normal
distribution of age-classes is called-
a. Felling cycle c. Regeneration cycle
b. Felling Series d. Seeding felling
32. A felling area usually one of an annual series designated with Roman
numerals-
a. Coupe c. Block
b. Compartment d. Working circle
33. Sub division of felling series formed with the object of regulating
cuttings in some special manner is called-
a. Felling cycle c. Cutting section
b. Final felling d. Coupe
34. The part or parts of forest set aside to be regenerated, or otherwise
treated during a specified period is called-
a. Periodic block c. Coupe
b. Block d. Compartment
Answers
26. c 27. a 28. b 29. a 30. a 31. b
32. a 33. c 34. a
 Forest Management t 61

35. The regeneration block when it is the only periodic block allotted at
each Working Plan revision known as-
a. Protected block
b. Floating or single block
c. Regenerated block
d. Fixed or permanent periodic blocks.
36. When all periodic blocks are allotted and retain their territorial
identity at Working Plan revision, they are called-
a. Fixed or permanent periodic blocks
b. Regenerated block
c. Protected block
d. Floating or single block
37. The period required to regenerate the whole of a periodic block
called-
a. Regeneration period c. Rotation period
b. Felling period d. Growing period
38. Area of a coupe is calculate (A)=
a. Rotation period/Area of felling series
b. Area of felling series × Rotation period
c. Area of felling series/ Rotation period
d. Area of felling series - Rotation period
39. The time that elapses between successive main fellings on the same
area-
a. Felling series c. Felling period
b. Felling cycle d. Felling sections
40. The material or cash return obtained from time to time from a forest
not organised for continuous production called-
a. Intermediate Yield c. Progressive yield
b. Sustained yield d. Final yield
41. The sum (by number or volume) of all the trees growing in the forest
or a specified part of forest is called-
a. Stock c. Volume
b. Clump d. Growing stock

Answers
35. b 36. a 37. a 38. c 39. b 40. a
41. d
62 t Universal Objective Forestry

42. The concept of Progressive Yield was given by-

a. German forester Hartig c. Indian forester Hartig
b. British Forester Hartig d. Dutch forester Hartig
43. The principle of Progressive Yield as against the Sustained Yield
principle was discussed at the-
a. Fourth Indian Silviculture Conference
b. Sixth Indian Silviculture Conference
c. Fifth Indian Silviculture Conference
d. Seventh Indian Silviculture Conference
44. Third World Forestry Conference was held in 1948-
a. New Delhi c. Helsinki
b. Brazil d. Geneva
45. The period which a forest crop takes between its formation and final
felling is known as-
a. Rotation period c. Production period
b. Growing Period d. Both a and c
46. Rotation which coincides with the natural lease of life of a species
on a given site called-
a. Physical rotation c. Silviculture rotation
b. Technical rotation d. Financial rotation
47. Rotation which is applicable in case of protection and amenity forest,
park lands, roadside avenues-
a. Silviculture rotation c. Technical rotation
b. Physical rotation d. Financial rotation
48. Rotation through which a species remains satisfactory vigour of
growth and reproduction on a given site called-
a. Technical rotation
b. Financial rotation
c. Silviculture rotation
d. Rotation of maximum volume production
49. Which rotation is useful in forests managed primarily for aesthetic
and recreational purpose-
a. Technical rotation
b. Rotation of maximum volume production
c. Financial rotation
d. Silviculture Rotation
Answers
42. a 43. b 44. c 45. d 46. a 47. b
48. c 49. d
 Forest Management t 63

50. Rotation under which a species yields the maximum material of a

specified size or suitability for economic conversion or for special
use called-
a. Rotation of maximum volume production
b. Financial rotation
c. Technical rotation
d. Physical rotation
51. Rotation which is adopted, particularly by wood based industry
such as paper-wood, match-wood industry etc. for maximum raw
material’s production is-
a. Rotation of maximum volume production
b. Financial rotation
c. Technical rotation
d. Physical rotation
52. Rotation that yields the maximum annual quantity of material; i.e.,
the age at which Mean annual increment culminates, called-
a. Rotation of maximum volume production
b. Physical rotation
c. Financial rotation
d. Technical rotation
53. Rotation which is useful for maximum volume production where the
total quantity of woody material is important and not the size and
specification is-
a. Physical rotation
b. Financial rotation
c. Rotation of maximum volume production
d. Technical rotation
54. Rotation which yields the highest average annual gross or net
revenue irrespective of the capital value of the forest called-
a. Rotation of highest income
b. Rotation of highest forest rental
c. Rotation of highest revenue
d. All the above

Answers
50. c 51. c 52. a 53. c 54. d
64 t Universal Objective Forestry

55. Which rotation is important from all national point of view-

a. Rotation of highest income
b. Rotation of maximum volume production
c. Financial rotation
d. Technical rotation
56. Rotation which yields the highest net return on the invested capital
called-
a. Financial rotation c. Economic rotation
b. Technical rotation d. Both a and c
57. According to, financial or economic rotation defined as, “the rotation
which is most profitable-
a. Hiley c. Ram Prakash
b. L.S Khanna d. Mohit Husain
58. There are two prominent methods to determine the financial rotation,
these are-
a. Based on Soil Expectation Value (Se) of the land
b. Based on the financial yield
c. Based on Intermediate yield
d. Both a and b
59. If a piece of land is expected to provide a continual net income of
X rupees yearly, then that land can be valued at a sum, which at an
acceptable rate of interest gives the same yearly income of Rs. X;
that value is known as-
a. Soil correction value (Sc) c. Soil adaption value (Sa)
b. Soil Expectation Value (Se) d. Soil calculated value (Sc)
60. Soil Expectation Value (Se) is-
a. Se = x/0.0k c. Se = x/0.0h
b. Se = x/0.0d d. Se = x/0.0p
61. The length of rotation depends on which of the following parameters-
a. Rate of growth of species
b. Silvicultural characteristics of the species
c. Characteristics of soil
d. All of above

Answers
55. a 56. d 57. a 58. d 59. b 60. d
61. d
 Forest Management t 65

62. The period during which a change from one Silvicultural system to
another Silvicultural system is effected called-
a. Conversion period c. Payback period
b. Rotation period d. Growing period
63. Conversion period is usually-
a. More than rotation
b. Equal to rotation
c. less than rotation period
d. Always greater than rotation period
64. Conversion period may be sometimes-
a. More than rotation c. Equal to rotation
b. Less than rotation d. All of the above
65. Conversion period is usually kept ………...the rotation period when
mature crop is desirable to remove earlier than its rotation period-
a. More than c. Less than
b. Equal d. Any time
66. A forest which has normal increment, normal distribution of age-
gradation and normal growing forest (NGS) called-
a. Normal Forest c. Protect forest
b. Virgin Forest d. Reserved Forest
67. Trinity of a normal forest is not includes-
a. Normal Increment
b. Normal Distribution of Age-Gradation
c. Normal Growing Stock (NGS)
d. All of above
68. The volume of a stands in a forest with normal age-classes and a
normal increment called-
a. Abnormal growing stock
b. Normal Growing Stock (NGS)
c. Growing stock
d. Sustained yield
69. Kinds of abnormality in a forest are-
a. They may be over/under stocked
b. The increment may be sub-normal
c. Normal increment volume in an abnormal forest
d. All of the above
Answers
62. a 63. c 64. d 65. c 66. a 67. d
68. b 69. d
66 t Universal Objective Forestry

70. The increase in girth, diameter, basal area, height, volume, quality
and price of individual trees or crops during a given period called-
a. Increment c. Growth
b. Maturity d. Development
71. The increment in growth that takes place in a particular year called-
a. Current Annual Increment (CAI)
b. Periodic Annual Increment (PAI)
c. Mean Annual Increment (MAI)
d. Current Increment Percent
72. The increment in growth that takes place for any short period called-
a. Current Annual Increment (CAI)
b. Periodic Annual Increment (PAI)
c. Mean Annual Increment (MAI)
d. Current Increment Percent
73. The total increment up to a given age divided by that age called-
a. Mean Annual Increment (MAI)
b. Current Annual Increment (CAI)
c. Periodic Annual Increment (PAI)
d. Current Increment Percent
74. The Mean Annual Increment (MAI) at rotation age is called-
a. Current Annual Increment (CAI)
b. Current Increment Percent
c. Final Mean Annual Increment
d. Mean Annual Increment (MAI)
75. The average annual growth in volume over a specified period
expressed as a percentage of the volume either at beginning or, more
usually, half way through the period called-
a. Increment Percent
b. Current Annual Increment (CAI)
c. Current Increment Percent
d. Periodic Annual Increment (PAI)
76. In the beginning M.A.I keeps below-
a. C.A.I. c. P. A. I.
b. C.I. d. All of the above
Answers
70. a 71. a 72. b 73. a 74. c 75. a
76. a
 Forest Management t 67

77. The C.A.I attains the maximum value before-

a. P.A.I. c. M.A.I
b. C.I. d. None
78. Which is never falls up to zero in whole life of a tree-
a. P.A.I c. C.A.I
b. M.A.I. d. C.I.
79. Which may falls up to zero in whole life of a tree-
a. P.A.I. c. C.I.
b. M.A.I. d. C.A.I.
80. The relation of the increment during a given year to the volume at
the beginning of the year called-
a. Current Increment Percent (C.I.P)
b. Mean Increment Percent (M.I.P)
c. Periodic Increment Percent (P.I.P)
d. Annual Increment Percent (A.I.P)
81. The relation of the increment during a given year to a basic volume
which may be taken as the mean or average volume for the period,
or the volume at the beginning of the period called-
a. Current Increment Percent
b. Periodic Increment Percent
c. Mean Increment Percent
d. Annual Increment Percent
82. The percent ratio which the M.A.I for a given age bears to the total
volume at that age called-
a. Mean Annual Increment Percent
b. Current Increment Percent
c. Periodic Increment Percent
d. Mean Increment Percent
83. Pressler’s formula for Increment Percent is given as-
a. Increment Percent (p) c. Increment Percent (p)
b. Increment Percent (p) d. Increment Percent (p)
84. The most convenient formula for finding the increment percent (p)
of standing trees is that developed by-
a. Professor Schneider in 1853 c. Professor Schneider in 1953
b. Professor Schneider in 1753 d. Professor Schneider in 1653

Answers
77. c 78. b 79. d 80. a 81. b 82. a
83. b 84. a
68 t Universal Objective Forestry

85. . Schneider formula is based on the determination of the-

a. Diameter at breast height
b. The number of the rings in the last centimetre of the radius
c. Tree volume
d. Both a and b
86. Schneider formula for increment percent is-
a. Increment Percent (p) c. Increment Percent (p)
b. Increment Percent (p) d. Increment Percent (p)
87. A fast growing species is one which yields a minimum-
a. 10 m3 /ha/year c. 15 m3 /ha/year
b. 20 m /ha/year
3
d. 30 m3 /ha/year
88. World forest average mean annual increment is-
a. 4.1 m3/ha c. 2.1 m3/ha
b. 3.1 m /ha
3
d. 1.2 m3/ha
89. A fast growing species is one which height increment must not be
less than-
a. 40 cm per year c. 50 cm per year
b. 60 cm per year d. 70 cm per year
90. Mean annual increment of Indian forest is-
a. 0.5-0.7 m3/ha c. 1.0-1.9 m3/ha
b. 0.6-0.8 m /ha
3
d. 0.7-0.9 m3/ha
91. The increment in the value per unit volume of a tree or a crop,
independent of any increase in the price of forest produce resulting
from any change in money value in general, or the supply and
demand position in particular called-
a. Quality Increment c. Price Increment
b. Increment Percent d. Increment
92. The increment in price independently of quality increment, resulting
from any change in the market on an account of change in money
value in general, the demand and supply position in particular called-
a. Price Increment c. Price Increment
b. Increment Percent d. Quality Increment

Answers
85. d 86. b 87. a 88. c 89. b 90. d
91. a 92. a
 Forest Management t 69

93. Price Increment and Quality Increment can be determined and

expressed in the same way as volume increment percent by using-
a. Von Mental method c. Schneider method
b. Pressler’s method d. Howard method
94. Increment from C.A.I. can be calculated by using-
a. Area Method c. Per Tree Method
b. Increment Percent method d. All the above
95. Determination of increment in irregular crop is done by using-
a. Andre’s formula c. Behre’s formula
b. Huber’s formula d. Von Mental formula
96. Biolley’s check method is used to determine increment and based on-
a. Diameter c. Tree height
b. Successive inventories d. Tree volume
97. According to Biolley the M.A.I can be calculated by using formula-
a. M.A.I = c. M.A.I =
b. M.A.I = d. M.A.I =
98. The intervals into which the range of age of the trees growing in a
forest is divided for classification or use-
a. Age gradation c. Gradation series
b. An age-class d. Class interval
99. The unit of Yield Regulation in both regular and irregular forests is a-
a. Felling series c. Felling cycle
b. Coupe d. Periodic block
100. The total volume of trees in a fully stocked forest with normal
distribution of age-classes for a given rotation called-
a. Normal yield c. Growing stock
b. Normal growing stock d. Progressive yield
101. At the beginning of the growing season the volume of the growing
stock will be-
a. N.G.S = c. N.G.S =
b. N.G.S = d. N.G.S =

Answers
93. b 94. d 95. a 96. b 97. c 98. b
99. a 100. b 101. a
70 t Universal Objective Forestry

102. At the middle of the growing season the volume of the growing stock
will be-
a. N.G.S = c. N.G.S =
b. N.G.S = d. N.G.S =
103. At the end of the growing season the volume of the growing stock
will be-
a. N.G.S = c. N.G.S =
b. N.G.S = d. N.G.S =
104. Flury suggest that in the mid-season formula a variable constant ‘C’
should be substituted for 1/2, to obtain more correct results called-
a. Flury correction c. Flury constant
b. Flury formula d. None
105. Value of Flury constant ‘C’ will be less than 1/2 for-
a. Short rotation c. Full rotation
b. Half rotation d. Mid rotation
106. Value of Flury constant ‘C’ will be more than 1/2 for-
a. Short rotation c. Mid rotation
b. Half rotation d. Long rotation
107. Fischer evolved a formula for a condition when part of the growing
stock has been removed under regeneration felling is-
a. N.G.S = c. N.G.S =
b. N.G.S = d. N.G.S =
108. For the determination of N.G.S in selection system Munger evolved
a formula which was based-
a. C.A.I. c. M.A.I.
b. P.A.I. d. C.I
109. The percent ratio of normal yield to the normal growing stock called-
a. Utilization percent c. Increment percent
b. Quality percent d. Yield percent
110. Yield table is constructed assuming sample plots are-
a. Simply stocked c. Partially stocked
b. Fully stocked d. Stocked

Answers
102. c 103. a 104. c 105. a 106. d 107. b
108. a 109. a 110. b
 Forest Management t 71

111. Ratio to M.A.I of the quality to be reduced to M.A.I of the standard

quality is known as-
a. Reducing factor for utilization c. Reducing factor for increment
b. Reducing factor for quality d. All of the above
112. The diameter or girth decided upon as the normal size for felling in
order to fulfil the objects of management called-
a. Exploitable size c. Exploitable volume
b. Commercial size d. Commercial volume
113. How many percent of Indian forest are irregular in diameter and
density distribution-
a. About 50% c. About 60%
b. About 95% d. About 70%
114. According to ………..in a fully stocked selection forest, the number
of stems falls off from one diameter class to the next in geometrical
progression, which means that the percentage reduction in the stem
number from on diameter class to the next is constant-
a. L.S Khanna c. De Liocourt’s law
b. Hartig d. Ram Prakash
115. Meyer simplified De Liocourt’s law in the form of an exponential
function, which is-
a. Y = K e-ax c. K = Y e-ax
b. Y = K e ax
d. K = Y eax
116. The volume or number of stems that can be removed annually or
periodically, or the area over which fellings may pass annually or
periodically, consistent with the attainment of objects of management
called-
a. Periodic Block c. Felling
b. Yield d. Thinning
117. All the material that counts against the prescribed yield and which is
derived from the main fellings in a regular forest called-
a. Final yield c. Intermediate yield
b. Periodic yield d. Sustained yield

Answers
111. b 112. a 113. d 114. c 115. a 116. b
117. a
72 t Universal Objective Forestry

118. All material from thinning or operations preceding the main felling
in a regular forest, or its cash equivalent called-
a. Periodic yield c. Intermediate yield
b. Sustained yield d. Final yield
119. The yield from a normal forest called-
a. Sustained yield c. Prescribed yield
b. Periodic yield d. Normal yield
120. The material that a forest can yield annually in perpetuity called-
a. Progressive yield c. Periodic yield
b. Sustained yield d. Normal yield
121. The standing volume of a crop plus the total volume removed in the
thinning since its establishment as a more or less even-aged stand; or
the sum of the final and intermediate yields called-
a. Total yield c. Normal yield
b. Periodic yield d. Sustained yield
122. The total quantity of material per annum, of given species, that an
area is capable of producing under normal conditions, so long as the
factors of locality remain unchanged called-
a. Productivity c. Site productivity
b. Growing capacity d. Yield capacity
123. The calculation of the amount of material which may be removed
from a forest, annually or periodically over a stated period, or of the
annual or periodic area over which fellings may be made, consistent
with the treatment prescribed called-
a. Yield determination c. Total Yield
b. Yield capacity d. Site productivity
124. A term generally applied to the determination of the yield and the
prescribed means of releasing it, called-
a. Yield regulation c. Yield capacity
b. Yield determination d. Total Yield
125. Objects of yield regulation is/are-
a. To cut each crop or tree at maturity to obtained maximum yield of
the desired produce
b. To cut, approximately, the same quantity of material annually or
periodically
c. To limit the area to be felled to that which can be regenerated
d. All of the above
Answers
118. c 119. d 120. b 121. a 122. d 123. a
124. a 125. d
 Forest Management t 73

126. The yield is usually regulated for the period-

a. Five years c. Eight years
b. Six Year d. Ten year
127. Thinning, pruning, cleaning and improvement fellings are the
examples of intermediate-
a. Final yield c. Progressive yield
b. Intermediate yield d. Total yield
128. Which is the birth-place of scientific forestry-
a. Asian continent c. European continent
b. African continent d. Arabian continent
129. Explain S/a/M/0.6 abbreviation –
a. Middle aged (M), Sal Forest (S), a quality, with a density 0.6
b. Medium aged (M), Sal Forest (S), a quality, with a density 0.6
c. Medium aged (M), Sal Forest (S), a class, with a density 0.6
d. Middle aged (M), Sal Forest (S), a class, with a density 0.6
130. Two stage stratified random sampling method is used for-
a. Teak enumeration c. Bamboo enumeration
b. Sal enumeration d. Deodar enumeration
131. Period of Working Plan in India is-
a. 5 years c. 8 years
b. 10 years d. 15 years
132. The forest survey of India (FSI) conducts forest cover survey once
in every-
a. One year c. Two years
b. Five years d. Ten years
133. Which is based only on area for yield regulation in regular forest-
a. Annual coupe by gross area method (A1)
b. Annual coupe by reduced area method (A2)
c. Annual coupe by total area method (A1)
d. Both a and b
134. Which is/are based only on volume for yield regulation in regular
forest-
a. Von Mental’s Formula c. Howard’s modification
b. Simons’ modification d. All of the above
Answers
126. d 127. b 128. c 129. a 130. c 131. b
132. c 133. d 134. d
74 t Universal Objective Forestry

135. Smythies modification for yield regulation in regular forest is based

on-
a. Area c. Volume
b. Area and volume d. Increment
136. Burma modification for yield regulation in regular forest is based on-
a. Area c. Area and volume
b. Volume d. Increment and volume
137. Which is/are based on area and volume for yield regulation in regular
forest-
a. Permanent Periodic block method
b. Single Periodic block method
c. Revocable Periodic block method
d. All of the above
138. Floating Periodic block method for yield regulation in regular forest
is based on-
a. Volume c. Area
b. Area and volume d. Increment and volume
139. Judeich’s Stand Selection Method for yield regulation in regular
forest is based on-
a. Volume c. Area and Increment
b. Volume and Increment d. Area and volume
140. Which is/are based only on increment for yield regulation in regular
forest-
a. Increment method c. Swiss method
b. Biolley’s Check Method d. All of above
141. Which is/are based on volume and increment for yield regulation in
regular forest-
a. Hufnagal’s methods c. Formula methods
b. Volume unit method d. All of the above
142. Which is/are based on volume and increment for yield regulation in
regular forest-
a. French Method c. Melard’s method
b. Chaturvedi’s modification d. All of the above

Answers
135. c 136. b 137. d 138. b 139. d 140. d
141. d 142. d
 Forest Management t 75

143. Formula methods of yield regulation in regular forest includes-

a. Austrian formula c. Heyer’s formula
b. Hundeshagen’s formula d. All of the above
144. Hufnagal’s Diameter class method for yield regulation in regular
forest is based on-
a. Volume and Increment c. Area and Increment
b. Area and volume d. Diameter
145. Brandis’ Diameter class method or The Indian method for yield
regulation in regular forest is based on-
a. Area and Increment c. Volume and Increment
b. Diameter d. Area and volume
146. Smythies’ Safe-guarding formula or U.P Safe-guarding formula for
yield regulation in regular forest is based on-
a. Diameter c. Area and volume
b. Volume and Increment d. Area and Increment
147. Which letter is used to denote the methods which are based only on
area for yield regulation in regular forest-
a. A c. B
b. C. d. D
148. Which letter is used to denote the methods which are based only on
volume for yield regulation in regular forest-
a. A c. V
b. B d. E
149. Which letter is used to denote the methods which are based on area
and volume for yield regulation in regular forest-
a. A c. V
b. C d. B
150. Which letter is used to denote the methods which are based only on
increment for yield regulation in regular forest-
a. I c. C
b. V d. D
151. Which letter is used to denote the methods which are based on
volume and increment for yield regulation in regular forest-
a. V c. C
b. E d. I
Answers
143. d 144. a 145. c 146. b 147. a 148. b
149. b 150. d 151. b
76 t Universal Objective Forestry

152. E5 and E7 Which methods is/are purely of Indian origin for yield
regulation in regular forest-
a. B2 c. B3
b. B4 d. All of the above
153. Which methods is/are purely of Indian origin for yield regulation in
regular forest-
a. E5 c. E7
b. E2 d. Both a and c
154. Annual coupe by gross area (A1) is the oldest and simplest form of
yield regulation in regular forest, It was first applied in-
a. France in the 14th century c. German in the 14th century
b. France in the 19th century d. German in the 18th century
155. In annual coupe by gross area (A1) method the area of forest or the
felling series is divided into a-
a. Number of annual coupes to the number of years to regeneration
b. Number of annual coupes to the number of years in a rotation
c. Number of annual periodic block to the number of years in a
rotation
d. Number of annual periodic block to the number of years to
regeneration
156. Cotta’s formula for annual yield determination is-
 V I  V I
a. Ya =   + c. Ya =   −
 P 2  P 2
 P I  P I
b. Ya =   + d. Ya =   −
 V 2  V 2
157. In revocable periodic block method rotation is divided into………
and the fellings series into corresponding…….respectively-
a. Rotation periods, periodic blocks
b. Regeneration periods, periodic blocks
c. Regeneration periods, coupes
d. Rotation periods, coupes
158. Floating Periodic block method also called as-
a. Quartier Bleu Method c. Quartier girth Method
b. Quartier Blanc Method d. Quartier map Method
Answers
152. d 153. d 154. a 155. b 156. a 157. b
158. a
 Forest Management t 77

159. The uncoloured thinning area on map in floating periodic block

(F.P.B) method called-
a. Quartier Blanc c. Quartier Space
b. Quartier Block d. Quartier coupe
160. Formula of Duchafour’s Crown Cover which is used to calculate the
modified or reduced area (C) is given below-
a. C = K2g2n2 c. C = Kg2n2
b. C = K gn
2 2
d. C = K2g2n
161. Floating Periodic block method is not suitable for-
a. Regular forests c. Irregular forest
b. Sustained yield d. Progressive yield
162. Von Mental’s Formula (based on volume) for the determination of
annual yield is-
N.G.S. N.G.S.
a. Ya = c. Ya =
r 2r
2N.G.S. 2N.G.S.
b. Ya = d. Ya =
r 4r
163. Von Mental’s Formula also known as-
a. Formula of glorious infinity
b. Formula of glorious complexity
c. Formula of glorious accuracy
d. Formula of glorious simplicity
164. Von Mental’s Formula is best applicable to-
a. Regular, even-aged or nearly even-aged normal forests
b. Regular, uneven-aged normal forests
c. Regular, even-aged or nearly even-aged abnormal forests
d. Irregular, uneven-aged normal forests
165. Mason’s formula is identical with that
a. Biolley Formula c. Heyer’s formula
b. Howard’s formula d. Von Mental’s Formula
166. Mason’s formula also known-
a. Exploitation percent c. Masson’s ratio
b. Utilization percent d. Both a and c
Answers
159. a 160. d 161. c 162. b 163. d 164. a
165. d 166. d
78 t Universal Objective Forestry

167. Howard’s formula for yield is-

8V 4V
a. Y = c. Y =
r 8r
V V
b. Y = d. Y =
8r 4r
168. Which modification is applicable to all fractional enumeration of
G.S, down to girth/diameter, equivalent to 1/n th of the rotation-
a. Howard’s modification c. Simons’ modification
b. Burma’s modification d. Smythies modification
169. In case of Howard’s modification enumerated is carried out down to
the…corresponding to half the rotation.
a. Height c. Volume
b. Diameter d. Girth
170. The formula of Simons’ modification is-
n2 2n 2
a. Ya = ×V c. Ya = ×V
r(n 2 − 2) r(n 2 − 2)

2n 2 2n 2
b. Ya = ×V d. Ya = ×V
(n 2 − 1) r(n 2 – 1)

171. Smythies’ modification is the modification of-

a. Burma’s modification c. Simons’ modification
b. Von Mental’s Formula d. Howard’s modification
172. The formula of Smythies modification is-
2V 4V
a. Ya = c. Ya =
r−x r−x
V 2V
b. Ya = d. Ya =
r−x r+x
173. Like Howard’s modification which was also evolved as a special
case in which enumerations and measurement of the G.S was done
down to one third rotation, instead half the rotation-
a. Simons’ modification c. Burma’s modification
b. Smythies modification d. Von Mental formula
Answers
167. a 168. c 169. b 170. d 171. b 172. a
173. c
 Forest Management t 79

174. The formula of Burma modification is given as-

4V 8V
a. Ya = c. Ya =
9r 4r
V 9V
b. Ya = d. Ya =
4r 4r
175. Historically which method was the first method which was based on
the yield on a knowledge of increment and Growing stock-
a. Austrian method c. Burma method
b. Von Mental method d. Howard method
176. The formula of Austrian method is given as-
(Va + Vn) (Va – Vn)
a. Y = i + c. Y = i +
3r 2r
(Va – Vn) (Va + Vn)
b. Y = i + d. Y = i +
r 4r
177. Austrian method is applicable to determine yield in-
a. Regular forests c. Irregular forests
b. Normal forests d. All of the above
178. Heyer’s modification was based on-
a. Actual current annual increment
b. Actual periodic annual increment
c. Actual mean annual increment
d. Both a and b
179. The formula of Heyer’s which was tried in Thanu forests of Dehra
Dun by M.P Bhola is-
(Va – Vn) (Va + Vn)
a. Y = I a + c. Y = Ia –
x x
(Va – Vn) 2(Va + Vn)
b. Y = Ia – d. Y = Ia +
2x x

Answers
174. d 175. a 176. b 177. d 178. c 179. a
80 t Universal Objective Forestry

180. Hundeshagan’s method was based on that actual yield (increment)

bears the same proportion to the actual (real) growing stock (Gr) as
the normal yield does to the normal growing stock (Gn) –
G Gn
a. Yr = G r × n c. Yr = Yn ×
Yn Gr
Gr Yn
b. Yr = Yn × d. Yr = G r ×
Gn Gn
181. Which is quotient of utilization factor or Hundeshagan factor-
Y Y
a. r c. n
Gn Gr
Yn Gn
b. d.
Gn Yn

182. Breymann’s method is based on the same principle as Hundeshagan’s

method. The formula of Breymann’s is given as-
Y A
a. Y = A × n c. Y = Yn ×
An An
A An
b. Y = A n × d. Y = Yn ×
Yn A
183. French method (1883) is sometimes called as-
a. Quartier bleu method
b. Formula of glorious complexity
c. Quartier blanc method
d. Formula of glorious simplicity
184. The formula of French method (1883) is given as-
V0 V0 × t1 V V +t
a. =
Ya + c. Ya = 0 + 0 1
r/2 2 r/2 2
V0 V0 × t1 V0 V0 − t1
b. Ya = + d. Ya = +
r/3 2 r/2 2

Answers
180. d 181. b 182. c 183. a 184. b
 Forest Management t 81

185. In French method rotation ‘r’ is divided into three equal parts viz.
young, medium and old in the ratio-
a. 1 : 2 : 3 c. 2 : 4 : 6
b. 1 : 3: 5 d. 1 : 1 : 1
186. If Vo > Vm, then the crop in Vo is examined and transfer……..…..trees
to Vm the proportion of 5:3 is adjusted-
a. Upper diameter c. Middle diameter
b. Lower diameter d. Randomly in any one
187. If Vo < Vm, then the crop in Vm is examined and transfer………..trees
to Vo the proportion of 5:3 is adjusted-
a. Upper diameter c. Middle diameter
b. Lower diameter d. Randomly in any one
188. If Vo+Vm is less than normal (5:3), in this case practically nothing
should be removed from……except the dead and dying trees, and
nothing will be removed from……respectively-
a. Vm and Vo c. Vo and Vm
b. Vo and Vo d. Vm and Vm
189. 1894 modification of French method called Melard’s formula which
is given as-
V V ×t 1
a. Y = 0 + 0 1 + (Vm × t 2 )
r/3 2 n
V0 Vm × t1 1
b. Y = + + (V0 × t 2 )
r/2 3 n
V0 V0 × t1 1
c. Y = + + (V0 × t 2 )
r/2 3 n
2V0 V0 + t1 1
d. Y = + + (Vm × t 2 )
r/3 2 n
190. Chaturvedi’s formula for annual yields is-
V 1 2V0 1
a. Y = 0 + (V0 − i) c. Y = + (V0 + i)
R+r 2 R–r 2
V0 1 V0 1
a. Y = + (V0 × i) d. Y = + (V0 + i)
R–r 2 R–r 2
Answers
185. b 186. b 187. a 188. c 189. a 190. b
82 t Universal Objective Forestry

191. Formula of Increment method, simplified form of Biolley’s Check

Method is-
V + a – Vn V + a − Vn
a. Y = c. Y =
r 2r
V − a + Vn V − a − Vn
b. Y = d. Y =
3r 4r

192. According Swiss method only the annual increment is to be removed

from the-
a. Youngest diameter classes c. Mideast diameter classes
b. Mature diameter classes d. Oldest diameter classes
193. According Swiss method annual yield is calculated using formula-
Y−Z Y×Z
a. Annual yield = c. Annual yield =
2c.c c.c
Y+Z Y+Z
b. Annual yield = d. Annual yield =
c.c 2c.c
194. The principle behind the method is that the composition and
distribution of the G.S can be moulded; and., by correct harvesting
the timber production can be improved. This method is called-
a. Biolley’s “Check method c. Method-de-Controle
b. Smythies modification d. Both a and c
195. Biolley’s “Check method” or Method-de-Controle Formula to
determine annual increment or yield is-
(V + N) – (V1 + P)
a. Annual increment or yield = 2
n
(V2 − N) – (V1 + P)
b. Annual increment or yield =
n
(V2 + N) – (V1 − P)
c. Annual increment or yield =
n
(V2 + N) + (V1 + P)
d. Annual increment or yield =
n

Answers
191. a 192. d 193. b 194. d 195. a
 Forest Management t 83

196. Hufnagal’s Diameter class method formula for calculating the

annual yield is-
n4 n + n4 n + n3 n − n2
a. Ya = × V4 + 3 × V3 + 2 × V2 + 1 × V1
a 4 − a3 a 4 − a3 a3 − a 2 a 2 − a1
n4 n − n4 n − n3 n − n2
b. Ya = × V4 + 3 × V3 + 2 × V2 + 1 × V1
a 4 − a3 a 4 + a3 a3 − a 2 a 2 − a1
n4 n − n4 n − n3 n + n2
c. Ya = × V4 + 3 × V3 + 2 × V2 + 1 × V1
a 4 − a3 a 4 − a3 a3 − a 2 a 2 − a1
n4 n – n4 n – n3 n – n2
d. Ya = × V4 + 3 × V3 + 2 × V2 + 1 × V1
a4 – a 3 a4 – a 3 a3 – a2 a 2 – a1
197. Brandis’ Diameter class method or The Indian method is suitable
for extensively-
a. Temperate forests c. Deciduous forests
b. Tropical forests d. Dry deciduous forests
198. Smythies’ Safe-guarding formula is also known as U.P Safe-guarding
formula, It was formed mainly for sal forest in U.P. is-
t f
a. X = (II + Z% II) c. X = (II × Z% II)
f t
t f
b. X = (II – Z% II) d. X = (II – Z% II)
f t
199. Which scale is used for management map in India-
a. 1 : 5000 c. 1 : 15000
b. 1 : 50000 d. 1 : 40000
200. Which scale is used for regeneration survey map in India-
a. 1 : 50000 c. 1 : 15000
b. 1 : 5000 d. 1 : 25000
201. Which scale is used for stock map in India-
a. 1 : 50000 c. 1 : 15000
b. 1 : 4000 d. 1 : 25000

Answers
196. d 197. b 198. d 199. b 200. a 201. c
84 t Universal Objective Forestry

202. Which scale is used for Forest type map & Working Plan map in
India-
a. 1 : 25000 c. 1 : 5000
b. 1 : 20000 d. 1 : 50000
203. Colour of tropical semi-evergreen forest group on the forest type
map shows-
a. Violet c. Purple
b. Red d. Pink
204. Colour of alpine forest group on the forest type map shows-
a. Sepia c. Red
b. Green d. Purple
205. Colour of littoral & swamp forest group on the forest type map
shows-
a. Purple c. Green
b. Red d. Prussian blue
206. Colour of regeneration map is blue then its regeneration status is-
a. Fair c. Good
b. Excellent d. Deficient
207. Colour of regeneration map is green then its regeneration status is-
a. Excellent c. Good
b. Fair d. Moderate

Answers
202. d 203. c 204. a 205. d 206. c 207. a
 Wildlife Management t 85

Chapter 4

Wildlife Management

1. Wildlife comprises all living organisms such as plants, animals,

micro-organisms) in their natural habitats which are-
a. Neither cultivated c. Not domesticated
b. Not tamed d. All of the above
2. The science and art of changing the characteristics an interactions
of habitats, wild animal population, and mean in order to achieve
specific human goals by means of wildlife resources-
a. Forest Management c. Wildlife Management
b. Rangeland Management d. Watershed Management
3. Book “Wildlife Management Techniques” was written by-
a. Robert H. Giles c. S. K. Singh
b. L. S. Khanna d. Michel Clerk
4. Rewa national park in Madhya Pradesh is famous for the-
a. White tigers c. Tigers
b. Asiatic Lion d. Chinkara
5. Largest animal in the world of family Bovidae is-
a. Elephant (Elephus maximus) c. Gaur (Bos gaurus)
b. Chinkara (Gazella gazella) d. Sambhar (Cervus unicolor)
6. Resources which are regenerated through natural cycle, Such as air,
water, soil, plants, animals and wind etc. are called-
a. Non-renewable natural resources
b. Artificial natural resources
c. Renewable natural resources
d. All of the above

Answers
1. d 2. c 3. a 4. a 5. c 6. c
86 t Universal Objective Forestry

7. Resources which are not replaced in the environment after their

utilization. Such as metals, coal, natural gas and minerals etc. are
called-
a. Artificial natural resources
b. Non-renewable natural resources
c. Artificial natural resources
d. Renewable natural resources
8. Book “ A Text book of Wildlife Management” was written by-
a. L. S. Khanna c. Michel Clerk
b. Robert H. Giles d. S. K. Singh
9. First biosphere reserve of India is-
a. Nanda Devi c. Manas
b. Nilgiri d. Gulf of Mannar
10. Biosphere Reserve has how many zones-
a. 3 c. 4
b. 5 d. 6
11. Area of Biosphere Reserve where no human activity is allowed
called-
a. Restoration zone c. Buffer zone
b. Manipulated zone d. Core zone
12. Area of Biosphere Reserve where a large number of human activities
would go on is called-
a. Transition zone c. Manipulated zone
b. Buffer zone d. Both a and c
13. Area of Biosphere Reserve where limited human activity is allowed
is called-
a. Manipulated zone c. Buffer zone
b. Restoration zone d. Transition zone
14. First wildlife conservation movement in India was started by-
a. BNHS c. IUCN
b. WWF d. CITES
15. Predators have an important role in regulating-
a. Mineral cycle c. Environment conservation
b. Balancing of nature d. Hydrological cycle
Answers
7. b 8. d 9. b 10. a 11. d 12. d
13. c 14. a 15. b
 Wildlife Management t 87

16. Which is not a types of predation in nature-

a. Chance predation c. Habit predation
b. Sanitary predation d. All of the above
17. The study of analysis of the changes in the numbers of animals in
wildlife population at a particular time is called-
a. Wildlife census c. Population-dynamics
b. Wildlife science d. Population structure
18. Conservation of fauna and flora at their native place is called-
a. Ex-situ conservation c. Germplasm conservation
b. In-situ conservation d. Cryopreservation
19. Conservation of fauna and flora outside their native place is called-
a. Ex-situ conservation c. Germplasm conservation
b. In-situ conservation d. Cryopreservation
20. World’s first national park which is situated in America-
a. Dachigam national park c. Yellow stone national park
b. Jim Corbett national park d. Kanha national park
21. India’s first national park which is situated in Nainital, Uttarakhand-
a. Jim Corbett National Park c. Dachigam national park
b. Bennergutta national park d. Dudhwa national park
22. Smallest tiger reserve in India is-
a. Tandoba national park c. Gir national park
b. Kaziranga national park d. Ranthambore national park
23. Largest tiger reserve in India which is located in Andhra Pradesh-
a. Nagarjuna Sagar sanctuary c. Periyar sanctuary
b. Chilka lake Bird sanctuary d. Annamalai sanctuary
24. Book “Silent Spring” was written by-
a. Rachel Carson c. Mohd Tariq
b. Robert H. Giles d. S. K. Singh
25. Silent valley is situated in-
a. Tamil Nadu c. Kerala
b. West Bengal d. Karnataka
26. Hot Spot concept was given by-
a. Norman Mayer c. P. S. Chauhan
b. Alfred Mayer d. Michel Gills
Answers
16. d 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. c 21. a
22. d 23. a 24. a 25. c 26. a
88 t Universal Objective Forestry

27. According to Robert Mayer, global species diversity is about-

a. 4 million c. 7 million
b. 8 million d. 9 million
28. Amazon rain forest called-
a. Lungs of the planet b. Heaven on earth
b. Green mufflers d. Valley of flowers
29. India’s first and only butterfly park was established in 1992-
a. Gujarat c. Kerala
b. Uttarakhand d. Sikkim
30. The modification done in the habitat are the requirement and benefit
of the wildlife especially for food, water, shelter and area is called-
a. Shelter manipulation c. Habitat-manipulation
b. Conservation d. All of the above
31. Salt lick is a common methods of artificial-feeding to the wild
animals in-
a. Favourable period c. summer season
b. Pinch period d. Winter season
32. In Betula National Park of Jharkhand during night a powerful torch
with coloured papers is used giving signals like…….colour means
fire is on, and …….colour means fire is adjoining jurisdiction
respectively-
a. Red & Green c. Red and Blue
b. Red & Yellow d. Green and Blue
33. The animals whose body temperature does not fluctuate with the
changes in the temperature of the environment and are able to
regulate and maintain the body temperature at a constant level called-
a. Eurythermal c. Homoeothermic
b. Endothermal d. All the above
34. The animals whose body temperature fluctuate or varies with the
changes in the temperature of the environment called-
a. Poikilothermic c. stenothermal
b. Ectothermal d. All the above

Answers
27. c 28. a 29. d 30. c 31. b 32. c
33. d 34. d
 Wildlife Management t 89

35. According to which rule the animals living in cold region are much
longer than the warmer region-
a. Allen rule c. Jordan rule
b. Bergmann rule d. Meyer rule
36. According to which rule the fishes living in low water temperature
have more vertebrae than those living in warm water-
a. Bergmann rule c. Allen rule
b. Meyer rule d. Jordan rule
37. Animals which can tolerate narrow fluctuation of the salt-
concentration is called-
a. Euryhaline c. Regulators
b. Stenohaline d. Conformers
38. Animals which can tolerate wide range fluctuation of the salt-
concentration is called-
a. Regulators c. Euryhaline
b. Conformers d. Stenohaline
39. The most tasteful and liked food of wild animals is called-
a. Preferred-food c. Tasty food
b. Staple food d. Habitual food
40. After preferred food, food which is important for the living of the
animal being for long time called-
a. Pinch food c. Staple food
b. Urgent food d. Habitual food
41. When there is scarcity of staple food, the species depends upon
certain food which is neither so tasteful nor nutritive called-
a. Staple food c. Stuffing food
b. Emergency food d. Survival food
42. The food which is totally non-nutritive and is consumed by the
animals only to fulfil its stomach is called-.
a. Stuffing food c. Staple food
b. Habitual food d. Emergency food

Answers
35. b 36. d 37. b 38. c 39. a 40. c
41. b 42. a
90 t Universal Objective Forestry

43. The period in which the food is not sufficiently available and causes
trouble to the animal is called-
a. Pinch period c. Dormancy period
b. Survival period d. All of the above
44. The place or area which gives protection and serves other biological
needs of the species is known as-
a. Territory c. Home Range
b. Cover d. Shelter
45. Which are recently extinct animals from India as well as world-
a. Dodo (Mauritius)
b. Stellars sea cow (Russia)
c. Tigers subspecies (Bali, Javan, Caspian)
d. All of the above
46. Antlers are entirely solid structure, can regrow, branched and found
only-
a. Male c. Female
b. Both d. Neither male nor in female
47. The number of animals per unit area is called-
a. Frequency c. Density
b. Abundance d. Dominance
48. The phenomena of regular movement of a species from one place to
other and back is called-
a. Migration c. Immigration
b. Dispersion d. Dispersal
49. World famous example of birds migration from Russia to Bharatpur
(Rajasthan, India) is-
a. Penguin c. Peacock
b. Siberian crane d. Ostrich
50. The phenomena of movement of a species from one place to other
permanently called-
a. Dispersal c. Dispersion
b. Migration d. Emigration

Answers
43. a 44. d 45. d 46. a 47. c 48. a
49. b 50. a
 Wildlife Management t 91

51. The status and position of distribution of the individuals of a species

in the particular habitat is called dispersion-
a. Emigration c. Migration
b. Dispersion d. Dispersal
52. Which is not a type of dispersion-
a. Random c. Uniform
b. Clumped d. All of the above
53. When the individuals of a species move into an area leaving its
original habitat is called-
a. Emigration c. Immigration
b. Migration d. Adaptation
54. When the individuals of a population move out from its original
habitat permanently is called-
a. Emigration c. Migration
b. Immigration d. Dispersal
55. The rate of birth in a population is called-
a. Mortality c. Immigration
b. Natality d. Emigration
56. The rate of death of individuals in a population is called-
a. Mortality c. Immigration
b. Natality d. Emigration
57. Fecundity is used to indicate-
a. Reproduction capacity
b. Capacity to tolerate drought
c. Capacity to bear young ones
d. Capacity to give birth to young ones
58. Animals living singly is called-
a. Solitary c. Herds
b. Flocks d. Troops
59. The species which are in danger of extinction and whose survival is
unlikely if the causal factors continue to be operating called-
a. Endangered species c. Extinct species
b. Threatened species d. Rare species
Answers
51. b 52. d 53. c 54. a 55. b 56. a
57. c 58. a 59. a
92 t Universal Objective Forestry

60. The species likely to move into the endangered categories in the near
future if the causal factors continue to be operate called-
a. Threatened species c. Rare species
b. Vulnerable species d. Endangered species
61. The species with small population in the world at restricted area is
called-
a. Endangered species c. Rare species
b. Threatened species d. Vulnerable species
62. A book contains a record of animals & plants which are known to be
in danger called-
a. Wildlife book c. Green data book
b. Red data book d. Forestry book
63. A book containing a list of rare plants in a protected area like as
Botanical garden called-
a. Green data book c. Wildlife book
b. Red data book d. Forestry book
64. Kaziranga National Park is situated in-
a. Tamil Nadu c. Gujarat
b. Kerala d. Assam
65. Kaziranga National Park is famous for-
a. Sambhar c. Rhinoceros
b. Tiger d. Lion
66. Gir National Park is situated in-
a. West Bengal c. Madhya Pradesh
b. Gujarat d. Assam
67. Gir National Park is famous for-
a. Blackbuck c. Asiatic Lion
b. Tiger d. Shanghai
68. BNHS (Bombay Naturel History Society) headquarter is located in-
a. New Delhi c. Kolkata
b. Dehra Dun d. Bombay
69. Scientific name/Zoological name of rhino is-
a. Panthera leo persica c. Felis caracal
b. Bos gaurus d. Rhinoceros unicornis
Answers
60. b 61. c 62. b 63. a 64. d 65. c
66. b 67. c 68. d 69. d
 Wildlife Management t 93

70. Corbett National Park is situated in-

a. Madhya Pradesh c. Assam
b. Uttarakhand d. Uttar Pradesh
71. CITES headquarter is located in which city-
a. Washington c. Ned Delhi
b. Nairobi d. Geneva
72. Dachigam National Park is famous for-
a. Tiger c. Elephant
b. Rhinoceros d. Hangul
73. Scientific name/Zoological name of Indian Tiger is-
a. Panthera tigris c. Panthera tigris tigris
b. Panthera uncia d. Panthera pardus
74. Scientific name/Zoological name of Indian elephant is-
a. Hystrix indica c. Panthera leo
b. Elephus maximus d. Elephus indica
75. Symbol of WWF is-
a. Tiger c. Lion
b. Deer d. Red panda
76. Desert National Park is located in-
a. Jaipur c. Jaisalmer
b. Ned Delhi d. Gujarat
77. Kanha National Park is famous for-
a. Tiger c. Chinkara
b. Elephant d. Mangoose
78. Kanha National Park is located in-
a. Kerala c. Odisha
b. Uttar Pradesh d. Madhya Pradesh
79. Scientific name/Zoological name of Red Panda is-
a. Gazella gazella c. Ailurus fulgens
b. Cervus unicolor d. Platanista gangetica
80. Scientific name/Zoological name of Indian Porcupine is-
a. Hystrix indica c. Vulpes vulpes
b. Selenarctos thibetanus d. Capra hircus
Answers
70. b 71. a 72. d 73. c 74. b 75. d
76. c 77. a 78. d 79. c 80. a
94 t Universal Objective Forestry

81. IUCN ( Now as WCU-World Conservation Union) headquarter is

located in-
a. Bombay c. Morgis
b. Geneva d. Dehra Dun
82. WWF (Worldwide Fund for Nature -1990) headquarter is located in-
a. Gland c. Dehra Dun
b. Bombay d. Geneva
83. Indian Institute of wildlife is situated in-
a. Ned Delhi c. Kolkata
b. Bombay d. Dehra Dun
84. National Biodiversity Authority (NBI) headquarter is located in-
a. Chennai b. Dehra Dun
b. Bombay d. New Delhi
85. Central Zoo authority (CZA) headquarter is located in-
a. Kolkata c. New Delhi
b. Bombay d. Dehra Dun
86. National Biodiversity Board (NBB) is situated in-
a. Haryana c. New Delhi
b. Dehra Dun d. Kerala
87. National Research Centre on Camel is situated in-
a. Jaipur c. Jodhpur
b. Udaipur d. Bikaner
88. World Wildlife Day is celebrated on-
a. 21 March c. 3 March
b. 21 May d. 8 October
89. World Biodiversity Day is celebrated on-
a. 21 March c. 21 May
b. 5 June d. 22 May
90. International Tiger Day is celebrated on-
a. 11 July c. 22 May
b. 29 July d. 5 October
91. World Animal Day is celebrated on-
a. 4 October c. 22 May
b. 5 October d. 21 March
Answers
81. c 82. a 83. d 84. a 85. c 86. c
87. d 88. c 89. d 90. b 91. a
 Wildlife Management t 95

92. World wildlife week is celebrated on-

a. First week of May c. First week of June
b. First week of October d. Second week of October
93. Wildlife Protection Act was enacted in-
a. 1927 c. 1972
b. 1976 d. 1984
94. Wildlife Protection Act contains-
a. 6 chapters, 7 schedules and 66 sections
b. 7 chapters, 6 schedules and 65 sections
c. 6 chapters, 7 schedules and 68 sections
d. 7 chapters, 6 schedules and 66 sections
95. Chapter which deals with preliminary definition of wildlife act is-
a. Chapter i c. Chapter ii
b. Chapter iii d. Chapter iv
96. Authorities to be appointed or constituted under the chapter of WPA-
a. Chapter iii c. Chapter iv
b. Chapter ii d. Chapter vi
97. Hunting of Wild Animals is deal in which chapter of WPA-
a. Chapter vii c. Chapter iv
b. Chapter vi d. Chapter iii
98. Sanctuaries, National Parks and Closed Areas are created under the
chapter of WPA-
a. Chapter iv c. Chapter vi
b. Chapter vii d. Chapter iii
99. Prevention and Detection of Offences is deal in which chapter of
WPA-
a. Chapter iii c. Chapter vi
b. Chapter vi d. Chapter vii
100. Which schedule of WPA deals with Conservation of rare and
endangered species-
a. Schedule i c. Schedule ii
b. Schedule iii d. Schedule vi

Answers
92. b 93. c 94. d 95. a 96. b 97. d
98. a 99. b 100. a
96 t Universal Objective Forestry

101. Which schedule of WPA deals with Special game animals-

a. Schedule iii c. Schedule ii
b. Schedule iv d. Schedule vi
102. Which schedule of WPA deals with Big game animals-
a. Schedule i c. Schedule ii
b. Schedule iii d. Schedule iv
103. Project Lion was started in the year-
a. 1972 c. 1973
b. 1974 d. 1977
104. Project Tiger was started in the year-
a. 1974 c. 1976
b. 1973 d. 1972
105. Project Hangul was started in the year-
a. 1986 c. 1975
b. 1983 d. 1970
106. Crocodile breeding Project was started in the year-
a. 1970 c. 1975
b. 1993 d. 1991
107. Project Elephant was started in the year-
a. 1991 c. 1993
b. 1995 d. 1992
108. Gestation period of Tiger and Whale in days are respectively-
a. 535 and 209 c. 435 and 209
b. 335 and 309 d. 109 and 535
109. Gestation period of Bear and Chimpanzee in days are respectively-
a. 220 and 240 c. 60 and 130
b. 150 and 300 d. 200 and 320
110. Gestation period of deer and Elephant in days are respectively-
a. 120 and 580 c. 201 and 617
b. 150 and 610 d. 150 and 720
111. Gestation period of Leopard and Lion in days are respectively-
a. 120 and 210 c. 150 and 160
b. 150 and 180 d. 93 and 108
Answers
101. c 102. b 103. a 104. b 105. d 106. c
107. a 108. d 109. a 110. c 111. d
 Wildlife Management t 97

112. Gestation period of Rhinoceros and Kangaroo in days are respectively-

a. 450 and 42 c. 550 and 90
b. 450 and 120 d. 650 and 92
113. The Salim Ali Bird sanctuary is located at-
a. Pondicherry c. Thattekad
b. Anakkatti d. Kalakkad
114. Who among the following is commonly called ‘Bird Man of India’-
a. Salim Ali c. M.S. Swaminathan
b. Mohit Husain d. S. K. Singh
115. The inherent ability of organisms to reproduce and multiply is called-
a. Fertilization c. Biotic potential
b. Carrying capacity d. K value
116. The Indian Parliament passed the Biodiversity Bill in the year-
a. 2000 c. 2002
b. 2005 d. 2006
117. The only known breeding colony of greater and lesser Flamingos in
our country is found-
a. The Great Rann of Kutch c. The Thar desert
b. Laddakh desert d. Atacama desert
118. In which year Silent Valley was declared as National Park-
a. 1988 c. 1982
b. 1984 d. 1981
119. The Red Data book which lists endangered species is maintained by-
a. UNO c. BNHS
b. IUCN d. WWF
120. Herpetology is a branch of Science which deals with-
a. Aves c. Mammals
b. Reptiles d. Fishes
121. Bears are usually hunted and killed for their –
a. Teeth c. Skin
b. Gall bladder d. Nails

Answers
112. a 113. c 114. a 115. c 116. c 117. a
118. b 119. b 120. b 121. c
98 t Universal Objective Forestry

122. Coral reefs in India can be seen in-

a. Himalayan region
b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
d. Kerala
123. The only ape found in India is-
a. Gorilla c. Chimpanzee
b. Hoolock gibbon d. Oranguttan
124. Which one is the most endangered species of Indian birds-
a. Pigeon c. Paradise fly catcher
b. Owl d. The great Indian bustard
125. Eravikulam National Park conserves which species-
a. Lion tailed macaque c. Tiger
b. Elephant d. Nilgiri Tahr
126. Name the endangered animal which is protected in Rajamalai
National
a. Park c. Chital
b. Black buck d. Nilgiri Tahr
127. Many wild plant and animals are on the verge of extinction due to-
a. Habitat destruction c. Climate change
b. Scarcity of food d. Hunting
128. The most endangered ecosystem in India is-
a. Shola forest ecosystem c. Evergreen forest ecosystem
b. Pond ecosystem d. Tundra Ecosystem
129. Earth summit of Rio de Janeiro (1992) was made for-
a. Compilation of Red list
b. Conservation of biodiversity
c. Establishment of biosphere reserves
d. Reduced green-house gasses
130. Science which deals with study of birds called-
a. Mammology c. Herpetology
b. Ornithology d. Ichthyology

Answers
122. c 123. b 124. d 125. d 126. d 127. a
128. c 129. b 130. b
 Wildlife Management t 99

131. Science which deals with study of amphibians called-

a. Ichthyology c. Herpetology
b. Ornithology d. Serpentology
132. Science which deals with study of pices called-
a. Ichthyology c. Ornithology
b. Herpetology d. Ophiology
133. Science which deals with study of snakes called-
a. Ornithology c. Herpetology
b. Ichthyology d. Ophiology
134. Science which deals with study of mammals-
a. Ichthyology c. Mammology
b. Herpetology d. Humanology
135. Who is the father of zoology –
a. Aristotle c. Rishabh Dev
b. Theophrastus d. Robert Hook

Answers
131. c 132. a 133. d 134. c 135. a
 Forest Utilization t 101

Chapter 5

Forest Utilization

1. Axes, saws and wedges are the conventional implements used in-
a. Felling c. Conversion
b. Splitting d. All the above
2. The axes are used for-
a. Felling c. Splitting
b. Grubbing d. All the above
3. Axe head carries a socket called-
a. Eye c. Hole
b. Back d. Neck
4. The portion of the iron head infront of the eye is known as-
a. Blade c. Face
b. Gullet d. Back
5. For hardwood blade of an axe should be-
a. Comparatively lighter and thicker than for softwoods
b. Comparatively heavier and thinner than for softwoods
c. Comparatively lighter and thinner than for softwoods
d. Comparatively heavier and thicker than for softwoods
6. The weight of an ordinary felling axe head varies from-
a. 1.7 kg to 1.8 kg c. 0.7 kg to 1.2 kg
b. 0.7 kg to 1.8 kg d. 0.5 kg to 2.8 kg.
7. Generally the weight of the axe is-
a. 1.5 to 2.0 kg c. 1.0 to 2.0 kg
b. 1.5 to 2.5 kg d. 1.0 to 2.5 kg

Answers
1. d 2. d 3. a 4. a 5. c 6. b
7. a
102 t Universal Objective Forestry

8. Which is used for felling bamboo and small poles and for cutting
brushwood-
a. Axe c. Saw
b. Spade d. Bill-hook
9. Saws are used for-
a. Felling c. cross-cutting
b. Ripping d. All the above
10. The great advantage of saws over axes in felling and conversion is-
a. Saw cause much less wastage of wood
b. Saw cause less wastage of wood
c. Saw is cheap than axe
d. Saw is lighter than axe
11. Which one is not the popular kinds of saws used for felling and
conservation-
a. M-tooth saw
b. Raker-tooth saw
c. The triangular or Peg-tooth saw
d. All the above
12. The frame saw is commonly used in-
a. Tropical forest c. Himalaya Forests
b. Deciduous forest d. All the above
13. Edge of the tooth which faces the cutting direction called-
a. Space c. Back
b. Face d. Gullet
14. Distance between two adjacent teeth called-
a. Face c. Gullet
b. Pitch d. Space
15. Entire opening between two adjacent teeth is called-
a. Gauge c. Gullet
b. Pitch d. Kerf
16. Angle tween the face of a toot and the line passing through points of
the teeth called-
a. Pitch c. Gullet
b. Gauge d. Kerf
Answers
8. d 9. d 10. a 11. d 12. c 13. b
14. d 15. c 16. a
 Forest Utilization t 103

17. The thickness of the saw blade called-

a. Gullet c. Kerf
b. Gauge d. Back
18. Width of the saw cut is called-
a. Gauge c. Gullet
b. Kerf d. Pitch
19. The opposite end of the teeth-
a. Back c. Face
b. Pitch d. Gauge
20. Crosscut saw also have triangular shape teeth called-
a. Cutters c. Rakers
b. Trakers d. None
21. Which cut the wood fibres along both sides of the groove during
cutting the log-
a. Rakers c. Trakers
b. Cutters d. All of the above
22. Which one works like a chisel and break off the fibres during cutting
the log-
a. Trakers c. Cutters
b. Rakers d. None
23. The techniques of proper levelling of the saw teeth called-
a. Jointing c. Balancing
b. Sharpening d. Buckling
24. Which is used for splitting logs or fuel billets, and for assisting in the
felling of trees and longitudinal sawing of timber-
a. Axe c. Wedge
b. Saw d. Power chain saw
25. The height of the stumps should be as low as possible and not more
than-
a. 10-20 cm c. 20-30 cm
b. 15-30 cm d. 25-35 cm
26. The standard length of axe handle is-
a. 50 cm c. 75 cm
b. 80 cm d. 90 cm
Answers
17. b 18. b 19. a 20. c 21. b 22. b
23. a 24. c 25. b 26. d
104 t Universal Objective Forestry

27. Bow saw is very useful for a single man cutting logs up to diameter-
a. 20 cm c. 30 cm
b. 40 cm d. 50 cm
28. A meter-long wooden stick made of seasoned timber called-
a. Measuring Pole c. Cantilever
b. Measuring stick d. None
29. The lengths of the standard blades of power saw is-
a. 50-80 cm c. 10-30 cm
b. 50-100 cm d. 30-80 cm
30. The best season for felling is-
a. Rainy season c. Summer season
b. Spring season d. Winter season
31. In the plain and submontane tracts of India, the felling season is start
from-
a. January to April c. November to March
b. October to March d. September to April
32. Tree should be felled as near the-
a. As ground as possible b. At a stumpage height
c. Fluting region d. Buttressing region
33. Tree should be felled from……….on slope or hilly ground-
a. Downhill side c. Uphill side
b. Both side d. None
34. Which is/are not a methods of felling a tree with axes and saws-
a. With the axe alone
b. With the saw alone
c. With the saw and axe combined
d. All of the above
35. The felling cut is made exactly opposite to the-
a. Undercut about 10 to 15 cm above the undercut
b. Undercut about 20 to 25 cm above the undercut
c. Undercut about 15 to 25 cm above the undercut
d. Undercut about 10 to 20 cm above the undercut

Answers
27. a 28. b 29. a 30. d 31. b 32. a
33. c 34. d 35. a
 Forest Utilization t 105

36. The width of undercut should be-

a. One-third of the tree diameter
b. Half of the tree diameter
c. One-fourth of the tree diameter
d. Two-third of the tree diameter
37. Felling by root is always desirable in the case of very valuable trees
such as-
a. Sandal c. Khair
b. Walnut d. All of the above
38. Standard sleeper size of Broad Gauge is-
a. 275 cm × 26 cm × 13 cm c. 183 cm × 21 cm × 12 cm
b. 153 cm × 18 cm × 12 cm d. 153 cm × 16 cm × 11 cm
39. Standard sleeper size of Metre Gauge is-
a. 275 cm × 26 cm × 13 cm c. 183 cm × 21 cm × 12 cm
b. 153 cm × 18 cm × 12 cm d. 153 cm × 16 cm × 11 cm
40. Standard sleeper size of Narrow Gauge is-
a. 275 cm × 26 cm × 13 cm c. 183 cm × 21 cm × 12 cm
b. 153 cm × 18 cm × 12 cm d. 153 cm × 16 cm × 11 cm
41. Standard sleeper size of Light Narrow Gauge is-
a. 275 cm × 26 cm × 13 cm c. 183 cm × 21 cm × 12 cm
b. 153 cm × 18 cm × 12 cm d. 153 cm × 16 cm × 11 cm
42. Total wastage due to all fellings is –
a. 5-10% c. 15-20%
b. 9-14% d. 5-15%
43. Total wastage due to sawing is-
a. 15-20% c. 31-37 %
b. 9-14% d. 5-15%
44. Total wastage due to minor transportation is-
a. 5-6% c. 15-20%
b. 9-14% d. 31-37%
45. Total wastage due to major transportation is-
a. 5-14% c. 31-37%
b. 9-10% d. 3-5%
Answers
36. d 37. d 38. a 39. c 40. b 41. d
42. b 43. c 44. a 45. d
106 t Universal Objective Forestry

46. Total wastage due to all transportation is-

a. 5-14% c. 31-37%
b. 8-11% d. 5-15%
47. Total average wastage due to all wastage-
a. 56% c. 10-47%
b. 20-30 % d. 31-37%
48. The total volume of usable rough timber from the average tree is
only-
a. 37-52% c. 10-47%
b. 9-10% d. 13-25%
49. First of all in India logging work was started by-
a. Mohit Husain and Rohit Kumar
b. Jainil Amiki and Hershberger
c. Dr. A.Huber and A. Koroleff
d. Michel Clerk and Johnson
50. First Logging branch in India was established in June, 1957 in-
a. Forest Research Institute - Dehra Dun during 2nd five year Plan
b. Forest Research Institute - Dehra Dun during 3nd five year Plan
c. Forest Research Institute - Dehra Dun during 4nd five year Plan
d. Forest Research Institute - Dehra Dun during 5nd five year Plan
51. First Logging Training Centre in India was established in 1958-59 at-
a. Bangalore c. Bombay
b. Coimbatore d. Batote
52. Square or rectangular shape having 15 cm under section called-
a. Hakries c. Squares
b. Scantlings d. Poles
53. Wooden slabs having maximum thickness 5 cm is called-
a. Hakries c. Squares
b. Scantlings d. Planks
54. Minor transportation also called as-
a. On road transportation c. Off road transportation
b. Heavy transportation d. All the above

Answers
46. b 47. a 48. a 49. c 50. a 51. d
52. b 53. d 54. c
 Forest Utilization t 107

55. Transportation capacity of a motor truck is generally-

a. 1.5 to 2.5 tons c. 3 to 5 tons
b. 1.5 to 5 tons d. 2.5 to 5.5 tons
56. Which are the methods of water transportation-
a. Floating c. Rafting & booms
b. Wet slides d. All of the above
57. Depots can be classified into-
a. Forest depots c. Transit depots
b. Sale depots d. All of the above
58. Sales of forest produces may be grouped into-
a. Lum-sum sale c. Payment on outturn
b. Hand to hand d. Both a and c
59. Security deposit for auction is……. of total contract value or money-
a. 25% c. 10%
b. 50% d. 20%
60. Forest labour is classified into-
a. Local labour c. Imported labour
b. Forest villages or settlements d. All of the above
61. Cutch (catechu-tannic acid) and katha (catechin) are obtained from
which tree-
a. Acacia catechu c. Acacia nilotica
b. Acacia senegal d. Acacia japonica
62. Cutch (catechu-tannic acid) and katha (catechin) are obtained from
which part of tree-
a. Sapwood c. Heartwood
b. Early wood d. Springwood
63. Kheersal is obtained from the tree-
a. Shorea robusta c. Madhuca latifolia
b. Acacia catechu d. Butea monosperma
64. Which is/are not the extraction method of cutch and katha-
a. Country method c. Modified method
b. Factory method d. All of the above

Answers
55. b 56. d 57. d 58. d 59. c 60. d
61. a 62. c 63. b 64. d
108 t Universal Objective Forestry

65. Cutch yield from the modified method is-

a. 10-20% c. 20-30%
b. 30-40% d. 40-50%
66. Katha yield from modified method by weight of wood is-
a. 1-2% c. 2-3%
b. 3-4% d. 4-5%
67. Katha yield from improved or factory method by weight of wood is-
a. 1-2% c. 2.0—2.5%
b. 3.0-3.5% d. 4.0-4.5%
68. Cutch is soluble in-
a. Cold water c. Hot water
b. Both water d. None
69. Katha is most soluble in-
a. Cold water c. Hot water
b. Both water d. None
70. Which concept is used to extract the katha from hot concentrate
solution of cutch-
a. Water solubility concept c. Density concept
b. Conductivity concept d. All of the above
71. Katha is used in the preparation of-
a. Chewing gum c. Chewing pan
b. Bidi d. Tobacco
72. Paper-making in India was started in the year-
a. 1810 c. 1830
b. 1910 d. 1930
73. The first paper mill in India was established in which state-
a. Assam c. Maharashtra
b. West Bengal d. Uttar Pradesh
74. The present (2015-16) per capita consumption of paper in India and
world are respectively-
a. 4.0 kg and 50.0 kg c. 5.0 kg and 10.0 kg
b. 2.0 kg and 10.0 kg d. 9.0 kg and 60.0 kg

Answers
65. a 66. b 67. d 68. b 69. a 70. a
71. c 72. c 73. b 74. d
 Forest Utilization t 109

75. Which is used as a raw material for making paper-

a. Populus c. Azadirache
b. Mahua d. Bamboo
76. The process of paper making followed how many steps-
a. 4. c. 5
b. 6 d. 8
77. Which process is not a pulping process-
a. Mechanical c. Chemical
b. Semi-chemical d. All the above
78. Which is not a paper making process-
a. Pulping c. Waxing
b. Bleaching d. Stock preparation
79. Which process is not used in stock preparation during paper making-
a. Beating c. sizing
b. Loading d. Filling
80. Isolation of cellulosic fibres from raw materials is called-
a. Pulping c. Cleaning
b. Bleaching d. Sock reparation
81. In single stage bleaching which chemical is used-
a. Calcium hypochlorite (CaOCl2 )
b. Calcium chloride (CaCl2)
c. Calcium oxide (CaO)
d. Chlorine (Cl2)
82. In multi stage bleaching which chemical is used-
a. Calcium hypochlorite (CaOCl2 )
b. Sulphur di oxide (SO2) and Sulphur tri oxide (SO3)
c. Chlorine gas (Cl2) and Chlorine dioxide (ClO2)
d. Calcium chloride (CaCl2) and Calcium oxide (CaO)
83. Thus physical characteristics of paper depends on-
a. Sizing c. Loading
b. Beating d. Colouring

Answers
75. d 76. c 77. d 78. c 79. d 80. a
81. a 82. c 83. b
110 t Universal Objective Forestry

84. The process which is used to making paper more or less impervious
to ink penetration-
a. Sizing c. Loading
b. Beating d. Colouring
85. In sizing process which is used to make paper more or less impervious
to ink penetration-
a. Resin c. Wax
b. Rosin d. Gum
86. The process of addition of non-fibrous mineral matters to improve
the dimensional stability as well as brightness of paper is called-
a. Beating c. Sizing
b. Bleaching d. Loading
87. The substance which are used in the process of loading to improve
the dimensional stability as well as brightness of paper is called-
a. China clay c. Talc powder
b. Both a and c d. Alum
88. Mechanical pulp differs from chemical pulp having which
components in original form-
a. Lignin c. Wood fibres
b. Cellulose d. Both a and c
89. Acidic process also known as-
a. Sulphite process c. Sulphate process
b. Alkaline process d. Soda process
90. Alkaline process also known as-
a. Sulphate process c. Sulphite process
b. Soda process d. Both a and c
91. Which agent is used as cooking agent in acidic process-
a. Calcium sulphate + SO3
b. Calcium bisulphate + SO2
c. Calcium bicarbonate + SO2
d. Calcium carbonate + SO3
92. Which agent is used as cooking agent in alkaline process-
a. Sodium carbonate c. Calcium hydroxide
b. Sodium hydroxide d. Calcium carbonate
Answers
84. a 85. b 86. d 87. b 88. d 89. a
90. d 91. b 92. b
 Forest Utilization t 111

93. Which agent is used as cooking agent in soda (alkaline) process-

a. Calcium hydroxide c. Sodium hydroxide
b. Sodium hydroxide + Na2S d. Sodium hydroxide + SO3
94. Which agent is used as cooking agent in Sulphate (alkaline) process-
a. Calcium hydroxide c. Sodium hydroxide
b. Sodium hydroxide + Na2S d. Sodium hydroxide + SO3
95. Oleo-resins obtained from pines are insoluble in-
a. Benzene c. Alcohol
b. Ether d. Water
96. Turpentine oil (essential oil) and rosin (non-volatile solid) are
obtained from resins by-
a. Distillation c. Filtration
b. Vaporization d. Fermentation
97. The only species regularly tapped for resin in India is-
a. Pinus wallichiana c. Pinus roxburghii
b. Pinus resiana d. Pinus kesiya
98. Total annual resin production in India is about-
a. 28,000 tonnes c. 80,000 tonnes
b. 50,000 tonnes d. 48,000 tonnes
99. Most commonly used resin tapping method is-
a. Cup & lip method c. Rill method
b. Improved method d. Country method
100. Which is/are not a types of resin tapping-
a. Light continuous tapping c. Heavy tapping
b. Moderate taping d. None
101. Most commonly used cup & lip method of tapping also known as-
a. French method c. Improved method
b. Factory method d. German method
102. Light continuous tapping also known as-
a. Living method of tapping c. Tapping to death
b. Indian method of tapping d. German method of tapping

Answers
93. c 94. b 95. d 96. a 97. c 98. d
99. a 100. b 101. a 102. a
112 t Universal Objective Forestry

103. Heavy continuous tapping also known as-

a. German method of tapping c. Tapping to death
b. Indian method of tapping d. French method of tapping
104. In Light continuous tapping tree girth should be above-
a. 0.9 m c. 0.3 m
b. 0.6 m d. 0.5
105. In heavy tapping tree girth should be above-
a. 20 cm c. 50 cm
b. 60 cm d. 100 cm
106. Rill method also called as new method was developed in-
a. FRI c. FSI
b. ICAR d. IUCN
107. Rill methods gives how much percent more resin yields as compare
to cup and lip method-
a. 15% c. 18%
b. 22% d. 25%
108. Crude pine resin consists of two principal constituents a liquid
known as…….and a solid known as………respectively-
a. Turpentine oil and resin c. Rosin and turpentine oil
b. Turpentine oil and rosin d. Rosin and turpentine oil
109. The yield of rosin and turpentine by weight is respectively-
a. 17-20% and 74% c. 30% and 74%
b. 74% and 17-20% d. 20% and 50%
110. Which is/are the major commercial host plants for lac insect in India-
a. Butea monosperma (palas) c. Zizyhus mauritiana (ber)
b. Schleichera oleosa (Kusum) d. All of the above
111. There are two distinct strains of lac insects in India called-
a. Kusumi c. Mausami
b. Rangeeni d. Both a and b
112. Lac producing insect is-
a. Laccifer lacca c. Laccifer mauritiana
b. Laccifer kusumi d. Laccifer monosperma

Answers
103. c 104. a 105. b 106. a 107. b 108. b
109. b 110. d 111. d 112. a
 Forest Utilization t 113

113. Shellac is obtained from lac after how many proper washing-
a. Usually two washing c. Usually four washing
b. Usually three washing d. Usually six washing
114. All Forest Products other than Major Forest Products which
consists of timber, small wood and fuel wood which includes grass,
fruits, leaves barks, animal and mineral products found in forest and
collected from them called-
a. Major forest products c. Timber products
b. Forest products d. Minor forest products
115. A long, narrow pointed end having thick walls & small cavities and
provide rigidity to the plant called-
a. Cell wall c. Microfibrills
b. Fibres d. Companion cells
116. Longest cell in plant body is-
a. Xylem c. Phloem
b. Root d. Fibre
117. The process of separation or extracting of fibres from one another
is called-
a. Ratting c. Swarming
b. Distillation d. Conversion
118. Stem fibre is not obtained from which species-
a. Sterculia villosa c. Grewia tiliaefolia
b. Hardwickia binata d. Musa textilis
119. Leaf fibre is obtained from which species-
a. Caryota urens c. Pandanus species
b. Agave sislana d. All of the above
120. Stem fibre is obtained from which species-
a. Bauhinia vahlii c. Calotropis gigantean
b. Boehmeria nivea d. All of the above
121. Elephant harness rope is made from the fibre of which species-
a. Sterculia villosa c. Grewia tiliaefolia
b. Hardwickia binata d. Bauhinia vahlii

Answers
113. b 114. d 115. b 116. d 117. a 118. d
119. d 120. d 121. a
114 t Universal Objective Forestry

122. Boehmeria nivea fibre also known as-

a. Rhea fibre c. Ramie fibre
b. Both a and c d. Rome fibre
123. Whitish-pink colour fibre is obtained from-
a. Agave sislana c. Caryota urens
b. Sterculia villosa d. Grewia tiliaefolia
124. Flosses is/are obtained from which species-
a. Ceiba patendra c. Bombax ceiba
b. Cochlospermum religiosum d. All of the above
125. Which tree species known as Indian kapok-
a. Ceiba patendra c. Bombax ceiba
b. Calotropis gigantea d. Cochlospermum religiosum
126. Coir fibres are obtained from which species-
a. Ceiba patendra c. Bombax ceiba
b. Cocos nucifera d. Cochlospermum religiosum
127. Coir fibres are obtained from which layer of coconut-
a. Endoderm c. Mesoderm
b. Ectoderm d. Cortex
128. Oils from plants are obtained by which methods-
a. Distillation c. Extraction
b. Fermentation d. Both a and c
129. Palmrosa oil is obtained from which species-
a. Cymbopogon martini c. Cymbopogon Flexosus
b. Cymbopogon nardus d. Cymbopogon nardus
130. Lemon oil is obtained from which species-
a. Cymbopogon martini c. Cymbopogon Flexosus
b. Cymbopogon nardus d. Cymbopogon java
131. Citronella oil is obtained from which species-
a. Cymbopogon martini c. Cymbopogon Flexosus
b. Cymbopogon nardus d. Cymbopogon java
132. Khus oil is obtained from which species-
a. Cymbopogon martini c. Cymbopogon Flexosus
b. Cymbopogon nardus d. Vetiver zizaniodes
Answers
122. b 123. b 124. d 125. c 126. b 127. c
128. d 129. a 130. c 131. b 132. d
 Forest Utilization t 115

133. Ginger oil is obtained from which species-

a. Cymbopogon martini c. Cymbopogon Flexosus
b. Cymbopogon nardus d. Vetiver zizaniodes
134. Geraniol is obtained from which species-
a. Cymbopogon nardus d. Vetiver zizaniodes
b. Cymbopogon martini c. Cymbopogon Flexosus
135. Wood is/are obtained from which species-
a. Santalum album c. Aquilaria agallocha
b. Cedrus deodara d. All of the above
136. Wood oil is/are obtained from which wood of the tree-
a. Sapwood c. Softwood
b. Heartwood d. All of the above
137. Santalol is obtained from which species-
a. Santalum album c. Aquilaria agallocha
b. Cymbopogon nardus d. Vetiver zizaniodes
138. Leaf oil is/are obtained from which species-
a. Pinus c. Eucalyptus
b. Cedrus d. Sandal
139. Which is called as blue gum tree-
a. Acacia nilotica c. Eucalyptus globulus
b. Eucalyptus citriodora d. Acacia catechu
140. Citriodora leaf oil is obtained from which species-
a. Acacia nilotica c. Eucalyptus globulus
b. Eucalyptus citriodora d. Acacia catechu
141. Camphor leaf oil is obtained from which species-
a. Cinnamomum cardamomum c. Mentha arvensis
b. Gaultheria fragrantissima d. Cinnamomum camphora
142. Mint leaf oil is obtained from which species-
a. Cinnamomum cardamomum c. Mentha arvensis
b. Gaultheria fragrantissima d. Cinnamomum camphora
143. Wintergreen oil is obtained from which species-
a. Cinnamomum cardamomum c. Mentha arvensis
b. Gaultheria fragrantissima d. Cinnamomum camphora
Answers
133. a 134. b 135. d 136. b 137. a 138. c
139. c 140. b 141. d 142. c 143. b
116 t Universal Objective Forestry

144. Root oil is/are obtained from which species-

a. Sassuria lappa c. Santalum album
b. Gaultheria fragrantissima d. Cinnamomum camphora
145. Valerian oil is obtained from the rhizome of which species-
a. Sassuria lappa c. Gaultheria fragrantissima
b. Valerian wallichii d. Valerian chinensis
146. Flower oil is/are obtained from which species-
a. Pandanus tectorius c. Accacia farnesiana
b. Michelia champa d. All of the above
147. Keora oil is obtained from which species-
a. Michelia champa c. Accacia farnesiana
b. Pandanus tectorius d. Gaultheria fragrantissima
148. Linaloe oil is obtained from the heartwood of-
a. Bursera delpechiana c. Cedrus deodara
b. Shorea robusta d. Bursera wallichii
149. During carbonization of wood through destructive distillation
method yield of charcoal, tar, acetic acid and alcohol is respectively-
a. 25 percent charcoal, 3% tar, 4-5% acetic acid and 3% alcohol
b. 15 percent charcoal, 6% tar, 1-5% acetic acid and 6% alcohol
c. 20 percent charcoal, 5% tar, 4-9% acetic acid and 2% alcohol
d. 30 percent charcoal, 2% tar, 2-8% acetic acid and 12% alcohol
150. Tung oil is obtained from which species-
a. Aleurites fordii c. Azadirachta indica
b. Madhuca butyracea d. Garcinia indica
151. Margo oil is obtained from which species-
a. Aleurites fordii c. Azadirachta indica
b. Pongamia pinnata d. Schleichera oleosa
152. Phulwara Butter is obtained from which species-
a. Aleurites fordii c. Azadirachta indica
b. Madhuca butyracea d. Garcinia indica
153. Kokam Butter is obtained from which species-
a. Madhuca indica c. Madhuca butyracea
b. Schleichera oleosa d. Garcinia indica
Answers
144. a 145. b 146. d 147. b 148. a 149. a
150. a 151. c 152. b 153. d
 Forest Utilization t 117

154. Chaulmugra is obtained from which species-

a. Aleurites fordii c. Azadirachta indica
b. Hydnocarpus kurzii d. Garcinia indica
155. Mahua Butter is obtained from which species-
a. Madhuca indica c. Madhuca butyracea
b. Hydnocarpus kurzii d. Azadirachta indica
156. Kanju oil is obtained from which species-
a. Pongamia pinnata c. Madhuca indica
b. Hydnocarpus kurzii d. Azadirachta indica
157. Kusum oil is obtained from which species-
a. Vateria indica c. Kadamba chinensis
b. Pongamia pinnata d. Schleichera oleosa
158. Sal Butter is obtained from which species-
a. Tectona grandis c. Pinus species
b. Shorea robusta d. Terminalia arjuna
159. Piney tallow is obtained from which species-
a. Vateria indica c. Valerian chinensis
b. Hydnocarpus kurzii d. Garcinia indica
160. which species fruit produces Japan wax-
a. Rhus succedonea c. Melia azadarach
b. Both a and c d. Hydnocarpus kurzii
161. Hides and skins treated with tannins is called-
a. Plastics c. Leather
b. Raxin d. Thermoplastic
162. Indian tree do not produce-
a. Wood tan c. Resin
b. Gum d. Fruit
163. Myrobalans is mainly obtained from which species-
a. Accacia nilotica c. Terminalia chebula
b. Aleurites fordii d. Azadirachta indica
164. Divi-Divi tans obtained from which species-
a. Ceriops roxburghiana c. Aleurites fordii
b. Caesalpinia coriaria d. Cassia auriculata
Answers
154. b 155. a 156. a 157. d 158. b 159. a
160. b 161. c 162. a 163. c 164. b
118 t Universal Objective Forestry

165. Which species yield tans from the barks-

a. Cassia auriculata c. Terminalia chebula
b. Anogeissus latifolia d. Caesalpinia coriaria
166. Which species yield tans from the fruits-
a. Terminalia bellirica c. Anogeissus latifolia
b. Carissa spinarum d. Ceriops roxburghiana
167. Which species yield tans from the leaves-
a. Anogeissus latifolia c. Terminalia chebula
b. Ceriops roxburghiana c. Aleurites fordii
168. Tannin percent in the young leaves and dry leaves of the Anogeissus
latifolia are respectively-
a. 5% and 16% c. 25% and 30%
b. 55% and 16% d. 18% and 25%
169. Bark of Terminalia arjuna and Ceriops roxburghiana contain tannin
percent respectively-
a. 20-37% and 20-24% c. 20-24% and 20-37%
b. 10-20% and 20-40% d. 20-25% and 50-65%
170. Divi-Divi pods contain tannin percent-
a. 22-40 c. 40-75
b. 30-65 d. 10-40
171. Myrobalans contain tannin percent-
a. 5% c. 15%
b. 10% d. 22%
172. Santalinus dye is obtained from which species-
a. Caesalpinia sappan c. Pterocarpus santalinus
b. Santalum album d. Atrocarpus hetrophyllus
173. Kamela dye is obtained from which species-
a. Bixa orellana c. Nyctanthes arbortristis
b. Mallotus philippensis d. Caesalpinia sappan
174. Annatto dye is obtained from which species-
a. Bixa orellana c. Nyctanthes arbortristis
b. Santalum album d. Atrocarpus hetrophyllus

Answers
165. a 166. a 167. a 168. b 169. c 170. a
171. d 172. c 173. b 174. a
 Forest Utilization t 119

175. Indigo dye is obtained from which species-

a. Lawsonia inermis c. Nyctanthes arbortristis
b. Indigofera species d. Caesalpinia sappan
176. Heena dye is obtained from which species-
a. Lawsonia inermis c. Nyctanthes arbortristis
b. Mallotus philippensis d. Caesalpinia sappan
177. The acacia gums largely known as-
a. Gum Chinese c. Gum arabic
b. Gum Americana d. Indian Gum
178. Acacia gum is obtained from which species-
a. Acacia catechu c. Acacia senegal
b. Acacia nilotica d. Acacia leucocephala
179. Indian gum arabic is obtained from which species-
a. Acacia catechu c. Acacia senegal
b. Acacia leucocephala d. Acacia nilotica
180. True gum arabic is obtained from which species-
a. Acacia leucocephala c. Acacia nilotica
b. Acacia senegal d. Acacia catechu
181. Gum kino is obtained from which species-
a. Lannea coromandelica c. Moringa pterygosperma
b. Pterocarpus marsupium d. Boswellia serrata
182. Katira gum is obtained from which species-
a. Boswellia serrata c. Sterculia urens
b. Lannea coromandelica d. Acacia senegal
183. Jhingan gum is obtained from which species-
a. Lannea coromandelica c. Moringa pterygosperma
b. Anogeissus latifolia d. Bauhinia retusa
184. Salai gum is obtained from which species-
a. Boswellia serrata c. Bauhinia retusa
b. Sterculia urens d. Acacia senegal
185. Dhaura gum is obtained from which species-
a. Boswellia serrata c. Sterculia urens
b. Bauhinia retusa d. Anogeissus latifolia
Answers
175. b 176. a 177. c 178. a 179. d 180. b
181. b 182. c 183. a 184. a 185. d
120 t Universal Objective Forestry

186. Semla gum is obtained from which species-

a. Anogeissus latifolia c. Bauhinia retusa
b. Sterculia urens d. Acacia senegal
187. The gum and resins that exude from cracks or cuts and solidify with
air exposure called-
a. Ral c. Shellac
b. Dammar d. Tannin
188. The true dammar is obtained from which species-
a. Canarium strictum c. Hopea odorata
b. Vateria indica d. Agathis loranthifolius
189. Soft form of Vateria indica (vellapine) resin called as-
a. Piney resin c. Indian copal
b. Dhupa d. All of the above
190. Gum which is not soluble in water but absorb water and swell up
into a mucilaginous mass called-
a. Gum-tetracanth c. Dammar
b. True gum d. Indian copal
191. Black dammar is obtained from which species-
a. Canarium strictum c. Hopea odorata
b. Vateria indica d. Shorea robusta
192. Rock dammar is obtained from which species-
a. Boswellia serrata c. Commiphora mukul
b. Hopea odorata d. Vateria indica
193. White dammar is obtained from which species-
a. Shorea robusta c. Hopea odorata
b. Kingiodendron pinnatum d. Vateria indica
194. Ral dammar is obtained from which species-
a. Hopea odorata c. Boswellia serrata
b. Terminalia arjuna d. Shorea robusta
195. Guggal/salai oleoresin is obtained from which species-
a. Dipterocarpus turbinatus c. Kingiodendron pinnatum
b. Boswellia serrata d. Sterculia urens

Answers
186. c 187. b 188. d 189. d 190. a 191. a
192. b 193. d 194. d 195. b
 Forest Utilization t 121

196. Gurjan oil is obtained from which species-

a. Commiphora mukul c. Dipterocarpus turbinatus
b. Pterocarpus marsupium d. Grewia tiliaefolia
197. Gamboge is obtained from which species-
a. Dipterocarpus turbinatus c. Kingiodendron pinnatum
b. Garcinia morella d. Garcinia uncia
198. Leaves of Butea monosperma are used for making-
a. Bidi c. Platters & Cups
b. Rope d. Dyes
199. Leaves of Diospyros melanoxylon are used for making-
a. Bidi c. Platters & Cups
b. Rope d. Dyes
200. Saponin (substitute of soap) is obtained from-
a. Madhuca indica c. Madhuca latifolia
b. Sapindus emarginatus d. Sapindus mukorossi
201. Bark drugs is/are obtained from which species-
a. Cinchona hybrida c. Holarrhena antidysentrica
b. Soymida febrifuga d. All of the above
202. Root drugs is/are obtained from which species-
a. Rauwolfia serpentine c. Dioscorea deltoidea
b. Acorous calamus d. All of the above
203. Root drugs is/are obtained from which species-
a. Saussuria lappa c. Picrorhiza kurrooa
b. Glycyrhiza glabra d. All of the above
204. Root drugs is/are obtained from which species-
a. Valerian wallichii c. Aconitum species
b. Berberis aristata d. All of the above
205. Laves drugs is/are obtained from which species-
a. Ephedra gerardiana c. Gaultheria fragrantissima
b. Ocimum killimandscharicum d. All of the above
206. Laves drugs is/are obtained from which species-
a. Cannabis sativa c. Atropa acuminata
b. Datura species d. All of the above
Answers
196. c 197. b 198. c 199. a 200. d 201. d
202. d 203. d 204. d 205. d 206. d
122 t Universal Objective Forestry

207. Which is the example of minute structure of the wood-

a. Colour c. Lustre
b. Texture d. Tracheids
208. Which is the example of mechanical property of the wood-
a. Pith c. Vessels or pores
b. Fissibility d. Texture
209. Which is the example of physical property of the wood-
a. Flexibility c. Fissibility
b. Odour d. Elasticity
210. Which is the example of minute structure of the wood-
a. Pith flecks c. Grain
b. Figure d. Hardness
211. Which is the example of mechanical property of the wood-
a. Fibres c. Tracheids
b. Weight d. Hardness
212. Which is the example of physical property of the wood-
a. Grain c. Tylosis
b. Strength d. Fibres
213. Which is/are the example of minute structure of the wood-
a. Pith flecks c. Wood rays
b. Ripple marks d. All of the above
214. The capacity of wood to catch fire and continue to burn until it is
consumed called-
a. Fissibility c. Combustibility
b. Flexibility d. Elasticity
215. Combustibility of wood signifies-
a. Elasticity c. Flexibility
b. Readiness d. Hardness
216. The quantity of heat emitted by a given weight of wood during
combustion process called-
a. Combustibility c. Heating power
b. Calorific value d. Both b and c

Answers
207. d 208. b 209. b 210. a 211. d 212. a
213. d 214. c 215. b 216. d
 Forest Utilization t 123

217. The number of grams of water to raise 10C temperature of 1 gram

wood when completely burn is called-
a. Calorific value c. Specific heart
b. Combustibility d. Oxidation value
218. Calorific value (gram calorie or calories) of deodar wood and babul
wood are respectively-
a. 4070 and 5094 c. 5294 and 4870
b. 4950 and 4948 d. 5264 and 4939
219. Calorific value (gram calorie or calories) of casuarina wood and
axlewood wood are respectively-
a. 4950 and 4948 c. 5245 and 4000
b. 4500 and 4548 d. 5064 and 4738
220. Calorific value (gram calorie or calories) of sal wood and imli wood
are respectively-
a. 4950 and 4948 c. 5264 and 4939
b. 5264 and 4939 d. 5245 and 4000
221. Calorific value (gram calorie or calories) of oak wood is-
a. 3990 c. 4500
b. 5600 d. 3500
222. Which wood is good for fuel purpose-
a. Have less resinous substances
b. Have more resinous substances
c. Have more gummy substances
d. Have less gummy substances
223. Which wood is not a suitable fuel wood for cooking due to its
smokiness-
a. Bamboo wood c. Popular wood
b. Teak wood d. Sissoo wood
224. Any of the various imperfections that can be observed in lumber and
wood products called-
a. Wood Grains c. Wood lustre
b. Wood defects d. Wood quality

Answers
217. a 218. c 219. a 220. b 221. a 222. b
223. b 224. b
124 t Universal Objective Forestry

225. Wood defects arise due to which reasons-

a. Abnormal growth c. Rupture of tissue
b. Normal growth d. Both a and c
226. Which defect is/are the example of abnormal growth-
a. Waviness c. Twisted fibre
b. Knots d. All the above
227. Which defect is/are the example of rupture of tissue-
a. Checks c. Split
b. Shakes d. All of the above
228. Which defect is/are the example of rupture of tissue-
a. Burr c. Interior bark growth
b. Checks d. Constriction due to climber
229. A part of a branch which is embedded in wood called-
a. Node c. Knot
b. Tylosis d. Buttress
230. A portion of branch which is living at the time of its inclusion and
establishes a fibrous connection with the surrounding wood called-
a. Septum c. Clamp connection
b. Live knots d. Dead knots
231. Which knots do not separate when wood dries-
a. Live knots c. Dead knots
b. Both knots d. Fixed knots
232. Dead knots do not have a………with the main stem and reduce the
strength of wood-
a. Clamp connection c. Fibrous connection
b. Connectives tissues d. Septa connection
233. The knots which are detached during seasoning of wood called-
a. Clamp knots c. Live knots
b. Dead knots d. Intermediate Knots
234. Defect caused by fungal attack and decay in wood called as-
a. Decomposition c. Fungal knots
b. Unsoundness d. Cracking

Answers
225. d 226. d 227. d 228. b 229. c 230. b
231. a 232. c 233. b 234. b
 Forest Utilization t 125

235. The most serious fungal defects of wood are-

a. Rots c. Stains
b. Mildew d. Both a and c
236. When the wood grain twisted spirally making an angle 400 with
vertical axis called-
a. Twisted fibre c. Twisted shake
b. Ripple marks d. Flecks
237. When wood fibres shows a wavy appearance instead of true vertical
straight line with main axis called-
a. Burr c. Pith flecks
b. Checks d. Waviness
238. A complex knot formed at the point where dormant bud shows
abnormal growth without developed into branches resulting
formation of concentrated mass around bud called-
a. Burr c. Pith flecks
b. Checks d. Split
239. Separation of fibres forming a cracks or fissure in the piece of wood
not extending to other face or end of wood piece called-
a. Split c. Checks
b. Burr d. Shakes
240. Separation of fibres forming a cracks or fissure in the piece of wood
and extending to other face or end of wood piece called-
a. Waviness c. Split
b. Shakes d. Checks
241. A crack starting from the pith region and extending radially outwards
in the wood called-
a. Heart or star shakes c. Radial shakes
b. Rings-shakes d. All of the above
242. Cracks which start from the periphery and extend radially inward
towards the centre of the wood called-
a. Rings-shakes c. Radial shakes
b. Heart shakes d. Star shakes

Answers
235. d 236. a 237. d 238. a 239. c 240. c
241. a 242. c
126 t Universal Objective Forestry

243. When the cracks follows the direction of annual rings due to
shrinkage of central tissues and looks like as cup called-
a. Cup and rings-shakes c. Cup and radial shakes
b. Cup and star shakes d. Cup and rings-shakes
244. Two main defects in the wood due to fungal attack are-
a. Decay c. Stain
b. Waviness d. Both a and c
245. In which defects fungi attacks only sapwood and responsible for
sapwood discolouration-
a. Decay c. Stain
b. Decomposition d. Unsoundness
246. In which defects fungi attacks on sapwood as well as heartwood and
responsible for wood decomposition-
a. Stain c. Decay
b. Rot d. Mildew
247. Main food of termites is-
a. Carbohydrate c. Cellulose
b. Chitin d. Protein
248. Marine borer which attack on wood surface is/are-
a. Limnoria c. Chelura
b. Sphaeroma d. All the above
249. Which genera of insects also known as shipworms-
a. Tredo c. Bankia
b. Martesia d. All of the above
250. Unlignifierd area in primary cell wall which is responsible for
intercommunication between two adjacent cells known as-
a. Septum c. Pits
b. Plasmodesmata d. Tylosis
251. Features of wood which can be seen with naked eyes or with an
ordinary lens called-
a. Gross features c. Minute features
b. Macro features d. Both a and b

Answers
243. a 244. d 245. c 246. c 247. c 248. d
249. d 250. c 251. d
 Forest Utilization t 127

252. Features of wood which can be seen with compound microscope or

more clear lens called-
a. Minute features c. Gross features
b. Macro features d. None
253. Central portion of the wood called-
a. Xylem c. Phloem
b. Cambium d. Pith
254. The ability of cell wall to reflect the light-
a. Reflectivity c. Emissivity
b. Infiltration d. Lustre
255. The ratio of the weight of material to the weight of an equal volume
of water at 4°C-
a. Specific gravity c. Specific density
b. Specific heat d. Specific weight
256. Specific gravity (gm/cm3) of water is-
a. 0.5 gm/cm3 c. 1.0 gm/cm3
b. 1.5 gm/cm 3
d. 2.0 gm/cm3
257. Moisture content in green timber vary from…….while in air dry
timbers have…………moisture content respectively-
a. 10-100% and 2-11% c. 50-100% and 6-25%
b. 70-215% and 4-15% d. 50-200% and 8-15%
258. Density of the very light timber is-
a. 100 kg/m3 c. 200 kg/m3
b. 300 kg/m3 d. 400 kg/m3
259. Density of the light timber is-
a. 101-250 kg/m3 c. 201-350 kg/m3
b. 301-450 kg/m3 d. 401-650 kg/m3
260. Density of the moderately heavy timber is-
a. 201-350 kg/m3 c. 451-600 kg/m3
b. 301-450 kg/m3 d. 401-650 kg/m3
261. Density of the heavy timber is-
a. 401-850 kg/m3 c. 101-350 kg/m3
b. 501-750 kg/m 3
d. 601-800 kg/m3
Answers
252. a 253. d 254. d 255. a 256. c 257. d
258. b 259. b 260. c 261. d
128 t Universal Objective Forestry

262. Density of the very heavy timber is-

a. 801-950 kg/m3 c. 501-750 kg/m3
b. 401-850 kg/m 3
c. 501-950 kg/m3
263. Density of the extremely heavy timber is-
a. > 600 kg/m3 c. > 700 kg/m3
b. > 800 kg/m 3
d. > 900 kg/m3
264. The alignment of cells or direction of fibres regards to vertical axis
of the stem is called-
a. Lustre c. Grain
b. Pith d. Shakes
265. The arrangement of cells according their size in unit volume of
wood is called-
a. Grain c. Lustre
b. Texture d. Figure
266. The distinctive pattern produce on longitudinal surface of timber
due to alignment of tissues and direction of the grain is called-
a. Fissure c. Texture
b. Shake d. Figure
267. Which is/are the example of extremely hard wood species-
a. Schleichera oleosa c. Mesua ferrea
b. Shorea robusta d. All of the above
268. Which is/are the example of very elastic wood species-
a. Grewia tiliaefolia c. Anogeissus latifolia
b. Mesua ferrea d. All of the above
269. Which is/are the example of extremely soft wood species-
a. Bombax ceiba c. Cryptomeria japonica
b. Both a and c d. Syzygium cuminii
270. Which is exceptionally hard wood species-
a. Tectona grandis c. Bombax ceiba
b. Picea smithiana d. Mesua ferrea
271. The capacity of wood to bend out of shape freely without rupture is
called-
a. Elasticity c. Flexibility
b. Fissibility d. Fissility

Answers
262. a 263. d 264. c 265. b 266. d 267. d
268. d 269. b 270. d 271. c
 Forest Utilization t 129

272. The capacity of wood to regain its original shape after the stress has
produced deformation called-
a. Fissibility c. Fissility
b. Elasticity d. Flexibility
273. The capacity of wood to split along the fibre during conversion of
wood with axe or a wedge is called-
a. Fissility c. Fissibility
b. Flexibility d. both a and c
274. The process of removal of excess moisture present in timber in its
green state is called-
a. Conversion c. Wood seasoning
b. Wood preservation d. Wood kilning
275. Which methods is/are used in horizontal stacking during wood
seasoning-
a. One in nine method c. Close rib method
b. Open rib method d. All of the above
276. During wood seasoning by horizontal stacking method woods are
kept at the height from the ground-
a. 30-45 cm c. 10-25 cm
b. 20-35 cm d. 50-100 cm
277. Woods which require protection against rapid seasoning otherwise
it will cause defects-
a. Highly refractory wood c. Moderately refractory wood
b. Non refractory wood d. Refractory wood
278. Woods which require little protection against during rapid seasoning
called-
a. Highly refractory wood c. Moderately refractory wood
b. Non refractory wood d. Refractory wood
279. Woods which are seasoned rapidly without getting any defects
during seasoning called-
a. Non refractory wood d. Refractory wood
b. Highly refractory wood c. Moderately refractory wood

Answers
272. b 273. d 274. c 275. d 276. a 277. a
278. c 279. a
130 t Universal Objective Forestry

280. Which is/are the example of refractory wood species-

a. Shorea robusta c. Terminalia alata
b. Hopea odorata d. All of the above
281. Which is/are the example of moderately refractory wood species-
a. Tectona grandis c. Dalbergia sissoo
b. Anogeissus latifolia d. All of the above
282. Which is/are the example of non-refractory wood species-
a. Boswellia serrata c. Populus deltoides
b. Trewia nudifolia d. All of the above
283. Required drying period for drying the Highly refractory wood-
a. 6 month for 2.5 cm thickness c. 12 month for 5.0 cm thickness
b. 4 month 2.5 cm thickness d. Both a and c
284. Required drying period for drying the moderately refractory wood-
a. 4 month for 2.5 cm thickness c. 9 month for 5.0 cm thickness
b. 12 month 2.5 cm thickness d. Both a and c
285. Required drying period for drying the non-refractory wood-
a. 2 month for 2.5 cm thickness c. 4 month for 5.0 cm thickness
b. 4 month 2.5 cm thickness d. Both a and c
286. Required drying period for drying the railway sleepers wood is-
a. 6-12 month c. 10-15 month
b. 12-24 month d. 15-30 month
287. The process of improvement wood’s natural durability by treatment
with chemicals that are toxic to insects, fungi and other decaying
agents called-
a. Wood preservation c. Wood seasoning
b. Wood durability d. Wood protection
288. Wood preservatives are classified into how many categories-
a. Oil types c. Water soluble types
b. Organic solvent types d. All of the above
289. The chemicals that are applied to woods to make it resistant to attack
by the different decay agents called-
a. Wood coating c. Wood finisher
b. Wood preservatives d. Wood shiner
Answers
280. d 281. d 282. d 283. d 284. d 285. d
286. b 287. a 288. d 289. b
 Forest Utilization t 131

290. Which is the example of oil types wood preservatives-

a. Borax c. Copper napthalate
b. ZnSO4 d. Creosote
291. Which is/are the example of organic solvent type wood preservatives-
a. PCP c. Lindane
b. Copper quinolate d. All of the above
292. Which is/are the example of water soluble type wood preservatives-
a. CCA c. ASCU
b. ACC d. All of the above
293. Which is/are the example of non-fixed water soluble type wood
preservatives-
a. Creosote c. Coal tar
b. CCF d. PCP
294. Which is/are the example of fixed water soluble type wood
preservatives-
a. Zn Meta Arsenate (ZMA)
b. Acid Cu-Chromate (ACC)
c. Ammonical Cu-Chromate (ACA)
d. All of the above
295. Which types of wood preservatives is not suitable for indoor works-
a. Oil types c. Water soluble types
b. Organic solvent types d. All of the above
296. Which types of wood preservatives is not suitable for outdoor works-
a. Organic solvent types c. Water soluble types
b. Oil types d. None
297. Which types of wood preservatives are most effectives against borer,
marine organisms and termites-
a. Organic solvent types c. Water soluble types
b. Oil types d. All of the above
298. Which types of wood preservatives are most effectives against fungi
and other microbes-
a. Organic solvent types c. Water soluble types
b. Oil types d. None
Answers
290. d 291. d 292. d 293. b 294. d 295. a
296. c 297. b 298. a
132 t Universal Objective Forestry

299. The water which is present in the cavity of the wood cell called-
a. Wood water c. Bound water
b. Free water d. Capillary water
300. The water which is held within the cells of the wood by hydrogen
bonding called-
a. Bound water c. Wood water
b. Free water d. Hydrogenated water
301. There are how many methods of wood seasoning-
a. Two c. Three
b. Four d. Five
302. Which is/are not a method of wood seasoning-
a. Air seasoning c. Kiln seasoning
b. Heat seasoning d. Both a and c
303. The drying of wood with the help of air and sunlight is called-
a. Heat seasoning c. Sunlight seasoning
b. Air seasoning d. Kiln seasoning
304. The process of air tight, thermal proof, enclosed chamber with
provision for controlling temperature, air circulation and humidity
of seasoning is called-
a. Thermal seasoning c. Controlled seasoning
b. Air seasoning d. Kiln seasoning
305. Which is/are not the constituents of water soluble preservatives-
a. As2O5 c. CuSO4
b. Na/K Cr2O7 d. All of the above
306. Which is/are not the constituents of ASCU wood preservatives-
a. As2O5 c. CuSO4
b. Na/K Cr2O7 d. All of the above
307. Which is/are not the constituents of ASCU-boric wood preservatives-
a. Na/K Cr2O7 c. CuSO4
b. Boric acid d. As2O5
308. Celcure is a type of wood preservative-
a. Water soluble c. Organic solvent types
b. Oil types d. Inorganic solvent types
Answers
299. b 300. a 301. a 302. d 303. b 304. d
305. d 306. d 307. d 308. a
 Forest Utilization t 133

309. Vertical stacking is used only for the rapid surface drying of certain
species of-
a. Highly refractory wood c. Moderately refractory wood
b. Non refractory wood d. Refractory wood
310. Wood preservation on scientific and modern basis was introduced
in India by-
a. Sir Ralph Pearson c. Sir George Joseph
b. Bilal A. Lone d. Sir Albert Einstein
311. Wood preservation on scientific and modern basis was introduced in
India in the year-
a. 1920 c. 1906
b. 1910 d. 1908
312. Osmose process and hot & cold process are applied in-
a. Soaking method c. Steeping method
b. Diffusion method d. Heating and cooling method
313. Which is/are a non-pressure method of wood preservation-
a. Sap displacement method c. Soaking
b. Steeping d. All of the above
314. Which is/are a pressure method of wood preservation-
a. Full cell process c. Empty cell process
b. Lowry process d. All of the above
315. Which is/are a pressure method of wood preservation-
a. Heating and cooling method c. Diffusion
b. Rueping process d. Sap displacement method
316. Which method is only suitable for preservation of green timber-
a. Steeping c. Soaking
b. Diffusion d. Heating and cooling
317. Which method is suitable for preservation of green round timber &
bamboo-
a. Sap displacement method c. Steeping method
b. Soaking method d. Heating and cooling method

Answers
309. b 310. a 311. d 312. a 313. d 314. d
315. b 316. b 317. a
134 t Universal Objective Forestry

318. Which method is suitable for preservation of dry as well as green

woods-
a. Soaking method c. Heating and cooling method
b. Sap displacement method d. Steeping method
319. Full cell process of wood preservation is applied at a pressure-
a. 1.50 to 10 kg/cm2 c. 2.50 to 15 kg/cm2
b. 3.50 to 12 kg/cm 2
d. 5.0 to 10 kg/cm2
320. In which pressure method of wood preservation maximum
penetration is obtained with minimum absorption of preservatives-
a. Rueping process c. Empty cell process
b. Lowry process d. Full cell process
321. In which pressure method of wood preservation no need to create
initial vacuum for applying preservatives-
a. Lowry process c. Full cell process
b. Rueping process d. Empty cell process
322. Rueping process of wood preservation is applied at a pressure-
a. 1.50 to 10 kg/cm2 c. 3.50 to 15 kg/cm2
b. 3.50 to 12 kg/cm2 d. 5.0 to 12 kg/cm2
323. Which is/are the method of transportation of woods-
a. Water transportation c. Land transportation
b. Overhead transportation d. All of the above
324. Water transportation is extensively used in the-
a. Coniferous forest of S-W Himalayan
b. Coniferous forest of S-E Himalayan
c. Coniferous forest of N-E Himalayan
d. Coniferous forest of N-W Himalayan
325. Water transportation of woods include-
a. Floating c. Rafting & boom
b. Wetslides d. All of the above
326. Which is/are not the floating method of wood transportation-
a. Telescopic floating c. River floating
b. Free floating d. All of the above

Answers
318. a 319. b 320. c 321. a 322. d 323. d
324. d 325. d 326. d
 Forest Utilization t 135

327. River floating method of wood transportation also called as-

a. Sweeping c. Free floating
b. Both d. None
328. In which method of transportation of wood pathru is used-
a. Telescopic floating c. Free floating
b. River floating d. Sweeping
329. Which methods is only used in the hilly forest of N-W Himalayan
for wood transportation-
a. Wetslides c. Rafting & boom
b. Telescopic floating d. All of the above
330. The average distance covered daily in the floating operations is-
a. 1-2 kilometres c. 2-3 kilometres
b. 3-4 kilometres d. 4-5 kilometres
331. Floating method of wood transportation is used to transport the
woods a distance upto-
a. 10-20 kilometres c. 50-100 kilometres
b. 100-200 kilometres d. 200-250 kilometres
332. A quantity of woods firmly bound together is termed as-
a. Culm c. Clump
b. Raft section d. Boom
333. The process of woods firmly bound together is termed as-
a. Floating c. Clumping
b. Rafting d. Preserving
334. The average distance covered in the rafting operations per day is-
a. 10-20 kilometres c. 20-50 kilometres
b. 40-60 kilometres d. 100-200 kilometres
335. Rafting method of wood transportation is mostly used n –
a. Summer season c. Spring season
b. Rainy season d. Winter season
336. The rafts are classified into how many categories-
a. Two c. Three
b. Four d. Five

Answers
327. b 328. a 329. b 330. c 331. b 332. b
333. b 334. b 335. d 336. c
136 t Universal Objective Forestry

337. Which is/are not a raft classification-

a. Log rafts c. Sawn timber rafts
b. Bamboo rafts d. All of the above
338. Logs rafts contains…….sections and each section contains……..
logs respectively-
a. 6-10 sections and 16-20 logs c. 10-20 sections and 16-20 logs
b. 5-15 sections and 16-20 logs d. 6-10 sections and 10-20 logs
339. The average number of logs in a log raft is-
a. 50-200 logs c. 100-200 logs
b. 96-200 logs d. 150-200 logs
340. The average number of bamboos in a bamboo raft is-
a. 2000 c. 5000
b. 1000 d. 10000
341. How many culms are present in a bamboo raft during transportation-
a. 10-100 culms c. 20-100 culms
b. 40-100 culms d. 50-100 culms
342. Boom is a Dutch word which means-
a. Floating obstruction c. Free floating
b. Pathru floating d. Floating Channel
343. How many types of booms-
a. Two c. Three
b. Four d. Five
344. Single-arm boom also known as-
a. One-way boom c. Two-way boom
b. V-shape boom d. T- shaped boom
345. Two-way boom also known as-
a. V-shape boom c. I-shape boom
b. T-shape boom d. X-shape boom
346. Single-arm or one-way boom is attached permanently at its-
a. Upper ends c. Lower ends
b. Middle d. Corners
347. Single-arm or one-way boom guy ropes always attached at an angle
to the boom-
a. 30° c. 45°
b. 60° d. 90°
Answers
337. d 338. a 339. b 340. d 341. d 342. a
343. a 344. a 345. a 346. a 347. d
 Forest Utilization t 137

348. The arms of two-way or V-shape boom incline at an angle to the

apex on the downstream side-
a. 30° c. 45°
b. 60° d. 90°
349. Boom proper and log line or line dori are used in which boom-
a. One-way boom c. Single-arm boom
b. T-shape boom d. Both a and c
350. The general term for built up bonded product consisting either
wholly of natural woods or of wood in combination with metals,
plastics etc. is-
a. Composite wood c. Plywood
b. Compressed wood d. Compregnated wood
351. Glued wood made up of veneers in such a manner that grain of each
veneer is at right angle to that adjacent veneer in the assembly is
called-
a. Laminated wood c. Plywood
b. Compressed wood d. Improved wood
352. The outer face of plywood is called-
a. Face c. Back
b. Core d. Cross bands
353. The centre face of plywood is called-
a. Cross bands c. Back
b. Core d. Face
354. The numbers of veneers in a plywood is always-
a. Even numbers c. Odd numbers
b. Both d. None
355. In a plywood panels having more than three plies, the layers between
the core and the face or back are called-
a. Gullet c. Kerf
b. Cross bands d. Parallel bands
356. The simplest structure of plywood has ply number-
a. 3 c. 5
b. 7 d. 9
Answers
348. c 349. d 350. a 351. c 352. a 353. b
354. c 355. b 356. a
138 t Universal Objective Forestry

357. The maximum length of logs used in plywood is about-

a. 155-200 cm c. 185-250 cm
b. 200-280 cm d. 255-280 cm
358. The pressing of glued coated veneers in plywood is done at a pressure-
a. 5-10 kg/cm2 c. 7-18 kg/cm2
b. 10-15 kg/cm 2
d. 15-25 kg/cm2
359. Moisture content in plywood is bring upto-
a. 10% c. 12%
b. 15% d. 25%
360. The grains direction in laminated wood is-
a. Parallel to adjacent veneer
b. Antiparallel to adjacent veneer
c. Perpendicular to adjacent veneer
d. Diagonally to adjacent veneer
361. The grains direction in core boards is-
a. Parallel to adjacent veneer
c. Diagonally to adjacent veneer
b. Antiparallel to adjacent veneer
d. Perpendicular to adjacent veneer
362. The glue laminated wood is called as-
a. Gallium c. Glulam
b. Lamina d. Lamin
363. A core board has width 7.5 cm called as-
a. Batten board c. Block-board
b. Lamin board d. Hardboard
364. A core board has width not more than 2.5 cm called as-
a. Lamin board c. Hardboard
b. Batten board d. Block-board
365. A core board has width less than 7.0 mm called as-
a. Block-board c. Lamin board
b. Hardboard d. Batten board
366. The thin faces of sandwich board called as-
a. Face c. Back
b. Core d. Skins
Answers
357. d 358. c 359. c 360. a 361. d 362. c
363. a 364. d 365. c 366. d
 Forest Utilization t 139

367. Fibre boards are classified into how many categories-

a. Three c. Four
b. Five d. Six
368. Which is not a types of fibre board-
a. Hard board c. Soft hardboard
b. Medium hardboard d. Batten board
369. Which is/are not the examples of particles boards-
a. Chip-boards c. Flake boards
b. Shaving boards d. Lamin board
370. Improved wood also known as-
a. Modified wood c. Composite wood
b. Laminated wood d. Plywood
371. Improved wood may be classified into how many categories-
a. Three c. Four
b. Five d. Six
372. Which is/are not a type of improved wood-
a. Impregnated wood c. Heat stabilized wood
b. Compressed wood d. Laminated wood
373. Which is/are not a type of improved wood-
a. Composite wood
b. Heat stabilized compressed wood
c. Compregnated wood
d. Chemically modified wood
374. Veneers treated with a thermosetting fibre penetrating resin called as-
a. Impreg c. Compreg
b. Lamin d. All of the above
375. Compressed wood can be made either from solid wood or laminate
wood by applying pressure at-
a. 10-20 kg/cm2 c. 50-100 kg/cm2
b. 90-140 kg/cm2 d. 100-150 kg/cm2
376. Compregnated wood is highly resistance to-
a. Solvents c. Termites
b. Insects d. All of the above
Answers
367. c 368. d 369. d 370. a 371. d 372. d
373. a 374. a 375. b 376. a
140 t Universal Objective Forestry

377. Compregnated wood has how many times more hardness as compare
to normal wood-
a. 5-10 times c. 10-15 times
b. 10-20 times d. 20-25 times
378. Compregnated wood is an excellent materials for-
a. Railway sleepers c. Aeroplane propeller blades
b. Particle board d. Core boards

Answers
377. b 378. c
 Plant and Wood Anatomy t 141

Chapter 6

Plant and Wood Anatomy

1. The branch of botany which deals with the study of internal structures
and organization of plants or plant organs called-
a. Plant anatomy b. Plant physiology
c. Plant taxonomy d. Histology
2. Who is the father of plant anatomy-
a. Dharmendra Kumar b. N. Grew
c. J. C. Bose d. Habellandt
3. Father of Indian plant anatomy is-
a. A. K. Chaudhary b. Mohit Husain
c. K. A. Chaudhary d. Naseer A. Mir
4. A group of cells which is similar or dissimilar in shape, having a
common origin and usually perform a common function is called-
a. Organs b. Cells
c. Tissue d. Systems
5. Term tissue was coined by-
a. Karl Nageli b. N. Grew
c. K. C. Mehta d. Amerjeet Singh
6. The meristems which occurs at the tips of roots and shoots and
produce primary tissues are called-
a. Apical meristems b. Lateral meristem
c. Intercalary meristem d. None
7. Which meristematic tissues are responsible for increase in the length
of plants organs-
a. Intercalary meristem b. Lateral meristem
c. Apical meristems d. None
Answers
1. a 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. b 6. a
7. c
142 t Universal Objective Forestry

8. The meristems which are occurs between mature tissue is called-

a. Apical meristems b. Lateral meristem
c. Intercalary meristem d. Cambium
9. Intra fascicular or fascicular cambium occurs inside the vascular
bundles-
a. Apical meristem b. Cortex
c. Vascular bundles d. All of the above
10. Apical cell theory was given by-
a. Hanstein b. Schmidt
c. Newman d. Karl Nageli & Hofmeister
11. The cells of permanent tissues are composed of-
a. Live cells b. Dead cells
c. Immature cells d. Both a and b
12. Histogen theory was given by-
a. Hanstein b. Schmidt
c. Newman d. Popham & Chan
13. Phellem, phellogen and phelloderm are collectively called as-
periderm-
a. Cork cambium c. Cortex
c. Periderm d. Bark
14. Tunica corpus theory was given by-
a. Schuepp b. Schmidt
c. Newman d. Popham & Chan
15. Simple tissues are classified into-
a. Three b. Four
c. Five d. Six
16. Which is/are an example of complex tissue-
a. Parenchyma b. Collenchyma
c. Sclerenchyma d. Phloem
17. Mantle core theory was given by-
a. Popham & Chan b. Schmidt
c. Newman d. Karl Nageli & Hofmeister

Answers
8. c 9. c 10. d 11. d 12. a 13. c
14. b 15. a 16. d 17. a
 Plant and Wood Anatomy t 143

18. Which is/are an example of simple tissue-

a. Parenchyma b. Collenchyma
c. Sclerenchyma d. All of the above
19. Korper-Kappe theory was given by-
a. Schuepp b. Schmidt
c. Newman d. Popham & Chan
20. Which tissue provides buoyancy to hydrophytes-
a. Cholerenchyma b. Aerenchyma
c. Prosenchyma d. Mucilage parenchyma
21. Which is universal tissue in plants-
a. Cholerenchyma b. Aerenchyma
c. Prosenchyma d. Parenchyma
22. The main function of storage of food is-
a. Sclerenchyma b. Collenchyma
c. Parenchyma d. Phloem
23. Which tissue provide mechanical strength to the plant-
a. Sclerenchyma b. Collenchyma
c. Parenchyma d. Both a and b
24. Which tissue provide main mechanical strength to the plant-
a. Sclerenchyma b. Collenchyma
c. Parenchyma d. Xylem
25. Term parenchyma was coined by-
a. Mettenius b. Schleiden
c. Robert Hook d. N. Grew
26. Term collenchyma was coined by-
a. Linnaeus b. Schleiden
c. Robert Hook d. Aristotle
27. Term sclerenchyma was coined by-
a. Mettenius b. Schleiden
c. Hugo de Varies d. N. Grew
28. Xylary fibres or wood fibres are hard fibres and obtained from-
a. Phloem b. Xylem
c. Cortex d. Pericycle
Answers
18. d 19. a 20. b 21. d 22. c 23. d
24. a 25. d 26. b 27. a 28. b
144 t Universal Objective Forestry

29. Bast fibres or extra xylary fibres are also known as-
a. Phloem fibre b. Commercial fibre
c. Pericycle fibre d. All of the above
30. Cotton fibres are composed of-
a. Protein c. Lipid
c. Cellulose d. Lignin
31. Xylem and phloem collectively called as-
a. Connective tissue b. Ground tissue
c. Vascular tissue d. Mechanical tissue
32. Which is/are the example of complex tissues-
a. Parenchyma b. Collenchyma
c. Phloem d. Sclerenchyma
33. Term xylem was coined by-
a. Haberlandt b. Schleiden
c. Hugo de Varies d. Nageli
34. Term xylem was coined by-
a. Robert Hook b. Schleiden
c. Nageli d. J. C. Bose
35. Which is/are not an element of xylem-
a. Tracheids b. Vessels
c. Xylem parenchyma d. Companion cells
36. Which is/are not an element of phloem-
a. Sieve cells b. Phloem fibres
c. Vessels d. Sieve tubes
37. Which is the only living element of xylem-
a. Xylem parenchyma b. Vessels
c. Tracheids d. Xylem fibres
38. Which is the only dead element of phloem-
a. Sieve cells b. Phloem fibres
c. Companion cells d. Phloem parenchyma
39. The main function of xylem is-
a. Conduction of food materials from roots to shoots
b. Conduction of food materials from shoots to roots
c. Conduction of water & minerals salts from roots to shoots
d. Conduction of water & minerals salts from shoots to roots

Answers
29. d 30. c 31. c 32. c 33. d 34. c
35. d 36. c 37. a 38. b 39. c
 Plant and Wood Anatomy t 145

40. The main function of phloem is-

a. Conduction of food materials from roots to shoots
b. Conduction of food materials from shoots to roots
c. Conduction of water & minerals salts from roots to shoots
d. Conduction of water & minerals salts from shoots to roots
41. Which are the primitive conducting elements of xylem in plants-
a. Tracheids b. Vessels
c. Sieve tube d. Companion cells
42. The maximum bordered piths are found in the tracheids of-
a. Angiosperms b. Bryophytes
c. Gymnosperms d. Pteridophytes
43. Which is work as a pipe line during conduction of water in plants-
a. Vessels b. Sieve tube
c. Tracheids d. Xylem fibres
44. Tracheids and vessels are collectively known as-
a. Hadrom c. Laptom
c. Trichome d. Holard
45. Term hadrom was given by-
a. Robert Hook b. Schleiden
c. Nageli d. Haberlandt
46. Term totipotency was given by-
a. Nageli b. Haberlandt
c. Schleiden d. J. C. Bose
47. Formation of whole individual from a single cell called-
a. Regeneration b. Vegetation
c. Totipotency d. All of the above
48. Sieve elements was discovered by-
a. Haberlandt b. Hartwig
c. Nageli d. Hartig
49. Companion cells are found only in which plants-
a. Bryophytes b. Pteridophytes
c. Gymnosperms d. Angiosperms

Answers
40. b 41. a 42. c 43. a 44. a 45. d
46. b 47. c 48. d 49. d
146 t Universal Objective Forestry

50. The conducting elements of phloem is termed as-

a. Hadrom b. Laptom
c. Trichome d. Holard
51. Term laptom was given by-
a. Nageli b. Haberlandt
c. Schleiden d. J. C. Bose
52. When the xylem and phloem are present separately on different radii
in alternate manner called-
a. Concentric vascular bundles b. Conjoint vascular bundles
c. Radial vascular bundles d. Bicollateral vascular bundles
53. When the xylem and phloem are present on same radius called-
a. Concentric vascular bundles b. Conjoint vascular bundles
c. Radial vascular bundles d. Bicollateral vascular bundles
54. When the xylem and phloem are present separately on different radii
in alternate manner called-
a. Exarch b. Endarch
c. Mesarch d. None
55. When the xylem and phloem are present on same radius called-
a. Exarch b. Endarch
c. Mesarch d. None
56. Exarch vascular bundles are found in-
a. Stem b. Roots
c. Both d. None
57. Endarch vascular bundles are found in-
a. Stem b. Roots
c. Both d. None
58. When cambium is absent between the xylem and phloem it is called
as-
a. Exarch vascular bundles b. Endarch vascular bundles
c. Open vascular bundles d. Closed vascular bundles
59. When cambium is present between the xylem and phloem it is
termed as-
a. Endarch vascular bundles b. Exarch vascular bundles
c. Open vascular bundles d. Closed vascular bundles
Answers
50. b 51. b 52. c 53. b 54. a 55. b
56. b 57. a 58. d 59. c
 Plant and Wood Anatomy t 147

60. Closed vascular bundles are found in-

a. Monocotyledon b. Dicotyledons
c. Bryophytes d. Pteridophytes
61. Open vascular bundles are found in-
a. Monocotyledon b. Dicotyledons
c. Gymnosperm d. Both b and c
62. Conjoint Bicollateral and open vascular bundles are found in stems
of-
a. Malvaceae c. Compositae
c. Cucurbitaceae d. Lamiaceae
63. The whole central mass of vascular tissue with or without pith
surrounded by endodermis is called as-
a. Periderm b. Cortex
c. Pericycle d. Stele
64. Stele concept was given by-
a. Van Tieghem and Duoliot b. Nageli and Haberlandt
c. Robert hook and Michel Clerk d. Von Erich and Duoliot
65. Which is the most primitive types of stele in plants-
a. Plecto stele b. Protostele
c. Eustele d. Dictyostele
66. Which is the most advance types of stele in plants-
a. Siphonostele b. Atactostele
c. Eustele d. Dictyostele
67. In dicot stem cortex is divided into-
a. Hypodermis b. General cortex
c. Endodermis d. All of the above
68. Pith is well developed in-
a. Monocot roots and dicot stems b. Monocot stems and dicot roots
c. Dicot roots and dicot stems d. Dicot roots and monocot roots
69. Casparian strips are found in the endodermis of-
a. Monocot roots b. Dicot roots
c. Monocot stems d. Dicot stems

Answers
60. a 61. d 62. c 63. d 64. a 65. b
66. b 67. d 68. a 69. b
148 t Universal Objective Forestry

70. Pith is less developed or absent in-

a. Monocot roots and dicot stems
b. Dicot roots and dicot stems
c. Monocot stems and dicot roots
d. Dicot roots and monocot roots
71. The central region of secondary xylem which is dark in colour called-
a. Heartwood b. Sapwood
c. Alburnum d. Pith
72. The peripheral region of secondary xylem which is light in colour
called-
a. Heartwood b. Duramen
c. Alburnum d. Pith
73. Alburnum and duramen respectively also known as-
a. Heartwood and Sapwood b. Sapwood and heartwood
c. Soft wood and hardwood d. Hardwood and softwood
74. The function of heart wood is-
a. Provide mechanical strength to the stem
b. Conduction of water and minerals
c. Both a and b
d. Provide path to ray parenchyma
75. The function of sap wood is-
a. Provide mechanical strength to the stem
b. Conduction of water and minerals
c. Both a and b
d. Provide insect and pest resistance
76. Manoxylic or soft woods found in-
a. Bryophytes b. Pteridophytes
c. Gymnosperms d. Angiosperms
77. A wood which has more amount of living parenchyma is called-
a. Pycnoxylic wood b. Manoxylic wood
c. Apotracheal wood d. Paratracheal wood
78. A wood which has less amount of living parenchyma is called-
a. Pycnoxylic wood b. Manoxylic wood
c. Apotracheal wood d. Paratracheal wood
Answers
70. c 71. a 72. c 73. b 74. a 75. b
76. c 77. b 78. a
 Plant and Wood Anatomy t 149

79. A wood in which vessels are absent is called-

a. Non porous wood b. Porous wood
c. Hardwood d. Both b and c
80. A wood in which vessels are present is called-
a. Non porous wood b. Porous wood
c. Hardwood d. Both b and c
81. A wood in which vessels are arranged asystematically called-
a. Diffused non porous woods b. Ring porous woods
c. Diffused porous woods d. Ring non porous woods
82. A wood in which vessels are arranged in the form of ring called-
a. Diffused non porous woods b. Ring porous woods
c. Diffused porous woods d. Ring non porous woods
83. Ring porous woods are found in-
a. Tropical tree b. Subtropical tree
c. Temperate tree d. Alpine tree
84. Diffused porous woods are found in-
a. Tropical tree b. Subtropical tree
c. Temperate tree d. Alpine tree
85. Normally secondary growth takes place in roots and stems of-
a. Monocot & Gymnosperms b. Dicot & Gymnosperms
c. Monocot and dicot d. Only dicot
86. Due to lack of which tissue secondary growth is absent in monocot
plants-
a. Xylem b. Phloem
c. Cambium d. Medullary rays
87. Exceptionally secondary growth takes place in which
monocotyledons-
a. Yucca b. Dracaena
c. Coconut d. All of the above
88. The wood formed during the spring season called-
a. Spring wood b. Early wood
c. Late wood d. Both a and b

Answers
79. a 80. d 81. c 82. b 83. c 84. a
85. b 86. c 87. d 88. d
150 t Universal Objective Forestry

89. The wood formed during the winter season called-

a. Spring wood b. Autumn wood
c. Latewood d. Both b and c
90. Which wood is lighter in colour and exhibits low density-
a. Spring wood b. Autumn wood
c. Latewood d. None
91. Which wood is darker in colour and exhibits high density-
a. Early wood b. Late wood
c. Spring wood d. All of the above
92. More distinct annual rings are formed in which trees-
a. Tropical tree b. Subtropical tree
c. Temperate tree d. Alpine tree
93. Distinct annual rings are not formed in which trees-
a. Tropical tree b. Subtropical tree
c. Temperate tree d. Alpine tree
94. Non-porous wood and porous wood respectively called as-
a. Heteroxylous wood and homoxylous wood
b. Homoxylous wood and Heteroxylous wood
c. Paratracheal wood and Syntracheal wood
d. Manoxylic wood and Pycnoxylic wood
95. Lenticels (gaseous exchange) are formed by the activity of-
a. Cambium b. Periderm
c. Endodermis d. Phellogen
96. Lenticels are mainly found on-
a. Stems b. Roots
c. Leaves d. All of the above
97. All the tissues situated outside the cork cambium is called-
a. Wood b. Xylem
c. Bark d. Heartwood
98. Outer layer of bark is called-
a. Secondary phloem b. Secondary xylem
c. Phelloderm d. Rhytidome

Answers
89. d 90. a 91. b 92. c 93. a 94. b
95. d 96. a 97. c 98. d
 Plant and Wood Anatomy t 151

99. Inner layer of bark is called-

a. Secondary phloem b. Secondary xylem
c. Cork cambium d. Rhytidome
100. Continuous bark of equal thickening is called-
a. Scaly bark b. Ring bark
c. Star bark d. Rough bark
101. Discontinuous bark of unequal thickening is called-
a. Scaly bark b. Ring bark
c. Concentric bark d. Hollow bark
102. Ring bark is found in-
a. Bhojpatra b. Eucalyptus
c. Both a and b d. Mango
103. A ring of autumn wood and a ring of spring wood are collectively
known as annual-
a. Alternate ring b. Annual ring
c. Common ring d. Seasonal ring
104. The number of annual rings formed in a tree gives the idea of the
tree-
a. Regeneration period c. Growth
c. Age d. Rotation period
105. The study of determination of age of the plant by counting annual
rings is called-
a. Wood anatomy b. Dendrology
c. Dendrochromonology d. Dendrochronology
106. Study of the wood called-
a. Wood anatomy b. Xylotomy
c. Dendrochromonology d. Histology
107. The wood is actually as-
a. Primary phloem b. Primary xylem
c. Secondary phloem d. Secondary xylem

Answers
99. a 100. b 101. a 102. c 103. b 104. c
105. d 106. b 107. d
 Forest Mensuration t 153

Chapter 7

Forest Mensuration

1. Mensuration is derived from-

a. French word b. Greek word
c. Latin word d. Arabic word
2. The term Pramana meaning is-
a. Measure b. Management
c. Mensuration d. Protection
3. The term Pramana was classified into-
a. Mana b. Tula mana
c. Avamana d. All of the above
4. The term mana means measure of-
a. Weight b. Volume
c. Linear d. Time
5. The term tula mana means measure of-
a. Weight b. Volume
c. Linear d. Time
6. The term avamana means measure of-
a. Weight b. Volume
c. Linear d. Time
7. The term kala pramana means measure of-
a. Weight b. Volume
c. Linear d. Time
8. Kautilya has derived which unit as the area unit of forest-
a. Canal b. Gorut
c. Hogat d. Nautical
Answers
1. c 2. a 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. c
7. d 8. b
154 t Universal Objective Forestry

9. Which is the first Indian satellite-

a. Agni I b. SAT I
c. Aryabhatta I d. Prathvi I
10. The branch of the forestry which deals with the determination of
dimensions (diameter, height, volume etc.) form, age and increment
of single trees, stands or whole woods, either standing or after felling
called-
a. Forest management b. Forest protection
c. Forest mensuration d. Biometry
11. The most important measurement from the point of view of forest
management is-
a. Area b. Volume
c. Diameter d. Height
12. Which is/are not object of forest mensuration-
a. Basis of management b. Measurement for research
c. Measurement of planning d. All of the above
13. The Standards of Weights and Measure Act was formed in-
a. 1926 b. 1956
c. 1976 d. 1972
14. Metric system or C.G.S system was introduced in India in-
a. 1975 b. 1993
c. 1962 d. 1986
15. Which is commonly used system of measurement in India-
a. Metric system b. British system
c. F.P.S system d. All of the above
16. Tree height, crown height, crown width and crown length is
measured in-
a. Centimetre b. Nearest centimetre
c. Metre d. Metre and centimetre
17. Stump height or seedling height is measured in-
a. Centimetre b. Nearest centimetre
c. Metre d. Metre and centimetre

Answers
9. c 10. c 11. b 12. d 13. b 14. c
15. a 16. c 17. b
 Forest Mensuration t 155

18. Diameter of tree is measured in-

a. Metre b. Nearest centimetre
c. Centimetre d. Metre and centimetre
19. Girth of tree is measured in-
a. Centimetre b. Nearest centimetre
c. Metre d. Metre and centimetre
20. Full for of LASER is-
a. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radio wave
b. Light Amplification by Standard Emission of Radiation
c. Light Amplification by Stimulated energy of Radiation
d. Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
21. Full for of RADAR is-
a. Radio Detection And Ranging
b. Radio Detecting And Ranging
c. Radio Detection And Radiation
d. Radio Detecting And Radiation
22. The circumference or perimeter of a circle is-
a. 2pr b. pd
c. pr d. Both a and b
23. Almost universal adopted standard height for measuring girth,
diameter and basal area of standing trees is called-
a. Tree height b. Breast-Height
c. Tree girth d. Breast-girth
24. In India Breast-Height is taken as above the ground level -
a. 1.30 m b. 1.37 cm
c. 1.30 cm d. 1.37 m
25. Europe and United Kingdom Breast-Height is taken as above the
ground level -
a. 1.30 m b. 1.37 cm
c. 1.30 cm d. 1.37 m
26. Breast-Height point should be marked by intersecting vertical and
horizontal lines and lines length should be long-
a. 10 cm b. 12 cm
c. 15 cm d. 20 cm
Answers
18. c 19. d 20. d 21. a 22. d 23. b
24. d 25. a 26. b
156 t Universal Objective Forestry

27. A mark which is marked at Breast-Height is called-

a. Breast-Height mark b. Plus mark
c. Cross mark d. Diagonal mark
28. Cross mark is painted with which paint-
a. Blue b. Black
c. Red d. White
29. On slopping ground diameter at Breast-Height should be measured
on the-
a. Low hill side b. Uphill side
c. Aspect side d. Topography side
30. Diameter of leaned tree at flat ground should be measured along-
a. Tree leaned side b. Opposite leaned side
c. Vertically d. Diagonally
31. When the tree is forked above the Breast-Height, it is counted as-
a. One tree b. More than one tree
c. Separate tree d. Multiple tree
32. When the tree is forked below the Breast-Height it is counted as-
a. Each fork should not be counted as separate tree
b. Each fork should be counted as separate tree
c. All fork should be counted as one tree
d. All of the above
33. Which instruments is/are used for the measurement of tree diameter
or girth-
a. Wooden scale b. Calliper
c. Tape d. All of the above
34. Diameter & girth of standing tree can be measured by-
a. Wooden scale b. Calliper
c. Tape d. Both a and c
35. Diameter & girth of felled tree can be measured by-
a. Wooden scale b. Calliper
c. Tape d. Spiegel Relaskop
36. Negative & positive errors are show in-
a. Wooden scale b. Calliper
c. Tape d. Spiegel Relaskop
Answers
27. c 28. d 29. b 30. a 31. a 32. b
33. d 34. d 35. c 36. b
 Forest Mensuration t 157

37. Positive errors are show in-

a. Wooden scale b. Calliper
c. Tape d. Spiegel Relaskop
38. D.O.B can be converted into D.U.B by-
a. Adding twice bark thickness
b. Multiplying twice bark thickness
c. Dividing twice bark thickness
d. Deducting twice bark thickness
39. G.O.B (g¢) can be converted into G.U.B (g) by the formula-
a. g¢ = g – 2pt b. g = g¢ – pt
c. g = gp/2pt d. g = g¢ – 2pt
40. The thickness of bark can be measured by using-
a. Spiegel Relaskop b. British bark gauge
c. Swedish bark gauge d. Penta prism
41. Seth and Lohani have prepared bark thickness table for which tree-
a. Cedrus deodara b. Shorea robusta
c. Tectona grandis d. Picea smithiana
42. Which is/are not an usual diameter class which is used in India-
a. 2 cm b. 3 cm
c. 5 cm d. 10 cm
43. A tree falls in diameter class 2 cm then it will attain diameter at
maturity-
a. 30 cm d.b.h b. 50 cm d.b.h
c. 60 cm d.b.h d. 80 cm d.b.h
44. A tree falls in diameter class 5 cm then it will attain diameter at
maturity-
a. 30 cm d.b.h b. 30-50 cm d.b.h
c. 50 cm d.b.h d. 80 cm d.b.h
45. A tree falls in diameter class 10 cm then it will attain diameter at
maturity-
a. 30 cm d.b.h b. 30-50 cm d.b.h
c. 40 cm d.b.h d. ≥50 cm d.b.h

Answers
37. c 38. d 39. d 40. c 41. d 42. b
43. a 44. b 45. d
158 t Universal Objective Forestry

46. The usual girth classes used in India are-

a. 5 cm b. 15 cm
c. 30 cm d. All of the above
47. Girth class 15 cm have tree size-
a. Small-sized b. Medium-sized
c. Large-sized d. Any size
48. Girth class 5 cm have tree size-
a. Small-sized b. Medium-sized
c. Large-sized d. Any size
49. Girth class 30 cm have tree size-
a. Small-sized b. Medium-sized
c. Large-sized d. Any size
50. Diameter class 0-20 is denoted by which colour-
a. Blank b. Green
c. Red d. Red
51. Diameter class 20-30 and 30-40 is denoted by which colour
respectively-
a. Red & Green b. Green & Red
c. Red & Yellow d. Yellow & Black
52. Diameter class 40-50 and 50-60 is denoted by which colour
respectively-
a. Yellow & Black b. Red & Yellow
c. White & Blue d. Black & White
53. Diameter class 60-70 and 70-80 or above is denoted by which colour
respectively-
a. Red & Green b. White & Blue
c. Red & Yellow d. Yellow & Black
54. Which instrument is used to measure the diameter of standing tree
at greater height-
a. Clinometer b. Abney’s level
c. Spiegel Relaskop d. Dendrometer

Answers
46. d 47. b 48. a 49. c 50. a 51. b
52. a 53. b 54. d
 Forest Mensuration t 159

55. Which bands are used in diameter measurement using Spiegel

Relaskop-
a. Band 1 and 2 narrow bands b. Band 1 and 4 narrow bands
c. Band 2 and 4 narrow bands d. Band 2 and 3 narrow bands
56. Which is used to measure stem diameter accurately at any point on
the tree stem from any convenient distance-
a. Clinometer b. Spiegel Relaskop
c. Wheeler Penta Prism d. Digital calliper
57. The vertical straight line distance from the tip of the leading shoot of
the tree to the ground level is called-
a. Tree height b. Bole height
c. Crown height d. Total height
58. The distance between ground level and crown point of a tree called-
a. Tree height b. Bole height
c. Crown height d. Total height
59. The height of bole that is usually fit for utilization as timber is called-
a. Commercial bole height b. Bole height
c. Crown height d. Standard timber
60. The height of the bole from the ground level upto the point where
average diameter over bark is 20 cm-
a. Height of Standard wood bole
b. Height of Standard timber bole
c. Height of timber bole
d. Height of commercial timber bole
61. The vertical measurement of the tree crown from the tip to the point
half way between the lowest green branches forming green crown
all round and the lowest green branch on the bole-
a. Crown length b. Crown height
c. Crown width d. Bole height
62. The height of the crown as measured vertically from the ground
level to the point half way between the lowest green branch and
green branches forming green crown all round is called-
a. Crown length b. Crown height
c. Crown width d. Bole height
Answers
55. b 56. c 57. d 58. d 59. a 60. b
61. a 62. b
160 t Universal Objective Forestry

63. The maximum spread of the crown along its widest diameter is
called-
a. Crown length b. Bole height
c. Crown width d. Crown height
64. Which is/are the methods of height measurements-
a. Ocular method b. Non-instrumental method
c. Instrumental method d. All of the above
65. Shadow method is the method of height mesurement-
a. Ocular method b. Non-instrumental method
c. Instrumental method d. None
66. Single pole method is the method of high measurement-
a. Ocular method b. Non-instrumental method
c. Instrumental method d. None
67. Height measuring instrument which are based on principle of similar
triangle are-
a. Christen’s Hypsometer b. Smythies Hypsometer
c. Improved callipers d. All
68. Height measuring instrument which are based on trigonometric
principle are-
a. Relaskop b. Tele Relaskop
c. Hega Altimeter d. All of the above
69. Height measuring instrument which are based on trigonometric
principle are-
a. Brandis Hypsometer b. Abney’s level
c. Blume-Leiss Hypsometer d. All of the above
70. Height measuring instrument which are based on trigonometric
principle are-
a. Topographical Abney’s level
b. Bar & Stroud Dendrometer
c. Brandis Hypsometer
d. All of the above
71. In India which is/are height classes are generally used-
a. 1 m b. 3 m
c. 5 m d. All of the above
Answers
63. c 64. d 65. b 66. b 67. d 68. d
69. d 70. d 71. d
 Forest Mensuration t 161

72. A tree falls in height class 1 m then it will attain height at maturity-
a. Less than 5 m b. Less than 10 m
c. Less than 15 m d. More than 10 m
73. A tree falls in height class 3 m then it will attain height at maturity-
a. 10 m b. 20 m
c. 25 m d. 30 m
74. A tree falls in height class 5 m then it will attain height at maturity-
a. 8 m b. 12 m
c. 10 m d. 20 m
75. The rate of taper of a log or stem during the growth is called-
a. Form b. Taper
c. Bending d. Frustum
76. The decrease in the diameter of a stem of a tree of a log form base
upwards is called-
a. Form b. Taper
c. Bending d. Frustum
77. Basal portion of a tree Similar to-
a. Frustum of a paraboloid b. Frustum of a neiloid
c. Like cone d. Like cube
78. Middle portion of a tree Similar to-
a. Frustum of a paraboloid b. Frustum of a neiloid
c. Like cube d. Like cone
79. Top portion of a tree Similar to-
a. Like cone b. Like cube
c. Frustum of a neiloid d. Frustum of a paraboloid
80. According to which theory the tree stem should be considered as
a cantilever beam of uniform size against the bending force of the
wind-
a. Gause Theory b. Metzger theory
c. Hartig theory d. Newton theory
81. Metzger theory also called as-
a. Glider theory b. Gillard theory
c. Gauss Theory d. Girder theory
Answers
72. c 73. d 74. d 75. a 76. b 77. b
78. a 79. a 80. b 81. d
162 t Universal Objective Forestry

82. Which is the correct equation of Metzger theory-

32 × W × F × L 32 × W × F × L
a. d 2 = b. d 3 =
2π × S π×S
32 × W × F 32 × W × F × L
c. d 2 = d. d 3 =
π×S × L 2π × S
83. According to Metzger’ theory the tree stem must have the shape of a-
a. Cubic paraboloid b. Cubic rhomboid
c. Paraboloid d. Cone shape
84. The ratio between the volume of a tree to the product of basal area
and height is called-
a. Form height b. Form quotient
c. Form value d. Form factor
85. Breast-height form factor also known as-
a. Artificial form factor b. Absolute form factor
c. Normal form factor d. True form factor
86. A form factor in which basal area is measured at the BH and volume
refers to the whole tree both above and below the measurement
point called as-
a. Artificial form factor b. Absolute form factor
c. Normal form factor d. True form factor
87. A form factor in which basal area is measured at any convenient
height and volume is measured above the measurement point is
called-
a. Absolute form factor b. Normal form factor
c. True form factor d. Artificial form factor
88. A form factor in which basal area is measured at a constant proportion
of the total height of the tree and volume is measured whole the tree
above the ground level is called-
a. Artificial form factor b. Absolute form factor
c. Breast-height d. Normal or true form factor
89. Which form factor is most commonly used form factor in India-
a. True form factor b. Normal form factor
c. Artificial form factor d. Absolute form factor
Answers
82. b 83. a 84. d 85. a 86. a 87. a
88. d 89. c
 Forest Mensuration t 163

90. The formula of form factor is-

V ×h h
a. F = b. F =
S V ×S
S V
c. F = d. F =
V ×h S×h
91. Form factor is used to calculate or study-
a. Growth law and to estimate the volume of standing tree
b. To estimate the volume of standing tree
c. Height and volume of standing tree
d. Growth law and to estimate the volume of felled tree
92. The product of form factor and total height of the tree is called-
a. Form factor b. Form quotient
c. Form height d. Form coefficient
93. The formula of form height is-
V V
a. Fh = b. Fh =
S h
S h
c. Fh = d. Fh =
V V
94. The concept of form quotient was given by-
a. German forester A. Schiffel b. Austrian forester A. Schiffel
c. Indian forester Mohit Husain d. German forester Hartig
95. The ratio between the mid-diameter and d.b.h. is known as-
a. Form factor b. Form quotient
c. Form height d. Form coefficient
96. The formula of form quotient is-
mid – diameter
a. Form quotient =
volume
mid – diameter
b. Form quotient =
d.b.h
d .b.h
c. Form quotient =
mid – diameter
volume
d. Form quotient =
d .b.h
Answers
90. d 91. a 92. c 93. a 94. b 95. b
96. b
164 t Universal Objective Forestry

97. Who modified the form quotient-

a. Swedish forester Tor Jonson b. German forester A. Schiffel
c. Indian forester Mohit Husain d. German forester Tor Jonson
98. The ratio of diameter or girth of a stem at one half its height above
the breast-height to the diameter or girth at breast-height is called-
a. Normal Form factor b. Absolute form factor
c. Absolute form quotient d. True form factor
99. One of the intervals in which the range of form quotients of trees is
divided for classification and use is called-
a. Form coefficient b. Form factor
c. Form point d. Form class
100. The point in the crown at which wind pressure is estimated to be
centred is called-
a. Form coefficient b. Form factor
c. Form point d. Form class
101. The relationship of the height of the form point above ground level
to the total height of the tree is called-
a. Form coefficient b. Form factor ratio
c. Form point ratio d. Form class ratio
102. Hojer and Behre formula are used to determine-
a. Form coefficient b. Volume quotient
c. Form quotient d. Diameter quotient
103. The ratio of the diameter (d) of a stem at any given height to its
breast-height diameter (d.b.h) is called-
a. Diameter quotient b. Volume quotient
c. Height quotient d. Form quotient
104. The area of the bole surface of a tree and log can be calculated by
the formula-
g1 + g 2
a. S
= ×l b. S = g × l
2
g + g2
c. S =g × 1 or 1 ×l d. All of the above
2

Answers
97. a 98. c 99. d 100. c 101. c 102. d
103. a 104. d
 Forest Mensuration t 165

105. The horizontal projection on the ground of the tree crown is called-
a. Crown width b. Crown spreadness
c. Crown height d. Crown cover
106. Which formulae is/are used to calculate the volume of logs-
a. Smalain’s formula b. Huber’ formula
c. Newton’s formula d. All of the above
107. Smalain’s formula for calculation volume of the logs is-
s –s
a. 1 2 × l b. Sm × l
2
( s1 + 4Sm + s2 ) s1 + s2
c. ×l d. ×l
6 2

108. Huber’ formula for calculation volume of the logs is-

s –s
a. 1 2 × l b. Sm × l
2
( s1 + 4Sm + s2 ) s1 + s2
c. ×l d. ×l
6 2
109. Newton’s formula for calculation volume of the logs is-
s1 – s2
a. ×l b. Sm × l
2
s1 + s2
c. ( s1 + 4Sm + s2 ) × l d. ×l
6 2

110. Newton’s formula is used to calculate the error in the volume

calculated by-
a. Huber’ formula b. Smalain’s formula
c. Lowry’s formula d. Both a and b
111. Smalain’s formula requires the which cross-sections of the log for
volume calculation-
a. Side cross section b. Mid cross-sections
c. End cross-sections d. Corner sections

Answers
105. d 106. d 107. d 108. b 109. c 110. d
111. c
166 t Universal Objective Forestry

112. Huber’s formula requires the which cross-sections of the log for
volume calculation-
a. Mid cross-sections b. Base cross-sections
c. End cross-sections d. Corner sections
113. The difference between volumes obtained by Smalain’s and
Newton’s formula is-
l l
a. ∆ = × ( s1 – s2 + 2 Sm) ∆ = b. ∆ = × ( s1 + s2 – 2 Sm )
2 3
l l
c. ∆ = × ( s1 × s2 – 2Sm) d. ∆ = × ( s1 – s2 – 2Sm)
2 4
114. Volumes obtained by Smalain’s and Newton’s formula in case of
cone and neiloid the error was-
a. Negative b. Positive
c. Zero d. None
115. Volumes obtained by Huber’s and Newton’s formula in case of cone
and neiloid the error was-
a. Negative b. Positive
c. Zero d. None
116. In India volumes of logs are calculated by using-
a. Half girth formula b. Quarter girth formula
c. Newton formula d. Smalian formula
117. Quarter girth formula in Britain also known as-
a. Allen’s rule b. Hartig’ rule
c. Hojer’s rule d. Hoppus’s rule
118. Quarter girth formula for calculation volumes of logs is-
a. V = (g/4)3 × l b. V = (g/4)2 × l
c. V = (g/4) × l d. V = (g/2)2 × l
119. Quarter girth formula gives how much percent of the true volume-
a. 75% b. 75.8%
c. 78.5% d. 85%
120. The space occupied by a stack as distinct from the cubic contents of
the wood itself i. e. solid volume called-
a. Stock volume b. Total volume
c. Actual volume d. Stacked volume
Answers
112. a 113. b 114. b 115. a 116. b 117. d
118. b 119. b 120. d
 Forest Mensuration t 167

121. Volume of solid firewood can be determined by using which methods-

a. Xylometric method b. Specific gravity method
c. Both a and b d. None
122. Which is/are the methods to determine volume of standing tree-
a. Ocular estimation method
b. Partly ocular and partly by measurement
c. Direct/Indirect measurement
d. All of the above
123. Which instruments is/are used to determine the volume of standing
tree in indirect measurement method-
a. Spiegel Relaskop b. Tele Relaskop
c. Wheeler Penta Prism d. All of the above
124. Which instruments is/are not used to determine the volume of
standing tree in indirect measurement method-
a. Tele Relaskop b. Wooden scale
c. Stroud Dendrometer d. Callipers
125. A table showing for a species the average contents of trees, logs or
sawn timber for one or more given dimensions is called-
a. Yield table b. Money table
c. Volume table d. Stand table
126. The volume of a tree depends mainly upon how many variables-
a. Two b. Three
c. Four d. Five
127. The volume of a tree does not depends upon which variable-
a. Diameter b. Height
c. Form d. Area
128. The most important variables for volume table among the three
variables is/are-
a. Diameter (BH) b. Height
c. Form d. Area
129. General volume table is/are based on which variables-
a. One variables b. Two variables
c. Three variables d. Four variables
Answers
121. c 122. d 123. d 124. b 125. c 126. b
127. d 128. a 129. b
168 t Universal Objective Forestry

130. Local volume table is/are based on which variables-

a. Area b. Height
c. Diameter d. Form
131. Volume table which is based on one variable-
a. General volume table b. Regional volume table
c. Local volume table d. Standard volume table
132. Volume table which is based on two variables-
a. General volume table b. Regional volume table
c. Local volume table d. Standard volume table
133. General volume table is/are based on which variables-
a. Diameter and volume b. Diameter and form
c. Diameter and height d. Diameter
134. For standard round timber estimation which volume table is used-
a. Commercial volume table b. Assortment table
c. Local volume table d. Standard volume table
135. Volume table based on………variables have not been prepared in
India-
a. Two b. Three
c. Four d. Five
136. General volume tables are used for the deriving which table-
a. Regional volume table b. Local volume table
c. Commercial volume table d. Assortment volume table
137. Most commonly used table in India is-
a. Standard volume table b. Regional volume table
c. Local volume table d. General volume table
138. Standard volume table and Commercial volume table are the special
cases of-
a. Assortment table b. Regional volume table
c. Sawn out turn table d. Local volume table
139. Which is/are the methods of volume table preparation -
a. Graphical method
b. Regression equations method or method of least squares fit
c. Alignment chart method
d. All of the above
Answers
130. c 131. c 132. a 133. c 134. d 135. b
136. b 137. d 138. a 139. d
 Forest Mensuration t 169

140. The portion of the tree stem or log which is unmerchantable is called-
a. Stump b. Stack
c. Billets d. Cull
141. Volume table is used to estimate the volume of-
a. Standing tree b. Felled tree
c. Leaned tree d. Forked tree
142. The ratio of density of the substance to density of water is called as-
a. Relative density b. Specific gravity
c. Botha a and b d. Specific heat
143. The moisture content when free water has been evaporated leaving
only absorbed or bound water is called-
a. Free water b. Saturated water point
c. Water holding capacity d. Fibre saturation point
144. Determination of the age of single standing tree can be estimated by
using which methods-
a. From existing record or general appearance
b. By the number of annual shoots or whorls of branches
c. By means of Pressler’s increment borer
d. All of the above
145. Age of tree can be determined by counting annual ring with the help
of-
a. Wheeler Penta Prism b. Callipers
c. Pressler’s increment borer d. Spiegel Relaskop
146. To determine the age of tree by Pressler’s increment borer boring is
made……in case of smaller tree and…… for bigger tree respectively-
a. 20 cm above ground and at breast-height
b. 30 cm above ground and at breast-height
c. 40 cm above ground and at 50 cm from ground
d. 50 cm above ground and 100 cm from the ground
147. The age of standing tree without counting annual ring can be
calculated by-
a. Taking two periodic mean b. Taking three periodic mean
c. Taking four periodic mean d. Taking five periodic mean

Answers
140. d 141. a 142. c 143. d 144. d 145. c
146. b 147. b
170 t Universal Objective Forestry

148. The age of tree can be found by the following formula-

1 p ×s
a. Age = b. Age = 1
p1 × s 2
1 1
c. Age = d. Age =
p+s p1 – s
149. The C.A.I and M.A.I do not coincide with each other throughout the
life of the tree or stand except twice viz-
a. One, at the end of first year
b. Second, in the year of the culmination of C.A.I
c. Second, in the year of the culmination of M.A.I
d. Both a and c
150. The value of C.A.I may be-
a. Positive b. Negative
c. Zero d. All of the above
151. The value of M.A.I may not be-
a. Positive b. Negative
c. Zero d. All of the above
152. Compound interest formula is used to determine-
a. Diameter increment percent b. Volume increment percent
c. Height increment percent d. Both a and b
153. Pressler’s formula is used to determine-
a. Diameter increment percent b. Volume increment percent
c. Height increment percent d. Both a and b
154. Schneider’s formula for increment percent is-
200 200
a. p = b. p =
D nD
n × 400 400
c. p = d. p =
D nD
155. Pressler’s formula for volume increment percent is-
100( D – d ) (V + v) 200( D + d ) (V – v)
a. p
= × b. p
= ×
n n(V – v) n n(V + v)
(V – v ) 400( D – d ) (V + v)
p
c.= 200 × d. p
= ×
n(V + v ) n n(V – v)
Answers
148. a 149. d 150. d 151. c 152. d 153. d
154. d 155. c
 Forest Mensuration t 171

156. Pressler’s formula for diameter increment percent is-

200( D – d ) (V – v) 200( D – d )
a. p
= × b. p = (D + d )
n n(V + v)
400( D + d ) 200( D – d )
c. p = d. p =
n( D – d ) n( D + d )
157. Compound interest formula for volume increment percent is-
 V  1/ n 
 V n 
a. P 100   + 1
= b. P = 200   – 1
 v    v  
 V 1/ n   V 1/ n 
= c. P 300   + 1 d. P = 100   – 1
 v    v  
158. Compound interest formula for diameter increment percent is-
 D  1/ n   D  1/ n 
=a. P 100   + 1 b. P = 200   – 1
 d    d  
 D 1/ n   D 1/ n 
c. P = 100   – 1 d. P = 200   – 1
 d    d  
159. The analysis of a complete stem by measuring annual rings on a
number of cross-section at different heights in order to determine its
past rates growth is called-
a. Stump analysis b. Stem analysis
c. Stand analysis d. Growth analysis
160. The boring of a tree stem with Pressler’s increment or any other
borer to determine increment of trees with annual rings is called-
a. Increment boring b. Increment percent
c. Volume increment d. Height increment
161. Diameter corresponding to the mean basal area of a uniform,
generally pure crop called-
a. Top diameter b. Crop diameter
c. Mean diameter d. Average diameter

Answers
156. d 157. d 158. c 159. b 160. a 161. b
172 t Universal Objective Forestry

162. Diameter corresponding to the mean basal area of a group of trees

or a stand is called-
a. Crop diameter b. Top diameter
c. Mean diameter d. Average diameter
163. Diameter corresponding to the mean basal area of the 250 biggest
trees per hectare in a uniform, generally pure crop is called-
a. Crop diameter b. Top diameter
c. Mean diameter d. Average diameter
164. Mean basal area is of a crop is calculated by using the formula-
n s + n s + n3 s3 + ...
a. Mean basal area = 1 1 2 2
S1 + S2 + S3 + ...
n1s1 – n2 s2 – n3 s3 – ...
b. Mean basal area =
S1 + S2 + S3 + ...
n1 s1 + n2 s2 + n3 s3 + ...
c. Mean basal area =
n1 + n2 + n3 + ...
n1s1 + n2 s2 + n3 s3 + ...
d. Mean basal area =
n1 – n2 – n3 – ...
165. Mean diameter of a crop is calculated by using the formula-
n s + n s + n3 s3 + ...
a. Mean diameter D = 1 1 2 2
n1 + n2 + n3 + ...
n1d1 + n2d 2 + n3d 3 + ...
b. Mean diameter D =
n1 + n2 + n3 + ...
n1d1 + n2 d 2 + n3d3 + ...
c. Mean diameter D =
d1 + d 2 + d3 + ...
n1d1 – n2 d 2 – n3d3 + ...
d. Mean diameter D =
d1 + d 2 + d3 + ...
166. The average height of a regular crop is called-
a. Crop height b. Top height
c. Mean height d. Average height

Answers
162. c 163. b 164. c 165. b 166. a
 Forest Mensuration t 173

167. Height corresponding to the mean diameter of a group of trees or the

crop diameter of a stand is called-
a. Crop height b. Top height
c. Mean height d. Average height
168. Height corresponding to the mean diameter of the 250 biggest trees
per hectare in a uniform, generally pure crop is called-
a. Crop height b. Top height
c. Mean height d. Average height
169. Crop height is calculated by using formula-
a. Smalian formula b. Lorey’s formula
c. Pressler’s formula d. Schneider’s formula
170. Crop height is calculated by using the formula-
h1s1 + h2 s2 + h3s3 + ...
a. Crop height =
h1 + h2 + h3 + ...
n1s1 + n2 s2 + n3 s3 + ...
b. Crop height =
n1 + n2 + n3 + ...
h1 s1 + h2 s2 + h3 s3 + ...
c. Crop height =
s1 + s2 + s3 + ...
n1d1 + n2 d 2 + n3d3 + ...
d. Crop height =
d1 + d 2 + d3 + ...
171. The formula used for determined crop age for even-aged crop is-
a1 s1 + a2 s2 + a3 s3 + ...
a. Crop age =
s1 + s2 + s3 + ...

h1s1 + h2 s2 + h3s3 + ...

b. Crop age =
h1 + h2 + h3 + ...
a1s1 + a2 s2 + a3 s3 + ...
c. Crop age =
a1 + a2 + a3 + ...
a1s1 + a2 s2 + a3 s3 + ...
d. Crop age =
s1 – s2 – s3 – ...
Answers
167. c 168. b 169. b 170. c 171. a
174 t Universal Objective Forestry

172. Who has given the formulae for calculation of mean age of uneven-
aged crop-
a. Smalian & Heyer b. Andre
c. Gumpel d. All of the above
173. How many plots are considered enough for preparation of yield
tables for a species-
a. 200 plots b. 400 plots
c. 600 plots d. 800 plots
174. In India mostly plots are laid having plot size-
a. Rectangular plots having size 0.1 to 0.2 hectare
b. Square plots having size 0.5 to 1.0 hectare
c. Triangular plots having size 0.1 to 0.2 hectare
d. Square plots having size 0.5 to 1.0 hectare
175. An area maintained round an experimental or sample plot to ensure
that the latter is not being affected by the treatment applied to the
area outside the plot is called-
a. Surround b. Isolation
c. Buffer strip d. All of the above
176. All the trees in the surround are generally marked by-
a. Blue paint ring b. White paint oval
c. Black paint ring d. Green paint sphere
177. In India sample plots are generally thinned to-
a. A or D grade ordinary thinning
b. B or D grade ordinary thinning
c. A or C grade ordinary thinning
d. C or D grade ordinary thinning
178. Who has given the formulae/methods to determine volume of sample
plot-
a. Urich b. Hartig
c. Huber d. All of the above
179. Who has given the formulae for determine volume of sample plot-
a. Hossfeld b. Draut
c. Block d. All of the above

Answers
172. d 173. c 174. a 175. d 176. b 177. d
178. d 179. d
 Forest Mensuration t 175

180. Which method is used in FRI, Dehra Dun to determine volume of

sample plot-
a. Urich b. Hartig
c. Huber d. Block
181. Form factor method or Prussian institute method is used to determine-
a. Crop volume b. Mean basal area
c. Crop diameter d. Sample plot volume
182. Which method is used in temporary sample plots for volume
determination-
a. Urich b. Hartig
c. Huber d. Block
183. Volume of sample plot can be calculated by using a computer
programme named as-
a. FORTUNE b. TRANSFOR
c. FORTRAN d. FORTON
184. The tabulated, reliable and satisfactory tree information, related to
the required unit, respectively units, of assessment in hierarchic
order is called-
a. Yield table b. Forest survey
c. Forest inventory d. Forest Biometry
185. Forest inventory is synonymous which term in India-
a. Tabulation b. Enumeration
c. Planning d. Formulation
186. Which is/are the kinds of enumeration-
a. Total enumeration b. Complete enumeration
c. Partial or sample enumeration d. All
187. Enumeration is classified into how many kinds-
a. Two b. Three
c. Four d. Five
188. Total enumeration also known as-
a. Complete enumeration b. Partial enumeration
c. Sample enumeration d. Simple enumeration

Answers
180. d 181. d 182. b 183. c 184. c 185. b
186. d 187. a 188. a
176 t Universal Objective Forestry

189. Partial enumeration also known as-

a. Sample enumeration b. Simple enumeration
c. Total enumeration d. Complete enumeration
190. The ratio of the sample to the whole population is called-
a. Sampling fraction b. Sampling intensity
c. Sampling unit d. Both a and b
191. Main kinds of sampling used in forest inventories are categorised
into-
a. Two b. Three
c. Four d. Five
192. Which is/are not the main kinds of sampling used in forest inventories-
a. Random sampling c. Non- random sampling
c. Selective sampling d. None
193. Which is/are the kinds of random sampling-
a. Simple random sampling b. Multi-stage sampling
c. Stratified random sampling d. All of the above
194. Which is/are the kinds of non-random sampling-
a. Selective sampling b. Systematic sampling
c. Sequential sampling d. All of the above
195. Which is/are the kinds of random sampling-
a. Multiphase sampling
b. Sampling with varying probability
c. List sampling
d. All of the above
196. A sampling in which sampling units are selected in such a manner
that all possible units of the same size have equal chance of being
chosen is called-
a. Random sampling b. Point sampling
c. Non- random sampling d. Partial sampling
197. The method of sampling in which samples are selected according
to the subjective judgement of the observer on the basis of certain
guidelines is called-
a. Random sampling b. Point sampling
c. Non- random sampling d. Partial sampling
Answers
189. a 190. d 191. a 192. c 193. d 194. d
195. d 196. a 197. c
 Forest Mensuration t 177

198. A sampling unit whose boundaries are predominantly topographical

or natural features such as nalas, streams and ridges is called-
a. Point sampling units
b. Topographical sampling units
c. Geological sampling units
d. Physiographic sampling units
199. Topographical units are mostly used as sampling units in which
forest-
a. Plain forest b. Ravine forest
c. Hill Forest d. Rain forest
200. A sampling unit or group of small units is called-
a. Sample b. Population
c. Cluster d. Clump
201. The percentage of the area of the population to be included in the
sample is called-
a. Sample b. Sampling unit
c. Sampling design d. Sampling intensity
202. In order to determine optimum intensity in various forests the
sampling error should be-
a. Less than 5% b. More than 10%
c. Less than 10% d. More than 10%
203. Sampling percent in tropical wet evergreen forest is-
a. 10 b. 2.5
c. 5.0 d. 15
204. Sampling percent in sub-tropical pine forest is-
a. 1.0 b. 2.5
c. 5.0 d. 10
205. Sampling percent in tropical moist deciduous forest is-
a. 1.0 b. 2.5
c. 5.0 d. 10
206. National Inventory Design concept was given by-
a. FRI b. BSI
c. FSI d. MoEF & CC
Answers
198. b 199. c 200. c 201. d 202. c 203. a
204. c 205. b 206. c
178 t Universal Objective Forestry

207. The difference between the population mean (M) and sample mean
(Y) is called-
a. Sampling mean b. Sampling intensity
c. Sampling error d. Sampling unit
208. Which method is used in plain for sapling-
a. Strip sampling b. Line plot survey
c. Topographical units d. Both a and b
209. A sampling in which the population is first divided into sub-
population of different strata and then units are selected from each
of them in proportion to their size-
a. Stratified random sampling b. Selective sampling
c. Systematic sampling d. Sequential sampling
210. A sampling in which sampling units are not taken out at one stage
but are taken out in two or three stages called-
a. Stratified random sampling b. Systematic sampling
c. Sequential sampling d. Multi-stage sampling
211. A sampling in which some of the same sampling units are used at
different phases of sampling to collect different information or same
information by different methods is called-
a. Simple random sampling b. Multi-stage sampling
c. Stratified random sampling d. Multiphase sampling
212. Two phase sampling or double sampling is commonly used in-
a. Bamboo enumeration
b. Aerial photograph interpretation
c. Forest inventories
d. All of the above
213. The Bitterlich or variable plot or point sampling or probability
proportional to size (PPS) and PPP or sampling with probability
proportional to prediction are based on-
a. Multi-stage sampling
b. Stratified random sampling
c. Multiphase sampling
d. Sampling with varying probability

Answers
207. c 208. d 209. a 210. d 211. d 212. d
213. d
 Forest Mensuration t 179

214. A sampling is in which samples are select according to the subjective

judgement of the observer is called-
a. Stratified random sampling b. Selective sampling
c. Systematic sampling d. Sequential sampling
215. 4 PEA sampling is one of the forms of sampling-
a. Multi-stage sampling
b. Selective sampling
c. Multiphase sampling
d. Sampling with varying probability
216. A sampling in which sampling units are selected acceding to a
predetermined pattern is-
a. Systematic sampling b. Stratified random sampling
c. Selective sampling d. Sequential sampling
217. Which sampling method also known as systematic sampling with a
random start-
a. Multi-stage sampling b. Stratified random sampling
c. Multiphase sampling d. Systematic sampling
218. A method of sampling in which the number of observations in the
sample is not predetermined but sampling unis are taken successively
from a population is called-
a. Systematic sampling b. Stratified random sampling
c. Selective sampling d. Sequential sampling
219. The usual shapes of the sampling units in India are-
a. Plots b. Strips
c. Topographical d. All of the above
220. Total enumeration required how many enumerator and mazdoors
respectively-
a. 1 enumerator and 7 mazdoors
b. 1 enumerator and 13 mazdoors
c. 1 enumerator and 14 mazdoors
d. 1 enumerator and 9 mazdoors

Answers
214. b 215. b 216. a 217. d 218. d 219. d
220. a
180 t Universal Objective Forestry

221. Liner strip enumeration required how many enumerator and

mazdoors respectively-
a. 1 enumerator and 7 mazdoors
b. 1 enumerator and 13-14 mazdoors
c. 1 enumerator and 15 mazdoors
d. 1 enumerator and 9 mazdoors
222. Basal area is expressed in-
a. Square meter b. Square centimetre
c. Hectare d. Miles
223. A method of counting from a random point the number of trees
whose breast height cross-section exceeds a certain critical angle
which is multiplied by a constant factor to give an unbiased estimate
of basal area per hectare ic called-
a. Random sampling b. Point sampling
c. Stratified random sampling d. Simple random sampling
224. Which is/are not a kind of point sampling-
a. Horizontal point sampling
b. Vertical point sampling
c. Straight line point sampling
d. All of the above
225. Most commonly used type of point sampling in India is-
a. Horizontal point sampling b. Vertical point sampling
c. Straight line point sampling d. Simple random sampling
226. The process of sampling in which a series of sampling points are
selected randomly or systematically distributed over the whole area,
when trees around these points are viewed through any angle-gauge
at breast height then the tree having an angle greater than critical
angle of angle-gauge are counted called-
a. Systematic sampling b. Selective sampling
c. Horizontal point sampling d. Vertical point sampling
227. The number of trees counted by horizontal point sampling and
multiplied by a constant factor gives-
a. Basal area per hectare (BA/ha)
b. Number of trees per hectare
c. Diameter per hectare
d. Tree height per hectare
Answers
221. b 222. a 223. b 224. c 225. a 226. c
227. a
 Forest Mensuration t 181

228. The ratio between the tree basal area & area of circular plot is-
a. 5k2/2 b. 2k2/7
c. 3k /4
2
d. k2/4
229. The multiplying factor associated with any point sampling instrument
called-
a. Basal area factor b. Basal area coefficient
c. Calibration factor d. Plot radius factor
230. The factor which indicates the distance at which a given angle gauge
will exactly cover a one metre wide rectangular target called-
a. Basal area factor b. Basal area coefficient
c. Calibration factor d. Plot radius factor
231. Calibration factor is more times of plot radius factor-
a. 10 b. 25
c. 50 d. 100
232. Horizontal point sampling is used for determination of the following-
a. Basal area per hectare (BA)
b. Number of stem per hectare (N)
c. Volume per hectare (V)
d. All of the above
233. Which instruments are used in horizontal point sampling-
a. Simple angle gauge b. Wedge prism
c. Spiegel Relaskop d. All of the above
234. Wedge prism works on the principle of-
a. Bending of light rays passing through the trees
b. Turning of light rays passing through the prism
c. Bending of light rays passing through the prism
d. Bending of light rays passing through the eyes of person
235. The tree is counted if the image-
a. Overlaps the directly viewed tree
b. Do not overlaps the directly viewed tree
c. There is a gap
d. None

Answers
228. d 229. a 230. c 231. d 232. d 233. d
234. c 235. a
182 t Universal Objective Forestry

236. A tree whose image overlap in horizontal point sampling is called-

a. Fully tally b. Non tally tree
c. Half tally tree d. Partially tally tree
237. A tree whose image just touch the tree stem in horizontal point
sampling is called-
a. Fully tally b. Non tally tree
c. Half tally tree d. Partially tally tree
238. A tree whose image do not touch the tree stem in horizontal point
sampling is called-
a. Fully tally b. Non tally tree
c. Half tally tree d. Partially tally tree
239. The Basal Area Factor of wedge-prism is calculated on the basis of
the-
a. Acute angle b. Obtuse angle
c. Critical angle of prism d. Finite angle
240. The formula of basal area factor of wedge-prism is-
10,00 10,000
a. BAF = 2
b. BAF = 2
L L
1 + 3  1 + 2 
D D
10,00 10,000
c. BAF = 2
d. BAF = 2
L  L
1 + 4  1 + 4 
D  D
241. No slope correction is required in wedge prism upto an angle-
a. 18° b. 38°
c. 45° d. 90°
242. A slope angle of 25° cause an error about in counting of tally trees
by wedge prism-
a. 10% b. 20%
c. 30% d. 50%
243. It is necessary that the prism is held in a…….position in level terrain
and right angle to the line of sight on………….ground respectively-
a. Horizontal and sloping ground
b. Vertical and hilly ground
c. Vertical and sloping ground
d. Horizontal and plain ground
Answers
236. a 237. c 238. b 239. c 240. d 241. a
242. a 243. c
 Forest Mensuration t 183

244. Fully tally trees are counted as…while two half tally trees makes….
tally tree respectively-
a. Two tally tree and one tally tree
b. One tally tree and two tally tree
c. One tally tree and one tally tree
d. Two tally tree and two tally tree
245. Spiegel Relaskop is widely used in point sampling has following
scales-
a. 20 m height band b. 25 m height band
c. 30 m height band d. All of the above
246. Which bands is/are not used in spiegel relaskop-
a. Band 1 b. Band 2
c. Band 3 d. Band 4
247. Range finder bands is used in which instrument-
a. Ravi multimeter b. Abney level
c. Hega altimeter d. Spiegel Relaskop
248. Four narrow band (2 white + 2 black) are used in which instrument-
a. Ravi multimeter b. Abney level
c. Hega altimeter d. Spiegel Relaskop
249. Band 1 plus 4 narrow bands are collectively called-
a. Band 1 b. Band 2
c. Band 3 d. Band 4
250. Tele Relaskop is used to calculate accurate height & diameter of-
a. Felled tree b. Leaned tree
c. Standing tree d. All of the above
251. Which is/are several methods to determine the volume of standing
trees-
a. Hohenadl’s formula
b. The ‘odd ten percents’ method
c. The ‘Any visible diameters’ method
d. All of the above

Answers
244. c 245. d 246. c 247. d 248. d 249. d
250. c 251. d
184 t Universal Objective Forestry

252. A process of sampling in which all trees appearing more than a

critical angle are counted with in a full 3600 sweep around sample
point called-
a. Horizontal point sampling b. Vertical point sampling
c. Straight line point sampling d. Simple random sampling
253. The value of critical angle is fixed for tally tree in vertical point
sampling-
a. 45° b. 30°
c. 60° d. 90°
254. Conimeter is based on the principle of-
a. Horizontal point sampling
b. Vertical point sampling
c. Non- random sampling
d. Simple random sampling
255. 1 diopter is equal to an angle-
a. 0.27° b. 0.37°
c. 0.57° d. 0.87°
256. 1 diopter is equal to-
a. 14.56 minutes b. 24.46 minutes
c. 44.56 minutes d. 34.36 minutes
257. The error in height measurement will be less if the angle (θ) is equal
to-
a. 45° b. 30°
c. 60° d. 90°

Answers
252. b 253. a 254. b 255. c 256. d 257. a
 Remote Sensing t 185

Chapter 8

Remote Sensing

1. Term remote sensing was coined by-

a. Ms. Evelyn Pruitt b. Pisharoth Rama Pisharoty
c. C.V. Raman d. ISRO
2. Father of Indian remote sensing is-
a. J. C. Bose b. K. S Sharma
c. Maniknandan V. C d. Pisharoth Rama Pisharoty
3. First aerial photograph was taken in the year-
a. 1820 b. 1858
c. 1892 d. 1976
4. First aerial photograph was taken in which country-
a. India b. America
c. Japan d. France
5. First satellite launched by India was-
a. ARYABHATA b. AGNI
c. PRATHVI d. BHASKAR
6. First satellite launched by India in the year-
a. 1896 b. 1956
c. 1975 d. 1993
7. Full form of ISRO is-
a. International Space Research Organization
b. Indian Statistics Research Organization
c. Indian Space Research Organization
d. Indian Space Research Orbit

Answers
1. a 2. d 3. b 4. d 5. a 6. c
7. c
186 t Universal Objective Forestry

8. The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) headquarter

situated in-
a. New Delhi b. Mumbai
c. Hyderabad d. Bengaluru
9. The Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) was formed in the
year-
a. 1858 b. 1920
c. 1958 d. 1969
10. The first country to launch an artificial satellite is-
a. France b. U.S.A
c. Japan d. Russia
11. Russia launched world first artificial satellite in the year-
a. 1876 b. 1920
c. 1950 d. 1957
12. Father of Indian space programme is-
a. Vikram Sarabhai b. Sanjeev Kumar
c. P. K. Mishra d. Pisharoth Rama Pisharoty
13. The art and science of obtaining the information about an object,
area or phenomena through the analysis of data acquired by a device
that is not in direct contact with the object, area or phenomena under
investigation is called-
a. Remote sensing b. Aerial photography
c. Forest management d. Biometry
14. The most common and important sources of energy used in remote
sensing is-
a. Solar Battery b. Photovoltaic cell
c. Diode d. Sun
15. The electromagnetic radiation occurs as a continuum of wavelength
(λ) and frequency from short wavelength and high frequency cosmic
waves to long wavelength and low frequency radio waves is called-
a. Electromagnetic radiation path (ERP)
b. Energy spectrum (ES)
c. Electromagnetic spectrum (EMS)
d. Wavelength distribution chart (WDC)
Answers
8. d 9. d 10. d 11. d 12. a 13. a
14. d 15. c
 Remote Sensing t 187

16. The bands of spectrum in which there is little or no absorption found

are called-
a. Spatial field b. Atmospheric window
c. Black hole d. Absorption zone
17. Remote sensing is classified into how many categories on the basis
of distance of platform from the earth -
a. Aerial remote sensing (ARS) b. Aerial Photography
c. Space remote sensing (SRS) d. All of the above
18. The science of obtaining the photographs from the air using various
platforms like as balloons, aircrafts etc. for getting information
about the surface of the earth is called-
a. Aerial photography b. Aerial remote sensing
c. Space remote sensing d. Both a and b
19. In aerial remote sensing the platform height is varies from-
a. 1000 m to 5000 m b. 5000 m to 10000 m
c. 1000 m to 15000 m d. 5000 m to 15000 m
20. In space remote sensing the platform height is varies from-
a. 50 km to 100 km b. 100 km to 300 km
c. 300 km to 800 km d. 300 km to 1000 km
21. Aerial photographs show-
a. Perspective projection of earth surface
b. Orthographical projection of earth surface
c. Symmetrical projection of earth surface
d. Angular projection of earth surface
22. Actual image of the object & the ground features is seen-
a. Aerial photograph b. Map
c. Plane table survey d. Both a and b
23. Maps shows-
a. Perspective projection of earth surface
b. Orthographical projection of earth surface
c. Symmetrical projection of earth surface
d. Angular projection of earth surface

Answers
16. b 17. d 18. d 19. d 20. d 21. a
22. a 23. b
188 t Universal Objective Forestry

24. Objects and ground features show by conventional symbol in-

a. Aerial photograph b. Map
c. Plane table survey d. Both a and b
25. 3-D view of earth is seen by-
a. Aerial photograph b. Map
c. Plane table survey d. Both a and b
26. Maps shows which type of view of earth surface-
a. 1-D view b. 2-D view
c. 3-D view d. All of the above
27. A yellow filter absorbs which energy incident on it-
a. Red b. Blue
c. White d. Green
28. A red filter absorbs which energy incident on it-
a. Blue b. Violet
c. Green d. All of the above
29. A method of remote sensing in which cameras, sensors or other
devices are attached to the satellite orbiting round the earth, take
the digital photographs of earth & resources and after converted
these digital photographs into photographs by computer, required
information is obtained called-
a. Aerial photography b. Aerial remote sensing
c. Space remote sensing d. Both a and b
30. A yellow filter transmits which energy-
a. Blue & green b. Black & white
c. Green & red d. Yellow & violet
31. A red filter transmits which energy-
a. Lower wavelength of visible spectrum
b. Higher wavelength of visible spectrum
c. Higher wavelength of infra-red spectrum
d. Lower wavelength of infra-red spectrum
32. Most commonly used filter in forestry for remote sensing operation
is-
a. Red filter b. Green filter
c. Violet filter d. Yellow filter
Answers
24. b 25. a 26. b 27. b 28. d 29. c
30. c 31. b 32. d
 Remote Sensing t 189

33. Which filter is used for water bodies-

a. Blue filter b. White filter
c. Red filter d. Yellow filter
34. There is about……….percent overlap in between the photographs
taken from two consecutive flight lines.
a. 10% b. 20%
c. 30% d. 50%
35. The ideal time for take aerial photograph is-
a. 6 to 9 A.M and 12 to 3 P.M.
b. 9 to 11 A.M and 1 to 2 P.M.
c. 9 to 12 A.M and 3 to 4 P.M.
d. 8 to 10 A.M and 1 to 3 P.M.
36. In India following agencies are responsible for aerial photography-
a. Indian Air Force (IAF)
b. Messers Air Survey Company of India (Pvt. Ltd.)
c. National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA)
d. All of the above
37. National Remote Sensing Agency is situated in-
a. Bengaluru b. Hyderabad
c. New Delhi d. Bombay
38. The Surveyor General’s office for aerial photography is situated-
a. Bengaluru b. Hyderabad
c. New Delhi d. Dehra Dun
39. Optimum season for aerial photography of coniferous forests of
Himalayan is-
a. Dec – February b. Sept – December
c. Oct – November d. March – April
40. Optimum season for aerial photography of mixed deciduous forests
is-
a. Dec – February b. Sept – December
c. Oct – November d. March – April
41. Optimum season for aerial photography of sal forests is-
a. Sept – December b. Mid-March – Mid April
c. Oct – November d. Jan - March
Answers
33. c 34. c 35. b 36. d 37. b 38. d
39. c 40. a 41. b
190 t Universal Objective Forestry

42. Optimum season for aerial photography of teak forests is-

a. Sept – December b. Mid-March – Mid April
c. Oct – November d. Jan – March
43. Optimum season for aerial photography of tropical evergreen &
moist deciduous forests is-
a. Sept – December b. Mid-March – Mid April
c. Oct – November d. Jan – Feb
44. Vertical photograph covered area in which form-
a. Square b. Triangular
c. Rhomboidal d. Rectangular
45. Oblique photograph covered area in which form-
a. Square b. Triangular
c. Trapezoidal d. Rectangular
46. Which type of photograph is used as map-
a. Vertical photograph b. Horizontal photograph
c. Linear photograph d. Oblique photograph
47. Which photographs are used to identification of tree species &
disease-
a. Panchromatic Black & White photograph
b. Infra-red (IR) black & white photograph
c. Colour photograph
d. Infra-red colour photograph
48. Which photographs are used to identification of broad leaved &
coniferous tree-
a. Panchromatic Black & White photograph
b. Infra-red (IR) black & white photograph
c. Colour photograph
d. Infra-red colour photograph
49. Infra-red colour photograph also called as-
a. True colour photographs
b. False colour photographs
c. Colour photographs
d. All of the above

Answers
42. a 43. d 44. d 45. c 46. a 47. c
48. b 49. b
 Remote Sensing t 191

50. Which type of film is used in false colour photograph-

a. Panchromatic film
b. Infra-red (IR) film with proper filter
c. Colour films
d. Kodak Aerochrome Infra-red
51. Scale which is used in very large scale photograph-
a. 1: 5,000 to 1: 10,000 b. 1: 10,000 to 1: 20,000
c. 1: 20,000 to 1: 40,000 d. 1: 40,000 to 1: 70,0000
52. Scale which is used in large scale photograph-
a. 1: 5,000 to 1: 10,000 b. 1: 10,000 to 1: 20,000
c. 1: 20,000 to 1: 40,000 d. 1: 40,000 to 1: 70,0000
53. Scale which is used in medium scale photograph-
a. 1: 10,000 to 1: 25,000 b. 1: 20,000 to 1: 50,000
c. 1: 20,000 to 1: 40,000 d. 1: 10,000 to 1: 20,000
54. Scale which is used in small scale photograph-
a. 1: 5,000 to 1: 10,000 b. 1: 10,000 to 1: 20,000
c. 1: 20,000 to 1: 40,000 d. 1: 40,000 to 1: 70,0000
55. Which scale is used in broad land use classification and forest type
identification-
a. <1: 70,0000 b. >1: 70,0000
c. >1: 50000 d. <1: 20000
56. Deviation allow in vertical photograph upto an angle-
a. 4° from perpendicular position
b. 4° from parallel position
c. 10° from perpendicular position
d. 4° from parallel position
57. Oblique photographs are taken from an angle-
a. 90° b. 60°
c. 45° d. 30°

Answers
50. d 51. a 52. b 53. c 54. d 55. a
56. a 57. d
 Rangeland Management t 193

Chapter 9

Rangeland Management

1. The total livestock population according 19th Livestock Census of

India is-
a. 312.56 million b. 402.12 million
c. 512.05 million d. 645.12 million
2. The total livestock population has decreased by about over the
previous census-
a. 1.30% b. 2.98%
c. 3.33% d. 4.55%
3. Livestock Census-2012 was-
a. 10th Livestock Census of India
b. 13th Livestock Census of India
c. 15th Livestock Census of India
d. 19th Livestock Census of India
4. India support about the total livestock of the world-
a. 05% b. 10%
c. 15% d. 20%
5. In India the area under permanent pasture is-
a. 10.29 million ha b. 12.47 million ha
c. 15.78 million ha d. 20.54 million ha
6. In India area under permanent pasture is about of the total
geographical are of the country-
a. 4.10% b. 5.90%
c. 6.67% d. 8.45%

Answers
1. c 2. c 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. a
194 t Universal Objective Forestry

7. Sehima/Dichanthium grasslands are best grown in-

a. Paddy tracts & high rainfall belts
b. Black soil
c. Low hills
d. Sandy loams
8. Dichanthium/Cenchrus grasslands are best grown in-
a. Low hills b. High mountains
c. Sandy loams d. Temperate Alpine climate
9. Phragmites/Saccharum grasslands are best grown in-
a. Low hills b. Marshy area
c. Sandy loams d. Temperate Alpine climate
10. Cymbopogon grasslands are best grown in-
a. Mixed temperate climate b. Sandy loams
c. Marshy area d. Low hills
11. Dabadghao and Shankar Narayan have recognised how many types
of grass cover in India-
a. Four b. Five
c. Six d. Eight
12. The number of individual animals that can survive the greatest
period of stress each year on a land area is called-
a. Productivity b. Carrying capacity
c. Grazing capacity d. Rangeland
13. The number of animal grazing a unit of area at a particular time is
called-
a. Carrying capacity b. Grazing capacity
c. Stocking rate d. Livestock unit
14. The feed requirement used as the basis of comparison for different
classes and species of stock is called-
a. Stocking rate b. Livestock unit
c. Grazing capacity d. None
15. 1 livestock unit requires approximately good quality pasture dry
matter per year-
a. 450 kg b. 520 kg
c. 650 kg d. 700 kg
Answers
7. b 8. c 9. b 10. d 11. b 12. b
13. c 14. b 15. b
 Rangeland Management t 195

16. 1 animal unit (au) is equal to 40.0 kg steer.

a. 20.0 kg steer b. 30.0 kg steer
c. 40.0 kg steer d. 60.0 kg steer
17. Cow unit required for cattle or bullock is-
a. Half b. One
c. Two d. Four
18. Cow unit required for goat or sheep is-
a. Half b. One
c. Two d. Four
19. Cow unit required for buffalo is-
a. One b. Two
c. Four d. Eight
20. Cow unit required for camel is-
a. One b. Two
c. Four d. Eight
21. Cow unit required breeding cow and bull-
a. One b. Two
c. Four d. Eight
22. The grazing capacity per ha on animal basis can be calculated-
Total annual forage production
a. Grazing capacity =
Forage requirement per animal × Grazing land area (a)

Total monthly forage production

b. Grazing capacity =
Forage requirement per animal × 365 × Grazing land area (a)

Total annual forage production

c. Grazing capacity = Forage requirement per animal × 365 × Grazing land area (a)

Total annual forage production

d. Grazing capacity =
Forage requirement × 365 × Grazing land area (a)

23. 100 cows and 20 buffalos with a planned grazing schedule from May
1 – July 1 and 4 camel grazed from July 1 – Nov. 1. Calculate total
cow unit (per month) of all grazing animal-
a. 108 b. 172
c. 408 d. 208

Answers
16. c 17. b 18. a 19. b 20. d 21. b
22. c 23. c
196 t Universal Objective Forestry

24. An area of 1,000 ha of forest with grazing capacity of 0.8 ha per cow
unit is to be managed under rotational grazing. Calculate how many
cow units can graze-
a. 512 b. 620
c. 864 d. 1250
25. Which formula is used to calculate total cow unit on the basis of
grazing capacity-
Grazing capacity per ha
a. Total cow unit =
Total grazing area (ha)

Total grazing area (ha)

b. Total cow unit =
Grazing capacity per ha

Total annual forage production

c. Total cow unit =
Forage requirement per animal × 365 × Grazing land area (a)

Total annual forage production

d. Total cow unit =
Forage requirement × 365 × Grazing land area (a)

26. Seed rate require for Lasiurus sindicus per hectare-

a. 2.5 kg/ha b. 3.0 kg/ha
c. 4.0 kg/ha d. 4.5 kg/h
27. Seed rate require for Cenchrus ciliaris per hectare-
a. 2.5 kg/ha b. 3.0 kg/ha
c. 4.0 kg/ha d. 4.5 kg/h
28. Seed rate require for Panicum antidotale per hectare-
a. 3.0 kg/ha b. 4.3 kg/ha
c. 5.6 kg/ha d. 6.0 kg/ha
29. Seed rate require for Dichanthium annulatum per hectare-
a. 4.5 kg/ha b. 5.3 kg/ha
c. 6.5 kg/ha d. 7.2 kg/ha
30. Seed rate require for Pennisetum pedicellatum per hectare-
a. 5.0 kg/ha b. 6.3 kg/ha
c. 7.6 kg/ha d. 8.9 kg/ha

Answers
24. d 25. b 26. d 27. d 28. c 29. a
30. c
 Rangeland Management t 197

31. Seed rate require for Sehima nervosum per hectare-

a. 4.5 kg/ha b. 5.0 kg/ha
c. 7.8 kg/ha d. 8.5 kg/ha
32. The object of scientific management of grassland is to maintain the
grassland in-
a. The highest state of production
b. Soil and moisture conservation
c. Sustainable production
d. Master seed production
33. When the number of animals that are allowed to graze per unit area
of rangeland is fixed accordance with rangeland carrying capacity
and grazing is not allowed during plants are passing through the
critical stage of growth called-
a. Controlled grazing b. Continuous controlled grazing
c. Deferred grazing d. Rotational grazing
34. Buffalo grass or paragrass is botanically known as-
a. Brachiaria mutica b. Cenchrus ciliaris
c. Sehima nervosum d. Panicum maximum
35. When the animals are kept permanently on a given area of a
rangeland and allowed to move freely over this area due to this the
crop composition is changed is called-
a. Deferred rotational grazing
b. Continuous controlled grazing
c. Deferred grazing
d. Rotational grazing
36. Cenchrus ciliaris commonly known as-
a. Barware grass b. Sain grass
c. Anjan grass d. Elephant grass
37. When the grassland is divided into three compartments and the
grazing being allowed in two compartments while third one is given
rest called-
a. Controlled grazing b. Continuous controlled grazing
c. Deferred grazing d. Rotational grazing

Answers
31. c 32. a 33. a 34. a 35. b 36. c
37. c
198 t Universal Objective Forestry

38. Bermuda grass or doob grass is botanically known as-

a. Pennisetum pedicellatum b. Cynodon dactylon
c. Dichanthium annulatum d. Pennisetum purpureum
39. The conservation of green forage into dry form without affecting the
quality of the original material called-
a. Silage b. Fodder
c. Hay d. Fermentation
40. When the grassland is divided into two or more blocks and the
grazing is allowed in one of the blocks while other block gets rest
and next year cattle are moved to other block to give rest to the
previous block called-
a. Continuous controlled grazing b. Deferred grazing
c. Rotational grazing d. Deferred rotational grazing
41. Sain grass botanically known as-
a. Thysanolaena maxima b. Pennisetum purpureum
c. Sorghum sudanense d. Sehima nervosum
42. The most common practice of grazing in India is-
a. Controlled grazing
b. Continuous controlled grazing
c. Deferred grazing
d. Rotational grazing
43. Which system of grazing management has been found more suitable
for perennial grasses-
a. Continuous controlled grazing
b. Deferred grazing
c. Rotational grazing
d. Deferred rotational grazing
44. Deferred rotational grazing is a combination of which system
a. Continuous controlled grazing and Rotational grazing
b. Deferred grazing and Rotational grazing
c. Rotational grazing and Deferred rotational grazing
d. Deferred rotational grazing and Controlled grazing
45. Deferred rotational grazing has increased the grazing capacity upto-
a. 23% b. 29%
c. 35% d. 37%

Answers
38. b 39. c 40. c 41. d 42. b 43. b
44. b 45. d
 Rangeland Management t 199

46. The moisture content in hay is upto-

a. 10% b. 12%
c. 13% d. 15%
47. Livestock population census in India is conducted in each-
a. 2 year b. 4 year
c. 5 year d. 10 year
48. Panicum maximum locally known as-
a. Napier grass b. Elephant grass
c. Tiger Grass d. Guinea grass
49. Population census in India is conducted in each-
a. 1 year b. 5 year
c. 10 year d. 15 year
50. Tiger Grass botanically known as-
a. Dichanthium annulatum b. Panicum antidotale
c. Sorghum sudanense d. Thysanolaena maxima
51. Wildlife population census India is conducted in each-
a. 2 year b. 5 year
c. 7 year d. 10 year
52. Pennisetum purpureum is locally known as-
a. Napier grass b. Elephant grass
c. Both a and b d. Tiger Grass
53. Forest survey report is released every-
a. 2 year b. 5 year
c. 7 year d. 10 year
54. Jarga grass botanically known as-
a. Dichanthium annulatum b. Panicum antidotale
c. Sorghum sudanense d. Thysanolaena maxima
55. The product obtained by packing fresh fodder in a suitable container
and allowing it to ferment under anaerobic condition without
undergoing much loss of nutrients called-
a. Hay b. Silage
c. Alcohol d. Ensilage

Answers
46. d 47. c 48. d 49. c 50. d 51. b
52. c 53. a 54. a 55. b
200 t Universal Objective Forestry

56. The process of preserving green fodder in a suitable container and

allowing it to ferment under anaerobic condition called-
a. Silage b. Hay
c. Ensilage d. All of the above
57. Silage is prepared in how many month-
a. 1-2 months b. 2-3 months
c. 3-4 months d. 2-4 months
58. In which system of grazing area of grazing is divided into two block
A and B-
a. Continuous controlled grazing
b. Deferred grazing
c. Rotational grazing
d. Deferred rotational grazing
59. Average forage yield of tiger grass per ha is-
a. 2 tons/ha b. 4 tons/ha
c. 6 tons/ha d. 8 tons/ha
60. Average forage yield of Cyanodon grass per ha is-
a. 200-350 Qt./ha b. 300-450 Qt./ha
c. 200-300 Qt./ha d. 300-350 Qt./ha
61. Average forage yield of napier grass or elephant grass is-
a. 10 ton/ha b. 30 ton/ha
c. 40 ton/ha d. 50 ton/ha

Answers
56. c 57. b 58. d 59. b 60. d 61. c
 Forest Protection t 201

Chapter 10

Forest Protection

1. A branch of forestry which deals with the activities directed towards

the prevention and control of damage to forest by man, animals,
fungi, insects, injurious plants and adverse climatic factors is called-
a. Forest pathology b. Forest management
c. Forest protection d. Forest Biometry
2. According Swaminathan about million tonnes of top soil in India are
washed down or blown away every year-
a. 1k million tonnes b. 3.5k million tonnes
c. 4.5k million tonnes d. 6k million tonnes
3. Loss of cultivable land due to erosion every year is-
a. 4.5 million acre b. 6.0 million acre
c. 6.3 million acre d. 7.2 million acre
4. According to Wiackowski the leaf surface is times greater than the
earth’s surface occupied by plants-
a. 10 to 20 b. 10 to 15
c. 20 to 25 d. 20 to 30
5. Dense plantation of which species is very beneficial in reducing
burning coal pollution-
a. Tectona grandis b. Madhuca indica
c. Cedrus deodara d. Pitheolobium dulce
6. Forest protection measures can be broadly classified into how many
categories-
a. Two b. Three
c. Four d. Six

Answers
1. c 2. d 3. b 4. a 5. d 6. a
202 t Universal Objective Forestry

7. Which is a method of forest protection measures-

a. Preventive measures b. Remedial measures
c. Both a and b d. None
8. Those measures which prevent occurrence of damage to forest from
damage causal agency-
a. Preventive measures b. Remedial measures
c. Preservative measure d. Conservation measures
9. Those measure operations which are carried out to minimize the
damage after damage has occurred is called-
a. Preventive measures b. Remedial measures
c. Preservative measure d. Conservation measures
10. Illicit felling of trees from a piece of land without the intension of
reforestation is called-
a. Plantation b. Afforestation
c. Reforestation d. Deforestation
11. Who has submitted his report on “Improvement of Indian Agriculture”
in 1893-
a. Dr. Swaminathan b. Dr. B.P Pal
c. Dr. Voelcker d. Dr. N. E. Barlog
12. Act of seizing prossession of some forest land by the peoples around
the forest is called-
a. Tribal Act b. Fundamental rights Act
c. Encroachment d. Land Act
13. A place where the timber or other forest produce required by villagers
for their bonafide domestic and agricultural use are obtained called-
a. Nistar b. Forest depots
c. Timber market d. Halters
14. Forest fire percent caused by man’s deliberate & intentional actions
is-
a. 5% b. 25%
c. 50% d. 5%
15. On the basis of causative factors forest fire is classified into how
many types-
a. Two b. Three
c. Four d. Five
Answers
7. c 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. c 12. c
13. a 14. d 15. b
 Forest Protection t 203

16. Which is/are not a types of forest fire on the basis of causative factors-
a. Natural fires b. Accidental fires
c. Deliberate or intentional fires d. Traditional forest fire
17. On the basis of the place of their action forest fire is classified into
how many types-
a. Two b. Three
c. Four d. Five
18. Which is/are not a types of forest fire on the basis of the place of
their action-
a. Creeping fire b. Accidental fires
c. Ground fire d. Surface fire
19. Which is/are types of forest fire on the basis of causative factors-
a. Natural fires b. Crown fire
c. Surface fire d. Ground fire
20. Which is/are types of forest fire on the basis of the place of their
action-
a. Accidental fires b. Deliberate fire
c. Ground fire d. Intentional fires
21. A forest fire spreading slowly over the ground with low flame in the
absence of strong wind-
a. Crown fire b. Surface fire
c. Ground fire d. Creeping fire
22. A forest fire that burns ground cover (herbaceous plants and shrubs)
only is called-
a. Ground fire b. Intentional fires
c. Surface fire d. Deliberate fire
23. A forest fire which burns not only the ground cover but also
undergrowth is called-
a. Crown fire b. Surface fire
c. Ground fire d. Creeping fire
24. A forest fire which spreads through the crowns of trees and consumes
all or part of the upper branches and foliage is called-
a. Crown fire b. Surface fire
c. Ground fire d. Creeping fire
Answers
16. d 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. c 21. d
22. a 23. b 24. a
204 t Universal Objective Forestry

25. Which forest fire most commonly occurs in plains-

a. Ground fire b. Surface fire
c. Crown fire d. Creeping fire
26. Which forest fire most commonly occurs in coniferous forests-
a. Crown fire b. Surface fire
c. Ground fire d. Creeping fire
27. Which tree is resistance to fire-
a. Teak b. Sissoo
c. Siris d. Chirpine
28. Which is/are the factors responsible for make up the fire environment
a. Weather b. Inflammable materials
c. topography d. All of the above
29. The unusable residue after logging and conversion operations called-
a. Stump b. Stock
c. Slash d. Cull
30. Speed of forest fire varies from 0.3 meter per minute to 107 meter
per minute-
a. 0.3 meter per minute to 107 meter per minute
b. 0.6 meter per minute to 110 meter per minute
c. 1.0 meter per minute to 120 meter per minute
d. 1.3 meter per minute to 125 meter per minute
31. Fire speed under forest canopy does not exceed-
a. 4 m/min b. 6 m/min
c. 8 m/min d. 10 m/min
32. In plains (Northern & Central India) fire season start from the month-
a. Feb to June b. May to June
c. March to June d. March to July
33. In sub mountain chirpine forest & deodar forests fire season start
from the month-
a. March to May b. May to June
c. March to June d. March to July
34. In southern India forests fire season start from the month-
a. Mid-January to April ending b. Mid-February to May ending
c. Mid-January to June ending d. Mid-March to June ending

Answers
25. b 26. a 27. d 28. d 29. c 30. a
31. b 32. c 33. b 34. a
 Forest Protection t 205

35. Burning of leaves litter or other undergrowth before completely

drying to prevent later fire damage called- early burning or controlled
burning
a. Early burning b. Controlled burning
c. Deliberate burning d. Both a and b
36. The treatment or handling of slash for reducing hazards from fire,
fungi or insects and for providing the seeds with access to soil I
called-
a. Controlled burning b. Slash disposal
c. Slash burning d. Jhum cultivation
37. Which species act as a natural fire break in evergreen forests due to
its juicy stem-
a. Strobilanthus b. Seabuckthorn
c. Chirpine d. Bamboo
38. A cleared permanent fire break intended to prevent fires from
crossing from one area to another is called-
a. Coupe b. Fire lines
c. Trenches d. Fire trace
39. How many kinds of fire lines found in the forest-
a. Two b. Three
c. Four d. Eight
40. Which is not a kinds of firelines in the forest-
a. Internal firelines b. External firelines
c. Intermediate firelines d. Both a and b
41. Internal firelines (width 6m to 30 m) are set-inside the forest to
prevent the fire
a. Inside the forest to provide the path to fire
b. Inside the forest to provide water supply to the forest
c. Outside the forest to prevent the fire spread from other area
d. Inside the forest to prevent the fire
42. Width of internal firelines are kept-
a. 2-20 m b. 6-30 m
c. 8-30 m d. 6-20 m

Answers
35. d 36. b 37. a 38. b 39. a 40. d
41. d 42. b
206 t Universal Objective Forestry

43. A cleared lines used as a base from which to counterfire is called-

a. Fire lines b. Trenches
c. Fire trace d. Watch tower
44. Map prepared by using 1:50,000 R.F scale called-
a. Regeneration map b. Forest type map
c. Soil map d. Fire map
45. Xyleutes ceramicus (Beehole) is more abundantly found in-
a. Teak plantation b. Teak natural forest
c. Sal forest d. Deodar forest
46. Which is teak defoliator-
a. Hyblaea tectonae b. Hyblaea puera
c. Plecoptera reflexa d. Tonica niviferana
47. Which is deodar defoliator-
a. Hyblaea cedrae b. Hyblaea puera
c. Plecoptera reflexa d. Ectropis deodarae
48. Which is shisham/sissoo defoliator-
a. Plecoptera dalbergeae b. Hyblaea puera
c. Plecoptera reflexa d. Ectropis deodarae
49. Which is toon shoot borer-
a. Tonica niviferana b. Hypsipyla robusta
c. Hypsipyla ciliae d. Hyblaea puera
50. Which is sal heartwood borer-
a. Hypsipyla robusta b. Hyblaea puera
c. Hapalia machaeralis d. Hoplocerambyx spinicornis
51. Which is teak skeletonizer-
a. Hapalia machaeralis b. Hypsipyla robusta
c. Plecoptera reflexa d. None
52. Which is sal skeletonizer-
a. Hoplocerambyx spinicornis b. Hypsipyla robusta
c. Tonica niviferana d. None
53. Which is the bark borer of Pinus longifolia-
a. Hypsipyla longifolia b. Ips longifolia
c. Plecoptera machaeralis d. None
Answers
43. c 44. d 45. a 46. b 47. d 48. c
49. b 50. d 51. a 52. d 53. b
 Forest Protection t 207

54. Which is/are the major pest of forest nursery-

a. Cockchafers b. Cutworms
c. Crickets d. All of the above
55. In forest nursery cockchafers feed on-
a. Seedlings roots b. Seedlings leaves
c. Cut seedlings d. All of the above
56. Which is/are the example of obnoxious weeds-
a. Lantana b. Parthenium
c. Eupartium d. Both a and c
57. Which cause pink disease in eucalyptus tree-
a. Cronartium himalaynese b. Corticium salmonicolour
c. Corticium unicolour d. Poria monticola
58. The National Plant Quarantine Station situated in-
a. Mumbai b. New Delhi
c. Odisha d. Kolkata
59. A technique for ensuring disease- and pest-free plants, whereby
a plant is isolated while tests are performed to detect the presence
of a problem-
a. Tissue culture b. Plant pathology
c. Plant quarantine d. Elisa test
60. Cronartium himalaynese commonly known as-
a. Chirpine Swertia felt rust b. Deodar Swertia felt rust
c. Teak Swertia felt rust d. Sal Swertia felt rust
61. Which is cause decay in heartwood of blue pine-
a. Fusarium b. Trametes pini
c. Fomes pini d. Both b and c
62. Which is responsible for developed red colour of wood in spruce and
fir instead of white colour of wood-
a. Fusarium b. Trametes pini
c. Fomes pini d. Both b and c
63. Root rot disease in sissoo is caused due to-
a. Ganoderma lucidum b. Fusarium solani
c. Fomes annosus d. None
Answers
54. d 55. a 56. d 57. b 58. b 59. c
60. a 61. d 62. a 63. a
208 t Universal Objective Forestry

64. Wilt disease in sissoo is caused due to-

a. Ganoderma lucidum b. Fusarium solani
c. Fomes annosus d. Fomes badius
65. Root rot disease in khair (Accacia catechu) is caused due to-
a. Armillarea mellea b. Fomes annosus
c. Fusarium solani d. Ganoderma lucidum
66. Heart rot disease in khair (Accacia catechu) is caused due to-
a. Fomes badius b. Fusarium solani
c. Fomes annosus d. Fomes pini
67. Root rot disease in sal tree is caused due to-
a. Ganoderma lucidum b. Polyporus zonalis
c. Polyporus annosus d. Polyporus shoreae
68. Heart rot disease in sal tree is caused due to-
a. Hymenochaete rubiginosa b. Hymenochaete shoreae
c. Hymenochaete solanecearum d. Hymenochaete vesiculosum
69. Wilt disease in teak is caused due to-
a. Hymenochaete rubiginosa b. Pseudomonas vesiculosum
c. Pseudomonas solanecearum d. Hymenochaete solanecearum
70. Root rot disease in teak tree is caused due to-
a. Ganoderma lucidum b. Polyporus zonalis
c. Polyporus shoreae d. Polyporus tectonae
71. Wilt disease in Casuarina equisetifolia is caused due to-
a. Trichosporium solanecearum b. Trichosporium vesiculosum
c. Hymenochaete solanecearum d. Ganoderma lucidum
72. Root rot disease in silver fir and spruce tree is caused due to-
a. Armillarea mellea b. Armillarea annosus
c. Armillarea zonalis d. All of the above
73. Root rot disease in deodar tree is caused due to-
a. Ganoderma lucidum b. Polyporus zonalis
c. Fomes annosus d. Polyporus cedrae
74. Heart rot disease in silver fir and spruce tree is caused due to-
a. Ganoderma lucidum b. Fomes spp.
c. Armillarea zonalis d. Polyporus cedrae
Answers
64. b 65. d 66. a 67. d 68. a 69. c
70. b 71. b 72. a 73. c 74. b
 Silviculture t 209

Chapter 11

Silviculture

1. The word forest is derived from Latin word “foris” meaning-

a. Outside the village boundary
b. Away from inhabited land
c. Both a and b
d. None
2. The art and science of cultivating forest crops is called-
a. Forestry b. Silvics
c. Silviculture d. Forest biology
3. The study of life history and generally characteristics of forest trees
crops with particular references to environmental factors as the basis
for the practice of silviculture is called-
a. Forestry b. Silvics
c. Silviculture d. Plantation forestry
4. An area set aside for the production of timber and other forest
produce or maintained under woody vegetation for certain indirect
benefits which it provides-
a. Forest farm b. Forest
c. Forestry d. Social forestry
5. On the basis of regeneration forest is classified into-
a. High forest b. Coppice forest
c. Pollard forest d. Both a and b
6. On the basis of age forest is classified into-
a. Even- aged b. Uneven-aged
c. Mixed forest d. Both a and b

Answers
1. c 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. d 6. d
210 t Universal Objective Forestry

7. A forest which is regenerated from seed is called-

a. Low forest b. High forest
c. Pure forest d. Mixed forest
8. A forest which is regenerated from vegetative parts of tree either
naturally or artificially is called as-
a. Production forest b. Coppice forest
c. Pollard forest d. High forest
9. On the basis of management forest is classified into-
a. Protection forest b. Production forest
c. Social forest d. All of the above
10. Pure forests are composed almost entirely………species while
mixed forests composed….. species respectively-
a. One species & more than two species
b. More than two species & one species
c. Both are more than two species
d. Two species & more than three species
11. On the basis of composition forest is classified into-
a. Pure forest b. Mixed forest
c. Normal forest d. Both a and b
12. An area with complete protection, constituted according to chapter II
of Indian forest Act-1927 is called as-
a. Reserved forest b. Protected forest
c. Village forest d. Protection forest
13. On the basis of growing stock forest is classified into-
a. Pure forest b. Abnormal forest
c. Normal forest d. Both b and c
14. An area with limited degree of protection, constituted according to
chapter IV of Indian forest Act-1927 is called-
a. Reserved forest b. Protected forest
c. Village forest d. Protection forest
15. On the basis of ownership forest is classified into-
a. Public forest b. Public forest
c. Production forest d. Both a and b

Answers
7. b 8. b 9. d 10. a 11. d 12. a
13. d 14. b 15. d
 Silviculture t 211

16. A forest which is stable forest assigned to a village community under

the provisions of chapter III of Indian forest Act-1927 is called-
a. Reserved forest b. Protected forest
c. Village forest d. Protection forest
17. The theory and practice of all that constitutes the creation,
conservation and scientific management of forests and the utilization
of their resources is called-
a. Social forestry b. Silviculture
c. Forestry d. Forest management
18. The foundation of scientific forestry was laid during the year-
a. 1825 b. 1847
c. 1856 d. 1864
19. Who is the first Inspector General (IGF) of Indian forest-
a. L. S. Khanna b. Dr. Dietrich Brandis
c. Dr. Dietrich Hokip d. Ram Prakash
20. The Central Board of Forestry (CBF) was constituted in the year-
a. 1864 b. 1920
c. 1948 d. 1950
21. Van Mahotsav is a-
a. Festival of tree planting
b. Festival of tribal living in forest
c. Festival of wildlife
d. Festival of tree census in a year
22. Van Mahotsav was started by-
a. Sunder Lal Bahuguna b. Munshi Prem Chand
c. K. M. Munshi d. Mohit Husain
23. Van Mahotsav was started in the year-
a. 1864 b. 1927
c. 1950 d. 1976
24. About per cent of the forests of the country are owned by the
Government-
a. 95.8 b. 33.0
c. 24.75 d. 75.87
Answers
16. c 17. c 18. d 19. b 20. c 21. a
22. c 23. c 24. a
212 t Universal Objective Forestry

25. Most of the forests in India belongs to which climate type-

a. Temperate b. Tropical
c. Deciduous d. Alpine
26. Complex of physical and biological factors of an area that determine
what vegetation it may carry is called-
a. Site productivity b. Site index
c. Site d. Site quality
27. The relative productive capacity of a site for particular species is
called-
a. Site productivity b. Site index
c. Site value d. Site quality
28. The portion of the solar energy to which human eye is sensitive is
known as-
a. Light b. Energy
c. Albido d. Spectrum
29. The sky appears blue because of-
a. Reflection b. Refraction
c. Scattering d. Emission
30. The ability of a surface to reflect the solar radiation is called-
a. Albedo b. Reflection
c. Refraction d. Transmission
31. The species which require abundant light for their optimum growth
and development are called-
a. Fast growing b. Slow growing
c. Light demander d. Hardy species
32. A species which require shade atleast in early stages for their
optimum growth and development called-
a. Shade loving b. Fast growing
c. Slow growing d. Shade demander
33. A species which are capable of persisting and developing under
shade called-
a. Shade bearer b. Shade demander
c. Hardy species d. Slow growing

Answers
25. b 26. c 27. d 28. a 29. c 30. a
31. c 32. d 33. a
 Silviculture t 213

34. Chilling of air below the its freezing point called-

a. Snow b. Due
c. Frost d. Fog
35. The rate at which rain falls is called-
a. Rainfall b. Rainfall intensity
c. Precipitation d. Rain coefficient
36. A day in which 2.5 mm or more rain falls called-
a. Rainy day b. Dry day
c. Wet day d. All of the above
37. Which is/are light demander species-
a. Dipterocarpus b. Calophylum
c. Shorea d. All of the above
38. Radiation frost also known as-
a. Pool frost b. Ground frost
c. Advective frost d. Convection frost
39. Which is/are shade bearer species-
a. Artocarpus b. Pterocarpus
c. Gmelina d. All of the above
40. Which is/are shade bearer species-
a. Mesua b. Xylia
c. Schleichera d. All of the above
41. A productivity which is really obtainable of at given conditions is
called-
a. Real productivity b. Potential productivity
c. Site productivity d. Productivity
42. Full abbreviation of CVP index is-
a. Climate, Vegetation and Precipitation
b. Climate, Vegetation and Productivity site
c. Climate, Vegetation and Productivity index
d. Climate, Vegetation and Potential index
43. CVP index was given by-Paterson-
a. Dietrich Brandis b. Backer
c. Paterson d. Bruce Zobel
Answers
34. c 35. b 36. a 37. d 38. b 39. d
40. d 41. b 42. c 43. c
214 t Universal Objective Forestry

44. Which is/are shade bearer species-

a. Quercus b. Cedrus
c. Cupressus d. All of the above
45. Which is/are light demander species-
a. Bombax b. Pinus
c. Sissoo d. All of the above
46. Which is/are shade demander species-
a. Syzygium b. Taxus
c. Abies d. All of the above
47. The height of a place from mean sea level is called-
a. Latitude b. Altitude
c. Aspect d. Slope
48. The direction towards which a slope faces or it is the direction of
slope of land is called-
a. Latitude b. Altitude
c. Aspect d. Slope
49. The angle formed by the surface of the land with horizontal plane
is called-
a. Slope b. Gradient
c. Altitude d. Both a and b
50. Most disease in plants are caused by Thallophytes (fungi, bacteria
and lichens)-
a. Bryophytes b. Thallophytes
c. Mycota d. Protozoans
51. Thallophytes includes-
a. Fungi, Bacteria and Virus b. Fungi, Bacteria and Algae
c. Fungi, Algae and Earthworm d. Fungi, Bacteria and Lichens
52. Which is/are light demander species-
a. Adina b. Populus
c. Teak d. All of the above
53. Which is/are shade bearer species-
a. Picea b. Toona
c. Dalbergia latifolia d. All of the above
Answers
44. d 45. d 46. d 47. b 48. c 49. d
50. c 51. d 52. d 53. d
 Silviculture t 215

54. Which is/are shade demander species-

a. Mallotus b. Careya
c. Taxus d. All of the above
55. Plants which grow on the trunk and branches of other plants for the
purpose of supports is called-
a. Parasite b. Epiphytes
c. Hygrophytes d. Partial Parasite
56. Which is/are he examples of important epiphytes-
a. Banyan b. Pipal
c. Orchids d. All of the above
57. Accumulation of heavy cold air into natural depression is called-
a. Radiation frost b. Pool frost
c. Advective frost d. Ground frost
58. Cold air brought from outside during winters is called-
a. Radiation frost b. Pool frost
c. Advective frost d. Ground frost
59. Frost which is produced due to loss of heat by radiation is called-
a. Ground frost b. Pool frost
c. Advective frost d. Convection frost
60. Pool frost/convection frost is most common occurs in-
a. New Delhi b. Jammu & Kashmir
c. Dehra Dun valley d. Himanchal Pradesh
61. Which frost is more injurious among all frost-
a. Ground frost b. Pool frost
c. Advective frost d. Radiation frost
62. Tree with single apical meristem are termed as-
a. Abaxial tree b. Monoaxial tree
c. Buttress tree d. Wolf tree
63. Forking is most common in which species-
a. Soft wood b. Hard wood
c. Broad-leaved d. Conifers

Answers
54. d 55. b 56. d 57. b 58. c 59. a
60. c 61. b 62. b 63. c
216 t Universal Objective Forestry

64. Buttressing is most common in-

a. Tropical forest
b. Temperate forests
c. Wet and moist tropical forests
d. Wet and moist evergreen tropical forests
65. When a stem shows irregular involution and swellings called-
a. Forking b. Buttressing
c. Fluting d. Canker
66. The symbiotic association between certain fungi and roots of higher
plants which enhances the uptake of water and nutrients called-
a. Lichen b. Mychorrhiza
c. Serula d. Helotism
67. The branch of botany which deals with the study of internal structures
and organization of plants or plant organs called-
a. Plant physiology b. Plant Taxonomy
c. Plant morphology d. Plant anatomy
68. From germination to the stage that the young trees has a few leaves
called-
a. Seedling b. Sapling
c. Pole d. Recruit
69. From recruit stage upto a height of 1 m of the young plant called-
a. Seedling b. Sapling
c. Pole d. Recruit
70. From the time the young tree reaches 1 m height till the lower
branches begin to fall and having dead bark on the stem called-
a. Seedling b. Sapling
c. Pole d. Recruit
71. From the fall of the lower branches to the time when the rate of
increase in height begins to fall and crown expansion becomes
marked called-
a. Seedling b. Sapling
c. Pole d. Recruit

Answers
64. c 65. c 66. b 67. d 68. d 69. a
70. b 71. c
 Silviculture t 217

72. The seasonal changes in the development of foliage, flowering and

fruiting is called-
a. Phenology b. Morphology
c. Growth c. Development
73. An area where plants are raised for eventual planting out has
ordinarily both seedlings and transplants is called-
a. Forest area b. Forest nursery
c. Poly house d. Green house
74. Seedling Nursery is a nursery which has only seedling beds for
raising-
a. Seedling b. Sapling
c. Pole d. Recruit
75. For coniferous species which soil is reported to be good for their
growth-
a. Acidic soils having pH 3– 4.0
b. Alkaline soils having pH 6 – 6.5
c. Acidic soils having pH 5 – 6.5
d. Alkaline soils having pH 7– 8.5
76. The size of nursery varies from percent of total plantation area-
a. 0.1 to 1.5 percent b. 0.4 to 2.0 percent
c. 0.4 to 2.5 percent d. 0.5 to 2.5 percent
77. Distance between bed to bed in a forest nursery is-
a. 25 cm b. 25 cm
c. 35 cm d. 45 cm
78. Normal bed size is in a forest nursery is-
a. 10 m × 1 m b. 10 m × 12 m
c. 12 m × 10 m d. 12.5 m × 1.2 m
79. Standard bed size is in a forest nursery is-
a. 10 m × 1 m b. 10 m × 12 m
c. 12 m × 10 m d. 12.5 m × 1.2 m

Answers
72. a 73. b 74. a 75. c 76. d 77. d
78. a 79. d
218 t Universal Objective Forestry

80. Area of nursery (A) is calculated by using formula-

1.8 × 1.2 × plantation area (X) × required plant/ha (Y)
a. A =
Number of plant in a bed (z)
1.8 × plantation area (X) × required plant/ha (Y)
b. A =
Number of plant in a bed (z)
1.2 × plantation area (X) × required plant/ha (Y)
c. A =
Number of plant in a bed (z)
1.8 × plantation area (X) × required plant/ha (Y)
d. A =
2 × Number of plant in a bed (z) × 1.2

81. The operations which are carried out in the forest crops from
seedlings to mature stages to provide a healthy environment for their
growth and development called-tending operations
a. Cultural operation b. Tending operations
c. Thinning operation d. None
82. Tending operations includes-
a. Weeding, cleaning and thinning
b. Improvement fellings, pruning and climber cutting
c. Weeding, cleaning and earthing up
d. Both a and b
83. Removal of all unwanted plants particularly in seedling stage at
nursery or in forest crops to reduce the competitions for moisture,
nutrients and to provide sufficient growing space for the desired
species is called-
a. Thinning b. Pruning
c. Weeding d. Cleaning
84. Lantana camera is a notorious weed controlled by-
a. Orthezia insignis b. Sporobolus tecti
c. Pasturella conyza d. Bacillus lantanae
85. Cleaning is carried out in the nursery at-sampling stage
a. Seedling b. Sapling
c. Pole d. Recruit
Answers
80. a 81. b 82. d 83. c 84. a 85. b
 Silviculture t 219

86. A felling made in immature stand for the purpose of improving

the growth and form of the trees that remains without permanently
breaking the canopy is called-
a. Thinning b. Pruning
c. Weeding d. Cleaning
87. Which may be an essential tools for shortening the rotation of a
forest crops-
a. Thinning b. Pruning
c. Weeding d. Cleaning
88. Which is/are not a kinds of thinnings used in regular crops-
a. Mechanical thinning b. Ordinary thinning
c. Crown thinning d. Natural thinning
89. Which is/are not a kinds of thinnings used in regular crops-
a. Free thinning b. Craib advance thinning
c. Special thinning d. Numerical thinning
90. Thumb rule for thinning is-
a. d = aB – b b. d = aC + k
c. d = aD + b d. d = aH – b
91. The requirement of seeds for sowing a hectare of area is called-
a. Seed demand b. Seed rate
c. Seed quality d. Seed percent
92. Which is a root promoting hormone in cuttings-
a. NAA b. IBA
c. CK d. IAA
93. A month which has less than 50 mm of rainfall is usually referred to
as- dry month.
a. Rainy month b. Dry month
c. Wet month d. None
94. An area where the mother trees of the seeds are growing is called-
a. Seed production area b. Orchard
c. Provenance d. Nursery
95. Which is/are the causal organism of damping-off disease in forest
nursery-
a. Rhizoctonia b. Pythium
c. Fusarium d. All of the above
Answers
86. a 87. a 88. d 89. c 90. c 91. b
92. b 93. b 94. c 95. d
220 t Universal Objective Forestry

96. Which is/are the causal organism of heart-rot disease-

a. Ganoderma spp. b. Fomes fungi
c. Fusarium fungi d. Mycoplasma
97. Which is/are the causal organism of root-rot disease-
a. Corticium salmonicolor b. Ganoderma spp.
b. Fomes fungi c. Fusarium fungi
98. Which is/are the causal organism of wilt disease-
a. Ganoderma spp. b. Fomes fungi
c. Fusarium fungi d. Mycoplasma
99. Which is/are drought hardy species-
a. Acacia nilotica b. Acacia catechu
c. Madhuca indica d. Toona ciliata
100. Which is/are moderately drought hardy species-
a. Acacia nilotica b. Acacia catechu
c. Madhuca indica d. Toona ciliata
101. Which is/are moderately drought sensitive species-
a. Pterocarpus marsupium b. Acacia catechu
c. Tecoma undulata d. Acacia senegal
102. Which is/are moderately drought hardy species-
a. Adina cordifolia b. Albizia procera
c. Dalbergia sissoo d. All of the above
103. Which is/are drought sensitive species-
a. Madhuca indica b. Boswellia serrata
c. Hardwickia binata d. Pongamia pinnata
104. Which is/are drought hardy species-
a. Albizia b. Eucalyptus
c. Diospyrus d. All of the above
105. Which is/are drought sensitive species-
a. Shorea robusta b. Toona ciliata
c. Terminalia species d. All of the above
106. Which is/are drought sensitive species-
a. Emblica officinalis b. Mitragyna parviflora
c. Dendrocalamus strictus c. Tectona grandis
Answers
96. b 97. b 98. c 99. a 100. b 101. a
102. d 103. a 104. d 105. d 106. d
 Silviculture t 221

107. Which is/are drought hardy species-

a. Azadirachta indica b. Tecoma undulata
c. Albizia procera d. All of the above
108. Desert soil with high per cent of sand & salts is formed in which
climate-
a. Hot & dry area b. Hot-humid & hot wet
c. Colder regions d. Alpine region
109. Grey-brown, red and lateritic soil is formed in which climate-
a. Hot & dry area b. Hot-humid & hot wet
c. Colder regions d. Alpine region
110. Podsol soil is formed in which climate-
a. Hot & dry area b. Hot-humid & hot wet
c. Colder regions d. Desert region
111. Conical shape crown is found in which species-
a. Pinus b. Silver fir
c. Neem d. Babul
112. Cylindrical shape crown is found in which species-
a. Deodar b. Spruce
c. Imli d. Prosopis juliflora
113. Spherical shape crown is found in which species-
a. Eucalyptus b. Mahua
c. Babul d. Spruce
114. Broad & flat topped crown is found in which species-
a. Accacia planifrons b. Prosopis juliflora
c. Azadirachta indica d. Acacia catechu
115. Broom shape crown is found in which species-
a. Pinus b. Silver fir
c. Neem d. Babul
116. Frondose shape crown is found in which species-
a. Accacia planifrons b. Prosopis juliflora
c. Azadirachta indica d. Acacia catechu
117. Conical shape crown is found in which species-
a. Deodar b. Spruce
c. Imli d. Prosopis juliflora

Answers
107. d 108. a 109. b 110. c 111. a 112. b
113. b 114. a 115. d 116. b 117. a
222 t Universal Objective Forestry

118. Cylindrical shape crown is found in which species-

a. Accacia planifrons b. Prosopis juliflora
c. Azadirachta indica d. Eucalyptus spp.
119. Which is the Glover formula for thinning-
a. d = D b. d = 1.5 D
c. d = 2 D d. d= 3 D
120. Which is the Laurie formula for thinning-
a. d = D b. d = 1.5 D
c. d = 2 D d. d = 3 D
121. Which is the Sagreiya formula for thinning-
a. d = D b. d = 1.5 D
c. d = 2 D d. d = 3 D
122. Which is the Howard formula for thinning-
a. d = D b. d = 1.5 D
c. d = 2 D d. d = 3 D
123. Glover formula is used for thinning in which species-
a. Deodar b. Irregular sal crops
c. Sissoo d. Irregular teak crops
124. Laurie formula is used for thinning in which species-
a. Deodar b. Irregular sal crops
c. Sissoo d. Irregular teak crops
125. Sagreiya formula is used for thinning in which species-
a. Deodar b. Irregular sal crops
c. Sissoo d. Irregular teak crops
126. Howard formula is used for thinning in which species-
a. Deodar b. Irregular sal crops
c. Sissoo d. Irregular teak crops
127. Ordinary thinning also called-
a. German thinning b. Low thinning
c. Thinning from the below d. All of the above
128. In ordinary thinning trees are removed from which class-
a. Higher class b. Upper class
c. Lower class d. Medium class
Answers
118. d 119. a 120. b 121. c 122. d 123. a
124. b 125. c 126. d 127. d 128. c
 Silviculture t 223

129. Ordinary thinning is most commonly used in which species-

a. Light demander species b. Shade demander species
c. Shade bearer species d. All of the above
130. Ordinary thinning is classified into how many grades-
a. Four b. Five
c. Six d. Eight
131. Which is not a grade of ordinary thinning-
a. A b. E
c. B d. F
132. Removal of dead, dying, diseased and suppressed trees of classes-III,
IV and V is called-
a. Light thinning b. Moderate thinning
c. Heavy thinning d. Very Heavy thinning
133. Removal of dead, dying, diseased and suppressed and an occasional
very defective dominant I (c) trees of classes-I (d), II (b), III, IV and
IV is called-
a. Extremely Heavy thinning b. Moderate thinning
c. Light thinning d. Heavy thinning
134. Removal of all classes of trees of D grades and more dominants of I
(a) without making permanent gaps in canopy of Classes-I (a), I (b),
I (c), I (d) II, III, IV and V is called-
a. Extremely Heavy thinning b. Moderate thinning
c. Light thinning d. Heavy thinning
135. All classes of trees of B grades and removal of remaining dominated
and defective codominants without making lasting gaps in canopy of
Classes-I (b), I (c), I (d) II, III, IV and V is called-
a. Light thinning b. Moderate thinning
c. Heavy thinning d. Very Heavy thinning
136. All classes of trees of C grades and some goods dominants of some
I (a) without making lasting gaps in canopy of Classes-I (b), I (c), I
(d) II, III, IV and V is called-
a. Very Heavy thinning b. Moderate thinning
c. Light thinning d. Heavy thinning

Answers
129. a 130. b 131. d 132. a 133. b 134. a
135. c 136. a
224 t Universal Objective Forestry

137. Light thinning also called as-

a. A grade b. C grade
c. D grade d. B grade
138. Extremely Heavy thinning also called as-
a. A grade b. C grade
c. D grade d. E grade
139. Which is/are a strong coppicer-
a. Acacia catechu b. Pterocarpus marsupium
c. Acacia nilotica d. Pinus spp.
140. Which is/are a fair coppicer-
a. Albizia spp. b. Terminalia spp.
c. Adina cordifolia d. Cedrus deodara
141. Which is/are a poor coppicer-
a. Madhuca indica b. Anogeissus latifolia
c. Manilkara hexandra d. Abies pindrew
142. Which is/are a non coppicer-
a. Butea monosperma b. Hardwickia binata
c. Bombax ceiba d. Picea smithiana
143. Which is/are a poor coppicer-
a. Acacia nilotica b. Adina cordifolia
c. Madhuca indica d. All the above
144. Which is/are a non coppicer-
a. Pinus spp. b. Cedrus deodara
c. Abies pindrew d. All the above
145. Which is/are a fair coppicer-
a. Pterocarpus marsupium b. Quercus leucotrichophora
c. Manilkara hexandra d. All
146. Which is/are a strong coppicer-
a. Albizia spp. b. Anogeissus latifolia
c. Butea monosperma d. All the above
147. Which is/are a strong coppicer-
a. Dalbergia sissoo b. Diospyrus melanoxylon
c. Ougenia oojensis d. All of the above
Answers
137. a 138. d 139. a 140. b 141. a 142. d
143. d 144. d 145. d 146. d 147. d
 Silviculture t 225

148. Which is/are a strong coppicer-

a. Shorea robusta b. Pterocarpus marsupium
c. Acacia nilotica d. Pinus spp.
149. Which is/are a fair coppicer-
a. Albizia spp. b. Hardwickia binata
c. Adina cordifolia d. Cedrus deodara
150. Which is/are a strong coppicer-
a. Acacia nilotica b. Adina cordifolia
c. Madhuca indica d. Tectona grandis
151. Which is/are a strong coppicer-
a. Pinus spp. b. Cedrus deodara
c. Salix spp. d. Abies pindrew
152. Which is/are a strong coppicer-
a. Acacia nilotica b. Eucalyptus spp.
c. Madhuca indica d. Adina cordifolia
153. Which shape beds are preferred than other shapes in nursery-
a. Square b. Triangular
c. Cuboidal d. Rectangular
154. Raised beds are prepared at the height above the ground level-
a. 5 – 10cm b. 10 – 15cm
c. 30 – 50cm d. 10 – 100 cm
155. Sunken beds are prepared at the depth from the ground level-
a. 10 – 15cm b. 10 – 30cm
c. 30 – 40cm d. 20 – 40 cm
156. Raised beds are suitable for which climatic conditions-
a. Normal rainfall area b. Dry area
c. Heavy rainfall area d. Low rainfall area
157. Sunken beds are suitable for which climatic conditions-
a. Normal rainfall area b. Dry area
c. Heavy rainfall area d. Low rainfall area
158. Level beds are suitable for which climatic conditions-
a. Normal rainfall area b. Dry area
c. Heavy rainfall area d. Low rainfall area
Answers
148. d 149. b 150. d 151. c 152. b 153. d
154. b 155. b 156. c 157. b 158. a
226 t Universal Objective Forestry

159. The soil in beds should be dug out to a depth upto- 40 to 50cm
a. 10 to 20cm b. 10 to 40cm
c. 20 to 60cm d. 40 to 50cm
160. Ratio of Sand: Soil: FYM for soil filling polybags in nursery-
a. 1 : 1 : 1 b. 1: 2: 1
c. 1 : 3 : 1 d. 3 : 1 : 1
161. Which is not a standard ploythene bags size used in nursery-
a. 10 cm × 20 cm b. 15 cm × 20 cm
c. 10 cm × 25 cm d. 20 cm × 30 cm
162. Which size of polythene bag is used in nursery for seed germination-
a. 10 cm × 20 cm b. 15 cm × 20 cm
c. 10 cm × 25 cm d. 20 cm × 30 cm
163. Which method is used to sowing small seed-
a. Broadcasting b. Dibbling sowing
c. Drill sowing d. Harrowing
164. Seed requirement in broadcasting methods as compare to required
seed is-
a. 2– 4 times more b. 2– 6 times more
c. 3–4 times more d. Equal amount
165. Seed requirement in dibbling sowing method as compare to required
seed is-
a. 2– 3 times more b. 2–4 times more
c. 3–4 times more d. Equal amount
166. Seed requirement in drill sowing method as compare to required
seed is-
a. 2 times more b. 3 times more
c. 4 times more d. equal amount
167. Depth of seed sowing depends on which parameter-
a. Area b. Soil
c. Seed diameter d. Seed viability
168. Minute seed should be sown at the depth-
a. 1.5 to 2.5 mm b. 2.5 to 4.0 mm
c. 2.5 to 5.0 mm d. 2.5 to 8 mm
Answers
159. d 160. c 161. c 162. a 163. c 164. c
165. d 166. a 167. c 168. c
 Silviculture t 227

169. Which formula is used to calculate quantity of seed (W)-

A× P
a. Quantity of seeds (W) = × 100
D× N
A+ D
b. Quantity of seeds (W) = × 100
P× N
A– D
c. Quantity of seeds (W) = × 100
P× N

A× D
d. Quantity of seeds (W) = × 100
P×N

170. Best time of seed sowing in nursery is-

a. March to May b. Feb to June
c. April to August d. March to June
171. Stump planting is common practice in which species-
a. Bamboo b. Sissoo
c. Teak d. Both b and c
172. How many year old seedling of teak and sissoo are suitable for
stump planting-
a. 1.0 year b. 1.5 years
c. 2 years d. 2.5 years
173. One year old seedling of teak and sissoo attaining thickness are
suitable for stump planting-
a. 1.0-1.5 cm b. 1.5-2.0 cm
c. 2.5-3.0 cm d. 3.5-4.0 cm
174. The process of moving of plant from one nursery bed to another for
better root and shoot growth is called-
a. Transplanting b. Pricking out
c. Lining out d. All of the above
175. The plants which have been pricked out in the nursery are called-
a. Seedlings b. Sapling
c. Pole d. Transplants

Answers
169. d 170. d 171. d 172. a 173. b 174. d
175. d
228 t Universal Objective Forestry

176. Which species has viability period of two weeks-

a. Dipterocarpus spp. b. Shorea robusta
c. Hopea odorata d. All of the above
177. Which species has viability period of three months -
a. Chloroxylon spp. b. Mangifera indica
d. Podocarpus spp. d. All of the above
178. Which species has viability period of one year-
a. Artocarpus b. Toona
c. Mesua d. All of the above
179. Which species has viability period of two or more than two years-
a. Accacia spp. b. Albizia spp.
c. Cassia spp. d. All of the above
180. Which species has viability period of one year-
a. Tectona grandis b. Azadirachta indica
c. Podocarpus spp. d. Prosopis spp.
181. Seeds per kilogram is determined by counting-
a. Four replicates of 100 seeds b. Five replicates of 500 seeds
c. Six replicates of 100 seeds d. Five replicates of 100 seeds
182. Viability test required how many replicates-
a. Four replicates of 100 seeds
b. Four replicates of 400 seeds
c. Five replicates of 100 seeds
d. Five replicates of 500 seeds
183. The total number of seeds that germinate in the test plus the number
of sound seeds remaining ungerminated at the end of the test is
called-
a. Germination energy b. Germination potential
c. Germinative capacity d. Germination
184. The percentage of seed in a sample that have germinated in a test
upto the time when the rate of germination reaches its peak is called-
a. Germination energy b. Germination potential
c. Germinative capacity d. Germination

Answers
176. d 177. d 178. d 179. d 180. a 181. d
182. a 183. c 184. a
 Silviculture t 229

185. Tetrazolium test is performed to test-

a. Seed germination b. Seed viability
c. Germinative energy d. Germinative capacity
186. Which indicator is used in tetrazolium test (TZ)-
a. 1, 2, 3- triphenyl-tetrazolium chloride/bromide
b. 1, 3, 5- triphenyl-tetrazolium chloride/bromide
c. 3, 2, 5- triphenyl-tetrazolium chloride/bromide
d. 2, 3, 5- triphenyl-tetrazolium chloride/bromide
187. During tetrazolium test live seed takes a colour-
a. White b. Green
c. Red d. Black
188. Marking of planting spots or soil-working spots with the help of
sticks is called-
a. Earthing up b. Staking
c. Plant spotting d. Spacing
189. The distance between plant to plant in a plantation or in a crop is
called-
a. Earthing up b. Staking
c. Plant spotting d. Spacing
190. An operation under which forked or multiple stems are reduced to a
single stem to improve the form of the planted tree is called-
a. Pruning b. Thinning
c. Singling d. Staking
191. An operation in which competing plants of the same or similar
species are removed to provide proper growing space is called-
a. Thinning b. Weeding
c. Spacing d. Re-spacing
192. A species which grows naturally in the country or in a region is called-
a. Exotic species b. Indigenous species
c. Wild species d. Domestic species
193. A species which is grown outside the limits of its natural range is
called-
a. Exotic species b. Indigenous species
c. Wild species d. Domestic species

Answers
185. b 186. d 187. c 188. b 189. d 190. c
191. d 192. b 193. a
230 t Universal Objective Forestry

194. Ordinary pits for planting is suitable for which soil-

a. Clayey loam b. Sandy soil
c. Very sandy d. Laterite soil
195. Saucer shaped pits for planting is suitable for which soil-
a. Clayey loam b. Sandy soil
c. Very sandy d. Black soil
196. Ring pits for planting is suitable for which soil-
a. Clayey loam b. Sandy soil
c. Very sandy d. Alluvial soil
197. Ordinary pits is suitable for which climatic condition-
a. All rainfall classes b. Medium rainfall
c. Less rainfall d. Dry conditions
198. Saucer shaped pits is suitable for which climatic condition-
a. All rainfall classes b. Medium rainfall
c. Less rainfall d. Dry conditions
199. Ring pits is suitable for which climatic condition-
a. All rainfall classes b. Medium rainfall
c. Less rainfall d. Dry conditions
200. Which formula is used to calculate number of plant (N) in line
planting plantation-
100 × 100
a. N =
distance of plants in lines (X) × distance between the lines (Y)

100 × 100
b. N =
Square of planting distance (X)
100 × 100 × 1.155
c. N =
Square of planting distance (X)
2 × 100 × 100
d. N =
Square of planting distance (X)

Answers
194. a 195. b 196. c 197. a 198. b 199. c
200. a
 Silviculture t 231

201. Which formula is used to calculate number of plant (N) in square

planting plantation-
100 × 100
a. N =
planting distance (X)

100 × 100
b. N =
Square of planting distance (X)

2 × 100 × 100
c. N =
Square of planting distance (X)

100 × 100 × 1.155

d. N =
Square of planting distance (X)

202. Which formula is used to calculate number of plant (N) in triangular

planting plantation-
100 × 100 × 1.155
a. N =
Square of planting distance (X)
100 × 100 × 2.155
b. N =
Square of planting distance (X)
2 × 100 × 100
c. N =
Square of planting distance (X)
1.155 × 100 × 100
d. N =
planting distance (X)

Answers
201. b 202. a
232 t Universal Objective Forestry

203. Which formula is used to calculate number of plant (N) in quincunx

planting plantation-
2 × 100 × 100
a. N =
Square of planting distance (X)
4 × 100 × 100
b. N =
Square of planting distance (X)
1.155 × 100 × 100
c. N =
planting distance (X)
100 × 100
d. N =
Square of planting distance (X)

204. Wire fencing has how many strands-

a. Two strands b. Three strands
c. Four strands d. Six strands
205. Standard height of stone wall fencing is-
a. 1.0 m b. 1.25 m
c. 1.5m d. 2.0 m
206. Casuarina equisetifolia is a native of which country-
a. Indonesia b. Queensland
c. Central America d. India
207. Eucalyptus globulus is a native of which country-
a. India b. North America
c. Australia d. China
208. Cinnamomum camphora is a native of which country-
a. Burma b. Europe
c. China d. Brazil
209. Hevea brasiliensis is a native of which country-
a. Japan b. Central America
c. Russia d. Brazil

Answers
203. a 204. c 205. b 206. a 207. c 208. c
209. d
 Silviculture t 233

210. Salix alba is a native of which country-

a. Australia b. China
c. Indonesia d. Mexico
211. Champion and Seth (1968) classified Indian forests int0-
a. 5 major groups and 15 type groups
b. 6 major groups and 16 type groups
c. 5 major groups and 16 type groups
d. 6 major groups and 18 type groups
212. Tropical forest major group has how many types group-
a. Three b. Five
c. Six d. Seven
213. Montane sub-tropical forests major group has how many types group-
a. Three b. Five
c. Four d. Five
214. Montane temperate forests major group has how many types group-
a. Two b. Three
c. Four d. Five
215. Sub-alpine forests major group has how many types group-
a. One b. Three
c. Four d. Five
216. Alpine scrub major group has how many types group-
a. One b. Two
c. Three d. Four
217. Which is/are not a types groups of montane temperate forests major
group-
a. Montane wet temperate forests b. Himalayan moist forests
c. Himalayan dry forests d. Dry evergreen forests
218. Which is/are not a types groups of montane sub-tropical forests
major group-
a. Subtropical broad leaved forests
b. Subtropical pine forests
c. Littoral and swampy forests
d. Subtropical dry evergreen forests
Answers
210. b 211. c 212. d 213. a 214. b 215. a
216. b 217. d 218. c
234 t Universal Objective Forestry

219. Which is/are not a types groups of tropical forests major group-
a. Moist deciduous forests b. Semi- evergreen forests
c. Himalayan moist forests d. Dry deciduous forests
220. Which is/are not a types groups of tropical forests major group-
a. Himalayan dry forests b. Littoral and swampy forests
c. Thorn forests d. Dry evergreen forests
221. Mean annual temperature in the tropical forest is-
a. > 24°C b. 17° - 24°C
c. 7° - 17°C d. < 7°C
222. Mean annual temperature in the montane sub-tropical forests is-
a. > 24°C b. 17° - 24°C
c. 7° - 17°C d. < 7°C
223. Mean annual temperature in the montane temperate forests is-
a. > 24°C b. 17° - 24°C
c. 7° - 17°C d. < 7°C
224. Mean annual temperature in the sub-alpine forests is-
a. > 24°C b. 17° - 24°C
c. 7° - 17°C d. < 7°C
225. Mean annual rainfall in the wet forest occurs-
a. > 2500 mm b. 1250 - 2500 mm
c. 750 - 1250 mm d. < 750 mm
226. Mean annual rainfall in the moist and semi moist forests–
a. > 2500 mm b. 1250 - 2500 mm
c. 750 - 1250 mm d. < 750 mm
227. Mean annual rainfall in the dry forests–
a. > 2500 mm b. 1250 - 2500 mm
c. 750 - 1250 mm d. < 750 mm
228. Mean annual rainfall in the desert forests –
a. > 2500 mm b. 1250 - 2500 mm
c. 750 - 1250 mm d. < 750 mm
229. Master seed year in Abies pindrew-
a. 10 year b. 12 year
c. 15 year d. 18 year
Answers
219. c 220. a 221. a 222. b 223. c 224. d
225. a 226. b 227. c 228. d 229. a
 Silviculture t 235

230. Master seed year in Acacia catechu-

a. 1-2 year b. 5 year
c. 7 year d. 10 year
231. Master seed year in Cedrus deodara-
a. 1-2 year b. 4-5 year
c. 8 year d. 10 year
232. Master seed year in Cupressus torulosa-
a. 2-3 year b. 4-5 year
c. 7-8 year d. 10 year
233. Master seed year in Picea smithiana-
a. 3-5 year b. 4-5 year
c. 7-8 year d. 5-6 year
234. Master seed year in Pinus roxburghii-
a. 2 year b. 4-5 year
c. 8 year d. 10 year
235. Master seed year in Pinus wallichiana-
a. 2-3 year b. 4-5 year
c. 7-8 year d. 10 year
236. Master seed year in Shorea robusta-
a. 3-5 year b. 4-5 year
c. 7-8 year d. 5 year
237. Time of flowering in Abies pindrew-
a. Sept-October b. July-August
c. Mar-November d. None
238. Time of seed/cone collection in Abies pindrew, Cedrus deodara &
Picea smithiana-
a. Sept-October b. July-August
c. Oct-November d. Mar-June
239. Time of seed collection in Acacia catechu-
a. Jan – February b. Nov- March
c. Mar-June d. May-August

Answers
230. a 231. b 232. c 233. d 234. b 235. a
236. a 237. d 238. c 239. a
236 t Universal Objective Forestry

240. Time of seed collection and time of flowering in Adina cordifolia

respectively-
a. April-June and June-August
b. Feb-March and April-May
c. Sept-November and Jan – Feb
241. Time of flowering and seed collection in Ailanthus excelsa
respectively-
a. June-September and Dec-March
b. Sept-November and Feb-March
c. Feb-March and April-May
d. Sept-November and Jan – February
242. Time of flowering and seed collection in Albizia procera respectively-
a. June-September and Dec-March
b. Sept-November and Feb-March
c. May and June-December
d. Sept-November and Jan – February
243. Time of flowering and seed collection in Anogeissus latifolia
respectively-
a. Feb-April and May-June
b. Jan-March and April-May
c. March-May and June-July
d. June-September and Dec-March
244. Time of flowering and seed collection in Azadirachta indica
respectively-
a. Jan-March and April-May
b. March-May and June-July
c. Feb-April and May-June
d. May and June-December
245. Time of flowering and seed collection in Boswellia serrata
respectively-
a. Feb-April and May-June
b. May and June-December
c. August-September and Jan-February
d. Jan-March and April-May

Answers
240. a 241. c 242. b 243. d 244. b 245. a
 Silviculture t 237

246. Time of flowering and seed collection in Casuarina equisetifolia

respectively-
a. August-September and Jan-February
b. Jan-March and April-May
c. May and June-December
d. Feb-April and May-June
247. Time of flowering and seed collection in Dalbergia sissoo
respectively-
a. August-September and Jan-February
b. April-May and Dec-February
c. March-April and May-June
d. Feb-April and May-June
248. Time of flowering and seed collection in Dalbergia latifolia
respectively-
a. August-September and Jan-February
b. March-April and May-June
c. Feb-April and May-June
d. April-May and Dec-February
249. Time of flowering and seed collection in Dendrocalamus strictus
respectively-
a. Feb-March and Dec-February
b. Feb-April and May-June
c. March-April and May-June
d. August-September and Jan-February
250. Time of flowering and seed collection in Pterocarpus marsupium
respectively-
a. April-June and Aug-September
b. Sept-December and March-April
c. March-April and June-July
d. Sept-October and Dec-April
251. Time of flowering and seed collection in Quercus species respectively-
a. April-June and Aug-September
b. March-April and June-July
c. August-September and Jan-February
d. July-August and Nov-January

Answers
246. c 247. b 248. a 249. c 250. d 251. a
238 t Universal Objective Forestry

252. Time of flowering and seed collection in Santalum album respectively-

a. March-April and June-July
b. July-August and Nov-January
c. Sept-December and March-April
d. August-September and Jan-February
253. Time of flowering and seed collection in Shorea robusta respectively-
a. August-September and Jan-February
b. July-August and Nov-January
c. March-April and June-July
d. March-April and May-June
254. Time of flowering and seed collection in Tectona grandis respectively-
a. July-August and Nov-January
b. August-September and Jan-February
c. March-April and June-July
d. March-April and Nov-January
255. Which is/are drought hardy species-
a. Ailanthus excelsa b. Azadirachta indica
c. Bombax ceiba d. All of the above
256. Which is/are frost hardy species-
a. Acacia catechu b. Anogeissus latifolia
c. Anogeissus pendula d. All of the above
257. Which is/are frost tender species-
a. Acacia catechu b. Anogeissus latifolia
c. Anogeissus pendula d. Abies pindrew
258. Which is/are drought hardy species-
a. Boswellia serrata b. Dalbergia latifolia
c. Diospyros melanoxylon d. All
259. Which is/are drought hardy species-
a. Prosopis juliflora b. Schleichera oleosa
c. Syzygium cumini d. All of the above
260. Which is/are drought sensitive and frost tender-
a. Abies pindrew b. Albizia lebbeck
c. Casuarina equisetifolia d. All

Answers
252. c 253. c 254. a 255. d 256. d 257. d
258. d 259. d 260. d
 Silviculture t 239

261. Which is/are drought sensitive and frost tender-

a. Eucalyptus hybrid b. Populus ciliata
c. Pterocarpus marsupium d. All of the above
262. Which is/are drought sensitive and frost tender-
a. Picea smithiana b. Tectona grandis
c. Terminalia spp. d. All of the above
263. Which is/are drought sensitive and frost hardy species-
a. Ailanthus excelsa b. Anogeissus latifolia
c. Azadirachta indica d. Bombax ceiba
264. Which is/are drought sensitive and frost hardy species-
a. Ailanthus excelsa b. Anogeissus latifolia
c. Cedrus deodara d. Bombax ceiba
265. Which is/are drought sensitive and frost hardy species-
a. Dendrocalamus strictus b. Madhuca indica
c. Pinus roxburghii d. All of the above
266. Which is/are drought sensitive and frost hardy species-
a. Pinus wallichiana b. Quercus species
c. Shorea robusta d. All of the above
267. Which is/are frost tender species-
a. Anogeissus pendula b. Dalbergia sissoo
c. Ailanthus excelsa d. Schleichera oleosa
268. Which is/are frost hardy species-
a. Azadirachta indica b. Anogeissus pendula
c. Bombax ceiba d. Prosopis juliflora
269. Which is/are frost tender species-
a. Bombax ceiba b. Dalbergia sissoo
c. Schleichera oleosa d. Diospyros melanoxylon
270. Which is/are frost tender species-
a. Azadirachta indica b. Boswellia serrata
c. Prosopis juliflora d. All of the above

Answers
261. d 262. d 263. b 264. c 265. d 266. d
267. c 268. b 269. a 270. d
 Agroforestry t 241

Chapter 12

Agroforestry

1. A collective name for a and use system and technology whereby

woody perennials as deliberately used on the same land management
unit an agriculture crops and/or animals in same form of spatial
arrangement or temporal sequence-
a. Forestry b. Social forestry
c. Agroforestry d. Farm forestry
2. Term agroforestry was coined in the year-
a. 1920 b. 1952
c. 1976 d. 1977
3. Full abbreviation of ICRAF-
a. International Council for Research in Agroforestry
b. Indian Council for Research in Agroforestry
c. International Council for Research in Agriculture
d. Indian Council for Research in Agriculture
4. ICRAF came into existence in 1977-
a. 1906 b. 1957
c. 1977 d. 1985
5. The National Commission on Agriculture (NCA) emphasised
agroforestry education in which five year plan-
a. Fifth five-year plan period (1985-90)
b. Sixth five-year plan period (1985-90)
c. Seventh five-year plan period (1985-90)
d. Ninth five-year plan period (1985-90)
6. First agroforestry seminar in India was organised in the year-
a. 1906 b. 1957
c. 1977 d. 1985
Answers
1. c 2. d 3. a 4. c 5. c 6. d
242 t Universal Objective Forestry

7. First agroforestry seminar in India was organised at-

a. Imphal b. Pantanagar
c. New Delhi d. Gujarat
8. International seminar on “Agroforestry for Rural Need” was
organised in the year-
a. 1926 b. 1947
c. 1958 d. 1987
9. First of all Post-graduation education in agroforestry was started in-
a. Pussa Agricultural Institute, New Delhi
b. Dr. Y.S. Parmar University of Horticulture & Forestry, Solan
c. Gujarat Agricultural University, Gujarat
d. Forest Research Institute, Dehra Dun
10. Gujarat Agricultural University has started a P.G programme in
agroforestry at the Aspee College of Horticulture & Forestry in the
year-
a. 1952 b. 1976
c. 1985 d. 1993
11. Benefits from agroforestry is classified into how many categories-
a. Two b. Three
c. Five d. Six
12. Which is not a categories of agroforestry benefits-
a. Environmental benefits b. Economic benefits
c. Ecological benefits d. Social benefits
13. Allelochemicals produced by the plants are-
a. Primary plant metabolites
b. Secondary plants metabolites
c. Tertiary plant metabolites
d. Not plant products
14. Allelochemicals are escaped or released from the plant parts by-
a. Volatilization b. Leaching
c. Exudation d. All of the above
15. Which is a method or way of releasing allelochemicals from plant
parts-
a. Weathering b. Decomposition
c. Mineralization d. Nutrient pumping

Answers
7. a 8. d 9. b 10. d 11. b 12. c
13. b 14. d 15. b
 Agroforestry t 243

16. The negative effect of trees on the intercrops can be reduced by-
a. Planting in E-W direction b. Planting in N-W direction
c. Planting in W-S direction d. Planting in N-E direction
17. Allelopathy is the best examples for which-
a. Lichen b. Mychorrhiza
c. Commensalism d. Amensalism
18. Home garden also called as-
a. Hedge row intercropping b. One-tier system
c. Two-tier system d. Multi-tier system
19. Which is/are the fundamental attributes of all agroforestry systems-
a. Production b. Conservation
c. Protection d. Both a and c
20. The direct or indirect effects of one plant to another through
the production of chemical inhibitors that are released into the
environment is called-
a. Amensalism b. Parasitism
c. Allelopathy d. Commensalism
21. Allelochemicals are mostly produced by which plant parts-
a. Roots b. Leaves
c. Stems d. Fruits
22. The species interaction due to chemical influences is also called as-
a. Allelochemistry b. Phytochemical ecology
c. Allelobiology d. All of the above
23. The process of taking nutrients from deeper soil profile and
depositing them on the surface layer is referred-
a. Leaching b. Nutrient immobilization
c. Nutrient pumping d. Mineralization
24. The process by which complex organic substances are broken down
to simple inorganic elements is called as-
a. Leaching b. Nutrient immobilization
c. Nutrient pumping d. Mineralization

Answers
16. a 17. d 18. d 19. d 20. c 21. b
22. d 23. c 24. d
244 t Universal Objective Forestry

25. The practices of rotational cropping helps in improving and

maintaining-
a. Soil fertility b. Soil productivity
c. Water conservation d. All of the above
26. The process of cycling of nutrients from soil to the plants and back
to the soil is called as-
a. Decomposition b. Nutrient cycling
c. Mineralization d. Leaching
27. India has been classified into how many agroecological regions-
a. 5 b. 8
c. 14 d. 15
28. Annual precipitation is received maximum in which agroecological
regions-
a. Humid Bengal-Assam Basin
b. Sub Humid Sutlej-Ganga Alluvial Plains
c. Humid To Semi-Arid Western Ghats And Karnataka Plateau
d. Sub Humid to Humid Eastern & South-Eastern Uplands
29. Annual precipitation is received minimum in which agroecological
regions-
a. Semi-Arid Lava Plateau And Central Highlands
b. Arid Western Plains
c. Humid To Semi-Arid Western Ghats And Karnataka Plateau
d. Humid Eastern Himalayan Region And Bay Islands
30. Shifting cultivation is most common practices in which
agroecological regions-
a. Sub Humid to Humid Eastern & South-Eastern Uplands
b. Semi-Arid Lava Plateau And Central Highlands
c. Humid Eastern Himalayan Region And Bay Islands
d. Sub Humid Sutlej-Ganga Alluvial Plains
31. According to Nair agroforestry system can be classified into how
many categories-
a. Three b. Four
c. Five d. Six

Answers
25. d 26. b 27. b 28. a 29. b 30. c
31. b
 Agroforestry t 245

32. Agroforestry system classification was given by Nair in the year-

a. 1958 b. 1976
c. 1987 d. 1993
33. Which is not a key features of D & D design-
a. Flexibility b. Productivity
c. Speed d. Repetition
34. The procedures of agroforestry D & D are usually done in which
ways-
a. Macro D b. Micro D
c. Mini D d. Both a and b
35. Macro D & D covers-
a. Entire ecological zone within a country
b. Chosen ecological zone within a state
c. Entire ecological zone within a state
d. Chosen ecological zone within a district
36. Micro D & D covers-
a. Entire ecological zone within a state
b. Chosen ecological zone within a district
c. Entire ecological zone within a country
d. Chosen ecological zone within a state
37. A family of procedure for the diagnosis of land management problems
& potentials and the design of agroforestry solution is called-
a. Macro D b. Micro D
c. Agroforestry D & D d. Land amelioration
38. Full form of D & D is-
a. Design and Diagnosis
b. Diagnosis & Design
c. Design & Development
d. Development & Diagnosis
39. Which is/are not a main criteria for good agroforestry design-
a. Productivity b. Sustainability
c. Adoptability d. Flexibility

Answers
32. c 33. b 34. d 35. a 36. d 37. c
38. b 39. d
246 t Universal Objective Forestry

40. On the structural basis agroforestry systems can be classified into

how many categories-
a. Two b. Three
c. Four d. Five
41. The crops-land left without crops for periods ranging from one
season to several years is called-
a. Pasture land b. Fallow land
c. Waste land d. Treated land
42. The main objective of fallows is-
a. To recover depleted soil moisture
b. To recover soil productivity
c. To recover depleted soil nutrients
d. To enhance microbial activity
43. Alley cropping also known as-
a. Taungya b. Shifting cultivation
c. Jhum Cultivation d. Hedgerow intercropping
44. A method of planting in which rows of trees are interspersed with
rows of crops is called-
a. Taungya b. Social forestry
c. Farm forestry d. Alley cropping
45. Which soil nutrient is mostly provided to plants in alley cropping
practices-
a. Nitrogen b. Potassium
c. Sulphur d. Phosphorus
46. Ideally hedgerows should be positioned or grown in which direction-
a. North-east direction b. West-south direction
c. East-west direction d. South-east direction
47. Spacing between rows to rows in alley cropping-
a. 2-4 meter b. 4-8 meter
c. 4-6 meter d. 3-6 meter
48. Spacing between trees within rows in alley cropping-
a. 0.25-2.0 meter b. 0.5-2.0 meter
c. 1-2.0 meter d. 1.5-2.5 meter

Answers
40. a 41. b 42. c 43. d 44. d 45. a
46. c 47. b 48. a
 Agroforestry t 247

49. Which tree species is most commonly used for alley cropping-
a. Legumes tree species b. Non-leguminous
c. Thorny species d. Bushy tree species
50. A belt/blocks of trees or shrubs established at right angles to the
prevailing wind is called-
a. Wind break b. Energy plantation
c. Shelterbelts d. Block plantation
51. Ideal width of shelterbelts is-
a. 25 m b. 50 m
c. 75 cm d. 100 cm
52. The ratio of height and width for shelterbelts should be-
a. 1 : 10 b. 10 : 1
c. 1 : 20 d. 10 : 25
53. A typical shelter belt has a shape-
a. Quadrangles shape b. Triangular shape
c. Square shape d. Rectangular shape
54. The minimum length of shelterbelts should be about its height-
a. 10 times b. 20 times
c. 25 times d. 50 times
55. The strips of the trees and/or shrub planted to protect fields, homes,
canals or other areas from wind and blowing soil or sand is called-
a. Wind break b. Energy plantation
c. Shelterbelts d. Block plantation
56. The wind-breaks reduce the wind velocity upto- 25 to 75 per cent of
the open wind speed
a. 10 to 25 per cent of the open wind speed
b. 25 to 50 per cent of the open wind speed
c. 50 to 75 per cent of the open wind speed
d. 25 to 75 per cent of the open wind speed
57. Wind-breaks should be planted at an angles to the wind from which
protection is needed-
a. 30° b. 45°
c. 60° d. 90°
Answers
49. a 50. c 51. b 52. a 53. b 54. c
55. a 56. d 57. d
248 t Universal Objective Forestry

58. For better protection against environmental factors wind break

should be planted in which direction-
a. East-west b. South-east
c. North-west d. North-south
59. For providing better shade to growing crops wind breaks should be
planted in which direction-
a. East-west b. South-east
c. North-west d. North-south
60. A 20 m tall wind-break provides protection from……m on the
upwind side and…….m on the downwind side respectively-
a. 50 m and 100 m b. 100 m and 500 m
c. 500 m and 100 m d. 100 m and 200 m
61. The minimum length of wind-breaks should be about the mature
height of the trees-
a. 10 times b. 12 times
c. 15 times d. 25 times
62. Wind-breaks of how many rows are most effective-
a. 3 to 5 b. 4 to 5
c. 2 to 5 d. 4 to 6
63. Which species is more effective for wind breaks-
a. Acacia nilotica b. Cedrus deodara
c. Casuarina equisetifolia d. Tectona grandis
64. The production of woody plants combined with pasture is referred
as-
a. Agri-horticulture b. Silvopastural
c. Agri-silviculture d. Agri-silvi-pastoral
65. The production of fruits plants combined with crops is referred as-
a. Agri-horticulture b. Silvopastural
c. Agri-silviculture d. Agri-silvi-pastoral
66. The production of woody plants & pasture combined with agricultural
crops is referred as-
a. Agri-horticulture b. Silvopastural
c. Agri-silviculture d. Agri-silvi-pastoral

Answers
58. d 59. a 60. b 61. b 62. a 63. c
64. b 65. a 66. d
 Agroforestry t 249

67. The production of woody plants combined with agricultural crops

is referred as-
a. Agri-horticulture b. Silvopastural
c. Agri-silviculture d. Agri-silvi-pastoral
68. A farming system that combines physical, social and economic
functions on the area of land around the family home is called-
a. Truck gardening b. Home garden
c. Multitier system d. Both b and c
69. Home garden is most commonly practiced in which region-
a. Temperate b. Humid tropical
c. Tropical d. Arid
70. Main crop in home garden is-
a. Cucumber b. Coconut
c. Teak d. Sandal
71. In India every homestead has around land for personal production-
a. 0.1 to 0.2 ha b. 0.2 to 0.5 ha
c. 0.5 to 1.0 ha d. 1.0 to 2.0 ha
72. Home garden has usually how many vertical canopy strata-
a. 3-4 b. 3-5
c. 2-4 d. 3-6
73. In home garden lowermost layer is dominated by-
a. Vegetables b. Fruit plants
c. Grasses d. Timber trees
74. In home garden intermediate layer is dominated by-
a. Vegetables b. Fruit plants
c. Grasses d. Timber trees
75. In home garden uppermost layer is dominated by-
a. Vegetables b. Fruit plants
c. Grasses d. Timber trees
76. Most common agroforestry system in arid region is-
a. Agri-horticulture b. Silvopastural
c. Agro-silviculture d. Agri-silvi-pastoral

Answers
67. c 68. d 69. b 70. b 71. b 72. a
73. a 74. b 75. d 76. c
250 t Universal Objective Forestry

77. Coppicing and pollarding are forms of-

a. Regeneration b. Tending operation
c. Heading back d. Thinning
78. Closed nutrient cycles are known to operate in which forests-
a. Deciduous forests b. Tropical forests
c. Evergreen forests d. Evergreen natural forests
79. Which is/are a common example of the zonal pattern-
a. Home garden b. Alley cropping
c. Kitchen garden d. Silvopastural system
80. A geohydrological unit or a place land that drains at a common point
is called-
a. Hydrological cycle b. Watershed
c. Catchment d. Waterhole
81. The drainage area of the catchment is-
a. > 1 lakh ha b. < 1 lakh ha
c. 1 lakh ha d. 0.5 lakh ha
82. The drainage area of the sub-catchment is-
a. > 20000 ha b. < 20000 ha
c. < 40000 ha d. > 40000 ha
83. The drainage area of the sub-watershed is-
a. 100-200 ha b. 500-1000 ha
c. 1000-2000 ha d. 2000-4000 ha
84. The drainage area of the mini-watershed is-
a. 100-200 ha b. 200-1000 ha
c. 400-2000 ha d. 2000-4000 ha
85. The drainage area of the micro-watershed is-
a. < 200 ha b. > 500 ha
c. < 400 d. > 400 ha
86. Loyal timber of the poor is-
a. Teak b. Sal
c. Populus d. Bamboo
87. Queen of timber is-
a. Teak b. Sal
c. Sandal d. Bamboo

Answers
77. c 78. d 79. b 80. b 81. a 82. d
83. d 84. c 85. c 86. d 87. a
 Social Forestry t 251

Chapter 13

Social Forestry

1. The word Social forestry was coined by-

a. Westoby b. K. M. Munshi
c. Brandis d. Mohit Husain
2. Which was the first country to embark on a major community
reforestation programme-
a. Japan b. Germany
c. India d. China
3. Social forestry was first adopted successfully in which Indian state-
a. West Bengal b. Gujarat
c. Uttar Pradesh d. Uttarakhand
4. Forestry outside the conventional forests which primarily aims at
providing continuous flow of goods and services for the benefit of
people called-
a. Agroforestry b. Social forestry
c. Plantation forestry d. People forestry
5. Afforestation in the post-independence period can be divided in to-
a. Two phases b. Three phases
c. Four phases d. Five phases
6. Farm forestry was started in the year-
a. 1920 b. 1958
c. 1970 d. 1976
7. The practice of forestry in all its aspects in and the around the farms
or village lands integrated with other farm operations is called-
a. Farm forestry b. Extension forestry
c. Mixed forestry d. Recreation forestry

Answers
1. a 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. c
7. a
252 t Universal Objective Forestry

8. The practice of forestry in areas devoid of tree growth and other

vegetation situated in places away from the conventional forest areas
with the object of increasing the area under tree growth is called-
a. Farm forestry b. Extension forestry
c. Mixed forestry d. Recreation forestry
9. The practice of forestry for raising fodder grass with scattered
fodder trees, fruit trees and fuel wood trees on suitable wastelands,
panchayat lands and village commons is called-
a. Farm forestry b. Extension forestry
c. Mixed forestry d. Recreation forestry
10. The first taungya plantation in India was raised in which region-
a. Gujarat b. West Bengal
c. North Bengal d. Meghalaya
11. The practice of forestry with the object of raising flowering trees and
shrubs mainly to serve as recreation forests for the urban and rural
population is called-
a. Farm forestry b. Extension forestry
c. Mixed forestry d. Recreation forestry
12. The practice of forestry with the object of developing or maintaining
a forest of high scenic value is called-
a. Farm forestry b. Extension forestry
c. Aesthetic forestry d. Recreation forestry
13. The practice of cutting down trees and setting them or fire and raising
crops on the resulting ash called-
a. Taungya b. Jhum cultivation
c. Hill cultivation d. All of the above
14. Jhuming cultivation also known as-or shifting cultivation or slash
and burn cultivation
a. Shifting cultivation b. Slash and burn cultivation
c. Both a and b d. None
15. Shifting cultivation in Assam, Tripura, and Arunachal Pradesh
known as-
a. Jhum b. Podu
c. Penda d. Poonam
Answers
8. b 9. c 10. c 11. d 12. c 13. b
14. c 15. a
 Social Forestry t 253

16. The National Forest Policy of 1988 was issued on-

a. 7th January b. 7th March
c. 7 November
th
d. 7th December
17. Social forestry has how many components-
a. Two b. Three
c. Four d. Six
18. Which is/are not a component of social forestry-
a. Farm forestry b. Extension forestry
c. Aesthetic forestry d. Recreation forestry
19. Shifting cultivation is practised extensively in which region-
a. North-eastern b. Southern
c. Western d. Northern
20. The taungya is a Burmese word coined in Burma in the year-
a. 1850 b. 1890
c. 2000 d. 1976
21. Shifting cultivation in Odisha is known as-
a. Jhum b. Podu
c. Penda d. Poonam
22. World Metereological Organization (WMO) was formed in the year-
a. 1950 b. 1976
c. 1987 d. 1998
23. Shifting cultivation in Madhya Pradesh is known as-
a. Jhum b. Podu
c. Penda d. Poonam
24. Headquarter of WMO is situated in-
a. Nairobi b. Pune
c. Geneva d. Rome
25. Shifting cultivation in Tamil Nadu is known as-
a. Penda b. Dhai
c. Jhum d. Kumri
26. In taungya meaning of ‘taung’ is-
a. Forest b. Cultivation
c. Shifting d. Hill
Answers
16. d 17. c 18. c 19. a 20. a 21. b
22. a 23. c 24. c 25. d 26. d
254 t Universal Objective Forestry

27. Shifting cultivation in Kerala is known as-

a. Penda b. Poonam
c. Jhum d. Dhai
28. Jhuming cycle (in years) in Arunchal Pradesh is-
a. 4-5 b. 6-8
c. 5-10 d. 1-17
29. Jhuming cycle (in years) in Meghalaya, Mizoram & Tripura is-
a. 4-5 b. 6-8
c. 5-10 d. 1-17
30. Term taungya is-
a. Latin b. Greek
c. Burmese d. French
31. Shifting cultivation in Thailand is known as-
a. Jumar b. Tam-ray
c. Hanumo d. Chena
32. In taungya meaning of ‘ya’ is-
a. Forest b. Cultivation
c. Shifting d. Hill
33. Shifting cultivation in Philippines is known as-
a. Karen b. Ray
c. Hanumo d. Chena
34. Gregarious flowering is usually followed by the death of-
a. Rhizomes b. Clumps
c. Culms d. Shoots
35. Shifting cultivation in Sri Lanka is known as-
a. Jumar b. Tam-ray
c. Hanumo d. Chena
36. Taungya system also called as-
a. Jhum cultivation b. Shifting cultivation
c. Jumar d. Hill cultivation
37. Bamboo also known as-
a. Green gold b. Friend of the people
c. Cradle of coffin timber d. All
Answers
27. b 28. d 29. a 30. c 31. b 32. b
33. c 34. b 35. d 36. d 37. d
 Social Forestry t 255

38. Taungya system in East Africa is called as-

a. Shamba b. Jhum
c. Jumar d. Hanumo
39. Australian wattle is-
a. Acacia catechu b. Acacia senegal
c. Acacia auriculiformis d. Acacia nilotica
40. Taungya was first introduced by-
a. Westoby b. K. M. Munshi
c. Brandis d. Mohit Husain
41. Taungya was first introduced in India in the year-
a. 1850 b. 1890
c. 1896 d. 2000
42. The first taungya plantation in India was raised in the year-
a. 1850 b. 1890
c. 1896 d. 2000
43. Taungya is now applied to the method of raising forest plantations in
combination with field crops and also known as-
a. Agri-silviculture b. Horti-silviculture
c. Jumar d. Kumri
44. Which is/are not a type of taungya-
a. Departmental taungya b. Leased taungya
c. Village taungya d. Auction taungya
45. What is the duration of leased taungya-
a. 2 year b. 4 years
c. 6 years d. 10 years
46. Gregarious flowering occurs in-
a. Teak b. Sal
c. Bamboo d. Neem
47. What is the duration of departmental taungya-
a. 2 year b. 2-4 years
c. 2-5 years d. 10 years
48. In village taungya each family has about-
a. 0.4-0.8 ha b. 0.8-1.6 ha
c. 1.6-2.0 ha d. 2.0-2.5 ha
Answers
38. a 39. c 40. c 41. b 42. c 43. a
44. d 45. a 46. c 47. c 48. b
256 t Universal Objective Forestry

49. Joint forest management (JFM) was started in the year-

a. 1990 b. 2000
c. 2002 d. 2006
50. National Wasteland Development Board (NWDB) was formed in
the year-
a. 1920 b. 1956
c. 1985 d. 1996
51. Joint forest management (JFM) was firstly started in which state-
a. Odisha b. Rajasthan
c. West Bengal d. Gujarat
52. Forest products contributes to world gross domestic product about-
a. 1% b. 2%
c. 3% d. 5%

Answers
49. a 50. c 51. c 52. a
 Genetics and Tree Improvement t 257

Chapter 14

Genetics
and Tree Improvement

1. Term genetics was coined by-

a. Mendel b. Johnson
c. Bateson d. Darwin
2. Term allele was coined by-
a. Mendel b. Johnson
c. Nilsson-Ehle d. Bateson
3. One mutant gene – one metabolic block hypothesis was given by-
a. A.Garrod b. T.H.Morgan
c. Nilsson-Ehle d. Mendel
4. One gene one enzyme hypothesis was given by-
a. A.Garrod b. T.H.Morgan
c. Nilsson-Ehle d. Beadle & Tatum
5. Collective study of heredity and variations is called-
a. Mutation b. Genetics
c. Tree improvement d. Ecology
6. Father of genetic is-
a. Mendel b. Johnson
c. Nilsson-Ehle d. Bateson
7. Father of tree improvement is-
a. Mendel b. Bruce Zobel
c. Tolbert d. Baker

Answers
1. c 2. d 3. a 4. d 5. b 6. a
7. b
258 t Universal Objective Forestry

8. Transmission of genetic characters from parents to offsprings is

called-
a. Genetics b. Mutation
c. Transformation d. Heredity
9. Individuals of same species have some differences is called-
a. Variation b. selection
c. Mutation d. Heredity
10. Alternative form of a gene which are located on same position on
homologous chromosome-
a. Gene b. Chromatid
c. Allele d. Centromere
11. The external and morphological appearance of an organism for a
particular character is called-
a. Phenotype b. Genotype
c. Variations d. Phenology
12. The genetic constitute or genetic make-up of an organism for a
particular character is called-
a. Phenotype b. Genotype
c. Variations d. Phenology
13. Superiority of offspring over its parents is called-
a. Hybrid vigour b. Heterosis
c. Both a and b d. Mutation
14. Loss of hybrid vigour due to inbreeding is called as-
a. Mutation b. Inbreeding effect
b. Inbreeding depression d. Selection
15. Theory of linkage was given by-
a. T.H.Morgan b. Correns
c. Johannsen d. Nilsson-Ehle
16. Gregor Johann Mendel was born in-
a. 1820 b. 1822
c. 1895 d. 1922
17. Gregor Johann Mendel was died in-
a. 1822 b. 1856
c. 1884 d. 1910

Answers
8. d 9. a 10. c 11. a 12. b 13. c
14. b 15. a 16. b 17. c
 Genetics and Tree Improvement t 259

18. Who has rediscovered the work of Mendel-

a. Carl Correns (Germany) b. Hugo de Varies (Holland)
c. Tschemark (Austria) d. All of the above
19. Mendel started his experiment on which plant-
a. Pea b. Mung
c. Bean d. Mustard
20. Mendel studied how many characters in peal plant-
a. 3 characters b. 7 characters
c. 9 characters d. 14 characters
21. Gene which controls more than one character is called-
a. Multiple gene b. Pleiotropic gene
c. Oligotrophic gene d. Polytrophic gene
22. Removal of stamen from the bisexual flowers at juvenile stage called-
a. Budding b. Grafting
c. Cutting d. Emasculation
23. Term factor was given-
a. E.Baur b. Bateson & Punnett
c. Waldeyer d. Johannsen
24. Checker Board method was first time used by-
a. Bateson & Punnett b. Mendel
c. Punnet d. Johnson
25. A cross in which F1 individuals are crossed with either recessive or
dominant parents is-
a. Test cross b. Back cross
c. Out cross d. Reciprocal cross
26. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by-
a. Henking
b. Mc Clung
c. Walter Sutton & Theodor Boveri
d. Wilson & Stevens
27. When F1 individuals is crossed with dominant parents then it is
called-
a. Test cross b. Back cross
c. Out cross d. Reciprocal cross

Answers
18. d 19. a 20. b 21. b 22. d 23. d
24. c 25. b 26. c 27. c
260 t Universal Objective Forestry

28. When F1 progeny is crossed with recessive parents then it is called-

a. Test cross b. Back cross
c. Out cross d. Reciprocal cross
29. Which cross is used to find out the genotype of dominant individuals-
a. Out cross b. Reciprocal cross
c. Test cross d. Back cross
30. When two parents are used in two experiments in such a way that in
one experiment “A” is used as male parent and “B” is used as female
parent, while in other experiment vice-versa. Such type of a set of
experiments is called-
a. Back cross b. Reciprocal cross
c. Out cross d. Test cross
31. More than two alternative forms of same gene called as-
a. Multiple allele b. Pleiotropic gene
c. Oligotrophic gene d. Polytrophic gene
32. Gene which cause death of individual when it comes in homozygous
condition called-
a. Epistatic gene b. Recessive gene
c. Lethal gene d. Dominant gene
33. When a gene prevents the expression of another non-allelic gene this
phenomena called-
a. Pleiotropy b. Mutation
c. Selection d. Epistasis
34. Collective inheritance of the character is called-
a. Hereditary b. Linkage
c. Chiasma d. Epistasis
35. Linkage first time was seen in Lathyrus odoratus by-
a. Bateson & Punnett b. Mendel
c. Hugo de Varies d. T. H. Morgan
36. Eugenics is a Greek word which mean-
a. Abnormal born b. Well born
c. Hybrid d. Cybrid

Answers
28. a 29. c 30. b 31. a 32. c 33. d
34. b 35. a 36. b
 Genetics and Tree Improvement t 261

37. Term phenotype and genotype was coined by-

a. Johannsen b. Bateson
c. Correns d. E.Baur
38. Sum total of genes in a reproductive gametes of a population is-
a. Gene flow b. Genetic gain
c. Gene pool d. Gene frequency
39. Migration of gene from one population to another population by
cross fertilization is called-
a. Gene flow b. Genetic gain
c. Gene pool d. Gene frequency
40. The existence within the population of disadvantageous allele in a
heterozygous genotype is known as-
a. Gene flow b. Genetic gain
c. Gene pool d. Genetic load
41. A proportion of different alleles of a gene in a population is called-
a. Genetic gain b. Genetic load
c. Gene pool d. Gene frequency
42. Incomplete dominance theory was given by-
a. Correns b. Bateson & Punnett
c. Mc Clung d. C.B. Bridges
43. Coupling and repulsion theory was given by-
a. Wilson & Stevens b. Sir Francis Galton
c. Bateson & Punnett d. Hugo de Varies
44. Which was the first plant in which complete genome was sequenced-
a. Neurospora spp. b. Pisum sativum
c. Lamarkiana oenothora d. Arabidopsis thaliana
45. A store house of clones of known DNA fragments, genes, gene maps,
seeds, spores, frozen sperms or eggs or embryos is called-
a. Poly house b. Gene bank
c. Cryopreservation d. Green house
46. Collection of many of the desired genes of DNA fragments
maintained in clones of bacterial or some other cells is called-
a. Gene library b. Gene pool
c. Gene bank d. Cryopreservation
Answers
37. a 38. c 39. a 40. d 41. d 42. a
43. c 44. d 45. b 46. a
262 t Universal Objective Forestry

47. A cell division which produced genetically identical cells which are
similar to parent cell-
a. Amitosis b. Mitosis
c. Meiosis d. Both a and b
48. Mitosis occurs in which cells of an organism-
a. Reproductive cells b. Ovary
c. Somatic cells d. All of the above
49. Replication of nuclear DNA and synthesis of histone protein takes
place in-
a. G1 phase b. G2 phase
c. S phase d. M phase
50. While synthesis of different types of RNA & proteins takes place in-
a. G1 phase b. G2 phase
c. S phase d. M phase
51. Which is a correct sequence of cell cycle-
a. G1 → M → G2 → S b. G1 → G2 → S → M
c. G1 → S → G2 → M d. G1 → G2 → M → S
52. Which is not a phase of mitosis division-
a. Prophase b. Metaphase
c. Anaphase d. Leptotene
53. Genic balance theory was given by-
a. Waldeyer b. Strasburger
c. C.B. Bridges d. Mendel
54. Longest phase of mitosis is-
a. Prophase b. Metaphase
c. Anaphase d. Telophase
55. Father of eugenics is-
a. Sir Francis Galton b. Montgomery
c. Wilson & Stevens d. McClintock
56. In which phase of mitosis golgi complexes, ER, nucleolus and
nuclear membrane disappear-
a. Prophase b. Anaphase
c. Metaphase d. Telophase
Answers
47. d 48. c 49. c 50. a 51. c 52. d
53. c 54. a 55. a 56. a
 Genetics and Tree Improvement t 263

57. Term mitosis was given by-

a. Remake b. Flemming
c. Farmer & Moore d. Strasburger
58. Morphological studies of chromosomes is most easily done in which
phase of mitosis-
a. Prophase b. Anaphase
c. Metaphase d. Telophase
59. Shortest phase of mitosis-
a. Prophase b. Anaphase
c. Metaphase d. Telophase
60. The production of four haploid cells which are dissimilar to parent
cell is occurs in-
a. Amitosis b. Fission
c. Meiosis d. Mitosis
61. In which cell division nucleus divides twice and division of
chromosome occur only once-
a. Amitosis b. Fission
c. Meiosis d. Mitosis
62. Prophase-I of meiosis is divided into-
a. Leptotene, zygotene, pacyhtene and diplotene
b. Leptotene, zygotene, pacyhtene, diplotene and anaphase
c. Leptotene, zygotene, pacyhtene, telophase and diakinesis
d. Leptotene, zygotene, pacyhtene, diplotene and diakinesis
63. Term chromosome was coined by-
a. Waldeyer b. Strasburger
c. C.B. Bridges d. Mendel
64. Term allosome & heterosome was given by-
a. Sir Francis Galton b. Montgomery
c. Wilson & Stevens d. McClintock
65. Chromosomal theory of sex determination was given by-
a. Strasburger b. Jacob & Monad
c. Rudolf Virchow d. Wilson & Stevens

Answers
57. b 58. c 59. b 60. c 61. c 62. d
63. a 64. b 65. d
264 t Universal Objective Forestry

66. An equilibrium is established between frequencies of alleles in

random mating population and these gene frequency remains
constant from generation to generation is given by-
a. Hardy Weinberg b. Alec Jeffery
b. Robert Hook d. Hugo de Varies
67. Jumping gene in maize plant was discovered by-
a. Farmer & Moore b. Jacob & Monad
c. McClintock d. Strasburger
68. Hardy Weinberg law equation is-
a. p2 + 2pq – q2 = 1 b. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 0
c. p + 4pq + q = 1
2 2
d. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
69. Operon concept was given by-
a. Jacob & Monad b. Remake
c. Singer & Nicolson d. F.Meischer
70. DNA finger printing/DNA test was done firstly-
a. Dr. Lal Ji Singh b. Rudolf Virchow
c. Alec Jeffery d. Dr. V.K Kashyap
71. DNA finger printing/DNA test in India was done firstly-
a. Dr. Lal Ji Singh & Dr. S.K Kashyap
b. Dr. Amit Singh & Dr. Arun Kumar
c. Dr. Lal Ji Singh & Dr. V.K Kashyap
d. Dr. Mohit Husain & Dr. Narender Kumar
72. Term amitosis was given by-
a. Remake b. Flemming
c. Farmer & Moore d. Strasburger
73. Cell lineage theory was given by-
a. Waldeyer b. Strasburger
c. C.B. Bridges d. Rudolf Virchow
74. Term meiosis was given by-
a. Remake b. Flemming
c. Farmer & Moore d. Strasburger
75. Segment of DNA which moves from one chromosome to another
chromosome within the genome of an individual called-
a. Royal gene b. Jumping gene
c. Transgene d. Operator gene
Answers
66. a 67. c 68. d 69. a 70. c 71. c
72. a 73. d 74. c 75. b
 Genetics and Tree Improvement t 265

76. A part of genetic material or DNA, which acts as single regulated

unit having one or more structural genes called-
a. Operon b. Genetic code
c. Cistron d. Codon
77. Term protoplasm was given by-
a. Bloor b. F.Meischer
c. J.E.Purkinje d. George Gamow
78. Phenotypic and genotypic ratio in monohybrid cross is respectively-
a. 1 : 2 : 1 and 3 : 1 b. 3 : 1 and 1 : 2 : 1
c. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 and 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 d. 1 : 2 : 1 and 1 : 3 : 1
79. Term nucleic acid was given by-
a. Crick b. Watson & Crick
c. Zacharis d. Altman
80. Phenotypic and genotypic ratio in dihybrid cross is respectively-
a. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 and 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
b. 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1 and 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
c. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 and 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 :1
d. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 and 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
81. Nucleic acid discovered was discovered by-
a. Nirenberg b. Fischer
c. Khorana d. Meischer
82. Term DNA was coined by-
a. Crick b. Watson & Crick
c. Zacharis d. Altman
83. Phenotypic and genotypic ratio in monohybrid test cross is
respectively-
a. 1 : 1 and 1 : 2 : 1 b. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 and 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
c. 1 : 2 : 1 and 1 : 3 : 1 d. 1 : 1 and 1 : 1
84. DNA was discovered by-
a. Nirenberg b. Fischer
c. Khorana d. Meischer

Answers
76. a 77. c 78. b 79. d 80. c 81. d
82. c 83. d 84. d
266 t Universal Objective Forestry

85. Phenotypic and genotypic ratio in dihybrid test cross is respectively-

a. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 and 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
b. 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 and 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1
c. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 and 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
d. 1 : 2 : 1 and 3 : 1
86. Total gene complement inherited haploid sets of chromosomes in an
individual called as-
a. Gene pool b. Genome
c. Codon d. Cistron
87. First animal clone was developed in which institute-
a. Franklin Institute of Scotland in 1987
b. Roslin Institute of Scotland in 1997
c. Veterinary institute of Italy in 1989
d. Indian Institute of avian in Bareilly 2000
88. First clone animal was-
a. Mice b. Dog
c. Goat d. Sheep
89. Fluid mosaic model was given by-
a. Strasburger b. Robert Hook
c. Singer & Nicolson d. Rudolf Virchow
90. The name of first clone animal was-
a. Molly b. Polly
c. Dolly d. Jolly
91. Term genetic code was coined by-
a. Nirenberg b. Mathai
c. Khorana d. Gamow
92. Genetic code was discovered by-
a. George Gamow
b. Nirenberg, Mathai & Khorana
c. Robert Brown
d. Crick

Answers
85. a 86. b 87. b 88. d 89. c 90. c
91. d 92. b
 Genetics and Tree Improvement t 267

93. Central Dogma was given by-

a. George Gamow
b. Nirenberg, Mathai & Khorana
c. Robert Brown
d. Crick
94. Term mitochondria was coined by-
a. Robert Hook b. Robert Brown
c. Benda d. Strasburger
95. Bouquet stage, longest & thinest chromosomes are seen in which
stage of meiosis-
a. Prophase b. Leptotene
c. Metaphase d. Telophase
96. Synapsis or synaptonemal complex is seen in which stage-
a. Diplotene b. Zygotene
c. Leptotene d. Pacyhtene
97. Term cytoplasm was coined by-
a. Robert Hook b. Robert Brown
c. Benda d. Strasburger
98. Tetrad condition is seen in which stage-
a. Diplotene b. Zygotene
c. Leptotene d. Pacyhtene
99. Chiasmata visible (crossing over) in the stage-
a. Diakinesis b. Diplotene
c. Pacyhtene d. Zygotene
100. Terminalisation of chiasmata is occurs in which stage-
a. Diplotene b. Zygotene
c. Leptotene d. Diakinesis
101. Any successful tree improvement programme has-
a. One aspect b. Two aspects
c. Three aspects d. Four aspects
102. Commonwealth Forestry Institute (CFI) is situated in-
a. Rome b. Geneva
c. Oxford d. Queensland
Answers
93. d 94. c 95. b 96. b 97. d 98. d
99. b 100. d 101. b 102. c
268 t Universal Objective Forestry

103. Barner has introduced the concept of race in the year-

a. 1921 b. 1966
c. 1975 d. 1989
104. Exotic forestry is most wide spread in-
a. Arid region b. Temperate region
c. Alpine region d. Tropical region
105. Division of centromere occurs in-
a. Prophase b. Metaphase
c. Anaphase d. Telophase
106. The membrane surrounding cell vacuole is called-
a. Tonoplast b. Cell wall
c. Plasma membrane d. Cell membrane
107. The diagrammatic representation of chromosomes is called-
a. Karyotype b. Holotype
c. Isotype d. Idiogram
108. Which is not found in animal cell-
a. Nucleus b. Golgi bodies
c. Chloroplast d. Mitochondria
109. Principal constituents of chromosomes are-
a. DNA b. RNA
c. Protein d. Both a and c
110. Knife of DNA is-
a. Exonuclease b. Endonuclease
c. RNA polymerase d. Both b and c
111. Term nucleus was coined by-
a. Robert Hook b. Robert Brown
c. Meischer d. Strasburger
112. Cell was discovered by-
a. Robert Hook b. Robert Brown
c. Meischer d. Strasburger
113. Hardest material in animal kingdom is-
a. Dentine b. Bone
c. Teeth d. Enamel
Answers
103. b 104. d 105. c 106. a 107. d 108. c
109. d 110. b 111. b 112. a 113. d
 Genetics and Tree Improvement t 269

114. Hardest material in plant kingdom is-

a. Seed b. Sporopollenin
c. Wood d. Enamel
115. Simple carbohydrates which are soluble in water and sweet in taste
are called-
a. Sugar b. Mantose
c. Sacrum d. Lipid
116. Which is known as grape or blood sugar-
a. Maltose b. Galactose
c. Glucose d. Sucrose
117. Which is known as fruit sugar-
a. Maltose b. Fructose
c. Glucose d. Sucrose
118. Which is known as brain sugar-
a. Galactose b. Fructose
c. Glucose d. Sucrose
119. Which is known as cane sugar or table sugar -
a. Galactose b. Fructose
c. Glucose d. Sucrose
120. Which is known as animal starch-
a. Glycogen b. Fructose
c. Glucose d. Sucrose
121. Amino acids which is not synthesis in our body called-
a. Non-essential amino acid b. Essential amino acid
c. Saturated amino acid d. None
122. Which is/are the example of essential amino acids-
a. Threonine b. Valine
c. Leucine d. All of the above
123. Amino acids which are synthesized in our body are called-
a. Non-essential amino acid b. Essential amino acid
c. Saturated amino acid d. None
124. Which is/are the example of essential amino acids-
a. Tryptophan b. Arginine
c. Glycine d. Histidine

Answers
114. b 115. a 116. c 117. b 118. a 119. d
120. a 121. b 122. d 123. a 124. c
270 t Universal Objective Forestry

125. Total number of amino acid required by our body-

a. 8 b. 10
c. 20 d. 30
126. Simplest amino acid is-
a. Tryptophan b. Arginine
c. Glycine d. Histidine
127. Nucleic acids are the polymer of-
a. Amino acid b. Nucleotides
c. Nucleosides d. Nitrogenous
128. Nucleotides are made up of-
a. N2-base + Pentose sugar + Phosphate
b. N2-base + Hexose sugar + Phosphate
c. N2-base + Pentose sugar + Sulphate
d. N2-base + Hexose sugar + Chloride
129. Which is/are the pyrimidines base-
a. Cytocine b. Uracil
c. Thymine d. All of the above
130. Which is/are the purine base-
a. Adenine b. Guanine
c. Cytocine d. Both a and b
131. DNA have which sugar-
a. Ribose b. Pentose
c. Hexose d. Triose
132. RNA have which sugar-
a. Ribose b. Pentose
c. Hexose d. Triose
133. DNA is-
a. Deoxyribonucleic acid b. Ribonucleic acid
c. Deoxynucleic acid d. Deoxy tri ribonucleic acid
134. RNA is-
a. Deoxyribonucleic acid b. Ribonucleic acid
c. Deoxynucleic acid d. Ribo tri ribonucleic acid

Answers
125. c 126. c 127. b 128. a 129. d 130. d
131. b 132. a 133. a 134. b
 Genetics and Tree Improvement t 271

135. Both polynucleotide chains of DNA are-

a. Complementary and antiparallel to each other
b. Complementary and parallel to each other
c. Supplementary and antiparallel to each other
d. Parallel and antiparallel to each other
136. Adenine (A) binds to thymine (T) by-
a. Two hydrogen bonds b. Three hydrogen bonds
c. Four hydrogen bonds d. Five hydrogen bonds
137. Cytosine (C) binds to guanine (G) by-
a. Two hydrogen bonds b. Three hydrogen bonds
c. Four hydrogen bonds d. Five hydrogen bonds
138. Out of two strand of DNA only one strand participates in transcription
is called-
a. Antisense strand b. Non-coding strand
c. Template strand d. Both a and b
139. The strand which do not participate in transcription is called-
a. Sense strand b. Coding strand
c. Template strand d. All of the above
140. Which is right handed DNA-
a. Z-DNA b. B-DNA
c. C-DNA d. A-DNA
141. Which is left handed DNA-
a. Z-DNA b. B-DNA
c. C-DNA d. A-DNA
142. Who has proved the genetic material is DNA-
a. Oswald Avery, Colin Macleod and Mc Clinton
b. Oswald Avery, Colin Paul and Maclyn Mccarty
c. Oswald Tippo, Colin Macleod and Khorana
d. Oswald Avery, Colin Macleod and Maclyn Mccarty
143. Semi-conservative mode of DNA replication was first proposed by-
a. Oswald Avery, Colin Macleod and Maclyn Mccarty
b. Meselson & Stahl
c. Watson & Crick
d. Mathai and Khorana
Answers
135. a 136. a 137. b 138. d 139. d 140. b
141. a 142. d 143. c
272 t Universal Objective Forestry

144. Semi-conservative mode of DNA replication experimentally proved

by-
a. Meselson & Stahl
b. Oswald Avery, Colin Macleod and Maclyn Mccarty
c. Mathai and Khorana
d. Watson & Crick
145. DNA replication takes place in-
a. 5’→3’ b. 3’→5’
c. 4’→5’ d. 2’→5’
146. Transcription takes place in which direction-
a. 5’→3’ b. 3’→5’
c. 4’→5’ d. 2’→5’
147. Which nitrogenous base is found only in RNA-
a. Adenine b. Guanine
c. Cytocine d. Uracil
148. RNA and DNA is respectively-
a. Single stranded and double stranded
b. Double stranded and single stranded
c. Single stranded and single stranded
d. Double stranded and Triple stranded
149. Formation of RNA over DNA template with the help of RNA
polymerase enzyme is called-
a. Translation b. Transcription
c. Replication d. Transformation
150. Which enzyme is used in transcription-
a. DNA polymerase b. RNA polymerase
c. DNA ligase d. Endonuclease
151. Which enzyme is used in replication-
a. DNA polymerase b. RNA polymerase
c. DNA ligase d. Endonuclease
152. The relationship between the sequence of amino acids in a
polypeptide chain and nucleotide sequence of nucleic acids is called-
a. Operon b. Codon
c. Genetic code d. Cistron
Answers
144. a 145. a 146. a 147. d 148. a 149. b
150. b 151. a 152. c
 Genetics and Tree Improvement t 273

153. Which is/are the stop codon-

a. UAA b. UAG
c. UGA d. All of the above
154. Which is/are the initiation codon-
a. AUG b. UAA
c. GUG d. Both a and c
155. The formation of m-RNA from DNA and then synthesis of protein
from it, is known as-
a. Central dogma b. Translation
c. Transcription d. Replication
156. Formation of proteins from m-RNA is called-
a. Replication b. Transcription
c. Translation d. Central dogma
157. Central dogma includes-
a. Transcription and replication
b. Transcription and translation
c. Transcription, translation and replication
d. Translation and replication
158. Function of m-RNA is-
a. New polypeptide chain formation
b. Carrier of amino acids
c. Provide attachment site to t- RNA
d. All of the above
159. Formation of DNA from DNA with the help of DNA polymerase is
called-
a. Replication b. Transcription
c. Translation d. Central dogma
160. Function of r-RNA is-
a. New polypeptide chain formation
b. Carrier of amino acids
c. Provide attachment site to t- RNA
d. All of the above

Answers
153. d 154. d 155. a 156. c 157. b 158. a
159. a 160. c
274 t Universal Objective Forestry

161. Function of t-RNA is-

a. New polypeptide chain formation
b. Carrier of amino acids
c. Provide attachment site to t- RNA
d. All of the above
162. Cell theory was proposed by-
a. Watson and crick
b. Robert Hook and Robert Brown
c. Schleiden (Botanist) and Schwann (Zoologist)
d. Schleiden (Zoologist) and Schwann (Botanist)
163. Cell-membrane is-
a. Semi-permeable b. Selective permeable
c. Non permeable d. None
164. Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) helps in-
a. Respiration b. Protein synthesis
c. Transpiration d. Photosynthesis
165. Rough ER helps in-
a. Lipid synthesis b. Protein synthesis
c. Respiration d. Photosynthesis
166. Smooth ER helps in-
a. Lipid synthesis b. Protein synthesis
c. Respiration d. Photosynthesis
167. Director of macromolecular traffic in cell is known as-
a. Nucleus b. Ribosome
c. Mitochondria d. Golgi body
168. Which cell organelle is filled with acid hydrolases enzyme-
a. Chloroplast b. ER
c. Ribosome d. Lysosome
169. Which cell organelle is also called as suicidal bags of cell-
a. Golgi body b. Mitochondria
c. Lysosome d. Ribosome
170. Power house of the cell is-
a. Nucleus b. Ribosome
c. Mitochondria d. Golgi body

Answers
161. b 162. c 163. b 164. b 165. b 166. a
167. d 168. d 169. c 170. c
 Genetics and Tree Improvement t 275

171. Red colour of chilli and tomato is due to red pigment called-
a. Xanthene b. Chlorophyll
c. Chromophyll d. Lycopene
172. Protein factory of cell is called-
a. Nucleus b. Ribosome
c. Mitochondria d. Golgi body
173. Which cell organelle is consider as controller or director of cell-
a. Nucleus b. Ribosome
c. Mitochondria d. Golgi body
174. Ribosomes are made up of-
a. Proteins plus nucleic acids DNA
b. Proteins plus nucleic acids RNA
c. Lipid plus nucleic acids RNA
d. Lipid plus nucleic acids DNA
175. Ribosome, Basal bodies and Centriole are-
a. Single membrane cell organelles
b. Double membrane cell organelles
c. Triple membrane cell organelles
d. Membrane less cell organelles
176. The trees produced from the seed of a parent tree are called its-
a. Sibling b. Progeny
c. Race d. Family
177. Group of populations that generally interbreed with one another and
that intergrade more or less continuously are referred to as-
a. Population b. Species
c. Race d. Sibling
178. Individuals that are more closely related to each other than to other
individuals in a population are called as-
a. Family b. Species
c. Race d. Sibling
179. A group of individuals within a family are referred to as-
a. Progeny b. Species
c. Race d. Siblings
Answers
171. d 172. b 173. a 174. b 175. d 176. b
177. c 178. a 179. d
276 t Universal Objective Forestry

180. The group of related individuals when only one parent is common
is called-
a. Siblings b. Full sib family
c. Half sib family d. Open-pollinated family
181. The group of related individuals when both parents are common is
called-
a. Siblings b. Full sib family
c. Half sib family d. Open-pollinated family
182. The group of related individuals when one parent is common and
other parent (s) are unknown is called-
a. Siblings b. Full sib family
c. Half sib family d. Open-pollinated family
183. Variation in a population is increased by-
a. Mutation b. Gene flow
c. Selection d. Both a and b
184. Variation in a population is decreased by-
a. Natural selection b. Gene flow
c. Genetic drift. d. Both a and c
185. The concept of ecotype was suggested by-
a. Reiter b. Turreson
c. Huxley d. Linnaeus
186. According to…...ecotype genotypical response of a species to a
particular habitat-
a. Huxley b. Odum
c. Turreson d. John Ray
187. The concept of cline was first given by-
a. Huxley b. Odum
c. Turreson d. John Ray
188. Father of Binomial nomenclature is-
a. Reiter b. Turreson
c. Huxley d. Linnaeus
189. A gradient measurable characteristic is called-
a. Progeny b. Sibling
c. Race d. Cline

Answers
180. c 181. b 182. d 183. d 184. d 185. b
186. c 187. a 188. d 189. d
 Genetics and Tree Improvement t 277

190. A population of individuals that has become adapted to a specific

environment in which it has been planted is called-
a. Ecophenes b. Ecotype
c. Land race d. Cline
191. The average performance of the progeny of an individual when it
is mated to a number of the other individuals in the population is
called-
a. General combining ability (GCA)
b. Specific combining ability (SCA)
c. General competing ability (GCA)
d. Specific competing ability (SCA
192. As the average performance of the progeny of a cross between two
specific parents that are different from what would be expected on
the basis of their general combining abilities alone-
a. General combining ability (GCA)
b. Specific combining ability (SCA)
c. General competing ability (GCA)
d. Specific competing ability (SCA)
193. Specific combining ability (SCA) value can be-
a. Positive b. Negative
c. Both d. None
194. The breeding value of an individual is defined as twice its-
a. General combining ability (GCA)
b. Specific combining ability (SCA)
c. Genetic gain
d. Selection differential
195. A ratio indicating the degree to which parents pass their characteristics
along to their offspring-
a. Heredity b. Heterosis
c. Heritability d. Genetic gain
196. Heritability is how many types-
a. Two b. Three
c. Four d. Five

Answers
190. c 191. a 192. b 193. c 194. a 195. c
196. a
278 t Universal Objective Forestry

197. Heritability value can be-

a. Positive b. Negative
c. Zero d. Both a and c
198. The ratio of total genetic variation (VG) in a population to the
phenotypic variation (VP)-
a. Broad-sense heritability (H2)
b. Narrow-sense heritability (h2)
c. Specific combining ability (SCA)
d. General combining ability (GCA)
199. The ratio of additive genetic variation (VA) in a population to total
variation (VP)-
a. Broad-sense heritability (H2)
b. Narrow-sense heritability (h2)
c. General combining ability (GCA)
d. Specific combining ability (SCA)
200. The difference between the mean of the selected individuals (Xs) and
the population mean (X) is called-
a. Selection differential b. Genetic gain
c. Gene load d. Heritability
201. The multiply product of narrow-sense heritability (h2) and selection
differential (S) is called-
a. Selection differential b. Genetic gain
c. Gene load d. Heritability
202. Choosing individuals solely on the basis of their phenotypes,
without regards to any information about performance of offsprings
or siblings is called-
a. Mass selection b. Family selection
c. Sib selection d. Tandem selection
203. The selection of entire family on the basis of their average phenotypic
values is called-
a. Mass selection b. Family selection
c. Sib selection d. Tandem selection
204. Selection of individuals on the basis of the performance of their
siblings not on their own performance is called-
a. Progeny testing b. Within family selection
c. Sib selection d. Tandem selection
Answers
197. d 198. a 199. b 200. a 201. b 202. a
203. b 204. c
 Genetics and Tree Improvement t 279

205. The selection of parent trees on the basis of performance of their

progeny is called-
a. Progeny testing b. Within family selection
c. Sib selection d. Mass selection
206. Selection of individuals on the basis of their deviation from the
family mean, and family values per se are given no weight when
selection are made called-
a. Mass selection b. Family selection
c. Sib selection d. Within family selection
207. Selection on the basis of families followed by selection of individuals
within families is called-
a. Mass selection
b. Family selection
c. Family within family selection
d. Sib selection
208. Which is/are the methods of multiple traits selection-
a. Tandem selection b. Independent culling
c. Selection index d. All of the above
209. The selection procedure that involves many cycles of selection and
breeding is known as-
a. Mass selection b. Current selection
c. Recurrent selection d. Progeny selection
210. A tree that has been selected for grading because of its desirable
phenotypic qualities but that has not yet been graded or tested called-
a. Candidate tree b. Elite tree
c. Check tree d. Comparison tree
211. Morphologically superior tree is called-
a. Plus tree b. Elite tree
c. Check tree d. Comparison tree
212. Trees that are located in the same stand having nearly same age
and growing on the same or better site as the select tree and against
which the select tree is graded called-
a. Candidate tree b. Elite tree
c. Plus tree d. Comparison tree
Answers
205. a 206. d 207. c 208. d 209. c 210. a
211. a 212. d
280 t Universal Objective Forestry

213. Polyploidy is more common in which species-

a. Softwood b. Hardwood
c. Conifers d. None
214. Polyploidy suggested as a tree improvement tools by-
a. Turreson b. Bruce Zobel
c. Gustafsson d. Mendel
215. The best known polyploidy conifer is-
a. Deodar b. Pinus
c. Redwood d. Rosewood
216. The ultimate source of all variation is-
a. Natural selection b. Crossing over
c. Gene flow d. Mutation
217. Phenotypic variation includes-
a. Non-additive variations b. Environmental variations
c. Additive variations d. All of the above
218. Genetic variation includes-
a. Additive variations b. Non- additive variations
c. Environmental variations d. Both a and b

Answers
213. b 214. c 215. c 216. d 217. d 218. d
 Tree Seed Technology t 281

Chapter 15

Tree Seed Technology

1. The science of determining methods for collection, extraction,

cleaning, grading, storage and testing of seeds and heir effects on
seed quality is called-
a. Seed pathology b. Seed technology
c. Seed biology d. Silviculture
2. Fertilized mature ovule called-
a. Fruit b. Flower
c. Seed d. Embryosac
3. Fertilized mature ovary called-
a. Fruit b. Flower
c. Seed d. Embryosac
4. Seed is a link between how many generation-
a. One generation b. Two generation
c. Three generation d. Four generation
5. Which species fruits consider as seed-
a. Sal b. Bamboo
c. Teak d. All of the above
6. Teak seeds are-
a. Endospermic b. Non-endospermic
c. Ex-albuminous seed d. Both b and c
7. Morphological, physiological and functional changes that occurs
from the time of fertilization until the matured seeds are ready for
harvest is called-
a. Seed development b. Seed vigour
c. Seed quality d. Seed maturation
Answers
1. b 2. c 3. a 4. b 5. d 6. d
7. d
282 t Universal Objective Forestry

8. Moisture content in mature seed will be-

a. 10-20% b. 15-20%
c. 15-30% d. 10-30%
9. The point of maximum dry weight of seed is called-
a. Heat point b. Peak point
c. Saturation point d. Maturity
10. Maturation time period of teak seed is-
a. 60 – 120 days b. 120 – 200 days
c. 150 – 200 days d. 200 – 240 days
11. Common seed colour of forest trees is-
a. Red b. Yellow
c. Brown d. Black
12. Winged seeds are found in-
a. Dipterocarpus b. Terminalia
c. Pterocarpus d. All of the above
13. Seeds of most conifers are-
a. Winged b. Crown
c. Spherical d. Hairy
14. Hairy seeds are found in-
a. Bombax b. Salix
c. Populus d. All of the above
15. Fairy seed are the characteristics of which family-
a. Compositae b. Dipterocarpaceae
c. Apocynaceae d. Verbenaceae
16. Hard seed coat are the characteristics of-
a. Ebenaceae b. Dipterocarpaceae
c. Apocynaceae d. Leguminaceae
17. Indian Seed Act was formed in the year-
a. 1920 b. 1966
c. 1968 d. 1983
18. Indian Seed Act has-
a. 15 sections b. 20 sections
c. 25 sections d. 30 sections
Answers
8. b 9. d 10. b 11. c 12. d 13. a
14. d 15. c 16. d 17. b 18. c
 Tree Seed Technology t 283

19. Seed Rules was formed in the year-

a. 1906 b. 1966
c. 1968 d. 1983
20. Seed order was formed in the year-1983-
a. 1906 b. 1966
c. 1968 d. 1983
21. Nucleus seed is the progeny of-
a. Nucleus seed b. Breeder seed
c. Foundation seed d. Registered seed
22. Breeder seed is the progeny of-
a. Breeder seed b. Nucleus seed
c. Foundation seed d. Certified seed
23. Foundation seed is the progeny of-
a. Nucleus seed b. Breeder seed
c. Foundation seed d. Registered seed
24. Registered seed is the progeny of-
a. Nucleus seed b. Breeder seed
c. Foundation seed d. Certified seed
25. Certified seed is the progeny of-
a. Nucleus seed b. Breeder seed
c. Foundation seed d. Registered seed
26. Tag colour of nucleus seed is-
a. Azar blue b. White
c. Purple d. None
27. Tag colour of foundation seed is-
a. Azar blue b. White
c. Purple d. Pink
28. Tag colour of breeder seed is-
a. Yellow b. White
c. Purple d. Green
29. Tag colour of certified seed is-
a. Golden yellow b. White
c. Purple d. Yellow
Answers
19. c 20. d 21. a 22. b 23. b 24. c
25. d 26. d 27. b 28. a 29. c
284 t Universal Objective Forestry

30. Tag colour of registered seed is-

a. Yellow b. White
c. Purple d. Green
31. Certification of seed is required in case of-
a. Foundation seed b. Registered seed
c. Certified seed d. All of the above
32. An orchard which is seedlings origin is called-
a. Seedling Seed Orchard b. Clonal Seed Orchard
c. Seed orchard d. All of the above
33. An orchard which is vegetative propagation origin is called-
a. Seedling Seed Orchard b. Clonal Seed Orchard
c. Seed orchard d. All of the above
34. Seeds which has life span more than 15 days called-
a. Sound seed b. Orthodox seed
c. Recalcitrant seed d. Viable seed
35. Seed which cannot be dried to moisture contents below 30 per cent
without injury and are unable to tolerate freezing called-
a. Sound seed b. Orthodox seed
c. Recalcitrant seed d. Viable seed
36. Seed certification is not required in case of-
a. Foundation seed b. Registered seed
c. Certified seed d. Nucleus seed
37. Seed certification is not required in case of-
a. Breeder seed b. Registered seed
c. Certified seed d. Foundation seed
38. Which seed is genotypical as well as phenotypical 100% pure-
a. Nucleus seed b. Breeder seed
c. Both a and b d. Registered seed
39. Which seed is genotypical 100% but phenotypical 98% pure-
a. Registered seed b. Certified seed
c. Foundation seed d. All of the above

Answers
30. a 31. d 32. a 33. b 34. b 35. c
36. d 37. a 38. c 39. d
 Tree Seed Technology t 285

40. Systematic removal of individuals not desired for the perpetuation

of the population called-
a. Thinning b. Weeding
c. Pruning d. Roughing
41. The first step during seed germination is-
a. Respiration b. Imbibition
c. Intake of light d. Seed coat bursting
42. The first model of the sequence of biochemical events in seed
germination was given by-
a. Haberlandt b. Amen
c. Dixon & Jolly d. Strasburger
43. Maximum seed germination occurs in which light-
a. Green light b. Red light
c. Blue light d. Far-red light
44. Minimum seed germination occurs in which light-
a. Green light b. Red light
c. Blue light d. Far-red light
45. Branches developed after removal of surrounding trees called-
a. Superior branch b. Epicormics branches
c. Induced branches d. Twist branches
46. An area where superior trees are established and managed entirely
for seed production-
a. Seed production area b. Seed orchard
c. Seed source d. Seed stand
47. Seedling Seed Orchard (SSO) has broader-
a. Genetic load b. Genetic gain
c. Genetic base d. Genetic drift
48. Clonal Seed Orchard has narrower-
a. Genetic load b. Genetic gain
c. Genetic base d. Genetic drift
49. Selection differential is found less in which orchard-
a. Seedling Seed Orchard b. Clonal Seed Orchard
c. Both d. Tissue culture orchard
Answers
40. d 41. b 42. b 43. b 44. d 45. b
46. b 47. c 48. c 49. a
286 t Universal Objective Forestry

50. Selection differential is found higher in which orchard-

a. Seedling Seed Orchard b. Clonal Seed Orchard
c. Both d. Tissue culture orchard
51. Trees used for testing in seedling seed orchard is-
a. 25 or more parental trees b. 50 or more parental trees
c. 75 or more parental trees d. 100 or more parental trees
52. Trees used for testing in clonal seed orchard is-
a. 25 clones b. 25-50 clones
c. 20-40 clones d. 50-100 clones
53. Testing is done at which level in seedling seed orchard-
a. Family b. Progeny
c. Individual d. Pedigree
54. Testing is done at which level in clonal seed orchard-
a. Family b. Progeny
c. Individual d. Pedigree
55. Vivipary is seen in which species-
a. Rhizophora b. Avicennia
c. Shorea d. All of the above
56. Mostly vegetative orchards have been established by-
a. Budding b. cuttings
c. Grafting d. Air layering
57. First generation orchard usually results from selection from-
a. Natural stands or unimproved plantations
b. Artificial stands or improved plantations
c. Natural stands or improved plantations
d. Artificial stands or unimproved plantations
58. First generation improved orchard also known as-
a. 1.25 generation b. 1.5 generation
c. 2.0 generation d. 2.5 generation

Answers
50. b 51. d 52. c 53. a 54. c 55. d
56. c 57. a 58. b
 Soil Science t 287

Chapter 16

Soil Science

1. A dynamic body developed by the natural forces acting on natural

materials and usually differentiated into horizons is called-
a. Land b. Soil
c. Vegetation d. Rocks
2. Soil has how much percent of solid components-
a. 45% b. 5%
c. 50% d. 75%
3. Soil has how much percent of liquid components-
a. 45% b. 5%
c. 50% d. 75%
4. A vertical section of soil shows how many five master horizons-
a. 4 b. 5
c. 6 d. 8
5. Organic horizon of soil profile is-
a. O b. A
c. B d. C
6. ‘A’ horizon of soil is called-
a. Washing out b. Elluvial horizon
c. Leaching horizon d. All of the above
7. ‘B’ horizon of soil is called-
a. Washing in b. Illuvial horizon
c. Leaching horizon d. Both a and b
8. Earth shows how many layer in their internal structure-
a. 2 b. 3
c. 4 d. 5
Answers
1. b 2. c 3. c 4. b 5. a 6. d
7. d 8. b
288 t Universal Objective Forestry

9. Which is/are not an internal layer of earth-

a. Core b. Mantle
c. Buffer d. Crust
10. Density of earth is-
a. 5.5 gm/c.c b. 2.6-2.7 gm/c.c
c. 2.9 gm/c.c d. 3.0 gm/c.c
11. Density of rock is-
a. 5.5 gm/c.c b. 2.6-2.7 gm/c.c
c. 2.9 gm/c.c d. 3.0 gm/c.c
12. Mixture of two or more minerals called-
a. Land b. Soil
c. Ores d. Rock
13. Study of rocks called petrology -
a. Pedology b. Paedogenesis
c. Petrology d. Geology
14. Study of origin, classification and description of soil is called -
a. Pedology b. Paedogenesis
c. Petrology d. Geology
15. Vertical section through a soil is called-
a. Pedology b. Soil profile
c. Petrology d. Geology
16. A plus B horizons collectively called as-
a. Top soil b. Organic soil
c. Solum d. Fertile oil
17. Most important process in chemical weathering process is-
a. Oxidation b. Reduction
c. Both a and b d. Hydrolysis
18. The relative proportion of sand, silt and clay in the soil know as-
a. Soil texture b. Soil structure
c. Lustre d. Soil profile
19. Mass of unit volume of soil including the pore space is called as-
a. Particle density b. Absolute density
c. Real density d. Bulk density
Answers
9. c 10. a 11. b 12. d 13. c 14. a
15. b 16. c 17. d 18. a 19. d
 Soil Science t 289

20. The weight of per unit volume of the solid portion of soil is called-
a. Particle density b. Absolute density
c. Gain density d. All of the above
21. CO2 content in soil as compare to atmospheric CO2 is more than-
a. Four times b. Eight times
c. Ten times d. Hundred times
22. Soil colour chart was given by-
a. Mitchell b. P. K Roy
c. Walkey & Black d. Mansell
23. Which is not a class of soil colour chart-
a. Hue b. Spectrum
c. Value d. Chroma
24. Movement of water into the soil is called as-
a. Precipitation b. Percolation
c. Run-off d. Infiltration
25. Hue in Mansell soil colour chart shows-
a. Soil fertility index
b. Dominant spectral colour
c. Purity of colour
d. Lightness or darkness of colour
26. Chroma in Mansell soil colour chart shows-
a. Soil fertility index
b. Dominant spectral colour
c. Purity of colour
d. Lightness or darkness of colour
27. Value in Mansell soil colour chart shows-
a. Soil fertility index
b. Dominant spectral colour
c. Purity of colour
d. Lightness or darkness of colour
28. Soil water retained at the pressure-
a. -0.13 bar b. 0.33 bar % +15 bar
c. 0.33 bar % -15 bar d. 1.33 bar % +15 bar
Answers
20. d 21. c 22. d 23. b 24. d 25. b
26. c 27. d 28. c
290 t Universal Objective Forestry

29. Amount of water required to produce a unit quantity of dry weight

material is called as-
a. Required water b. Water use efficiency
c. Capillary water d. Water use point
30. Capacity of the soil to change its shape under moist conditions is
called as-
a. Soil structure b. Soil texture
c. Plasticity d. Buffering capacity
31. Molybdenum is not found in the soil-
a. Alkali soil b. Basic soil
c. Red soil d. Acidic soil
32. The power to resist a change in pH by the soil is called -
a. Electrical conductivity b. Soil pH
c. Buffering capacity d. Amelioration capacity
33. The process of removal of silica instead of sesquioxides to
concentrate in the solum is called -
a. Calcination b. Podsolization
c. Humification d. Laterisation
34. Saline soils also called as-
a. Sodic soils b. Solonetz
c. Non-saline alkali d. Solon chalk
35. Saline soils also called as-
a. Sodic soils b. Solonetz
c. White alkali soils d. Non-saline alkali
36. Alkali soils also called as-
a. Sodic soils b. Solonetz
c. Non-saline alkali d. All of the above
37. Particle density or absolute density or gain density and bulk or
apparent density are expressed-
a. Mg/m3 b. gms/cm3
c. kg/m 3
d. Both a and b
38. Particle density or absolute density or gain density has value-
a. 1.65 gm/c.c b. 1.85 gm/c.c
c. 2.65 gm/c.c d. 2.85 gm/c.c

Answers
29. b 30. c 31. d 32. c 33. d 34. d
35. c 36. d 37. d 38. c
 Soil Science t 291

39. Bulk density has value-

a. 1.65 gm/c.c b. 1.85 gm/c.c
c. 2.65 gm/c.c d. 2.85 gm/c.c
40. Particle density is always than bulk density-
a. Higher b. Lower
c. Equal d. Equal or lower
41. Number of land suitability classes is-
a. 2 b. 8
c. 12 d. 15
42. Which is called as night soil manure-
a. Humus b. Vermicompost
c. Solonchak d. Poudrette
43. Gypsum is used for reclamation of -
a. Sodic soils b. Solonetz
c. Non-saline alkali d. All of the above
44. Which soil is light textured -
a. Sandy soil b. Sandy loam soil
c. Clay soil d. Clay loam soil
45. One gram of soil contains-
a. 10 million microorganisms b. 12 million microorganisms
c. 14 million microorganisms d. 16 million microorganisms
46. Red soils is found in-
a. Bihar b. Rajasthan
c. Maharashtra d. Tamil Nadu
47. Fossils are found in-sedimentary rocks-
a. Sedimentary rock b. Igneous rock
c. Metamorphic rock d. None
48. The length of engineer chain is -
a. 10 ft. b. 66 ft.
c. 75 ft. d. 100 ft.
49. The length of Gunter chain is -
a. 10 ft b. 66 ft
c. 75 ft d. 100 ft

Answers
39. a 40. a 41. a 42. d 43. d 44. c
45. c 46. d 47. a 48. d 49. d
292 t Universal Objective Forestry

50. The transfer of minerals from the top soil to sub soil through the
water is called as-
a. Mineralization b. Elluviation
c. Leaching d. Podsolization
51. Which fertilizer fixed immediately after application in the soil-
a. N b. P
c. K d. S
52. Cation exchange capacity is expressed-
a. me/100 g b. Mme/100 g
c. C mole/kg. d. Both a and c
53. The arrangement of primary particles and their aggregates into a soil
called as-
a. Soil texture b. Soil structure
c. Plasticity d. Soil profile
54. Kaolinite is an example of-
a. 2:1 non-expanding types b. 2:1 expanding types
c. 1:1 expanding types d. 1:2 expanding types
55. Montmorillonite is an example of-
a. 2:1 non-expanding types b. 2:1 expanding types
c. 1:1 expanding types d. 1:2 expanding types
56. Hydrous mica or illite is an example of-
a. 2:1 non-expanding types b. 2:1 expanding types
c. 1:1 expanding types d. 1:2 expanding types
57. Chlorites is an example of-
a. 2:1 non-expanding types
b. 2:2 expanding types
c. 1:1 expanding types
d. 1:2 expanding types
58. Amount of exchangeable cations per unit weight of dry soil called-
a. Cation exchange capacity b. Anion exchange capacity
c. Plasticity d. Buffering capacity
59. Soil survey has been categorised into -
a. 2 b. 4
c. 5 d. 6
Answers
50. c 51. b 52. d 53. b 54. c 55. b
56. a 57. b 58. a 59. b
 Soil Science t 293

60. Capacity of a soil to absorb or release anion under normal soil

conditions is called-
a. Cation exchange capacity b. Anion exchange capacity
c. Plasticity d. Buffering capacity
61. Cadastral maps having scale 1:8,000 or 1:4,000 are used in-
a. Detailed soil survey
b. Reconnaissance soil survey
c. Detailed survey-reconnaissance soil survey
d. Semi-detailed survey
62. Topographical maps having scale 1:50,000 are used in-
a. Detailed soil survey
b. Reconnaissance soil survey
c. Detailed survey-reconnaissance soil survey
d. Semi-detailed survey
63. Soil formation equation was first given by -
a. Peterson b. D. K. Das
c. Dokuchaiev d. Jenny
64. Which is/are the active factor in soil formation equation-
a. Biosphere b. Climate
c. Parent material d. Both a and b
65. Which is/are the passive factor in soil formation equation-
a. Relief b. Time
c. Parent material d. All of the above
66. Which is soil formation equation-
a. S = f (cl, b, r, p, t) b. S = f (cl, q, r, p, t)
c. f = s (cl, b, r, v, t) d. S = cl (f, b, r, p, t)
67. Who has given stages of soil development or formation-
a. Mansell & Jenny b. Mohr & Baren
c. Dokuchaiev & Jenny d. Jenny
68. Which is/are not a soil formation stages-
a. Senile b. Virile
c. Juvenile d. All of the above

Answers
60. b 61. a 62. b 63. c 64. d 65. d
66. a 67. b 68. c
294 t Universal Objective Forestry

69. Mohr and van Baren recognized how many stages of soil
development -
a. Three b. Four
c. Five d. Six
70. Soil formation equation was explained given by in 1941 -
a. Peterson b. D. K. Das
c. Dokuchaiev d. Jenny
71. 7th Approximation and their derivatives proposed how many soil
orders-
a. Eight b. Ten
c. Twelve d. Fifteen
72. Which soil order has maximum sub soil orders-
a. Mollisol b. Gelisol
c. Aridosol d. Vertisol
73. Which soil order has minimum sub soil orders-
a. Mollisol b. Gelisol
c. Aridosol d. Vertisol
74. Soil order Gelisol has symbol-
a. Ept b. 1st
c. Oll d. el
75. The foliar spray of urea have per cent biuret concentration-
a. 1.0 b. 1.5
c. 2.5 d. 4.5
76. The process of accumulation insoluble lime salts mostly Ca & Mg
in soil horizons called -
a. Mineralization b. Calcification
c. Leaching d. Podsolization
77. E-value is used for determination of available elements in soils-
a. K b. N
c. P d. S
78. The ratio of the weight of organic carbon to the weight of the total
nitrogen in soil called-
a. C : N ratio b. Humus
c. Ammonification d. Organic carbon

Answers
69. c 70. d 71. c 72. a 73. b 74. d
75. b 76. b 77. c 78. a
 Soil Science t 295

79. Colloidal particles tend to attract each other and coagulate like a
bigger particle called-
a. Aggregation b. Calcification
c. Laterisation d. Flocculation
80. The process of accumulation of iron and aluminium oxides in soil
horizons called-
a. Mineralization b. Calcification
c. Laterisation d. Podsolization
81. L-value is used to calculate supply value in soils-
a. K b. N
c. P d. S
82. Formation of inorganic substances from the organic substances by
microbial decomposition-
a. Mineralization b. Calcification
c. Laterisation d. Humification
83. The downward movement of water through the soil called as-
a. Precipitation b. Percolation
c. Run-off d. Infiltration
84. A-value and Y-value concept was given by respectively-
a. Fried & Dean (1952) and Larson (1952)
b. Larson (1952) and Fried & Dean (1953)
c. Fried & Dean (1941) and Larson (1953)
d. Mohr (1941) & Baren (1953)
85. The detachment and transportation of soil mass from one place to
another place called-
a. Mineralization b. Soil erosion
c. Tillage d. Decomposition
86. Which is/are not a types of soil erosion by wind-
a. Raindrop splash erosion b. Saltation
c. Suspension d. Surface creep
87. Which is/are not a types of soil erosion by water -
a. Sheet erosion b. Rill erosion
c. Gully erosion d. Saltation
Answers
79. d 80. c 81. c 82. a 83. b 84. a
85. b 86. a 87. d
296 t Universal Objective Forestry

88. Soil splash caused by the impact of falling rain drops is called-
a. Raindrop splash erosion b. Saltation
c. Suspension d. Surface creep
89. Number of soil irrigability classes is-
a. 2 b. 5
c. 8 d. 12
90. Removal of uniform layers of surface soil by the action of rainfall
and run-off water called -
a. Saltation b. Rill erosion
c. Gully erosion d. Sheet erosion
91. Removal of surface soil by running water with the formation narrow
shallow channels called-
a. Saltation b. Rill erosion
c. Gully erosion d. Sheet erosion
92. Removal of surface soil by running water with the formation
of channels that cannot be smoothed out completely by normal
agricultural operation or cultivation called -
a. Saltation b. Rill erosion
c. Gully erosion d. Sheet erosion
93. Which is the first stage of soil erosion by water -
a. Sheet erosion b. Rill erosion
c. Gully erosion d. Raindrop splash erosion
94. Saltation is a process of movement of soil particles having size-
a. 0.01 to 0.02 mm b. 0.02 to 0.50 mm
c. 0.1 to 0.05 mm d. 0.05 to 0.5 mm
95. Suspension is a process of movement of soil particles having size-
a. < 0.5mm b. > 0.1mm
c. < 0.1mm d. > 0.5mm
96. Surface creep is a process of movement of soil particles having size-
a. > 0.2mm b. > 0.5mm
c. > 0.6mm d. > 0.7mm
97. Percent soil loss in saltation of total percent of wind erosion is-
a. 50-70 b. 5-25
c. 3-4 d. 1-4

Answers
88. a 89. b 90. d 91. b 92. c 93. d
94. d 95. c 96. b 97. a
 Soil Science t 297

98. Percent soil loss in surface creep of total percent of wind erosion is-
a. 50-70 b. 5-25
c. 3-4 d. 1-4
99. Percent soil loss in suspension of total percent of wind erosion is-
a. 50-70 b. 5-25
c. 3-4 d. 1-4
100. The rate of soil erosion in India is-
a. 1.64 t/ha b. 16.4 t/ha
c. 28.9 t/ha d. 56.3 t/ha
101. Which is an example of igneous rock-
a. Granite b. Limestone
c. Sand stone d. Slate
102. Which is not an example of sedimentary rock-
a. Basalt b. Limestone
c. Sand stone d. Dolomite
103. Which is not an example of metamorphic rock-
a. Marble b. Quartz
c. Dolomite d. Gneisis
104. Soil is a-
a. Greek word b. Latin word
c. French word d. Dutch word
105. Coarse sand soil particles having size-
a. > 0.2mm b. > 0.5mm
c. > 0.6mm d. > 0.7mm
106. Silt soil particles having size-
a. > 2.0 b. 0.02-0.002 mm
c. 0.02-0.2 mm d. 0.002 mm
107. Clay soil particles having size-
a. > 2.0 b. 0.02-0.002 mm
c. 0.02-0.2 mm d. < 0.002 mm
108. Soil of India broadly classified into how many groups-
a. 4 b. 6
c. 8 d. 12

Answers
98. b 99. c 100. b 101. a 102. a 103. c
104. b 105. a 106. b 107. d 108. c
298 t Universal Objective Forestry

109. Largest soil groups in India is-

a. Alluvial soils b. Black soils
c. Red soils d. Laterite soils
110. Maximum leached soil groups in India is-
a. Alluvial soils b. Black soils
c. Red soils d. Laterite soils
111. Which is called early soils groups in India is-
a. Alluvial soils b. Black soils
c. Red soils d. Laterite soils
112. Regur refers to soils groups in India is-
a. Alluvial soils b. Black soils
c. Red soils d. Laterite soils
113. Alluvial soils groups occupied how much area in India is-
a. 143 mha b. 55 mha
c. 15 mha d. 25 mha
114. Black soils groups occupied how much area in India is-
a. 143 mha b. 55 mha
c. 15 mha d. 25 mha
115. Red soils groups occupied how much area in India is-
a. 143 mha b. 55 mha
c. 15 mha d. 25 mha
116. Laterite soils groups occupied how much area in India is-
a. 143 mha b. 55 mha
c. 15 mha d. 25 mha
117. Smallest unit of soil classifications is-
a. Soil series b. Soil class
c. Soil order d. Soil sub-order
118. Organic matter is found highest in-
a. Forest ecosystem b. Pond ecosystem
c. River ecosystem d. Grasslands
119. Organic matter present in the soil can be calculated by-
a. SOC = Organic carbon (OC) × 1.124
b. SOC = Organic carbon (OC) × 1.324
c. SOC = Organic carbon (OC) × 1.724
d. SOC = Organic carbon (OC) × 1.924
Answers
109. a 110. d 111. c 112. b 113. d 114. b
115. c 116. d 117. a 118. d 119. c
 Soil Science t 299

120. Value of Bemlen factor is-

a. 1.724 b. 2.324
c. 1.734 d. 4.324
121. Highest acidic soils found in-
a. Gujarat b. Maharashtra
c. West Bengal d. Bihar
122. Soils having atleast how much organic matter called as organic soils-
a. 10% b. 15%
c. 20% d. 25%
123. Indian soils have how much percent organic matter-
a. 0.45 b. 0.55
c. 1.0 d. 1.5
124. Zero tillage practice was first started in-
a. India b. Japan
c. China d. USA
125. Flame photometer is used to determine-
a. N and P b. N and K
c. Na and K d. N, P and K
126. Electrical conductivity (EC) of saline soil is-
a. > 4 d/sm b. < 4 ds/m
c. >4 ds/m d. < 6 dsm-1
127. Exchangeable sodium percent (ESP) of saline soil is-
a. > 4 d/sm b. < 15
c. > 15 d. < 6
128. pH of saline soil is-
a. < 8.5 b. > 8.5
c. > 7.5 d. < 6.5
129. Calcium ammonium nitrate (CAN) also known as -
a. Indian fertilizer b. China clay
c. Kissan Khad d. Desi Khad

Answers
120. a 121. c 122. c 123. a 124. d 125. c
126. c 127. b 128. a 129. c
300 t Universal Objective Forestry

130. Nitrogen percent in urea, thiourea and urea formaldehyde is

respectively
a. 46% N, 46.8% and 30-42% N
b. 42% N, 26.8% and 38-52% N
c. 43% N, 46.8% and 38-52% N
d. 46% N, 36.8% and 38-42% N
131. Electrical conductivity (EC) of alkaline soils is-
a. > 4 d/sm b. < 4 ds/m
c. >4 ds/m d. < 6 dsm-1
132. Exchangeable sodium percent (ESP) of alkaline soils is-
a. > 4 d/sm b. < 15
c. > 15 d. < 6
133. pH of alkaline soils is-
a. < 8.5 b. > 8.5
c. > 7.5 d. < 6.5
134. pH scale was given by-
a. Mohit Husain b. Mansell
c. Sorenson d. Walkey & Black
135. The C: N ratio for humus is -
a. 12 : 1 b. 10 : 20
c. 10 : 1 d. 10:25
136. The C: N ratio for normal soil is -
a. 12 : 1 b. 10 : 20
c. 10 : 1 d. 10 : 25
137. Single super phosphate (SSP) contain-
a. 10% P2O5, 15% Ca and 10% S
b. 14% P2O5, 17% Ca and 12% S
c. 16% P2O5, 19% Ca and 12% S
d. 18% P2O5, 21% Ca and 14% S
138. DAP contains-
a. 18% N, 46% P2O5 b. 46% N, 26% P2O5
c. 10% N, 34% P2O5 d. 17% N, 34% P2O5

Answers
130. d 131. b 132. c 133. b 134. a 135. c
136. a 137. c 138. a
 Soil Science t 301

139. Nitrogen percent in ammonium nitrate is-

a. 28% b. 33%
c. 47% d. 50%
140. MAP contains-
a. 10% N, 38% P2O5 b. 11% N, 48% P2O5
c. 17% N, 40% P2O5 d. 18% N, 40% P2O5
141. Land capability classification (LCC) has-
a. 6 classes b. 8 classes
c. 12 classes d. 15 classes
142. LCC soil class I has colour -
a. Light green b. Yellow
c. Red d. Blue
143. N, P and K content in FYM is respectively –
a. 0.5 N%, 0.2 P% and 0.5 K%
b. 0.5 N%, 0.4 P% and 0.5 K%
c. 0.2 N%, 0.5 P% and 0.5 K%
d. 0.25 N%, 0.20 P% and 0.55 K%
144. LCC soil class II has colour -
a. Light green b. Yellow
c. Red d. Blue
145. N, P and K content in vermicompost is respectively –
a. 0.5 N%, 0.2 P% and 0.5 K%
b. 3.0 N%, 1.0 P% and 1.5 K%
c. 0.2 N%, 0.5 P% and 1.5 K%
d. 0.5 N%, 0.2 P% and 0.5 K%
146. LCC soil class III has colour -
a. Light green b. Yellow
c. Red d. Blue
147. N, P and K content in night soil is respectively –
a. 0.5 N%, 0.2 P% and 0.5 K%
b. 3.0 N%, 1.0 P% and 1.5 K%
c. 2.2 N%, 4.5 P% and 1.5 K%
d. 5.5 N%, 4.0 P% and 2.0 K%
Answers
139. b 140. b 141. b 142. a 143. a 144. b
145. b 146. c 147. d
302 t Universal Objective Forestry

148. LCC soil class IV has colour -

a. Light green b. Yellow
c. Red d. Blue
149. Soil transported by water is called -
a. Eolian b. Glacial
c. Alluvial d. Colluvial
150. Land capability soil class suitable for wildlife & watershed-
a. Class IV b. Class VI
c. Class VII d. Class VIII
151. LCC soil class V has colour -
a. Dark green b. Orange
c. Brown d. Purple
152. Soil transported by gravity is called -
a. Eolian b. Glacial
c. Alluvial d. Colluvial
153. Land capability soil class suitable for pasture and grassland -
a. Class I b. Class II
c. Class V d. Class VII
154. Soil transported by wind is called -
a. Eolian b. Glacial
c. Alluvial d. Colluvial
155. Soil transported by ice is called -
a. Eolian b. Glacial
c. Alluvial d. Colluvial
156. Land capability soil class suitable for cultivation is/are -
a. Class I b. Class II
c. Class III d. All of the above
157. LCC soil class VI has colour -
a. Dark green b. Orange
c. Brown d. Purple
158. Land capability soil class not suitable for cultivation is/are -
a. Class VI b. Class VII
c. Class VIII d. All of the above
Answers
148. d 149. c 150. a 151. a 152. d 153. c
154. a 155. b 156. d 157. b 158. d
 Soil Science t 303

159. LCC soil class VII has colour -

a. Dark green b. Orange
c. Brown d. Purple
160. LCC soil class VIII has colour -
a. Dark green b. Orange
c. Brown d. Purple
161. Loamy soil has -
a. 50% sand + 50% clay b. 60% sand + 40% clay
c. 70% sand + 30% clay d. 80% sand + 20% clay
162. Sandy soil has -
a. 65% sand + 35% clay b. 70% sand + 30% clay
c. 80% sand + 20% clay d. 85% sand + 15% clay

Answers
159. c 160. d 161. c 162. d
 Agricultural Extension t 305

Chapter 17

Agricultural Extension

1. Community Development Programme (CDP) was started in the year-

a. 1952 b. 1953
c. 1960 d. 1962
2. National Extension Service (NES) was started in the year-
a. 1952 b. 1953
c. 1960 d. 1962
3. Agriculture extension was first started in-
a. Bihar Agricultural College, Sabour
b. Rajasthan Agricultural College, Udaipur
c. Gujarat Agricultural College, Junagarh
d. Tamil Nadu Agricultural College, Coimbatore
4. Pachayati Raj was started in India-
a. 1950 b. 1953
c. 1959 d. 1962
5. Tribal Area Development Programme (TADP) was started in the
year-
a. 1952 b. 1953
c. 1960 d. 1962
6. Etawah pilot project was headed by-
a. M. K Gandhi b. D. Benor
c. Albert Mayer d. R.N Tagore
7. Tribal Area Development Programme (TADP) was started in the
year-
a. 1958 b. 1964
c. 1965 d. 1969
Answers
1. a 2. b 3. a 4. c 5. d 6. c
7. b
306 t Universal Objective Forestry

8. Father of organic farming is-

a. John Ray b. D. Benor
c. Masanobu Fukuoka d. Albert Mayer
9. Small Farmers Development Agency (SFDA) was started in the year-
a. 1958 b. 1964
c. 1965 d. 1969
10. National Agricultural Science Museum located at-
a. Kolkata b. Dehra Dun
c. Mumbai d. New Delhi
11. National Agricultural Science Museum located at New Delhi was
established in the year-
a. 1958 b. 1994
c. 2004 d. 2006
12. Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) was started in
the year-
a. 1952 b. 1978
c. 1984 d. 1993
13. National Rural Employment Programme (NREP) was started in the
year-
a. 1952 b. 1978
c. 1980 d. 1991
14. Training of Rural Youth for Self-employment (TRYSEM) was
started in the year-
a. 1958 b. 1979
c. 1980 d. 2000
15. T and V programme was introduced in the year-
a. 1943 b. 1974
c. 1986 d. 2002
16. ICAR was established on the recommendation of-
a. Lord Fukoka Commission
b. Swaminathan Commission
c. B. P. Pal Commission
d. Lord Linlithgow Commission

Answers
8. c 9. d 10. d 11. c 12. b 13. c
14. c 15. b 16. d
 Agricultural Extension t 307

17. The year of technology is -

a. 2000 b. 2002
c. 2006 d. 2008
18. The first KVK was established at-
a. Bihar b. Rajasthan
c. Pantanagar d. Pondicherry
19. The first KVK was established in the year-
a. 1958 b. 1974
c. 1980 d. 1993
20. Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP) was
started in the year-
a. 1958 b. 1974
c. 1983 d. 1993
21. Shantiniketan project was headed by-
a. M. K Gandhi b. D. Benor
c. Albert Mayer d. R.N Tagore
22. Lab to Land programme was started in the year-
a. 1979 b. 1984
c. 1987 d. 1991
23. Lab to Land programme was started by ICAR on-
a. Silver jubilee b. Golden jubilee
c. Diamond jubilee d. Platinum jubilee
24. Jawahar Rozgar Yojana (JRY) was started in the year-
a. 1979 b. 1984
c. 1987 d. 1991
25. Indira Aawaas Yojana was started in the year-
a. 1979 b. 1981
c. 1986 d. 1991
26. Rajiv Gandhi National Drinking Water Mission was started in the
year-
a. 1979 b. 1981
c. 1986 d. 1991

Answers
17. b 18. d 19. b 20. c 21. d 22. a
23. b 24. b 25. c 26. d
308 t Universal Objective Forestry

27. Swaran Jayanthi Gram Swarojgar Yojana was started in the year-
a. 1979 b. 1999
c. 2001 d. 2005
28. Television broadcast for rural development in India was started in
the year-
a. 1977 b. 1985
c. 1996 d. 2000
29. Grow more food campaign was stared in-
a. 1928 b. 1948
c. 1964 d. 1979
30. T and V system of extension was started by -
a. Spencer Hatch b. D. Benor
c. Albert Mayer d. R.N Tagore
31. Sevagram project was started by-
a. Spencer Hatch b. M. K Gandhi
c. Albert Mayer d. R.N Tagore
32. National Academy of Agriculture Research Management was
located in-
a. New Delhi b. Bhopal
c. Hyderabad d. Dehra Dun
33. The Royal Commission came in the year-
a. 1921 b. 1928
c. 1939 d. 1952
34. The full form of ATMA is-
a. Agriculture Technology Management Authority
b. Advances Technology Management Authority
c. Agriculture Technology Machinery Agency
d. Agriculture Technology Management Agency
35. The Government of India set up planning Commission during the
year-
a. 1954 b. 1979
c. 1989 d. 1995

Answers
27. b 28. a 29. b 30. b 31. b 32. c
33. b 34. d 35. a
 Agricultural Extension t 309

36. NATP was funded from-

a. RBI b. NAWARD
c. JICA d. World Bank
37. Who was the first chairman of National Commission on farmers-
a. Sompal b. M. K Gandhi
c. Swaminathan d. R.N Tagore
38. Who was the present chairman of National Commission on farmers-
a. Sompal b. M. K Gandhi
c. Swaminathan d. R.N Tagore
39. National Food for work programme was launched on-
a. 14th July 2002 b. 14th December 2003
c. 14 November 2004
th
d. 2nd June 2005
40. Role of different agencies for village development was included in-
a. Close diagram b. Pie diagram
c. Chapati diagram d. Histogram
41. The Apex bank providing rural credit in Agriculture field is-
a. RBI b. NAWARD
c. Gramin Bank d. World Bank
42. The functional unit of rural society is-
a. Land b. Block
c. Village d. Agriculture
43. First Five year plan was stared during the year-
a. 1948-53 b. 1951-56
c. 1953-58 d. 1950-55
44. First rural development programme was-
a. Sriniketan project b. Sewagram Project
c. Etawah pilot project d. Gurgaon project
45. The principle of one village one society was suggested by-
a. Mohan Singh Mehta Committee
b. Swaminathan Commission
c. Maclogen committee
d. Lord Linlithgow Commission

Answers
36. d 37. a 38. c 39. c 40. c 41. b
42. c 43. b 44. a 45. c
310 t Universal Objective Forestry

46. Panchayati Raj was first started in-

a. Bihar b. Rajasthan
c. Pantanagar d. Pondicherry
47. KVK was recommended by-
a. Mohan Singh Mehta Committee
b. Swaminathan Commission
c. Maclogen committee
d. Lord Linlithgow Commission
48. The National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) was stated in-
a. 1948-53 b. 1951-56
c. 1953-58 d. 1999-2000
49. The full form of NARS is-
a. National Agricultural Research Scientist
b. National Agronomy Research System
c. National Advances Research System
d. National Agricultural Research System
50. IVLP stands for-
a. Indian Village Linkage Programme
b. Institutional Village Labours Programme
c. Indian Village Labours Programme
d. Institutional Village Linkage Programme
51. National Institute of Agricultural Marketing (NIAM) is located in-
a. Jaipur b. New Delhi
c. Bhopal d. Lucknow
52. Reserve Bank of India was established on-
a. 1st May, 1930 b. 1st April, 1935
c. 1 August, 1935
st
d. 1st April, 1934
53. Full form of SIDBI is -
a. Small Industries Development Bank of India
b. State Industries Designing Bank of India
c. Small Industries Development Bazaar of India
d. State Investment Development Bank of India

Answers
46. b 47. a 48. d 49. d 50. d 51. a
52. b 53. a
 Agricultural Extension t 311

54. The first fully Indian Bank was-

a. State Bank of India b. Punjab National Bank
c. Bank of India d. Indian Bank
55. The time period of 11th Five year Plan is-
a. 2000-2005 b. 2005-210
c. 2007-2012 d. 1998-2003
56. Co-operative credit societies act was passed in India during-
a. 1885 b. 1892
c. 1910 d. 1912
57. National Policy for Farmers was approved during-
a. 1912 b. 2000
c. 2007 d. 2009
58. The term Extension was first used in-
a. India b. U.K.
c. Japan d. China
59. The functional unit of rural society is-
a. Land b. Block
c. Village d. Agriculture
60. ISARD stands for-
a. Institute for Small on Agricultural and Rural Development
b. Institute for Studies on Agricultural and Rural Development
c. Indian State for Agricultural and Rural Development
d. Institute for Studies on Advancement and Rural Development
61. The first Kshetriya Gramin Bank was opened in India during-
a. 1921 b. 1975
c. 1979 d. 1982
62. The first state that adopted two tier panchayat raj was-
a. Kerala b. Gujarat
c. Tamil Nadu d. Karnataka
63. The chairman for national development of council in India is-
a. Prime Minister b. President
c. Director research d. Chief Minister

Answers
54. b 55. c 56. d 57. c 57. b 59. c
60. b 61. b 62. d 63. a
312 t Universal Objective Forestry

64. Nobel Prize for Micro Credit was given to-

a. Mohammad Yunus b. M. K Gandhi
c. Swaminathan d. R.N Tagore
65. Directorate of plant protection, quarantine and storage is located at-
a. Kerala b. New Delhi
c. Lucknow d. Faridabad
66. Model village concept was given by-
a. Daniel Hamilton b. M. K Gandhi
c. Swaminathan d. R.N Tagore
67. CAMPA stands for-
a. Complete Afforestation Fund Managing and Promoting Authority
b. Compensatory Afforestation Forest Management and Planning
Agency
c. Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Plan-
ning Authority
d. Common Afforestation Forest Management and Planning Agency
68. Percent of innovators in a society to adopt a new research or
innovation is-
a. 2.5 b. 13.5
c. 34 d. 16
69. Percent of laggards in a society to adopt a new research or innovation
is-
a. 2.5 b. 13.5
c. 34 d. 16
70. 69. Percent of early adopters in a society to adopt a new research or
innovation is-
a. 2.5 b. 13.5
c. 34 d. 16
71. The NPV value for any system should be-
a. Negative b. Positive
c. Zero d. Both a and b
72. Percent of early majority in a society to adopt a new research or
innovation is-
a. 2.5 b. 13.5
c. 34 d. 16
Answers
64. a 65. d 66. a 67. c 68. a 69. d
70. b 71. b 72. c
 Agricultural Extension t 313

73. Percent of late majority in a society to adopt a new research or

innovation is-
a. 2.5 b. 13.5
c. 34 d. 16
74. The adoption of an innovation usually follows a-
a. S-shaped curve b. J-shaped curve
c. V-shaped curve d. I-shaped curve
75. Gurgaon project was started in the year-
a. 1920 b. 1921
c. 1929 d. 1948
76. Gurgaon project was started by-
a. Spencer Hatch b. M. K Gandhi
c. F.L. Bryne d. R.N Tagore
77. Marathondom project was started in the year-
a. 1920 b. 1921
c. 1929 d. 1948
78. Marathondom project was started by-
a. Spencer Hatch b. M. K Gandhi
c. F.L. Bryne d. R.N Tagore
79. Sewagram project was started in the year-
a. 1920 b. 1921
c. 1929 d. 1948
80. Etawa pilot project was started in the year-
a. 1920 b. 1921
c. 1929 d. 1948
81. Firka Development was started by-
a. T. Prakashan b. M. K Gandhi
c. F.L. Bryne d. R.N Tagore
82. Shantiniketan project was started in the year-
a. 1920 b. 1921
c. 1929 d. 1948
83. Majdoor Manjil project was started by-
a. Spencer Hatch b. M. K Gandhi
c. F.L. Bryne d. S.K. Dey

Answers
73. c 74. a 75. a 76. c 77. b 78. a
79. c 80. d 81. a 82. b 83. d
314 t Universal Objective Forestry

84. Father of extension -

a. Spencer Hatch b. M. K Gandhi
c. Leagnes d. R.N Tagore
85. Extension is a-
a. Dutch word b. French word
c. Latin word d. Greek word
86. Extension meaning is-
a. Stretching b. Extending
c. Expanding d. Tension

Answers
84. c 85. c 86. a
 Agricultural Statistics and Economics t 315

Chapter 18

Agricultural Statistics
and Economics

1. Mean, median and mode are same in-

a. Binomial distribution b. Poisson distribution
c. Normal distribution d. All of the above
2. Which statistical design is the best design for field experiments -
a. Randomized Block Design
b. Completely Randomized Block Design
c. Latin Square Design
d. Completely Randomized Design
3. The square of the standard deviation is known as-
a. Mode b. Variance
c. Standard variance d. Dispersion
4. The relationship between independent and dependent variables is
computed by-
a. Regression coefficient b. Correlation
c. Standard variance d. Harmonic mean
5. The regression coefficient is independent of-
a. Change in direction b. Distribution of charge
c. Change of origin d. Change of charge
6. The value of chi square (X2) is always-
a. Negative b. Positive
c. Both a and b d. Never Positive

Answers
1. c 2. a 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. b
316 t Universal Objective Forestry

7. The ranges of chi square (X2) is-

a. –1 to +1 b. 0 to 1
c. –∞ to +∞ d. 0 to ∞
8. The correlation coefficient is the geometric mean between-
a. Two regression coefficients b. Regression coefficients
c. Two progressive mean d. Three harmonic mean
9. The ranges of multiple correlation coefficient lies between-
a. –1 to +1 b. 0 to 1
c. –∞ to +∞ d. 0 to ∞
10. Which statistical design is the best design for laboratory experiment-
a. Randomized Block Design
b. Completely Randomized Block Design
c. Latin Square Design
d. Completely Randomized Design
11. Local control is not applied for the design-
a. Randomized Block Design
b. Completely Randomized Block Design
c. Latin Square Design
d. Completely Randomized Design
12. If any items of the series is zero the which central tendency become
zero -
a. Mode b. Geometric mean
c. Standard variance d. Dispersion
13. The allocation of the treatments to the different experimental units in
a random manner called-
a. Treatments b. Local control
c. Randomization d. Dispersion
14. Which is appropriate design when the fertility gradient of the field
is in one direction-
a. Randomized Block Design
b. Completely Randomized Block Design
c. Latin Square Design
d. Completely Randomized Design

Answers
7. d 8. a 9. a 10. d 11. d 12. b
13. c 14. a
 Agricultural Statistics and Economics t 317

15. Which is appropriate design when the fertility gradient of the field
is in two direction-
a. Randomized Block Design
b. Completely Randomized Block Design
c. Latin Square Design
d. Completely Randomized Design
16. Father of statistics is-
a. Meischer b. Adam Smith
c. W. Student d. R.A. Fisher
17. The minimum error degree of freedom for RBD should be at least-
a. 5 b. 10
c. 12 d. 15
18. The hypothesis of no difference is known as-
a. Null hypothesis b. Fisher hypothesis
c. Smith hypothesis d. None
19. The probability of committing type 1 error is known as-
a. Test of significance b. Local control
c. Randomization d. Level of significance
20. Which test is used to test of significance of the difference between
two means z-test-
a. t-test b. f-test
c. z-test d. All of the above
21. Which test is applicable for comparison of two means from
independent samples -
a. t-test b. f-test
c. z-test d. Chi square test
22. The ranges of regression coefficient lies between-
a. –1 to +1 b. 0 to 1
c. –∞ to +∞ d. 0 to ∞
23. In hypothesis testing the most common level of significance that is
used by statisticians is-
a. 0.5 b. 0.05
c. 1.0 d. 0.10
Answers
15. c 16. d 17. c 18. a 19. d 20. c
21. a 22. c 23. b
318 t Universal Objective Forestry

24. t-test is applicable when the number of treatments are -

a. 2 b. 3
c. 5 d. 10
25. Principles of Experimental design is given by-
a. Meischer b. Adam Smith
c. W. Student d. R.A. Fisher
26. Anova was first proposed by-
a. Meischer b. Adam Smith
c. W. Student d. R.A. Fisher
27. The simplest measure of dispersion is-
a. Mean b. Mode
c. Range d. Median
28. The statistical test is used to determine the goodness of fit is-
a. t-test b. f-test
c. z-test d. Chi square test
29. The curve of normal distribution is-
a. Sigmoid b. Bell shaped
c. J-shaped d. V-shaped
30. The correlation coefficient will be negative when-
a. X increases and Y increase b. X increases and Y decreases
c. X decrease and Y decreases d. X decrease and Y increase
31. Binomial distribution is called-
a. Pie distribution b. Fisher distribution
c. Bernoulli’s distribution d. Poisson distribution
32. Chi square test is parametric test-
a. Parametric test b. Non-parametric test
c. Both d. None
33. Error degree of freedom for RBD is-
a. (n – 1) b. (n – 1) (r – 1)
c. (n – 1) + (r – 1) d. (n + 1)
34. The Indian economy type is-
a. Compound b. Variable
c. Pure d. Mixed
Answers
24. a 25. d 26. d 27. c 28. d 29. b
30. b 31. c 32. a 33. b 34. d
 Agricultural Statistics and Economics t 319

35. Most valid law in agriculture production is-

a. Law of diminishing returns
b. Law of marginal returns
c. Law of marginal utility
d. Law of Equi-marginal utility
36. The formula for rate of turnover (s) is-
a. s = Total income /Total expenses
b. s = Total expenses/Gross income
c. s = Total liabilities /Total assets
d. s = Total assets/Total liabilities
37. National Income in India is estimated by-
a. SSO b. CSO
c. ISO d. SCO
38. Headquarter of SIDBI is situated in-
a. Jaipur b. New Delhi
c. Kolkata d. Lucknow
39. The main security guard of International Trade is-
a. WIPCO b. CSO
c. ISO d. WTO
40. NABARD was established in which plan-
a. 6 Five year plan b. 7 Five year plan
c. 8 Five year plan d. 9 Five year plan
41. The chairman of 12th Finance Commission-
a. Swaminathan b. Trilochan Mahopatra
c. Arun Jaitley d. Rangarajan
42. Father of economics is-
a. Meischer b. Adam Smith
c. W. Student d. R.A. Fisher
43. VAT is a/an -
a. Direct tax b. Utility tax
c. Indirect tax d. Simple tax
44. Randomised block design is applicable when the number of
treatments are -
a. 20 b. 25
c. 30 d. 50
Answers
35. a 36. b 37. b 38. d 39. d 40. a
41. d 42. b 43. c 44. a
320 t Universal Objective Forestry

45. Latin square design is applicable when the number of treatments are -
a. 5-8 b. 10-15
c. 5-12 d. Both a and c
46. Chi-square is applicable when the sample size is/are-
a. ≥ 50 b. > 30
c. < 50 d. < 30
47. Chi-square was given by-
a. Gosset b. R. A. Fisher
c. Karl Pearson d. Meischer
48. z-test is applicable when the sample size is/are-
a. ≥ 50 b. > 30
c. < 50 d. < 30
49. z-test was given by-
a. Gosset b. R. A. Fisher
c. Karl Pearson d. Meischer
50. Student t-test is applicable when the sample size is/are-
a. ≥ 50 b. > 30
c. < 50 d. < 30
51. Student t-test was given by-
a. Gosset b. R. A. Fisher
c. Karl Pearson d. Meischer
52. Error degree of freedom for completely randomised design (CRD) is-
a. (n – 1) b. (n – 1) (r – 1)
c. (n – 1) + (r – 1) d. (n + 1)
53. Error degree of freedom for Latin square design is-
a. (n – 1) b. (n – 1) (n – 2)
c. (n – 1) + (n – 2) d. (n + 1)
54. Rejecting null hypothesis (H0) when it is true called-
a. Type error-I b. Type error-II
c. Type error-III d. Type error-IV
55. Accepting null hypothesis (H0) when it is false called-
a. Type error-I b. Type error-II
c. Type error-III d. Type error-IV
Answers
45. d 46. a 47. c 48. b 49. b 50. d
51. a 52. a 53. b 54. a 55. b
 Agricultural Statistics and Economics t 321

56. Degree of freedom is-

a. (n + k) b. (n – k)
c. (n/k) d. (n × k)
57. The ranges of t-test lies between-
a. –1 to +1 b. 0 to 1
c. –∞ to +∞ d. 0 to ∞
58. The ranges of normal distribution lies between-
a. –1 to +1 b. 0 to 1
c. –∞ to +∞ d. 0 to ∞
59. The ranges of Poisson distribution lies between-
a. –1 to +1 b. 0 ≤ x ≤ ∞
c. –∞ to +∞ d. 0 to ∞
60. The ranges of f-test lies between-
a. –1 to +1 b. 0 to 1
c. –∞ to +∞ d. 0 ≤ x ≤ ∞
61. The ranges of probability lies between-
a. –1 to +1 b. 0 to 1
c. –∞ to +∞ d. 0 to ∞

Answers
56. b 57. c 58. c 59. b 60. d 61. b
 Plant Physiology t 323

Chapter 19

Plant Physiology

1. The study of various activities and metabolism of plants is known as

plant physiology-
a. Plant anatomy b. Histology
c. Botany d. Plant physiology
2. Father of plant physiology is-
a. Odum b. J. C. Bose
c. Stephan Hales d. Dixon & Jolley
3. Father of Indian plant physiology is-
a. Watson & Crick b. J. C. Bose
c. Stephan Hales d. Dixon & Jolley
4. The movement of molecules or atoms or ions of a materials from an
area of higher concentration to an area of their lower concentration
is -
a. Diffusion b. Osmosis
c. Plasmolysis d. Exosmosis
5. Which is the correct order of diffusion rate in medium-
a. Gas < Liquid < Solid b. Gas = Liquid > Solid
c. Gas > Liquid > Solid d. Gas < Liquid = Solid
6. The water moves into the cell during the osmosis is called -
a. Exosmosis b. Osmosis
c. Endosmosis d. Imbibition
7. Diffusion pressure of a pure solvent is-
a. 756 atm b. 1036 atm
c. 1236 atm d. 1500 atm
Answers
1. d 2. c 3. b 4. a 5. c 6. c
7. c
324 t Universal Objective Forestry

8. Exchanges of gases like CO2, O2 and distribution of hormones in

plants takes place through-
a. Diffusion b. Osmosis
c. Plasmolysis d. Exosmosis
9. Osmosis was discovered by -
a. Abbe Nollet b. Duterochat
c. Stephan Hales d. Traube
10. The highest osmotic pressure is found in-
a. Halophytes b. Xerophytes
c. Hydrophytes d. Mesophytes
11. The water moves out the cell during the osmosis is called -
a. Exosmosis b. Osmosis
c. Endosmosis d. Imbibition
12. Membrane which is permeable for solvent and do not allow the
passage of solute called-
a. Permeable b. Semi-permeable
c. Non-permeable d. None
13. The pressure developed in a solution when solution and water are
separated by semi-permeable membrane called -
a. Turgor pressure b. Wall pressure
c. Diffusion pressure d. Osmotic pressure
14. The osmotic pressure of pure water is zero-
a. Negative b. Positive
c. Zero d. Hundred
15. The lowest osmotic pressure is found in-
a. Halophytes b. Xerophytes
c. Hydrophytes d. Mesophytes
16. Which is the correct order of osmotic pressure in plants-
a. Hydrophytes< mesophytes < xerophytes < halophytes
b. Hydrophytes >mesophytes > xerophytes > halophytes
c. Halophytes < mesophytes = xerophytes < Hydrophytes
d. Hydrophytes< xerophytes < mesophytes < halophytes

Answers
8. a 9. a 10. a 11. a 12. b 13. d
14. c 15. c 16. a
 Plant Physiology t 325

17. The special diffusion of solvent from the solution of lower

concentration to the solution of higher concentration through the
semi-permeable membrane called-
a. Diffusion b. Osmosis
c. Plasmolysis d. Imbibition
18. Osmotic pressure of a solution is measured by-
a. Potometer b. Oximometer
c. Osmometer d. Ganong’s meter
19. The formula of Vont Hoff for measuring osmotic pressure is-
a. PV = nRT b. OP = mRT
c. OP = PV – nRT d. None
20. Root hairs of the roots absorb water from the soil through the process-
a. Diffusion b. Transpiration
c. Guttation d. Osmosis
21. The opening and closing of stomata is also depends on the process-
a. Diffusion b. Transpiration
c. Guttation d. Osmosis
22. A flaccid cell has turgor pressure-
a. Positive b. Negative
c. Zero d. None
23. The difference between the diffusion pressure of the solution and its
pure solvent at particular temperature is called-
a. Diffusion b. Diffusion pressure deficit
c. Suction pressure d. Both b and c
24. DPD is equal to-
a. OP-TP b. OP-WP
c. Both a and b d. OP + TP
25. The difference between the free energy of molecules of water and
free energy of the solution is called -
a. Water potential b. DPD
c. Osmosis d. Suction pressure
26. Water potential of pure water is -
a. Positive b. Negative
c. Zero d. None
Answers
17. b 18. c 19. b 20. d 21. d 22. c
23. d 24. c 25. a 26. c
326 t Universal Objective Forestry

27. Water potential has value-

a. Positive b. Negative
c. Zero d. None
28. Adsorption of undissolved liquid by any solid material is called -
a. Diffusion b. Osmosis
c. Plasmolysis d. Imbibition
29. Which is the correct order of imbibition power by substances-
a. Agar-Agar > Pectin > Protein > Starch > Cellulose
b. Pectin > Protein > Starch > Cellulose> Agar-Agar
c. Agar-Agar > Protein > Starch > Cellulose > Pectin
d. Starch > Pectin > Protein > Agar-Agar > Cellulose
30. Breaking of seed coat during the seed germination is due to-
a. Diffusion b. Osmosis
c. Plasmolysis d. Imbibition
31. Resurrection in many plants like as selaginella, lichens and mosses
takes place due to -
a. Diffusion b. Osmosis
c. Plasmolysis d. Imbibition
32. Forms of water which reaches at the soil water table due to the
gravitational force after the rainfall and not available to plant called-
a. Gravitational water b. Hygroscopic water
c. Capillary water d. Combined water
33. Thin film of water tightly held by the soil particles is called-
a. Gravitational water b. Hygroscopic water
c. Capillary water d. Combined water
34. Water exits between the soil particles in small capillary pores is
called-
a. Gravitational water b. Hygroscopic water
c. Capillary water d. Combined water
35. Plants absorb which forms of water -
a. Gravitational water b. Hygroscopic water
c. Capillary water d. Combined water

Answers
27. b 28. d 29. a 30. d 31. d 32. a
33. b 34. c 35. c
 Plant Physiology t 327

36. Total amount of water present in the soil called as-

a. Chresard b. Echard
c. Field capacity d. Holard
37. The amount of water available to the plants is called-
a. Chresard b. Echard
c. Field capacity d. Holard
38. The amount of water not available to the plants is called-
a. Chresard b. Echard
c. Field capacity d. Holard
39. Maximum absorption of water takes place from-
a. Meristematic zone b. Root hair zone
c. Root cap zone d. Maturation zone
40. Maximum absorption of mineral takes place from-
a. Meristematic zone b. Root hair zone
c. Root cap zone d. Maturation zone
41. The movement of water from cell to cell through plasmodesmata is
called-
a. Symplast b. Apoplast
c. Living pathway d. Both a and c
42. Osmotic active method of water absorption was given by-
a. Munch b. Dixon & Jolley
c. Atkins & Priestley d. Pfeffer
43. Non osmotic active method of water absorption was given by-
a. Munch b. Dixon & Jolley
c. Atkins & Priestley d. Bennet-Clark
44. Term active and passive absorption was proposed by-
a. Renner b. Dixon & Jolley
c. Atkins & Priestley d. Bennet-Clark
45. Upward movement of water against the gravitational force upto top
parts of the plants is called-
a. Guttation b. Transpiration
c. Evaporation d. Ascent of sap

Answers
36. d 37. a 38. b 39. b 40. a 41. d
42. c 43. d 44. a 45. d
328 t Universal Objective Forestry

46. Relay pump theory was proposed by-

a. Priestley b. Dixon & Jolley
c. J.C. Bose d. Godlewski
47. Translocation of food mainly occurs in the form of-
a. Glucose b. Mannose
c. Sucrose d. Maltose
48. Pulsation theory was proposed by-
a. Priestley b. Boehm
c. J.C. Bose d. Godlewski
49. Loss of water in the form of vapour, from the aerial parts of living
plants is known as-
a. Guttation b. Transpiration
c. Evaporation d. Ascent of sap
50. Root pressure theory was proposed by-
a. Priestley b. Boehm
c. J.C. Bose d. Godlewski
51. Which theory is most accepted or universally accepted theory of
ascent of sap-
a. Root pressure theory
b. Transpiration pull & cohesion force theory
c. Pulsation theory
d. Relay pump theory
52. Which theory is most accepted theory of food conduction in plants -
a. Root pressure flow
b. Transpiration pull & cohesion force theory
c. Mass flow hypothesis
d. Cytochrome pump theory
53. Transpiration pull & cohesion force theory was proposed by-
a. Jamin b. Peter Mitchell
c. Unger & Von Sachs d. Dixon & Jolly
54. Pressure flow or mass flow hypothesis of food translocation was
given by-
a. Munch b. Bennet & Clark
c. D.E Koshland d. Vanden Honert
Answers
46. d 47. c 48. c 49. b 50. a 51. b
52. c 53. d 54. a
 Plant Physiology t 329

55. The minimum transpiration is found in -

a. Mesophytes b. Hydrophyte
c. Xerophyte d. Succulent xerophyte
56. Capillary force theory was proposed by-
a. Priestley b. Boehm
c. J.C. Bose d. Godlewski
57. The maximum transpiration is found in -
a. Mesophytes b. Hydrophyte
c. Xerophyte d. Succulent xerophyte
58. Chain theory was proposed by-
a. Jamin b. Peter Mitchell
c. Unger & Von Sachs d. Dixon & Jolly
59. The transpiration is absent in -
a. Hydrophytes b. Submerged hydrophyte
c. Xerophyte d. Succulent xerophyte
60. Stomatal pore is surrounded by two specialised epidermal cells
called as-
a. Guard cells b. Casparian cells
c. Accessory cells d. Stomatal cells
61. Imbibition force theory was proposed by-
a. Jamin b. Peter Mitchell
c. Unger & Von Sachs d. Dixon & Jolly
62. The structure of guard cell in monocots (Gramineae) is -
a. Kidney shape b. Bean shape
c. Sigmoid shape d. Dumbled shape
63. The amount of CO2 in grams absorbed by 1 gram of chlorophyll in
1 hour is called as-
a. Photosynthetic value b. Photosynthetic number
c. Photosynthesis d. R. Q.
64. Cytochrome pump theory was proposed by-
a. Jamin b. Peter Mitchell
c. Unger & Von Sach d. Lundegardh & Burstorm

Answers
55. d 56. b 57. a 58. a 59. b 60. a
61. c 62. d 63. b 64. d
330 t Universal Objective Forestry

65. Plants which are adapted to grow in high intensity of light is called-
a. Sciophytes b. Heliophytes
c. Sporophytes d. Oxalophytes
66. Carrier concept theory was proposed by-
a. Vanden Honert b. Bennet & Clark
c. Emil Fischer d. D.E Koshland
67. Plants which are adapted to grow in shade is called-
a. Sciophytes b. Heliophytes
c. Sporophytes d. Halophytes
68. When respiratory substrates are carbohydrates then respiration is
known as-
a. Floating respiration b. Protoplasmic respiration
c. Simple respiration d. None
69. Efficiency of photosynthesis is-
a. 25% b. 30%
c. 35% d. 42%
70. Protein- Lecithin theory was proposed by-
a. Vanden Honert b. Bennet & Clark
c. Emil Fischer d. D.E Koshland
71. When respiratory substrates are proteins then respiration is known
as-
a. Floating respiration b. Protoplasmic respiration
c. Simple respiration d. None
72. Efficiency of respiration in plants is-
a. 25% b. 30%
c. 35% d. 42%
73. Lock & key theory was proposed by-
a. Vanden Honert b. Bennet & Clark
c. Emil Fischer d. D.E Koshland
74. Induced fit theory was proposed by-
a. Vanden Honert b. Bennet & Clark
c. Emil Fischer d. D.E Koshland

Answers
65. b 66. a 67. a 68. a 69. b 70. b
71. b 72. d 73. c 74. d
 Plant Physiology t 331

75. The plants grown in N2-deficient places but are insectivorous habits
called as-
a. Sciophytes b. Insectivorous plants
c. Sporophytes d. Halophytes
76. Final products of anaerobic respiration is-
a. CO2 & H2O b. C2H5OH & CO2
c. C2H5OH & H2O d. All of the above
77. Chemiosmotic theory was proposed by-
a. Liebig b. Bennet & Clark
c. Emil Fischer d. Peter Mitchell
78. ATP formed in aerobic respiration is-
a. 38 b. 36
c. 2 d. 30
79. Law of minimum was given by-
a. Hartwig b. Liebig
c. Moll d. Singer & Nicolson
80. ATP formed in anaerobic respiration is-
a. 38 b. 36
c. 2 d. 30
81. Law of limiting factors was given by-
a. Hartwig b. Liebig
c. Emil Fischer d. Blackman
82. Non-cyclic scheme in bacterial photosynthesis was given by-
a. Hartwig b. Liebig
c. Olson d. Blackman
83. Non green plants which are depends on dead organic matter called
as-
a. Sciophytes b. Insectivorous plants
c. Sporophytes d. Halophytes
84. According to….transpiration is an essential evil-
a. Jamin b. Peter Mitchell
c. Curtis d. Dixon & Jolly

Answers
75. b 76. b 77. d 78. a 79. b 80. c
81. d 82. c 83. c 84. c
332 t Universal Objective Forestry

85. According to…..transpiration is an unavoidable evil-

a. Blackman b. Bennet & Clark
c. Emil Fischer d. Steward
86. Which is/are not a types of transpiration-
a. Stomatal b. Cuticular
c. Lenticular d. Folicular
87. Stomatal transpiration percent of total transpiration in plants is-
a. 80-90% b. 9%
c. 5% d. 0.1-1%
88. The outer wall of the guard cell is-
a. Thin & elastic b. Thick & non-elastic
c. Thin & non-elastic d. Thick & elastic
89. Which theory is most acceptable theory for stomatal movement-
a. Active potassium (K+) and hydrogen (H+)
b. Transpiration pull & cohesion force theory
c. Mass flow hypothesis
d. Passive potassium (K+) and hydrogen (H+)
90. Plant hormone which helps in closing of stomata is-
a. GA3 b. Auxin
c. Cytokinin d. ABA
91. Effect of low temperature on the initiation and development of
flower called-
a. Cryopreservation b. Photoperiodism
c. Vernalization d. Anthesis
92. Vernalization phenomena was discovered by-
a. Muller b. Allard Buchner
c. Munch d. Lysenko
93. Term enzyme was given by-
a. Buchner b. Kuhne
c. Michaelis & Menten d. F.F.Blackman
94. First isolated enzyme zymase (from yeast) was discovered by-
a. Buchner b. Kuhne
c. Lohman d. Van Niel
Answers
85. d 86. d 87. a 88. a 89. a 90. d
91. c 92. d 93. b 94. a
 Plant Physiology t 333

95. First discover ribozyme was-

a. L10 RNAase b. L29 DNAase
c. L19 RNAase d. L17 DNAase
96. 1 gram fat provide-
a. 2.8 K.Cal. b. 4.8 K.Cal.
c. 8.8 K.Cal. d. 9.8 K.Cal.
97. Protein part of conjugated enzyme called-
a. Holoenzyme b. Apoenzyme
c. Co-enzyme d. Proenzyme
98. 1 gram protein provide-
a. 2.8 K.Cal. b. 4.8 K.Cal.
c. 8.8 K.Cal. d. 9.8 K.Cal.
99. ATP was discovered by -
a. Buchner b. Kuhne
c. Lohman d. Van Niel
100. The concentration of substrate at which rate of reaction of that
enzyme attains half of its maximum velocity called as-
a. Activation energy b. Km constant
c. Rate of reaction d. Y-value
101. Km constant concept for enzyme was given by-
a. Michaelis & Menten b. Kuhne
c. Buchner d. Lipman
102. In Photosynthesis process released oxygen comes from-
a. CO2 b. H2O
c. Chlorophyll d. C2H5OH
103. In Photosynthesis process oxygen of glucose comes from -
a. CO2 b. H2O
c. Chlorophyll d. C2H5OH
104. Photosynthesis a-
a. Photo-biochemical process b. Anabolic process
c. Catabolic process d. All of the above

Answers
95. c 96. d 97. b 98. b 99. c 100. b
101. a 102. b 103. a 104. d
334 t Universal Objective Forestry

105. First true and oxygenic photosynthesis was started in-

a. Cyanobacteria b. Algae
c. Bryophytes d. Sulphur bacteria
106. Photosynthetic roots is/are found in-
a. Tinospora b. Nymphaea
c. Trapa d. Both a and c
107. Absorption spectrum of photosynthesis is-
a. Green b. Red
c. Yellow d. Blue
108. Action spectrum of photosynthesis is-
a. Green b. Red
c. Yellow d. Blue
109. Rate of photosynthesis is highest in which light-
a. Green b. Red
c. White d. Blue
110. Blackman discovered-
a. Dark reaction b. Light reaction
c. C3-cycle d. C4-cycle
111. Calvin cycle or C3-cycle was discovered by-
a. Michaelis & Menten b. Calvin & Benson
c. Buchner d. Emerson & Arnold
112. Q10 for dark reaction and light reaction is respectively-
a. 1-3 and 1-2 b. 2-4 and 1-2
c. 2-3 and 1 d. 2-3 and 1-3
113. The concept of two photosystem was given by-
a. Michaelis & Menten b. Calvin & Benson
c. Park & Biggins d. Emerson & Arnold
114. Suddenly dropped down in quantum yield by giving only light
greater than 680 nm wavelength called-
a. Green effect b. Red drop
c. Emerson effect d. Warburg effect

Answers
105. a 106. d 107. d 108. b 109. c 110. a
111. b 112. c 113. d 114. d
 Plant Physiology t 335

115. Increase in quantum yield by giving light shorter or greater than 680
nm wavelength called-
a. Green effect b. Red drop
c. Emerson effect d. Warburg effect
116. The number of O2 molecule evolved by one quantum of light in
photosynthesis is called as-
a. Quantum yield b. R. Q.
c. Quantum number d. Octane number
117. Quantasome was discovered by-
a. Burgerstein b. Calvin & Benson
c. Park & Biggins d. Emerson & Arnold
118. Which is/are the universal pigment which are found in all O2
liberating cells -
a. Chlorophyll-a b. Chlorophyll-b
c. Carotene d. Both a and c
119. Which is/are the antitranspirants substances-
a. Phenyl Mercuric Acetate b. Abscisic acid
c. CO2 d. All of the above
120. Loss of water from the uninjured part or margin of leaves of the
plant in the form of water droplets is called as-
a. Guttation b. Transpiration
c. Evaporation d. Ascent of sap
121. Guttation takes place through a special pore like structure called-
a. Stomata b. Water stomata
c. Hydathode d. Both b and c
122. Term guttation was coined by-
a. Burgerstein b. Calvin & Benson
c. Park & Biggins d. Emerson & Arnold
123. Fast flowing of liquid from the injured or cut parts of the plants is
called as-
a. Guttation b. Transpiration
c. Exudation d. Ascent of sap

Answers
115. c 116. a 117. c 118. d 119. d 120. a
121. d 122. a 123. c
336 t Universal Objective Forestry

124. Dropping of the soft parts of the pants due to loss of turgidity in their
cells is called-
a. Guttation b. Transpiration
c. Evaporation d. Wilting
125. How many elements are considered as essential elements-
a. 15 b. 16
c. 17 d. 18
126. Criteria of essentiality of minerals was given by -
a. Arnon b. Champion & Seth
c. Haberlandt d. Emerson & Arnold
127. Dimorphic chloroplasts are present in the leaves of-
a. C2- plants b. C3-plants
c. C4-plants d. C5-plants
128. Kranz anatomy is present in the leaves of-
a. C2- plants b. C3-plants
c. C4-plants d. C5-plants
129. 129. In C4-plants, C3-Cycle occurs in-
a. BS cells b. Mesophyll cells
c. Guard cells d. Accessory cells
130. In C4-plants, C4-Cycle occurs in-
a. BS cells b. Mesophyll cells
c. Guard cells d. Accessory cells
131. First carboxylation in C4-cycle occurs by-
a. PGA b. RNA polymerase
c. Rubisco d. PEP case
132. Concept of photorespiration was given by -
a. Decker & Tio b. Calvin & Benson
c. Haberlandt d. Emerson & Arnold
133. Rubisco act as oxygenase at-
a. Higher concentration of O2 & low CO2 concentration
b. Higher concentration of CO2 & low O2 concentration
c. Higher concentration of O2 & High CO2 concentration
d. Lower concentration of O2 & low CO2 concentration
Answers
124. d 125. c 126. a 127. c 128. c 129. a
130. b 131. d 132. a 133. a
 Plant Physiology t 337

134. Photorespiration occurs in-

a. Chloroplast b. Mitochondria
c. Peroxisomes d. All of the above
135. Photorespiration occurs in-
a. C5-plants b. C3-plants
c. C4-plants d. All plants
136. Intensity of light at which rate of photosynthesis becomes equal to
rate of respiration in plants is known as-
a. Light compensation point b. Null point
c. Photo oxidation d. Extinction point
137. Net photosynthesis or net primary productivity at light compensation
point is-
a. Maximum b. Minimum
c. Zero d. None
138. In aerobic respiration final electron acceptor is-
a. CO2 b. O2
c. Free oxygen d. NADPH+
139. Anaerobic respiration was first reported by-
a. Buchner b. Kornberg
c. Cruick Shank d. Kostytchev
140. Glycolysis occurs in-
a. Matrix b. Cytoplasm
c. Protoplasm d. Mitochondria
141. Glycolysis produces -
a. 2 mole of pyruvic acid b. 2 ATP
c. 2NADPH2 d. All of the above
142. Glycolysis is also known as-
a. Embden, Meyerhof and Parnas (EMP) pathway
b. Endof, Meyer and Parnas (EMP) pathway
c. Embden, Meyerhof and Parton (EMP) pathway
d. Elson, Mendel and Parnas (EMP) pathway
143. A connecting link between glycolysis & Krebs-cycle is-
a. ATP b. PEP case
c. Rubisco d. Acetyl Co-A
Answers
134. d 135. b 136. a 137. c 138. a 139. d
140. b 141. d 142. a 143. d
338 t Universal Objective Forestry

144. A common pathway between aerobic & anaerobic respiration is-

a. TCA b. EMP
c. ETC d. HMP
145. C4-cycle was discovered by-
a. Decker & Tio b. Calvin & Benson
c. H.A Kreb d. Cruick Shank
146. C4-cycle also known as-
a. Krebs-cycle b. Citric acid cycle
c. TCA d. All of the above
147. The enzyme of Krebs-cycle present in inner mitochondrial membrane
is-
a. Succinic dehydrogenase b. OAA
c. Rubisco d. PEP case
148. Pentose phosphate pathway (PPP) is also called as-
a. Warburg-Dickens pathway b. HMP
c. TCA d. Both a and b
149. The minimum amount of oxygen at which aerobic respiration take
place & anaerobic respiration become extinct is called as-
a. Compensation point b. Null point
c. Transition point d. Extinction point
150. Oxygen concentration at which aerobic respiration & anaerobic
respiration take place simultaneously is called as-
a. Compensation point b. Null point
c. Transition point d. Extinction point
151. Glyoxylate cycle was discovered by-
a. Decker & Tio b. Kornberg & Krebs
c. H.A Kreb d. Cruick Shank
152. Glyoxylate cycle occurs in-
a. Glyoxisome b. Cytosol
c. Mitochondria d. All of the above
153. Fermentation process was discovered by-
a. Decker & Tio b. Kornberg & Krebs
c. H.A Kreb d. Cruick Shank & Pasteur
Answers
144. b 145. c 146. d 147. a 148. d 149. d
150. c 151. b 152. d 153. d
 Plant Physiology t 339

154. Krebs-cycle occurs in-

a. Matrix b. Cytoplasm
c. Protoplasm d. Mitochondria matrix
155. The ratio of the volume of CO2 released to the volume of O2 taken
in respiration is called-
a. Respiration b. R. Q.
c. Respiration efficiency d. None
156. Which is/are macronutrients-
a. Fe b. Cu
c. Zn d. Ca
157. Which is/are micronutrients-
a. Ca b. Mg
c. Zn d. P
158. Which is/are micronutrients-
a. C b. H
c. Zn d. O
159. Plants grown in moistened air with nutrients is called aeroponics-
a. Hydroponics b. Aeroponics
c. Tissue culture d. Bonsai
160. R. Q. value for carbohydrates--
a. 1.0 b. 0.7
c. > 1.0 d. 0
161. Hydroponics concept was given by-
a. Cruick Shank & Pasteur b. Decker & Tio
c. Kornberg d. Geriack
162. Inhibitory effect of high conc. of O2 on photosynthesis is called as -
a. Warburg effect b. Pasteur effect
c. R.Q d. Krebs effect
163. The inhibition of anaerobic respiration by O2 concentration is called
as-
a. Warburg effect b. Pasteur effect
c. R.Q d. Krebs effect
164. R. Q. value for fat or oil-
a. 1.0 b. 0.7
c. > 1.0 d. 0
Answers
154. d 155. b 156. d 157. c 158. c 159. b
160. a 161. d 162. a 163. b 164. b
340 t Universal Objective Forestry

165. Term hormone was given by-

a. Buchner b. Starling
c. Cruick Shank d. Kostytchev
166. Term phytohormone was given-
a. Thieman b. Starling
c. Cruick Shank d. Kostytchev
167. R. Q. value for organic acid-
a. 1.0 b. 0.7
c. > 1.0 d. 0
168. High auxin and low cytokinin favour-
a. Root formation b. Shoot formation
c. Apical meristem d. Lateral growth
169. High Cytokinin and low auxin favour-
a. Root formation b. Shoot formation
c. Apical meristem d. Lateral growth
170. R. Q. value for CAM Plants is-
a. 1.0 b. 0.7
c. > 1.0 d. 0
171. R. Q. value for protein plants is-
a. 1.0 b. 0.7
c. 0.9 d. 0
172. Which is/are macronutrients-
a. B b. Cl
c. Mn d. N
173. The first natural cytokinin was identified & crystalized from
immature corn grains by -
a. Skoog b. Starling
c. Letham d. Thieman
174. Which is/are micronutrients-
a. Mo b. K
c. S d. Mg
175. Which is root initiating hormone in cutting -
a. NAA b. IBA
c. IAA d. IPA
Answers
165. b 166. a 167. c 168. a 169. b 170. d
171. c 172. d 173. c 174. a 175. b
 Plant Physiology t 341

176. Which is natural auxin hormone-

a. NAA b. IBA
c. IAA d. IPA
177. Which is synthetic auxin-
a. NAA b. Kinetin
c. IAA d. Zeatin
178. The relative length of day and night for flowering in the plants called-
a. Photo veneration b. Photoperiodism
c. Vernalization d. Anthesis
179. Photoperiodism was first discovered by-
a. Garner & Allard b. Haberlandt
c. Francis Galton d. Dixon & Jolley
180. Photoperiodism was first discovered in which plant-
a. Pea b. Mustard
c. Tomato d. Tobacco
181. Garner & Allard classified the plants into how many categories-
a. 3 b. 4
c. 5 d. 6
182. R.Q is expressed as-
a. Volume of CO2 consumed / volume of O2 liberated
b. Volume of O2 liberated/ volume of CO2 consumed
c. Volume of O2 liberated/ volume of CO2 consumed
d. Volume of CO2 liberated/ volume of O2 consumed
183. Deficiency symptoms of mobile elements first appear in-
a. Older plant parts b. Younger plant parts
c. Flower d. Leaves
184. Deficiency symptoms of immobile elements first appear in-
a. Older plant parts b. Younger plant parts
c. Flower d. Leaves
185. Which is/are mobile element-
a. B b. S
c. Ca d. Mg

Answers
176. c 177. a 178. b 179. a 180. d 181. a
182. d 183. a 184. b 185. d
342 t Universal Objective Forestry

186. Which is/are immobile element-

a. P b. Co
c. K d. N
187. Which is/are immobile element-
a. P b. Co
c. K d. N
188. Phytochrome pigment responsible for flowering is discovered by-
a. Borthwick & Hendricks b. Butler
c. Garner & Allard d. Thieman
189. Term phytochrome was given by-
a. Buchner b. Starling
c. Butler d. Thieman
190. Which is/are mobile elements-
a. N, S, Ca. Co and Fe b. N, P, K and Mg
c. B, S, Ca. Co and Fe d. N, P, K, Mg and S
191. Which is/are immobile elements-
a. N, S, Ca. Co and Fe b. N, P, K and Mg
c. B, S, Ca. Co and Fe d. N, P, K, Mg and S
192. Nitrogen in the plants is absorbed in the form-
a. NO- b. NO-2
c. NO3 -
d. N-3
193. Whip tail of cauliflower in plants is caused due to deficiency-
a. S b. K
c. Zn d. Mo
194. Sulphur in the plants is absorbed in the form-
a. SO- b. SO-2
c. SO -3
d. SO-4
195. Iron in the plants is absorbed in the form-
a. Fe-2 b. Fe+2
c. Fe -3
d. Fe+3
196. Which element play key role in stomatal movement & transpiration -
a. S b. K
c. Zn d. Mo
Answers
186. c 187. c 188. a 189. c 190. b 191. c
192. c 193. d 194. d 195. b 196. b
 Plant Physiology t 343

197. Die-back of citrus and other fruit plants is caused due to deficiency-
a. Cu b. K
c. Zn d. Mo
198. Copper in the plants is absorbed in the form-
a. Cu+ b. Cu-2
c. Cu +2
d. Cu+3
199. Khaira disease of paddy is caused due to deficiency-
a. Cu b. K
c. Zn d. Mo
200. Zinc in the plants is absorbed in the form-
a. Zn+ b. Zn-2
c. Zn +2
d. Zn+3
201. Which is correct formula of chlorophyll-a-
a. C55H72O5N4Mg b. C55H70O6N4Mg
c. C35H32O5N4Mg d. C55H70O6N4Mg
202. Which is correct formula of carotene-
a. C10H26 b. C20H36
c. C30H46 d. C40H56
203. Which is correct formula of chlorophyll-b-
a. C55H72O5N4Mg b. C55H70O6N4Mg
c. C35H32O5N4Mg d. C55H70O6N4Mg
204. Which is the first stable compound of C3-cycle-
a. PGA b. DHA
c. OAA d. RUBP
205. First electron acceptor in cyclic ETS & Photophosphorylation is-
a. Pheophytin b. NADP+
c. FRS d. RUBP
206. First electron acceptor in Z-scheme or non-cyclic ETS &
Photophosphorylation is-
a. Pheophytin b. NADP+
c. FRS d. RUBP
207. Auxin was discovered by-
a. F.W. Went b. Yabuta & Sumiki
c. Miller d. Addicott & Okhuma
Answers
197. a 198. c 199. c 200. c 201. a 202. d
203. b 204. a 205. c 206. a 207. a
344 t Universal Objective Forestry

208. Gibberellins was discovered by-

a. F.W. Went b. Yabuta & Sumiki
c. Miller d. Addicott & Okhuma
209. Cytokinins was discovered by-
a. F.W. Went b. Yabuta & Sumiki
c. Miller d. Addicott & Okhuma
210. Abscisic acid was discovered by-
a. F.W. Went b. Yabuta & Sumiki
c. Miller d. Addicott & Okhuma
211. Ethylene was discovered by-
a. F.W. Went b. Yabuta & Sumiki
c. Miller d. Burg
212. Which is correct formula of ethylene-
a. C2H2 b. C2H6
c. C2H4 d. C4H6
213. Which is not a bio-assay test of auxin-
a. Tryptophan amino acid
b. Avena curvature test
c. Root growth inhibition test
d. Mevalonic acid pathway
214. Which hormone is responsible for apical dominance in the plant-
a. Auxin b. Gibberellin
c. Cytokinin d. ABA
215. Which hormone is responsible for breaking seed dormancy in the
plant-
a. Auxin b. Gibberellin
c. Cytokinin d. ABA
216. Which is not a bio-assay test of gibberellins -
a. Tryptophan amino acid b. Alpha amylase activity test
c. Dwarf pea & maize test d. Mevalonic acid pathway
217. Which hormone is responsible for flowering in LDP, in short light
duration-
a. Auxin b. Gibberellin
Answers
208. b 209. c 210. d 211. d 212. c 213. d
214. a 215. b 216. a 217. b
 Plant Physiology t 345

c. Cytokinin d. ABA
218. Which hormone is responsible for delay in senescence in plants-
a. Auxin b. Gibberellin
c. Cytokinin d. ABA
219. Which is not a bio-assay test of cytokinin-
a. Tobacco pith cell division test
b. Alpha amylase activity test
c. Chlorophyll preservation test
d. Soyabean and Radish cotyledon cell division test
220. Which hormone is responsible for flowering in short day plant-
a. Auxin b. Gibberellin
c. Cytokinin d. ABA
221. Which hormone is responsible for fruit ripening-
a. Auxin b. Gibberellin
c. Cytokinin d. Ethylene
222. Which hormone is responsible to induce abscission during adverse
climatic conditions-
a. Auxin b. ABA
c. Cytokinin d. Ethylene
223. Which hormone is responsible for stomatal closing in plant-
a. Auxin b. Gibberellin
c. Cytokinin d. ABA
224. Which is the first stable compound of C4-cycle-
a. PGA b. DHA
c. OAA d. RUBP
225. Which is the first stable compound of CAM-pathway -
a. PGA b. DHA
c. OAA d. RUBP
226. Which is the first stable compound of CAM-pathway was discovered
by -
a. Calvin b. Hatch & Slack
c. Thiemann d. Oleary & Rouhani

Answers
218. c 219. b 220. c 221. d 222. d 223. d
224. c 225. c 226. d
346 t Universal Objective Forestry

227. Which is/are the example of C4- plants-

a. Sugarcane b. Maize
c. Amaranthus d. Both a and b
228. Which is/are the example of C3- plants-
a. Sugarcane b. Maize
c. Wheat d. Chenopodium
229. Which is/are the example of C3- plants-
a. Sugarcane b. Maize
c. Euphorbia d. Rice
230. Which is/are the example of CAM plants-
a. Agave b. Aloe
c. Bryophyllum d. All of the above
231. CO2 compensation point C3-plants-
a. 40-100 PPM b. 8-10 PPM
c. 50-100 PPM d. 20-50 PPM
232. CO2 compensation point C4-plants-
a. 40-100 PPM b. 8-10 PPM
c. 50-100 PPM d. 20-50 PPM
233. CO2 compensation point CAM-plants-
a. 40-100 PPM b. 8-10 PPM
c. 50-100 PPM d. 20-50 PPM
234. Primary CO2 acceptor in C4-plants and CAM plants is-
a. RUBP b. PEP case
c. RUBP & PEP case d. PGA
235. Primary CO2 acceptor in C3-plants is-
a. RUBP b. PEP case
c. RUBP & PEP case d. PGA
236. Final products of aerobic respiration is-
a. CO2 & H2O b. C2H5OH & CO2
c. C2H5OH & H2O d. All of the above
237. Photosynthetic number or assimilatory number was given by-
a. Willstatter & Stoll b. Peter Mitchell
c. Unger & Von Sachs d. Dixon & Jolly
Answers
227. d 228. c 229. d 230. d 231. a 232. b
233. a 234. c 235. a 236. a 237. a
 Memory based JRF Paper 2015 t 347

Chapter 20

Memory based
JRF Paper 2015

1. Cutting of trees into logs is called-

a. Felling b. Seasoning
c. Sawing d. Bucking
2. Science of determining past climate from trees primarily on the
basis of annual rings is called-
a. Dendroclimatology b. Dendrology
c. Dendrochronology d. Silviculture
3. The classification of trees according to Champion and Seth is based
on-
a. Functional Basis b. Temperature basis
c. Ecosystem approach d. None
4. Which is non-coppicer tree-
a. Populus b. Eucalyptus
c. Teak d. Cedrus
5. Piece of plant tissue used to initiate a culture is called-
a. Explant b. Propagule
c. Bud d. Stock
6. Which law is used to estimate the proportionate of trees in selective
forests-
a. Pressler b. Hoppus
c. Biolley d. De Liocourt’law

Answers
1. d 2. a 3. c 4. d 5. a 6. d
348 t Universal Objective Forestry

7. Smallest permanent working plan unit in India is called-

a. Block b. Sub-compartment
c. circle d. Compartment
8. The non-random differential reproduction of genotype is called-.
a. Selection b. Mutation
c. Evaluation d. Breeding
9. Selection which provides rapid genetic gain while simultaneously
maintaining the broad genetic base is- -
a. Progeny selection b. Family selection
c. Mass selection d. Individual selection
10. In paper making process, sizing is done to render-
a. Bright b. Transpirants
c. Pervious to ink d. Impervious to ink
11. A shelter belt in general protects the leeward area about-
a. 10 times the height of shelterbelt
b. 20 times the height of shelterbelt
c. 30 times the height of shelterbelt
d. 35 times the height of shelterbelt
12. Which of the following is not a part of trinity of norms in forest
management-
a. Age- gradation
b. Normal growing stock
c. Normal increment
d. Site quality
13. A systematic association between a fungus and the roots of a higher
plant-
a. Mycorrhiza b. Lichen
c. Rhizobium d. Helotism
14. Boucherie process is used for the treatment of-
a. Green bamboos only b. Hardwood
c. Softwood d. All of the above
15. Soil, leaching or removal from upper horizon to lower horizon is
called-
a. Percolation b. Infiltration
c. Eluviation d. Illuviation
Answers
7. d 8. b 9. c 10. d 11. b 12. d
13. a 14. a 15. d
 Memory based JRF Paper 2015 t 349

16. Indian institute of remote sensing is located at-

a. Jaipur b. New Delhi
c. Bangalore d. Hyderabad
17. Taungya system was originated in-
a. Japan b. China
b. Bangladesh d. Myanmar
18. Bamboos are- Grasses
a. Bryophytes c. Pteridophytes
c. Angiosperm d. Grasses
19. A thinning done is regular crop in anticipation of suppression is
called-
a. German thinning b. Low thinning
c. Thinning from the below d. All of the above
20. The felling in hills is generally to be carried out from-
a. Low hill side b. Uphill side
c. Both sides d. None
21. Volume of logs in India are calculated by Hoppus rule, which is-
a. V = (g/4)3 × l b. V = (g/4)2 × l
c. V = (g/4) × l d. V = (g/2)2 × l
22. Distribution and representation of age and size classes of trees in a
stand is-
a. Yield table b. Money table
c. Volume table d. Stand table
23. Katha is also obtained from a woody climber-
a. Acacia catechu b. Uncaria gambier
c. Pennisetum purpureum d. None
24. Tending operation in forestry does not include-
a. Improvement fellings b. Pruning
c. Climber cutting d. Regeneration felling
25. 3rd World Agroforestry Congress was held in Feb 2014 in the city-
a. Kanpur b. Bangalore
c. Madhya Pradesh d. New Delhi

Answers
16. c 17. d 18. d 19. d 20. b 21. b
22. d 23. b 24. d 25. d
350 t Universal Objective Forestry

26. Hippophe rhamnoides is an important plantation species of-

a. Cold Desert b. Temperate region
c. Tropical region d. Arid region
27. Banni grassland are located in-
a. West Bengal b. Rajasthan
c. Jammu & Kashmir d. Gujarat
28. Vivipary is found in-
a. Rhizophora b. Avicennia
c. Shorea d. All of the above
29. The Run of Kutch is famous for-
a. Tiger b. Asiatic lion
c. Leopard d. Chinkara
30. A good seed year is observed in Abies pindrow once every-
a. 5 year b. 7-8 years
c. 10 years d. 12 year
31. Tamarindus indica is native to-
a. India b. North America
c. Australia d. Africa
32. The total geographical area under forest cover in the world is-
a. 25% b. 33%
c. 45% d. 75%
33. Most common crop tree combination in Agroforestry in north India
is-
a. Gram & Teak b. Rice & poplar
c. Wheat & eucalyptus d. Sugarcane & sissoo
34. Indian institute of forest management is located at-
a. Aizawl b. Bhopal
c. Kerala d. New Delhi
35. Reserved forest are constituted under Indian Forest Act-
a. Chapter i b. Chapter ii
c. Chapter iii d. Chapter iv
36. Sal tree belongs to family-
a. Combretaceae b. Dipterocaarpaceae
c. Verbenaceae d. Santalaceae
Answers
26. a 27. d 28. d 29. b 30. b 31. d
32. b 33. b 34. b 35. b 36. b
 Memory based JRF Paper 2015 t 351

37. Scientific name of African elephant is-

a. Hystrix indica b. Loxodonta africana
c. Elephus maximus d. Elephus africana
38. Sandal spike disease is caused by-
a. Bacteria b. Fungi
c. Virus d. Mycoplasma
39. REED abbreviation is-
a. Reduced Emission from Daily plantation
b. Radiation Emission from Deforestation
c. Reduced Emission from Deforestation and Degradation
d. Radiation Emission from Degradation forest
40. Diffusion treatment is applicable to-
a. Green bamboo only
b. Green timber with water soluble wood
c. Green timber without water soluble wood
d. All of the above
41. Champion and Seth classified the Indian forests into-
a. 5 groups b. 10 groups
c. 16 groups d. 18 groups
42. Most of the commercially important oleoresin are obtained from-
a. Acacia b. Camphiophora
c. Wattle gum d. Conifers
43. Father of green revolution is-.
a. Norman Borlaug b. Swaminathan
c. Bruce Zobel d. Tolbert
44. In India forestry research h was initiated after establishment of FRI
in the year-
a. 1901 b. 1906
c. 1919 d. 1947
45. The maximum genetic gain is achieved through-
a. SSO b. CSO
c. ISO d. SCO

Answers
37. b 38. d 39. c 40. b 41. c 42. d
43. a 44. b 45. a
352 t Universal Objective Forestry

46. Crown thinning is also called as-

a. German thinning b. Ordinary thinning
c. French thinning d. Natural thinning
47. Which among the following is an annual flowering bamboo-
a. Bambusa bamboos b. Bambusa vulgaris
c. Arundinaria wightiana d. Bambusa tudla
48. A measure of the relative productivity of a site for a particular
species is-
a. Site productivity b. Site index
c. Site d. Site quality
49. Removal of only certain spp. of high value of trees above a
certain size and of certain spp. without full regard to silvicultural
requirements is called-
a. Selective felling b. Concentrated felling
c. Improved felling d. Seeding felling
50. Number of plants required for 10 ha of plantation in which the plants
are planted in a triangular pattern 5m will be-
a. 1650 b. 1850
c. 3540 d. 4620
51. First cultivated crop in the world are-
a. Tobacco & maize b. Potato & Onion
c. Wheat & barley d. Rice & gram
52. Contribution of agriculture to GDP of India is-
a. 5% b. 10%
c. 12% d. 14%
53. Teak defoliator is-
a. Hyblea pupurea b. Hyblea shorea
c. Hyblea tectonae d. Hyblea foligae
54. D&D survey in agroforestry was proposed by-
a. Nair b. Lundegardh
c. J.B Raintree d. Swaminathan
55. The biological diversity act was enacted in the year-
a. 1972 b. 2000
c. 2002 d. 2007

Answers
46. c 47. c 48. d 49. a 50. d 51. c
52. d 53. a 54. c 55. c
 Memory based JRF Paper 2015 t 353

56. CVP index was given by-

a. Nair b. Paterson
c. J.B Raintree d. Champion & Seth
57. The living fossil tree is-
a. Cycas b. Pinus
c. Gingko d. Deodar
58. MAI of India forest is-.
a. 0.5 m3/ha b. 0.75 m3/ha
c. 1.5 m /ha
3
d. 2.1 m3/ha
59. Working plan is generally prepared for a period of-
a. 2 years b. 5 years
c. 10 years d. 12 years
60. The project tiger was initiated under the leadership of-
a. Rajiv Gandhi b. Indira Gandhi
c. Sardar Patel d. Morarji Desai
61. Khus oil is extracted from-
a. Cymbopogon martini b. Cymbopogon Flexosus
c. Vetiver zizaniodes d. Cymbopogon nardus
62. The transitional zone between two ecosystems is-
a. Climax zone b. Ecotone
c. Edge d. Succession
63. Species suited for green manuring is-.
a. Gliricidia sepium b. Uncaria gambier
c. Pennisetum purpureum d. None
64. Alkaloid extracted from Rauvolfia serpentine is-
a. Santalol b. Geraniol
c. Husk d. Serpentine
65. One m3 of wood is equal to-
a. 35.315 cm3 b. 35.315 Cft
c. 35.315 inch 3
d. 35.315 m3
66. The interval between seedling felling and final felling is called-
a. Technical rotation b. Regeneration
c. Rotation period d. Growing period

Answers
56. b 57. c 58. a 59. c 60. d 61. c
62. b 63. a 64. d 65. b 66. c
354 t Universal Objective Forestry

67. Separation of fibres as seen both on the cross selection and

longitudinal surfaces of the material is known as-
a. Split b. Checks
c. Burr d. Shakes
68. An oldest agroforestry practice in humid tropical climate of India is-
a. Truck gardening b. Home garden
c. Multitier system d. Both b and c
69. Shade loving plants are called-
a. Mesophytes b. Sciophytes
c. Epiphytes d. Heliophytes
70. Curvature both across width and along length is called-
a. Shake b. Flecks
c. Bow d. Cupping
71. The fibre is extensively used for making elephant harness-
a. Bauhinia vahlii b. Calotropis gigantean
c. Boehmeria nivea d. Sterculia villosa
72. A valuable red dye is obtained from the roots and stems of-
a. Lawsonia inermis b. Nyctanthes arbortristis
c. Mallotus philippensis d. Rubia cordifolia
73. World agroforestry centre is located at-
a. Geneva b. Nairobi
c. Morgis d. Rome
74. The amendment which brought forests and wildlife in the concurrent
list in VII schedule of the constitution was-
a. 12th amendment b. 22th amendment
c. 42 amendment
th
d. 52th amendment
75. The progressive yield was advocated by-
a. German forester Hartig b. Indian forester Mohit Husain
c. British Forester Hartig d. Dutch forester Hartig
76. A rotation in which all the items of revenue and expenditure are
calculated with compound interest is-
a. Technical rotation
b. Financial rotation
c. Rotation of maximum volume production
d. Silviculture Rotation
Answers
67. d 68. d 69. b 70. d 71. d 72. d
73. b 74. c 75. a 76. b
 Memory based JRF Paper 2015 t 355

77. Schneider’s formula for increment percent is-

a. P = 100/nD b. P = 200/nD
c. P= 400/nD d. P = 500/nD
78. A situation in which the vegetative propagule does not assume tree
form but continues to grow like a branch is-
a. Geotropic growth b. Plagiotrophic growth
c. Nyctinasty growth d. Fast growth
79. The causal organism of casuarina stem wilt is-
a. Ganoderma spp. b. Fomes fungi
c. Trichosporium vesiculosum d. Mycoplasma
80. The cost that does not vary with the level of production is-
a. Temporary cost b. Movable cost
c. Determinative cost d. Fixed cost
81. Oligopoly means-
a. Few sellers b. Few buyers
c. Many sellers d. Many buyers
82. The presence of VAM enhances the uptake of nutrients of-
a. N b. P
c. K d. S
83. Agrostology deals with –
a. Space b. Grasses
c. Pulses d. Cereals
84. Juglan is an allelochemicals of-
a. Almond b. Sal
c. Teak d. Walnut
85. The scientific name of Asiatic lion is-
a. Panthera uncia b. Ailurus fulgens
c. Panthera leo d. Panthera leo persica
86. During nitrification Nitrogen is converted into nitrite by-
a. Nitrobactor b. Nitrosomonas
c. Pseudomonas d. Rhizobium
87. The maximum mangrove cover is found in-
a. West Bengal b. Gujarat
c. Odisha d. Tamil Nadu
Answers
77. c 78. b 79. c 80. d 81. a 82. b
83. b 84. d 85. d 86. b 87. a
 Memory based JRF Paper 2016 t 357

Chapter 21

Memory based
JRF Paper 2016

1. Hybridoma technology is used in the production of-

a. Hybrid plants c. Monoclonal antibodies
b. Monoclonal serum d. Polyclonal antibodies
2. Spike disease in sandal is caused by-
a. Fungi c. Bacteria
b. Mycoplasma d. Insect
3. Forest conservation Act was formed in-
a. 1927 c. 1827
b. 1985 d. 1980
4. Latest forest policy was formulated in the year-
a. 1898 c. 1894
b. 1984 d. 2011
5. World environment day is celebrated on-
a. 5th July c. 11th July
b. 16 September
th
d. 5th June
6. Biodiesal plant is-
a. Jatropa c. Madhuca
b. Azadirachta d. Aloe
7. Offence and defence challan in the forest act comes under the section-
a. Chapter ix c. Chapter xi
b. Chapter x d. Chapter v

Answers
1. c 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. d 6. a
7. a
358 t Universal Objective Forestry

8. Transition zone between two communities called as-

a. Climax zone c. Ecotone
b. Edge d. Succession
9. Monoclimax theory was given by
a. E. P. Odum c. A. G. Tansley
b. Reiter d. Clements
10. In forestry D.B.H is measured at the height-
a. 1.37 cm c. 1.30 cm
b. 1.37 m d. 1.30 m
11. In the slope area D.B.H is measured from-
a. Low hill side b. Uphill side
b. Both sides d. None
12. Which N2 base is found only in RNA-
a. Adenine c. Guanine
c. Thymine d. Uracil
13. Which cell organelle have stroma and grana lamellae
a. Nucleus c. Chloroplast
b. Ribosomes d. Endoplasmic reticulum
14. Ozone depleting factor is
a. Carbon di oxide c. Sulphuric acid
b. Nitric acid d. Chloro floro carbon
15. Alternate source of fuel energy is
a. CNG c. Biogas
b. Propane d. All of these
16. Indian Lac Research Institute is situated in
a. Jhansi (U.P) c. Ranchi
b. Bihar d. Maharashtra
17. ICFRE was formed in the year
a. 1901 c. 1919
b. 1929 d. 1927
18. Indian Institute of Forest management is situated in
a. Jaipur c. Dehra Dun
b. Ranchi d. Bhopal
Answers
8. c 9. d 10. b 11. b 12. d 13. c
14. d 15. d 16. c 17. a 18. d
 Memory based JRF Paper 2016 t 359

19. Indian Institute of Plantation management is situated in

a. Kerala c. Bangalore
b. Tamil Nadu d. Haryana
20. The shape of a typical shelter belt is
a. Triangular c. Square
b. Conical d. Cylindrical
21. Table based on one variable-
a. Local volume table c. Regional volume table
b. General volume table d. Yield table
22. One example of height measuring instrument-
a. Barometer c. Spiegel Relaskop
b. Hygrometer d. Dendrometer
23. The canopy range of dense forest is-
a. Less than one c. More than one
b. Equal to one d. None
24. Geo-stationary satellite revolved at a distance of
a. 800 m c. 1200 m
b. 6400 m d. 22000 m
25. Foris is a-
a. Greek word c. Latin word
b. English word d. Sanskrit word
26. What are the factors that causes uprooting of seedlings
a. Wind c. Rainfall
b. Temperature d. Both a and b
27. Particle density is higher than
a. Bulk density c. fluid density
b. Real density d. Soil density
28. Soil having pH 3.2 is
a. Acidic c. Alkaline
b. Basic d. Acidic-alkaline
29. Transfer of pollen from anther to stigma of one flower to another
flower of same plant
a. Autogamy c. Allogamy
b. Geitenogamy d. Both a and c
Answers
19. c 20. a 21. a 22. c 23. a 24. a
25. c 26. d 27. a 28. a 29. d
360 t Universal Objective Forestry

30. Noise pollution is measured-

a. Hertz c. Decibel
b. Amplitude d. Centimetre
31. The RNA which carry information is called
a. m-RNA c. t-RNA
b. r-RNA d. hn-RNA
32. In tree damping off is caused by
a. Fungi c. Virus
b. Bacteria d. Earthworms
33. The name of teak defoliator is
a. Hyblea pupurea c. Hyblea shorea
b. Hyblea tectonae d. Hyblea foligae
34. Removal of vegetation from an area and development of newly
vegetation is called
a. Afforestation c. Plantation
b. Reforestation d. Deforestation
35. The procedures of agroforestry D & D are usually done in which
ways-
a. Macro D b. Micro D
c. Mini D d. Both a and b
36. Macro D & D covers-
a. Entire ecological zone within a country
b. Chosen ecological zone within a state
c. Entire ecological zone within a state
d. Chosen ecological zone within a district
37. A family of procedure for the diagnosis of land management problems
& potentials and the design of agroforestry solution is called-
a. Macro D b. Micro D
c. Agroforestry D & D d. Land amelioration
38. Full form of D & D is-
a. Design and Diagnosis b. Diagnosis & Design
c. Design & Development d. Development & Diagnosis

Answers
30. c 31. c 32. a 33. a 34. b 35. d
36. a 37. c 38. b
 Memory based JRF Paper 2016 t 361

39. Which is/are not a main criteria for good agroforestry design-
a. Productivity b. Sustainability
c. Adoptability d. Flexibility
40. On the structural basis agroforestry systems can be classified into
how many categories-
a. Two b. Three
c. Four d. Five
41. The crops-land left without crops for periods ranging from one
season to several years is called-
a. Pasture land b. Fallow land
c. Waste land d. Treated land
42. The main objective of fallows is-
a. To recover depleted soil moisture
b. To recover soil productivity
c. To recover depleted soil nutrients
d. To enhance microbial activity
43. Alley cropping also known as-
a. Taungya b. Shifting cultivation
c. Jhum Cultivation d. Hedgerow intercropping
44. A method of planting in which rows of trees are interspersed with
rows of crops is called-
a. Taungya b. Social forestry
c. Farm forestry d. Alley cropping
45. Which soil nutrient is mostly provided to plants in alley cropping
practices-
a. Nitrogen b. Potassium
c. Sulphur d. Phosphorus
46. Gregarious flowering occurs in-
a. Teak b. Sal
c. Bamboo d. Neem
47. Spacing between rows to rows in alley cropping-
a. 2-4 meter b. 4-8 meter
c. 4-6 meter d. 3-6 meter
Answers
39. d 40. a 41. b 42. c 43. d 44. d
45. a 46. c 47. b
362 t Universal Objective Forestry

48. Spacing between trees within rows in alley cropping-

a. 0.25-2.0 meter b. 0.5-2.0 meter
c. 1-2.0 meter d. 1.5-2.5 meter
49. Which tree species is most commonly used for alley cropping-
a. Legumes tree species b. Non-leguminous
c. Thorny species d. Bushy tree species
50. A belt/blocks of trees or shrubs established at right angles to the
prevailing wind is called-
a. Wind break b. Energy plantation
c. Shelterbelts d. Block plantation
51. Ideal width of shelterbelts is-
a. 25 m b. 50 m
c. 75 cm d. 100 cm
52. The ratio of height and width for shelterbelts should be-
a. 1 : 10 b. 10 : 1
c. 1 : 20 d. 10 : 25
53. A typical shelter belt has a shape-
a. Quadrangles shape b. Triangular shape
c. Square shape d. Rectangular shape
54. The minimum length of shelterbelts should be about its height-
a. 10 times b. 20 times
c. 25 times d. 50 times
55. The gestation period of rhinoceros is
a. 240 c. 280
b. 400 d. 450
56. Hipophae rhamnoides is found in the region of
a. Cold desert c. Tropical Humid
b. Arid region d. Hot desert
57. Bakarwal tribes is residing in which state of India
a. Jammu & Kashmir c. Rajasthan
b. Uttarakhand d. Assam
58. Local control is not used in
a. RBD c. CRD
b. LSD d. SPT
Answers
48. a 49. a 50. c 51. b 52. a 53. b
54. c 55. d 56. a 57. a 58. c
 Memory based JRF Paper 2016 t 363

59. Scientific name of Red panda is

a. Panthera uncia c. Ailurus fulgens
b. Panthera leo d. Gazella gazella
60. Partial root parasite-
a. Santalum c. Rafflesia
b. Viscum d. Cuscuta
61. Partial stem parasite-
a. Viscum c. Laranhus
b. Santalum d. both a and c
62. Organism eaten by own species called-
a. Cannabilism c. Macrophagy
b. Commensalism d. Autophagy
63. Transition zone between two communities having greater number of
species and diversity-
a. Ecotone c. Ecotype
b. Estuaries d. Eco cline
64. Species which occur most abundantly and spend their time in
ecotone are called-
a. Key stone species c. Pioneer species
b. Edge species d. Climax species
65. The tendency to increase variety and density of some organism at
the community border is known as-
a. Edge effect c. Edge habitat
b. Edge spectrum d. None
66. Ecological Niche term was given by-
a. Mohit Husain b. Grinnel
b. Allen d. E. P. Odum
67. The functional role of any species in an ecosystem or community or
its functional position or status in an ecosystem is called-
a. Niche b. Habitat.
b. Strata d. Trophic
68. Physical area where an organism lives called-
a. Niche c. Habitat
b. Strata d. Trophic
Answers
59. c 60. a 61. d 62. a 63. a 64. b
65. a 66. b 67. a 68. c
364 t Universal Objective Forestry

69. This principle state that two closely related species competing for the
same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the competitively
inferior are will be eliminated eventually-
a. Allen Rule
b. Mohit’s competitive exclusion principle
c. Gause’s competitive exclusion principle
d. Grinnel’s competitive exclusion principle
70. Gause’s competitive exclusion principle may be true if resources are-
a. Limited c. Unlimited
b. Neither limited nor unlimited d. None
71. The increment in growth that takes place in a particular year called-
a. Current Annual Increment (CAI)
b. Periodic Annual Increment (PAI)
c. Mean Annual Increment (MAI)
d. Current Increment Percent
72. The increment in growth that takes place for any short period called-
a. Current Annual Increment (CAI)
b. Periodic Annual Increment (PAI)
c. Mean Annual Increment (MAI)
d. Current Increment Percent
73. The total increment up to a given age divided by that age called-
a. Mean Annual Increment (MAI)
b. Current Annual Increment (CAI)
c. Periodic Annual Increment (PAI)
d. Current Increment Percent
74. The Mean Annual Increment (MAI) at rotation age is called-
a. Current Annual Increment (CAI)
b. Current Increment Percent
c. Final Mean Annual Increment
d. Mean Annual Increment (MAI)

Answers
69. c 70. a 71. a 72. b 73. a 74. c
 Memory based JRF Paper 2016 t 365

75. The average annual growth in volume over a specified period

expressed as a percentage of the volume either at beginning or, more
usually, half way through the period called-
a. Increment Percent
b. Current Annual Increment (CAI)
c. Current Increment Percent
d. Periodic Annual Increment (PAI)
76. In the beginning M.A.I keeps below-
a. C.A.I. c. P. A. I.
b. C.I. d. All of the above
77. The C.A.I attains the maximum value before-
a. P.A.I. c. M.A.I
b. C.I. d. None
78. Which is never falls up to zero in whole life of a tree-
a. P.A.I c. C.A.I
b. M.A.I. d. C.I.
79. Which may falls up to zero in whole life of a tree-
a. P.A.I. c. C.I.
b. M.A.I. d. C.A.I.
80. The relation of the increment during a given year to the volume at
the beginning of the year called-
a. Current Increment Percent (C.I.P)
b. Mean Increment Percent (M.I.P)
c. Periodic Increment Percent (P.I.P)
d. Annual Increment Percent (A.I.P)
81. The relation of the increment during a given year to a basic volume
which may be taken as the mean or average volume for the period,
or the volume at the beginning of the period called-
a. Current Increment Percent
b. Periodic Increment Percent
c. Mean Increment Percent
d. Annual Increment Percent

Answers
75. a 76. a 77. c 78. b 79. d 80. a
81. b
366 t Universal Objective Forestry

82. The percent ratio which the M.A.I for a given age bears to the total
volume at that age called-
a. Mean Annual Increment Percent
b. Current Increment Percent
c. Periodic Increment Percent
d. Mean Increment Percent
83. Pressler’s formula for Increment Percent is given as-
V + v 100
a. Increment Percent (p) = ×
V –v n
V – v 200
b. Increment Percent (p) = ×
V +v n
V – v 300
c. Increment Percent (p) = ×
V +v n
V – v 400
d. Increment Percent (p) = ×
V ×v n
84. Most convenient formula for finding the increment percent (p) of
standing trees is that developed by-
a. Professor Schneider in 1853 c. Professor Schneider in 1953
b. Professor Schneider in 1753 d. Professor Schneider in 1653
85. Schneider formula is based on the determination of the-
a. Diameter at breast height
b. The number of the rings in the last centimetre of the radius
c. Tree volume
d. Both a and b
86. Schneider formula for increment percent is-
100 400
a. Increment Percent (p) = b. Increment Percent (p) =
nD nD
200 300
c. Increment Percent (p) = d. Increment Percent (p) =
nD nD

Answers
82. a 83. b 84. a 85. d 86. b
 Memory based JRF Paper 2016 t 367

87. A fast growing species is one which yields a minimum-

a. 10 m3 /ha/year c. 15 m3 /ha/year
b. 20 m /ha/year
3
d. 30 m3 /ha/year
88. World forest average mean annual increment is-
a. 4.1 m3/ha. c. 2.1 m3/ha.
b. 3.1 m /ha.
3
d. 1.2 m3/ha.
89. A fast growing species is one which height increment must not be
less than-
a. 40 cm per year c. 50 cm per year
b. 60 cm per year d. 70 cm per year
90. Mean annual increment of Indian forest is-
a. 0.5-0.7 m3/ha c. 1.0-1.9 m3/ha
a. 0.6-0.8 m3/ha d. 0.7-0.9 m3/ha
91. The increment in the value per unit volume of a tree or a crop,
independent of any increase in the price of forest produce resulting
from any change in money value in general, or the supply and
demand position in particular called-
a. Quality Increment c. Price Increment
b. Increment Percent d. Increment
92. The increment in price independently of quality increment, resulting
from any change in the market on an account of change in money
value in general, the demand and supply position in particular called-
a. Price Increment c. Price Increment
b. Increment Percent d. Quality Increment
93. Price Increment and Quality Increment can be determined and
expressed in the same way as volume increment percent by using-
a. Von Mental method c. Schneider method
b. Pressler’s method d. Howard method
94. Increment from C.A.I. can be calculated by using-
a. Area Method c. Per Tree Method
b. Increment Percent method d. All the above
95. Determination of increment in irregular crop is done by using-
a. Andre’s formula c. Behre’s formula
b. Huber’s formula d. Von Mental formula
Answers
87. a 88. c 89. b 90. d 91. a 92. a
93. b 94. d 95. a
368 t Universal Objective Forestry

96. Biolley’s check method is used to determine increment and based on-
a. Diameter c. Tree height
b. Successive inventories d. Tree volume
97. According to Biolley the M.A.I can be calculated by using formula-
(V2 + V1 ) + N – P (V2 – V1 ) – N – P
a. M.A.I. = b. M.A.I. =
n n
(V2 – V1 ) + N – P (V1 – V2 ) + N – P
c. M.A.I. = d. M.A.I. =
n n
98. The intervals into which the range of age of the trees growing in a
forest is divided for classification or use-
a. Age gradation c. Gradation series
b. An age-class d. Class interval
99. The unit of Yield Regulation in both regular and irregular forests is a-
a. Felling series c. Felling cycle
b. Coupe d. Periodic block
100. The total volume of trees in a fully stocked forest with normal
distribution of age-classes for a given rotation called-
a. Normal yield c. Growing stock
c. Normal growing stock d. Progressive yield
101. The relationship of the height of the form point above ground level
to the total height of the tree is called-
a. Form coefficient b. Form factor ratio
c. Form point ratio d. Form class ratio
102. Hojer and Behre formula are used to determine-
a. Form coefficient b. Volume quotient
c. Form quotient d. Diameter quotient
103. The ratio of the diameter (d) of a stem at any given height to its
breast-height diameter (d.b.h) is called-
a. Diameter quotient b. Volume quotient
c. Height quotient d. Form quotient

Answers
96. b 97. c 98. b 99. a 100. c 101. c
102. d 103. a
 Memory based JRF Paper 2016 t 369

104. The area of the bole surface of a tree and log can be calculated by
the formula-
g1 + g 2
= a. S ×l b. S = g × l
2
g + g2
c. S = g × 1 × or 1 ×l d. All of the above
2
105. The horizontal projection on the ground of the tree crown is called-
a. Crown width b. Crown spreadness
c. Crown height d. Crown cover
106. Which formulae is/are used to calculate the volume of logs-
a. Smalain’s formula b. Huber’ formula
c. Newton’s formula d. All of the above
107. Smalain’s formula for calculation volume of the logs is-
s –s
a. 1 2 × l b. Sm × l
2
( s1 + 4Sm + s2 ) s1 + s2
c. ×l d. ×l
6 2
108. Huber’ formula for calculation volume of the logs is-
s1 – s2
a. ×l b. Sm × l
2
( s1 + 4Sm + s2 ) s1 + s2
c. ×6 d. ×l
6 2
109. Newton’s formula for calculation volume of the logs is-
s1 – s2
a. ×l b. Sm × l
2
( s + 4Sm + s2 ) s1 + s2
c. 1 ×l d. ×l
6 2
110. Newton’s formula is used to calculate the error in the volume
calculated by-
a. Huber’ formula b. Smalain’s formula
c. Lowry’s formula d. Both a and b
Answers
104. d 105. d 106. d 107. d 108. b 109. c
110. d
370 t Universal Objective Forestry

111. Smalain’s formula requires the which cross-sections of the log for
volume calculation-
a. Side cross section b. Mid cross-sections
c. End cross-sections d. Corner sections
112. Huber’s formula requires the which cross-sections of the log for
volume calculation-
a. Mid cross-sections b. Base cross-sections
c. End cross-sections d. Corner sections
113. The difference between volumes obtained by Smalain’s and
Newton’s formula is-
l l
a. ∆ = × ( s1 – s2 + 2Sm) b. ∆ = × ( s1 + s2 – 2Sm)
2 3

l l
c. ∆ = × ( s1 × s2 – 2Sm) d. ∆ = × ( s1 – s2 – 2Sm)
2 4
114. Volumes obtained by Smalain’s and Newton’s formula in case of
cone and neiloid the error was-
a. Negative b. Positive
c. Zero d. None
115. Volumes obtained by Huber’s and Newton’s formula in case of cone
and neiloid the error was-
a. Negative b. Positive
c. Zero d. None
116. In India volumes of logs are calculated by using-
a. Half girth formula b. Quarter girth formula
c. Newton formula d. Smalian formula
117. Quarter girth formula in Britain also known as-
a. Allen’s rule b. Hartig’ rule
c. Hojer’s rule d. Hoppus’s rule
118. Quarter girth formula for calculation volumes of logs is-
a. V = (g/4)3 × l b. V = (g/4)2 × l
c. V = (g/4) × l d. V = (g/2)2 × l

Answers
111. c 112. a 113. b 114. b 115. a 116. b
117. d 118. b
 Memory based JRF Paper 2016 t 371

119. Quarter girth formula gives how much percent of the true volume-
a. 75% b. 75.8%
c. 78.5% d. 85%
120. The space occupied by a stack as distinct from the cubic contents of
the wood itself i. e. solid volume called-
a. Stock volume b. Total volume
c. Actual volume d. Stacked volume
121. Volume of solid firewood can be determined by using which methods-
a. Xylometric method b. Specific gravity method
c. Both a and b d. None
122. Which is/are the methods to determine volume of standing tree-
a. Ocular estimation method
b. Partly ocular and partly by measurement
c. Direct/Indirect measurement
d. All of the above
123. Which instruments is/are used to determine the volume of standing
tree in indirect measurement method-
a. Spiegel Relaskop b. Tele Relaskop
c. Wheeler Penta Prism d. All of the above
124. Which instruments is/are not used to determine the volume of
standing tree in indirect measurement method-
a. Tele Relaskop b. Wooden scale
c. Stroud Dendrometer d. Callipers
125. A table showing for a species the average contents of trees, logs or
sawn timber for one or more given dimensions is called-
a. Yield table b. Money table
c. Volume table d. Stand table
126. The volume of a tree depends mainly upon how many variables-
a. Two b. Three
c. Four d. Five
127. The volume of a tree does not depends upon which variable-
a. Diameter b. Height
c. Form d. Area
Answers
119. b 120. d 121. c 122. d 123. d 124. b
125. c 126. b 127. d
372 t Universal Objective Forestry

128. Most important variables for volume table among the three variables
is/are-
a. Diameter (BH) b. Height
c. Form d. Area
129. General volume table is/are based on which variables-
a. One variables b. Two variables
c. Three variables d. Four variables
130. Local volume table is/are based on which variables-
a. Area b. Height
c. Diameter d. Form
131. Volume table which is based on one variable-
a. General volume table
b. Regional volume table
c. Local volume table
d. Standard volume table
132. Khus oil is obtained from which species-
a. Cymbopogon martini c. Cymbopogon Flexosus
b. Cymbopogon nardus d. Vetiver zizaniodes
133. Ginger oil is obtained from which species-
a. Cymbopogon martini c. Cymbopogon Flexosus
b. Cymbopogon nardus d. Vetiver zizaniodes
134. Geraniol is obtained from which species-
a. Cymbopogon nardus d. Vetiver zizaniodes
b. Cymbopogon martini c. Cymbopogon Flexosus
135. Wood is/are obtained from which species-
a. Santalum album c. Aquilaria agallocha
b. Cedrus deodara d. All of the above
136. Wood oil is/are obtained from which wood of the tree-
a. Sapwood c. Softwood
b. Heartwood d. All of the above
137. Santalol is obtained from which species-
a. Santalum album c. Aquilaria agallocha
b. Cymbopogon nardus d. Vetiver zizaniodes
Answers
128. a 129. b 130. c 131. c 132. d 133. a
134. b 135. d 136. b 137. a
 Memory based JRF Paper 2016 t 373

138. Leaf oil is/are obtained from which species-

a. Pinus c. Eucalyptus
b. Cedrus d. Sandal
139. Which is called as blue gum tree-
a. Acacia nilotica c. Eucalyptus globulus
b. Eucalyptus citriodora d. Acacia catechu
140. Citriodora leaf oil is obtained from which species-
a. Acacia nilotica c. Eucalyptus globulus
b. Eucalyptus citriodora d. Acacia catechu
141. Camphor leaf oil is obtained from which species-
a. Cinnamomum cardamomum c. Mentha arvensis
b. Gaultheria fragrantissima d. Cinnamomum camphora
142. Mint leaf oil is obtained from which species-
a. Cinnamomum cardamomum c. Mentha arvensis
b. Gaultheria fragrantissima d. Cinnamomum camphora
143. Wintergreen oil is obtained from which species-
a. Cinnamomum cardamomum c. Mentha arvensis
b. Gaultheria fragrantissima d. Cinnamomum camphora
144. Root oil is/are obtained from which species-
a. Sassuria lappa c. Santalum album
b. Gaultheria fragrantissima d. Cinnamomum camphora
145. Valerian oil is obtained from the rhizome of which species-
a. Sassuria lappa c. Gaultheria fragrantissima
b. Valerian wallichii d. Valerian chinensis
146. Flower oil is/are obtained from which species-
a. Pandanus tectorius c. Accacia farnesiana
b. Michelia champa d. All of the above
147. Keora oil is obtained from which species-
a. Michelia champa c. Accacia farnesiana
b. Pandanus tectorius d. Gaultheria fragrantissima
148. Linaloe oil is obtained from the heartwood of-
a. Bursera delpechiana c. Cedrus deodara
b. Shorea robusta d. Bursera wallichii
Answers
138. c 139. c 140. b 141. d 142. c 143. b
144. a 145. b 146. d 147. b 148. a
374 t Universal Objective Forestry

149. The highest concentration of non-biodegradable pollutant occurs in-

a. Top consumer c. Primary consumer
b. Secondary consumer d. Tertiary consumer
150. Tung oil is obtained from which species-
a. Aleurites fordii c. Azadirachta indica
b. Madhuca butyracea d. Garcinia indica
151. a. Soil testing a. Troug
b. Marble b. Limestone
c. Clay c. <0.002 mm
d. Law of minimum d. Leibig
e. Hue e. Dominant spectral colour
152. a. Gurgaon Project a. F. L Bryne
b. Sevagram Project b. M. K. Gandhi
c. Sriniketan Project c. R. N. Tagore
d. Marthandam Project d. Hatch
e. Etawah Project e. Albert Mayer
153. a. Kaziranga National Park a. Rhinoceros
b. Sunderbans tiger reserve b. Tiger
c. Dachigam National Park c. Hangul
d. Gir National Park d. Asiatic Lion
e. Dudhwa National Park e. Tiger
154. a. Green revolution a. Rice and wheat production
b. White revolution b. Milk production
c. Blue revolution c. Fish production
d. Yellow revolution d. Oilseeds production
e. Red revolution e. Tomato/meat production
155. a. World Biodiversity Day a. May-22
b. World Environment Day b. Jun-05
c. World Oceans Day c. Jun-08
d. World Population Day d. Jul-11
e. International Tiger Day e. Jul-29

Answers
149. a 150. a
 Memory based JRF Paper 2016 t 375

156. a. Very light timber a. 300 kg/m3

b. Light timber b. 301-450 kg/m3
c. Moderately heavy timber c. 451-600 kg/m3
d. Heavy timber d. 601-800 kg/m3
e. Very heavy timber e. 801-950 kg/m3
157. a. Mallotus philippensis a. Kamela dye
b. Bixa orellana b. Annatto dye
c. Butea monosperma c. Dhak dye
d. Indigofera species d. Blue dye
e. Lawsonia inermis e. Heena dye
158. a. Succession in fresh water a. Hydrosere
b. Succession in salty water b. Halosere
c. Succession in acidic water c. Oxalosere
d. Succession in dry region d. Xerosere
e. Succession on rock e. Lithosere
159. a. Damping-off a. Fusarium
b. Root disease b. Ganoderma spp.
c. Pink disease c. Corticium salmonicolor
d. Spike disease d. Mycoplasma
e. Heart-rot e. Fomes fungi
160. a. Poisson distribution a. 0≤x≤∞
b. Correlation coefficient b. –1 to +1
c. f-test c. 0≤x≤∞
d. Regression coefficient d. –∞ to +∞
e. Probability e. 0 to 1

Answers
 Memory based NET Paper 2014 t 377

Chapter 22

Memory based
NET Paper 2014

1. Chilgoza is obtained from-

a. Cycas revoluta b. Pinus gerardiana
c. Pinus roxburghii d. Pinus wallichiana
2. Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development
Authority (APEDA)-
a. Kanpur b. Bangalore
c. Madhya Pradesh d. New Delhi
3. Most predominant soil type in India is-
a. Sandy loam b. Black soil
c. Red soil d. Brown soil
4. World wildlife day is celebrated on-
a. Feb-02 b. Mar-03
c. Mar-21 d. Apr-22
5. Indian forest Act was formulated in the year-
a. 1860 b. 1886
c. 1927 d. 1976
6. International day of forest is celebrated on-
a. Mar-02 b. Mar-03
c. Mar-21 d. Apr-22
7. The control of timber and other forest-produce in transit is deals in
the chapter of IFA, 1927-
a. Chapter vi b. Chapter v
c. Chapter vii d. Chapter xi
Answers
1. b 2. d 3. c 4. b 5. c 6. c
7. c
378 t Universal Objective Forestry

8. Black revolution is related with-

a. Onion production b. Potato production
c. Rice and wheat production d. Biofuel/Jatropa revolution
9. Agro climatic zones of India is-
a. 10 b. 12
c. 15 d. 20
10. Silviculture is a-
a. Greek word b. Latin word
c. Arabic word d. French word
11. Beef wood botanically know as-
a. Ceiba patendra b. Butea monosperma
c. Casuarina equisitifolia d. Cassia fistlua
12. Butter tree is botanically know as-
a. Gmelia arborea b. Butea monosperma
c. Tecomella undulata d. Madhuca indica
13. Which climatic factor play most important role in vegetation
distribution on earth-
a. Rainfall b. Temperature
c. Topography d. Light
14. Pterocapus marsupium belong to family-
a. Combretaceae b. Dipterocaarpaceae
c. Verbenaceae d. Santalaceae
15. First organic state in India is-
a. Mizoram b. Kerala
c. Sikkim d. Meghalaya
16. The tendency to increase variety and density of some organism at
the community border-
a. Edge effect b. Edge habitat
c. Edge spectrum d. None
17. 10% law of energy was given by-
a. Lindeman b. Elton
c. Odum d. Clements

Answers
8. d 9. c 10. b 11. c 12. d 13. b
14. b 15. c 16. a 17. a
 Memory based NET Paper 2014 t 379

18. Management of forest broadly classified into-

a. Control of composition and structure of the growing stock
b. Harvesting and marketing of forest produce
c. Administration of forest property personnel
d. All of the above
19. The concept of Progressive Yield was given by-
a. German forester Hartig b. Indian forester Hartig
c. British Forester Hartig d. Dutch forester Hartig
20. The principle of Progressive Yield as against the Sustained Yield
principle was discussed-
a. Fourth Indian Silviculture Conference
b. Fifth Indian Silviculture Conference
c. Sixth Indian Silviculture Conference
d. Seventh Indian Silviculture Conference
21. Third World Forestry Conference was held in 1948-
a. New Delhi b. Helsinki
c. Brazil d. Geneva
22. Which rotation is useful in forests managed primarily for aesthetic
and recreational purpose-
a. Technical rotation
b. Financial rotation
c. Rotation of maximum volume production
d. Silviculture Rotation
23. Rotation under which a species yields the maximum material of a
specified size or suitability for economic conversion or for special
use called-
a. Rotation of maximum volume production
b. Technical rotation
c. Financial rotation
d. Physical rotation
24. A fast growing species is one which yields a minimum-
a. 10 m3 /ha/year b. 15 m3 /ha/year
c. 20 m /ha/year
3
d. 30 m3 /ha/year

Answers
18. d 19. a 20. c 21. b 22. d 23. b
24. a
380 t Universal Objective Forestry

25. World forest average mean annual increment is-

a. 4.1 m3/ha. b. 2.1 m3/ha
c. 3.1 m /ha.
3
d. 1.2 m3/ha
26. According to Biolley the M.A.I can be calculated by using formula-
(V2 + V1 ) + N – P (V2 – V1 ) + N – P
a. M.A.I. = b. M.A.I. =
n n

(V2 – V1 ) – N – P (V – V ) + N – P
c. M.A.I. = d. M.A.I. = 1 2
n n
27. A term generally applied to the determination of the yield and the
prescribed means of releasing it, called-
a. Yield regulation b. Yield capacity
c. Yield determination d. Total Yield
28. Period of Working Plan in India is-
a. 5 years b. 8 years
c. 10 years d. 15 years
29. The forest survey of India (FSI) conducts forest cover survey once
in every-
a. One year b. Two years
c. Five years d. Ten years
30. Which is based only on area for yield regulation in regular forest-
a. Annual coupe by gross area method (A1)
b. Annual coupe by reduced area method (A2)
c. Annual coupe by total area method (A1)
d. Both a and b
31. The ranges of regression coefficient lies between-
a. –1 to +1 b. 0 to 1
c. –∞ to +∞ d. 0 to ∞
32. Headquarter of IUCN is situated in-
a. Gland b. Morgis
c. Geneva d. Nairobi
33. IMD was established in the year-
a. 1875 b. 1938
c. 1961 d. 1985
Answers
25. b 26. b 27. a 28. c 29. b 30. d
31. c 32. b 33. c
 Memory based NET Paper 2014 t 381

34. Gmelia arborea belong to family-

a. Rubiaceae b. Sapindaceae
c. Meliaceae d. Lamiaceae
35. Grewia tilifolia belong to family-
a. Combretaceae b. Malvaceae
c. Verbenaceae d. Legumniosae
36. Which scale is used for Forest type map & Working Plan map in
India-
a. 1 : 25000 b. 1 : 500
c. 1 : 20000 d. 1 : 50000
37. Colour of tropical semi-evergreen forest group on the forest type
map shows-
a. Violet b. Purple
c. Red d. Pink
38. India’s first national park which is situated in Nainital, Uttarakhand-
a. Jim Corbett National Park b. Dachigam national park
c. Bennergutta national park d. Dudhwa national park
39. Smallest tiger reserve in India is-
a. Tandoba national park
b. Gir national park
c. Kaziranga national park
d. Ranthambore national park
40. Largest tiger reserve in India which is located in Andhra Pradesh-
a. Nagarjuna Sagar sanctuary b. Periyar sanctuary
c. Chilka lake Bird sanctuary d. Annamalai sanctuary
41. Kaziranga National Park is situated in-
a. Tamil Nadu b. Gujarat
c. Kerala d. Assam
42. Hunting of Wild Animals is deal in which chapter of WPA-
a. Chapter vii b. Chapter iv
c. Chapter vi d. Chapter iii
43. Which schedule of WPA deals with Big game animals-
a. Schedule i b. Schedule ii
c. Schedule iii d. Schedule iv
Answers
34. d 35. b 36. d 37. b 38. a 39. d
40. a 41. d 42. d 43. c
382 t Universal Objective Forestry

44. Project Lion was started in the year-

a. 1972 b. 1973
c. 1974 d. 1977
45. Gestation period of Rhinoceros and Kangaroo in days are respectively-
a. 450 and 42 b. 550 and 90
c. 450 and 120 d. 650 and 92
46. Edge of the tooth which faces the cutting direction called-
a. Space b. Back
c. Face d. Gullet
47. Distance between two adjacent teeth called-
a. Face b. Gullet
c. Pitch d. Space
48. Entire opening between two adjacent teeth is called-
a. Gauge b. Gullet
c. Pitch d. Kerf
49. Angle tween the face of a toot and the line passing through points of
the teeth called-
a. Pitch b. Gullet
c. Gauge d. Kerf
50. Standard sleeper size of Broad Gauge is-
a. 275 cm × 26 cm × 13 cm b. 183 cm × 21 cm × 12 cm
c. 153 cm × 18 cm × 12 cm d. 153 cm × 16 cm × 11 cm
51. Square or rectangular shape having 15 cm under section called-
a. Hakries b. Squares
c. Scantlings d. Poles
52. Kheersal is obtained from the tree-
a. Shorea robusta b. Madhuca latifolia
c. Acacia catechu d. Butea monosperma
53. Which is/are not the extraction method of cutch and katha-
a. Country method b. Modified method
c. Factory method d. All of the above

Answers
44. a 45. a 46. c 47. d 48. b 49. a
50. a 51. c 52. c 53. d
 Memory based NET Paper 2014 t 383

54. The process which is used to making paper more or less impervious
to ink penetration-
a. Sizing b. Loading
c. Beating d. Colouring
55. Which is used to make paper more or less impervious to ink
penetration in sizing -
a. Resin b. Wax
c. Rosin d. Gum
56. The process of addition of non-fibrous mineral matters to improve
the dimensional stability as well as brightness of paper is called-
a. Beating b. Sizing
c. Bleaching d. Loading
57. Leaf fibre is obtained from which species-
a. Caryota urens b. Pandanus species
c. Agave sislana d. All of the above
58. Stem fibre is obtained from which species-
a. Bauhinia vahlii b. Calotropis gigantean
c. Boehmeria nivea d. All of the above
59. Elephant harness rope is made from the fibre of which species-
a. Sterculia villosa b. Grewia tiliaefolia
c. Hardwickia binata d. Bauhinia vahlii
60. Palmrosa oil is obtained from which species-
a. Cymbopogon martini b. Cymbopogon Flexosus
c. Cymbopogon nardus d. Cymbopogon nardus
61. Lemon oil is obtained from which species-
a. Calotropis gigantean b. Cymbopogon Flexosus
c. Cymbopogon nardus d. Cymbopogon java
62. Citronella oil is obtained from which species-
a. Mallotus philippensis b. Cymbopogon Flexosus
c. Cymbopogon nardus d. Cymbopogon java
63. Khus oil is obtained from which species-
a. Nyctanthes arbortristis b. Cymbopogon Flexosus
c. Cymbopogon nardus d. Vetiver zizaniode
Answers
54. a 55. c 56. d 57. d 58. d 59. a
60. a 61. b 62. c 63. d
384 t Universal Objective Forestry

64. Wood oil is/are obtained from which wood of the tree-
a. Sapwood c. Softwood
c. Heartwood d. All of the above
65. Indigo dye is obtained from which species-
a. Lawsonia inermis b. Nyctanthes arbortristis
c. Indigofera species d. Caesalpinia sappan
66. Heena dye is obtained from which species-
a. Lawsonia inermis b. Nyctanthes arbortristis
c. Mallotus philippensis d. Calotropis gigantean
67. Leaves of Diospyros melanoxylon are used for making-
a. Bidi b. Platters & Cups
c. Rope d. Dyes
68. Defect caused by fungal attack and decay in wood called as-
a. Decomposition b. Fungal knots
c. Unsoundness d. Cracking
69. Most serious fungal defects of wood are-
a. Rots b. Stains
c. Mildew d. Both a and c
70. When the wood grain twisted spirally making an angle 400 with
vertical axis called-
a. Twisted fibre b. Twisted shake
c. Ripple marks d. Flecks
71. When wood fibres shows a wavy appearance instead of true vertical
straight line with main axis called-
a. Burr b. Pith flecks
c. Checks d. Waviness
72. A complex knot formed at the point where dormant bud shows
abnormal growth without developed into branches resulting
formation of concentrated mass around bud called-
a. Burr b. Pith flecks
c. Checks d. Split
73. Separation of fibres forming a cracks or fissure in the piece of wood
not extending to other face or end of wood piece called-
a. Split b. Checks
c. Burr d. Shakes
Answers
64. c 65. c 66. a 67. a 68. c 69. d
70. a 71. d 72. a 73. b
 Memory based NET Paper 2014 t 385

74. Separation of fibres forming a cracks or fissure in the piece of wood

and extending to other face or end of wood piece called-
a. Waviness b. Split
c. Shakes d. Checks
75. Density of the moderately heavy timber is-
a. 201-350 kg/m3 b. 451-600 kg/m3
c. 301-450 kg/m 3
d. 401-650 kg/m3
76. Woods which require little protection against during rapid seasoning
called-
a. Highly refractory wood b. Moderately refractory wood
c. Non refractory wood d. Refractory wood
77. Which types of wood preservatives is not suitable for indoor works-
a. Oil type b. Water soluble type
c. Organic solvent types d. All of the above
78. Which is/are not the constituents of water soluble preservatives-
a. As2O5 b. CuSO4
c. Na/K Cr2O7 d. All of the above
79. Which is/are not the constituents of ASCU wood preservatives-
a. As2O5 b. CuSO4
c. Na/K Cr2O7 d. All of the above
80. Which method is suitable for preservation of dry as well as green
woods-
a. Soaking method b. Heating and cooling method
c. Sap displacement method d. None
81. Full cell process of wood preservation is applied at a pressure-
a. 1.50 to 10 kg/cm2 b. 2.50 to 15 kg/cm2
c. 3.50 to 12 kg/cm 2
d. 5.0 to 10 kg/cm2
82. In which pressure method of wood preservation maximum
penetration is obtained with minimum absorption of preservatives-
a. Rueping process b. Empty cell process
c. Lowry process d. Full cell process
83. The average number of bamboos in a bamboo raft is-
a. 2000 b. 5000
c. 1000 d. 10000

Answers
74. b 75. b 76. b 77. a 78. d 79. d
80. a 81. c 82. b 83. d
386 t Universal Objective Forestry

84. The centre face of plywood is called-

a. Cross bands b. Back
c. Core d. Face
85. The numbers of veneers in a plywood is always-
a. Even numbers b. Odd numbers
c. Both d. None
86. The maximum bordered piths are found in the tracheids of-
a. Angiosperms b. Bryophytes
c. Gymnosperms d. Pteridophytes
87. Closed vascular bundles are found in-
a. Monocotyledon b. Dicotyledons
c. Bryophytes d. Pteridophytes
88. Girth of tree is measured in-
a. Centimetre b. Nearest centimetre
c. Metre d. Metre and centimetre
89. In India Breast-Height is taken as above the ground level -
a. 1.30 m b. 1.37 cm
c. 1.30 cm d. 1.37 m
90. On slopping ground diameter at Breast-Height should be measured
on the-
a. Low hill side b. Uphill side
c. Aspect side d. Topography side
91. Which bands are used in diameter measurement using Spiegel
Relaskop-
a. Band 1 and 2 narrow bands b. Band 1 and 4 narrow bands
c. Band 2 and 4 narrow bands d. Band 2 and 3 narrow bands
92. Which is the correct equation of Metzger theory-
32 × W × F × L 32 × W × F × L
a. d 2 = b. d 3 =
2π × S π× S

32 × W × F 32 × W × F × L
c. d 2 = d. d 3 =
π× S × L 2π × S

Answers
84. c 85. c 86. c 87. a 88. d 89. d
90. b 91. b 92. b
 Memory based NET Paper 2014 t 387

93. Breast-height form factor also known as-

a. Artificial form factor b. Absolute form factor
c. Normal form factor d. True form factor
94. The concept of form quotient was given by-
a. German forester A. Schiffel b. Austrian forester A. Schiffel
c. Indian forester Mohit Husain d. German forester Hartig
95. Quarter girth formula gives how much percent of the true volume-
a. 75% b. 75.8%
c. 78.5% d. 85%
96. Most important variables for volume table among the three variables
is/are-
a. Diameter (BH) b. Height
c. Form d. Area
97. General volume table is/are based on which variables-
a. One variables b. Two variables
c. Three variables d. Four variables
98. Pressler’s formula for volume increment percent is-
100( D – d ) (V + v) 200( D + d ) (V – v)
a. p
= × = b. p ×
n n(V – v) n n(V + v)
200( D – d ) (V – v ) 400( D – d ) (V + v)
=c. p × = d. p ×
n n(V + v ) n n(V – v)
99. Two phase sampling or double sampling is commonly used in-
a. Bamboo enumeration
b. Aerial photograph interpretation
c. Forest inventories
d. All of the above
100. The Bitterlich or variable plot or point sampling or probability
proportional to size (PPS) and PPP or sampling with probability
proportional to prediction are based on-
a. Multi-stage sampling
b. Stratified random sampling
c. Multiphase sampling
d. Sampling with varying probability
Answers
93. a 94. b 95. b 96. a 97. b 98. c
99. d 100. d
388 t Universal Objective Forestry

101. The formula of basal area factor of wedge-prism is-

10,00 10,000
a. BAF = 2
b. BAF = 2
L L
1 + 3  1 + 2 
D D
10,00 10,000
c. BAF = 2
d. BAF = 2
L  L
1 + 4  1 + 4 
D  D
102. Tiger Grass botanically known as-
a. Dichanthium annulatum
b. Panicum antidotale
c. Sorghum sudanense
d. Thysanolaena maxima
103. A forest fire that burns ground cover (herbaceous plants and shrubs)
only is called-
a. Ground fire b. Intentional fires
c. Surface fire d. Deliberate fire
104. Full abbreviation of CVP index is-
a. Climate, Vegetation and Precipitation
b. Climate, Vegetation and Productivity site
c. Climate, Vegetation and Productivity index
d. Climate, Vegetation and Potential index
105. Which is/are moderately drought hardy species-
a. Acacia nilotica b. Acacia catechu
c. Madhuca indica d. Toona ciliata
106. Which is/are a strong coppicer-
a. Dalbergia sissoo b. Diospyrus melanoxylon
c. Ougenia oojensis d. All of the above
107. During tetrazolium test live seed takes a colour-
a. White b. Green
c. Red d. Black

Answers
101. d 102. d 103. a 104. c 105. b 106. d
107. c
 Memory based NET Paper 2014 t 389

108. Which formula is used to calculate number of plant (N) in square

planting plantation-
100 × 100
a. N =
planting distance (X)
100 × 100
b. N =
Square of planting distance (X)

2 × 100 × 100
c. N =
Square of planting distance (X)
100 × 100 × 1.155
d. N =
Square of planting distance (X)
109. Which is/are not a types groups of montane sub-tropical forests
major group-
a. Subtropical broad leaved forests
b. Subtropical pine forests
c. Littoral and swampy forests
d. Subtropical dry evergreen forests
110. Time of flowering and seed collection in Ailanthus excelsa
respectively-
a. June-September and Dec-March
b. Sept-November and Feb-March
c. Feb-March and April-May
d. Sept-November and Jan – February
111. Time of flowering and seed collection in Albizia procera respectively-
a. June-September and Dec-March
b. Sept-November and Feb-March
c. May and June-December
d. Sept-November and Jan – February
112. Time of flowering and seed collection in Anogeissus latifolia
respectively-
a. Feb-April and May-June
b. Jan-March and April-May
c. March-May and June-July
d. June-September and Dec-March
Answers
108. b 109. c 110. c 111. b 112. d
390 t Universal Objective Forestry

113. Time of flowering and seed collection in Azadirachta indica

respectively-
a. Jan-March and April-May
b. March-May and June-July
c. Feb-April and May-June
d. May and June-December
114. Time of flowering and seed collection in Boswellia serrata
respectively-
a. Feb-April and May-June
b. May and June-December
c. August-September and Jan-February
d. March and April-May
115. Time of flowering and seed collection in Casuarina equisetifolia
respectively-
a. August-September and Jan-February
b. Jan-March and April-May
c. May and June-December
d. Feb-April and May-June
116. Wind-breaks should be planted at an angles to the wind from which
protection is needed-
a. 30° b. 45°
c. 60° d. 90°
117. For better protection against environmental factors wind break
should be planted in which direction-
a. East-west b. South-east
c. North-west d. North-south
118. The first taungya plantation in India was raised in which region-
a. Gujarat b. West Bengal
c. North Bengal d. Meghalaya
119. Shifting cultivation is practised extensively in which region-
a. North-eastern b. Southern
c. Western d. Northern
120. The selection of parent trees on the basis of performance of their
progeny is called-
a. Progeny testing b. Within family selection
c. Sib selection d. Mass selection
Answers
113. b 114. a 115. c 116. d 117. d 118. c
119. a 120. a
 Memory based NET Paper 2014 t 391

121. Heritability value can be-

a. Positive b. Negative
c. Zero d. Both a and c
122. The ratio of total genetic variation (VG) in a population to the
phenotypic variation (VP)-
a. Broad-sense heritability (H2)
b. Narrow-sense heritability (h2)
c. Specific combining ability (SCA)
d. General combining ability (GCA)
123. Breeder seed is the progeny of-
a. Breeder seed b. Nucleus seed
c. Foundation seed d. Certified seed
124. Tag colour of foundation seed is-
a. Azar blue b. White
c. Purple d. Pink
125. Bulk density has value-
a. 1.65 gm/c.c b. 1.85 gm/c.c
c. 2.65 gm/c.c d. 2.85 gm/c.c
126. Land capability soil class suitable for wildlife & watershed-
a. Class IV b. Class VI
c. Class VII d. Class VIII
127. Percent of innovators in a society to adopt a new research or
innovation is-
a. 2.5 b. 13.5
c. 34 d. 16
128. Sewagram project was started in the year-
a. 1920 b. 1921
c. 1929 d. 1948
129. Local control is not applied for the design-
a. Randomized Block Design
b. Completely Randomized Block Design
c. Latin Square Design
d. Completely Randomized Design
Answers
121. d 122. a 123. b 124. b 125. a 126. d
127. a 128. c 129. d
392 t Universal Objective Forestry

130. In hypothesis testing the most common level of significance that is

used by statisticians is-
a. 0.5 b. 0.05
c. 1.0 d. 0.10
131. Which theory is most acceptable theory for stomatal movement-
a. Active potassium (K+) and hydrogen (H+)
b. Transpiration pull & cohesion force theory
c. Mass flow hypothesis
d. Passive potassium (K+) and hydrogen (H+)
132. Plant hormone which helps in closing of stomata is-
a. GA3 b. Auxin
c. Cytokinin d. ABA
133. Effect of low temperature on the initiation and development of
flower called-
a. Cryopreservation b. Photoperiodism
c. Vernalization d. Anthesis
134. World environment day is celebrated on-
a. Jul-11 b. May-22
c. Mar-21 d. Jun-22
135. Economics is a-
a. Greek word b. Latin word
c. Arabic word d. French word
136. Young ones of tiger is called-
a. Calf b. Fawn
c. Cub d. Lamb
137. Group of camel is called-
a. Herd b. Flock
c. Caravan d. Pride
138. Young ones of rhinoceros is called-
a. Calf b. Fawn
c. Cub d. Lamb
139. Meat of cattle is called-
a. Chevon b. Mutton
c. Beef d. Venison
Answers
130. b 131. a 132. d 133. c 134. a 135. a
136. c 137. c 138. a 139. c
 Memory based NET Paper 2014 t 393

140. Headquarter of WTO is situated in-

a. Washington b. New Delhi
c. Geneva d. Morgis
141. WWF was established in the year-
a. 1875 b. 1938
c. 1961 d. 1985
142. Headquarter of WWF is situated in-
a. Dehra Dun b. New Delhi
c. Nairobi d. Gland
143. FCI was established in the year-
a. 1875 b. 1964
c. 1982 d. 1985
144. Upward movement of water against the gravitational force upto top
parts of the plants-
a. Guttation b. Transpiration
c. Evaporation d. Ascent of sap
145. Relay pump theory was proposed by-
a. Priestley b. Dixon & Jolley
c. J.C. Bose d. Godlewski
146. Which is/are the example of C4- plants-
a. Sugarcane b. Maize
c. Amaranthus d. Both a and b
147. Translocation of food mainly occurs in the form of-
a. Glucose b. Mannose
c. Sucrose d. Maltose
148. Pulsation theory was proposed by-
a. Priestley b. Boehm
c. J.C. Bose d. Godlewski
149. Loss of water in the form of vapour, from the aerial parts of living
plants is known as-
a. Guttation b. Transpiration
c. Evaporation d. Ascent of sap
150. Root pressure theory was proposed by-
a. Priestley b. Boehm
c. J.C. Bose d. Godlewski

Answers
140. c 141. c 142. d 143. b 144. d 145. d
146. d147. c 148. c 149. b 150. a
 Memory based SRF Paper 2014 t 395

Chapter 23

Memory based
SRF Paper 2014

1. Term foris is derived from-

a. Greek word b. Latin word
c. English word d. French word
2. State having highest forest cover as % of its geographical area-
a. Mizoram b. Uttarakhand
c. Madhya Pradesh d. Assam
3. Currently Mangrove cover in India is-
a. 1740 km² b. 2740 km²
c. 3740 km² d. 4740 km²
4. The total carbon stock in the country’s forest is around 7, 044 million
tonnes.
a. 4, 044 mil tonnes b. 5, 044 mil tonnes
c. 7, 044 mil tonnes d. 9, 044 mil tonnes
5. Center for Tropical Forest Science is located in-
a. Morgis b. Geneva
c. Glans d. Panama
6. Central Drug Research Institute is located in-
a. New Delhi b. Dehra Dun
c. Kolkata d. Lucknow
7. Centre for Forest-based Livelihoods and Extension is situated in-
a. Morgis b. Geneva
c. Glans d. Agartala
Answers
1. b 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. d 6. d
7. d
396 t Universal Objective Forestry

8. Centre for Social Forestry and Eco-Rehabilitation is located in-

a. Jaipur b. Allahabad
c. New Delhi d. Bombay
9. Indian Grassland and fodder research institute (IGFRI) located in-
a. Uttar Pradesh b. Rajasthan
c. Odisha d. Kerala
10. Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM) is located in-
a. Aizawl b. Bhopal
c. Kerala d. New Delhi
11. Indian Institute of Plantation Management (IIPM) is situated-
a. New Delhi b. Kolkata
c. Mumbai d. Bangalore
12. Headquarter of CITES is situated in-
a. Geneva b. Rome
c. Washington d. Switzerland
13. Headquarter of IUCN is situated in-
a. America b. Rome
c. Washington d. Switzerland
14. Indian forest service was started in the year-
a. 1893 b. 1948
c. 1966 d. 1983
15. International day of forest is celebrated on-
a. Mar-02 b. Mar-03
c. Mar-21 d. Apr-22
16. Which chapter of Indian Forest Act (IFA-1927) deals with village
forests-
a. Chapter i b. Chapter ii
c. Chapter iii d. Chapter iv
17. Rainbow revolution is related with-
a. Onion production b. Potato production
c. Rice and wheat production d. All sector of agriculture
18. ICRAF was established in the year-
a. 1875 b. 1956
c. 1961 d. 1977
Answers
8. b 9. a 10. b 11. d 12. c 13. d
14. c 15. c 16. c 17. d 18. d
 Memory based SRF Paper 2014 t 397

19. Forest flame tree is botanically know as-

a. Ceiba patendra b. Butea monosperma
c. Bauhania variegata d. Ashoka indica
20. Red cedar botanically know as-
a. Toona ciliata b. Cupresses torulosa
c. Dalbergia latifolia d. Cassia fistlua
21. Mysoore gum belong to family-
a. Myrtaceae b. Iridaceae
c. Ebenaceae d. Bixaceae
22. Study of the relationship of the group of the different species with
their environment called-
a. Synecology b. Morphology
c. Ecology d. Autecology
23. The species which have great influence on the community’s
characteristics relative to their low abundance and biomass are called-
a. key stone species b. Dominant species
c. Apex species d. None
24. Under unfavourable conditions many zooplankton species in lakes
and ponds are known to enter –
a. Mitigation b. Hibernation
c. Aestivation d. Diapause
25. Association between two organism, when one behave as master and
another as slave called-
a. Commensalism b. Symbiosis
c. Mutualism d. Helotism
26. Succession in acidic water-
a. Hydrosere b. Halosere
c. Oxalosere d. Xerosere
27. Total stem parasite-
a. Viscum b. Rafflesia
c. Cuscuta d. Santalum

Answers
19. b 20. a 21. a 22. a 23. a 24. d
25. d 26. c 27. c
398 t Universal Objective Forestry

28. Organism who are obtained their food directly from producers or
plants-
a. Primary consumer b. Secondary consumer
c. Tertiary consumer d. Top consumer
29. Total amount of living organic matter present in particular area in
particular time in an ecosystem is known as-
a. Standing form b. Standing state
c. Standing crop d. standing matter
30. The total amount of energy fixed in an ecosystem in unit time
including the organic matter used up in respiration during the
measurement is called-
a. Primary productivity b. Secondary Productivity
c. Net Primary Productivity d. Gross Primary Productivity
31. The pH of acid rain water is lesser than-
a. 5.6 b. 7.0
c. 8.6 d. 6.6
32. Pampas grassland found in-
a. North America b. South America
c. Europe and Asia d. New Zealand
33. India’s first forest policy was enunciated in
a. 1894 b. 1952
c. 1988 d. 2011
34. Which is the unit of forest management-
a. Coupe b. Beat
c. Working plan d. Working circle
35. A forest area forming the whole or part of a Working circle for
distribute felling and regeneration to maintain or create a normal
distribution of age-classes is called-
a. Felling cycle b. Regeneration cycle
c. Felling Series d. Seeding felling
36. Third World Forestry Conference was held in 1948-
a. New Delhi b. Helsinki
c. Brazil d. Geneva

Answers
28. a 29. c 30. d 31. a 32. b 33. a
34. c 35. c 36. b
 Memory based SRF Paper 2014 t 399

37. Rotation which is applicable in case of protection and amenity forest,

park lands, roadside avenues-
a. Silviculture rotation b. Technical rotation
c. Physical rotation d. Financial rotation
38. Soil Expectation Value (Se) is-
a. Se = x/0.0k b. Se = x/0.0h
c. Se = x/0.0d d. Se = x/0.0p
39. Conversion period is usually-
a. More than rotation
b. Less than rotation period
c. Equal to rotation
d. Always greater than rotation period
40. In the beginning M.A.I keeps below-
a. C.A.I. b. P. A. I.
c. C.I. d. All of the above
41. Mean annual increment of Indian forest is-
a. 0.5-0.7 m3/ha b. 1.0-1.9 m3/ha
c. 0.6-0.8 m3/ha d. 0.7-0.9 m3/ha
42. Judeich’s Stand Selection Method for yield regulation in regular
forest is based on-
a. Volume b. Area and Increment
c. Volume and Increment d. Area and volume
43. Von Mental’s Formula (based on volume) for the determination of
annual yield is-
N .G.S N .G . S
a. Ya = b. Ya =
r 2r

2 N .G.S 2 N .G.S
c. Ya = d. Ya =
r 4r
44. Which scale is used for management map in India-
a. 1 : 5000 b. 1 : 15000
c. 1 : 50000 d. 1 : 40000

Answers
37. c 38. d 39. b 40. a 41. d 42. d
43. c 44. c
400 t Universal Objective Forestry

45. Colour of littoral & swamp forest group on the forest type map
shows-
a. Purple b. Green
c. Red d. Prussian blue
46. Smythies’ Safe-guarding formula is also known as U.P Safe-guarding
formula, It was formed mainly for sal forest in U.P. is-
t f
a.=X ( II + Z % II ) b.= X ( II × Z % II )
f t

t f
c. X = ( II – Z % II ) d. X = ( II – Z % II )
f t
47. Formula of Duchafour’s Crown Cover which is used to calculate the
modified or reduced area (C) is given below-
a. C = K2g2n2 b. C = Kg2n2
c. C = K gn
2 2
d. C = K2g2n
48. Rewa national park in Madhya Pradesh is famous for the-
a. White tiger b. Tigers
c. Asiatic Lion d. Chinkara
49. India’s first and only butterfly park was established in 1992-
a. Gujarat b. Kerala
c. Uttarakhand d. Sikkim
50. The species which are in danger of extinction and whose survival is
unlikely if the causal factors continue to be operating called-
a. Endangered species b. Extinct species
c. Threatened species d. Rare species
51. World Wildlife Day is celebrated on-
a. 21 March b. 3 March
c. 21 May d. 8 October
52. Width of the saw cut is called-
a. Gauge b. Gullet
c. Kerf d. Pitch

Answers
45. d 46. d 47. d 48. a 49. d 50. a
51. b 52. c
 Memory based SRF Paper 2014 t 401

53. The felling cut is made exactly opposite to the-

a. Undercut about 10 to 15 cm above the undercut
b. Undercut about 20 to 25 cm above the undercut
c. Undercut about 15 to 25 cm above the undercut
d. Undercut about 10 to 20 cm above the undercut
54. Standard sleeper size of Metre Gauge is-
a. 275 cm × 26 cm × 13 cm b. 183 cm × 21 cm × 12 cm
c. 153 cm × 18 cm × 12 cm d. 153 cm × 16 cm × 11 cm
55. Wooden slabs having maximum thickness 5 cm is called-
a. Hakries b. Squares
c. Scantlings d. Planks
56. Katha yield from modified method by weight of wood is-
a. 1-2% b. 2-3%
c. 3-4% d. 4-5%
57. Isolation of cellulosic fibres from raw materials is called-
a. Pulping b. Cleaning
c. Bleaching d. Sock reparation
58. The process of addition of non-fibrous mineral matters to improve
the dimensional stability as well as brightness of paper is called-
a. Beating b. Sizing
c. Bleaching d. Loading
59. Which agent is used as cooking agent in acidic process-
a. Calcium sulphate + SO3 b. Calcium bisulphate + SO2
c. Calcium bicarbonate + SO2 d. Calcium carbonate + SO3
60. The only species regularly tapped for resin in India is-
a. Pinus wallichiana b. Pinus roxburghii
c. Pinus resiana d. Pinus kesiya
61. Stem fibre is not obtained from which species-
a. Sterculia villosa b. Grewia tiliaefolia
c. Hardwickia binata d. Musa textilis
62. Elephant harness rope is made from the fibre of which species-
a. Sterculia villosa b. Grewia tiliaefolia
c. Hardwickia binata d. Bauhinia vahlii
Answers
53. a 54. b 55. d 56. c 57. a 58. d
59. b 60. b 61. d 62. a
402 t Universal Objective Forestry

63. Palmrosa oil is obtained from which species-

a. Cymbopogon martini b. Cymbopogon Flexosus
c. Cymbopogon nardus d. Cymbopogon nardus
64. Wintergreen oil is obtained from which species-
a. Cinnamomum cardamomum
b. Mentha arvensis
c. Gaultheria fragrantissima
d. Cinnamomum camphora
65. Phulwara Butter is obtained from which species-
a. Aleurites fordii b. Azadirachta indica
c. Madhuca butyracea d. Garcinia indica
66. Kamela dye is obtained from which species-
a. Bixa orellana b. Nyctanthes arbortristis
c. Mallotus philippensis d. Caesalpinia sappan
67. Jhingan gum is obtained from which species-
a. Lannea coromandelica b. Moringa pterygosperma
c. Anogeissus latifolia d. Bauhinia retusa
68. Calorific value (gram calorie or calories) of deodar wood and babul
wood are respectively-
a. 4070 and 5094 b. 5294 and 4870
c. 4950 and 4948 d. 5264 and 4939
69. Which defect is/are the example of rupture of tissue-
a. Burr b. Interior bark growth
c. Checks d. Constriction due to climber
70. A complex knot formed at the point where dormant bud shows
abnormal growth without developed into branches resulting
formation of concentrated mass around bud called-
a. Burr b. Pith flecks
c. Checks d. Split
71. Woods which require protection against rapid seasoning otherwise
it will cause defects-
a. Highly refractory wood b. Moderately refractory wood
c. Non refractory wood d. Refractory wood

Answers
63. a 64. c 65. c 66. c 67. a 68. b
69. c 70. a 71. a
 Memory based SRF Paper 2014 t 403

72. Which method is suitable for preservation of dry as well as green

woods-
a. Soaking method b. Heating and cooling method
c. Sap displacement method d. Steeping method
73. Full cell process of wood preservation is applied at a pressure-
a. 1.50 to 10 kg/cm2 b. 2.50 to 15 kg/cm2
c. 3.50 to 12 kg/cm 2
d. 5.0 to 10 kg/cm2
74. Formation of whole individual from a single cell called-
a. Regeneration b. Vegetation
c. Totipotency d. All of the above
75. Alburnum and duramen respectively also known as-
a. Heartwood and Sapwood b. Sapwood and heartwood
c. Soft wood and hardwood d. Hardwood and softwood
76. In India Breast-Height is taken as above the ground level -
a. 1.30 m b. 1.37 cm
c. 1.30 cm d. 1.37 m
77. Which is used to measure stem diameter accurately at any point on
the tree stem from any convenient distance-
a. Clinometer b. Spiegel Relaskop
c. Wheeler Penta Prism d. Digital calliper
78. Height measuring instrument which are based on trigonometric
principle are-
a. Brandis Hypsometer
b. Abney’s level
c. Blume-Leiss Hypsometer
d. All of the above
79. Breast-height form factor also known as-
a. Artificial form factor b. Absolute form factor
c. Normal form factor d. True form factor
80. The ratio between the mid-diameter and d.b.h. is known as-
a. Form factor b. Form quotient
c. Form height d. Form coefficient

Answers
72. a 73. c 74. d 75. b 76. d 77. c
78. d 79. a 80. b
404 t Universal Objective Forestry

81. Newton’s formula for calculation volume of the logs is-

s1 – s2
a. ×l b. Sm × l
2
c. ( s1 + 4Sm + s2 ) × 6 d. s1 + s2 × l
6 2
82. In India volumes of logs are calculated by using-
a. Half girth formula b. Quarter girth formula
c. Newton formula d. Smalian formula
83. Quarter girth formula gives how much percent of the true volume-
a. 75% b. 75.8%
c. 78.5% d. 85%
84. Local volume table is/are based on which variables-
a. Area b. Height
c. Diameter d. Form
85. Term ecosystem was given by-
a. Haeckel b. Odum
c. Reiter d. Tansley
86. Pressler’s formula for volume increment percent is-
100( D – d ) (V + v) 200( D + d ) (V – v)
a. p
= × = b. p ×
n n(V – v) n n(V + v)

200( D – d ) (V – v ) 400( D – d ) (V + v)
=c. p × = d. p ×
n n(V + v ) n n(V – v)
87. Compound interest formula for diameter increment percent is-

 D 1/ n   D 1/ n 
=a. P 100   + 1 b. P = 200   – 1
 d    d  
 D 1/ n   D 1/ n 
c. P = 100   – 1 d. P = 200   – 1
 d    d  
88. A sampling in which sampling units are selected in such a manner
that all possible units of the same size have equal chance of being
chosen is called-
a. Random sampling b. Point sampling
c. Non- random sampling d. Partial sampling
Answers
81. c 82. b 83. b 84. c 85. d 86. c
87. c 88. a
 Memory based SRF Paper 2014 t 405

89. The number of trees counted by horizontal point sampling and

multiplied by a constant factor gives-
a. Basal area per hectare (BA/ha)
b. Number of trees per hectare
c. Diameter per hectare
d. Tree height per hectare
90. The ratio between the tree basal area & area of circular plot is-
a. 5k2/2 b. 2k2/7
c. 3k /4
2
d. k2/4
91. Which bands is/are not used in spiegel relaskop-
a. Band 1 b. Band 2
c. Band 3 d. Band 4
92. The ratio between the volume of a tree to the product of basal area
and height is called-
a. Form height b. Form quotient
c. Form value d. Form factor
93. Buffalo grass or paragrass is botanically known as-
a. Brachiaria mutica b. Cenchrus ciliaris
c. Sehima nervosum d. Panicum maximum
94. Who has submitted his report on “Improvement of Indian Agriculture”
in 1893-
a. Dr. Swaminathan b. Dr. B.P Pal
c. Dr. Voelcker d. Dr. N. E. Barlog
95. Which forest fire most commonly occurs in plains-
a. Ground fire b. Surface fire
c. Crown fire d. Creeping fire
96. Which is teak defoliator-
a. Hyblaea tectonae b. Hyblaea puera
c. Plecoptera reflexa d. Tonica niviferana
97. Which is deodar defoliator-
a. Hyblaea cedrae b. Hyblaea puera
c. Plecoptera reflexa d. Ectropis deodarae

Answers
89. a 90. d 91. c 92. d 93. a 94. c
95. b 96. b 97. d
406 t Universal Objective Forestry

98. A forest which is regenerated from vegetative parts of tree either

naturally or artificially is called as-
a. Production forest b. Coppice forest
c. Pollard forest d. High forest
99. An area with complete protection, constituted according to chapter
Ⅱ of Indian forest Act-1927 is called as-
a. Reserved forest b. Protected forest
c. Village forest d. Protection forest
100. The foundation of scientific forestry was laid during the year-
a. 1825 b. 1847
c. 1856 d. 1864
101. Who is the first Inspector General (IGF) of Indian forest-
a. L. S. Khanna b. Dr. Dietrich Brandis
c. Dr. Dietrich Hokip d. Ram Prakash
102. A day in which 2.5 mm or more rain falls called-
a. Rainy day b. Dry day
c. Wet day d. All of the above
103. Which is/are light demander species-
a. Dipterocarpus b. Calophylum
c. Shorea d. All of the above
104. CVP index was given by-Paterson-
a. Dietrich Brandis b. Backer
c. Paterson d. Bruce Zobel
105. Accumulation of heavy cold air into natural depression is called-
a. Radiation frost b. Pool frost
c. Advective frost d. Ground frost
106. When a stem shows irregular involution and swellings called-
a. Forking b. Buttressing
c. Fluting d. Canker
107. Lantana camera is a notorious weed controlled by-
a. Orthezia insignis b. Sporobolus tecti
c. Pasturella conyza d. Bacillus lantanae
108. Which is/are drought hardy species-
a. Acacia nilotica b. Acacia catechu
c. Madhuca indica d. Toona ciliata
Answers
98. b 99. a 100. d 101. b 102. a 103. d
104. c 105. b 106. c 107. a 108. a
 Memory based SRF Paper 2014 t 407

109. Which is/are moderately drought hardy species-

a. Acacia nilotica b. Acacia catechu
c. Madhuca indica d. Toona ciliata
110. Ordinary thinning also called-
a. German thinning b. Low thinning
c. Thinning from the below d. All of the above
111. Which is/are a non coppicer-
a. Butea monosperma b. Hardwickia binata
c. Bombax ceiba d. Picea smithiana
112. The percentage of seed in a sample that have germinated in a test
upto the time when the rate of germination reaches its peak is called-
a. Germination energy b. Germination potential
c. Germinative capacity d. Germination
113. Which formula is used to calculate number of plant (N) in line
planting plantation-
100 × 100
a. N =
distance of plants in lines (X) × distance between the lines (Y)

100 × 100
b. N =
Square of planting distance (X)
100 × 100 × 1.155
c. N =
Square of planting distance (X)

2 × 100 × 100
d. N =
Square of planting distance (X)
114. Master seed year in Shorea robusta-
a. 3-5 year b. 4-5 year
c. 7-8 year d. 5 year
115. Time of flowering and seed collection in Casuarina equisetifolia
respectively-
a. August-September and Jan-February
b. Jan-March and April-May
c. May and June-December
d. Feb-April and May-June
Answers
109. b 110. d 111. d 112. a 113. a 114. a
115. c
408 t Universal Objective Forestry

116. Which is/are frost tender species-

a. Bombax ceiba b. Dalbergia sissoo
c. Schleichera oleosa d. Diospyros melanoxylon
117. First agroforestry seminar in India was organised at-
a. Imphal b. Pantanagar
c. New Delhi d. Gujarat
118. The process of taking nutrients from deeper soil profile and
depositing them on the surface layer is referred-
a. Leaching b. Nutrient immobilization
c. Nutrient pumping d. Mineralization
119. Spacing between trees within rows in alley cropping-
a. 0.25-2.0 meter b. 0.5-2.0 meter
c. 1-2.0 meter d. 1.5-2.5 meter
120. A typical shelter belt has a shape-
a. Quadrangles shape b. Triangular shape
c. Square shape d. Rectangular shape
121. Home garden is most commonly practiced in which region-
a. Temperate b. Humid tropical
c. Tropical d. Arid
122. Which is/are a common example of the zonal pattern-
a. Home garden b. Alley cropping
c. Kitchen garden d. Silvopastural system
123. Shifting cultivation is practised extensively in which region-
a. North-eastern b. Southern
c. Western d. Northern
124. Shifting cultivation in Philippines is known as-
a. Karen b. Ray
c. Hanumo d. Chena
125. Joint forest management (JFM) was firstly started in which state-
a. Odisha b. Rajasthan
c. West Bengal d. Gujarat
126. Segment of DNA which moves from one chromosome to another
chromosome within the genome of an individual called-
a. Royal gene b. Jumping gene
c. Transgene d. Operator gene
Answers
116. a 117. a 118. c 119. a 120. b 121. b
122. b 123. a 124. c 125. c 126. b
 Memory based SRF Paper 2014 t 409

127. Knife of DNA is-

a. Exonuclease b. Endonuclease
c. RNA polymerase d. Both b and c
128. The difference between the mean of the selected individuals (Xs) and
the population mean (X) is called-
a. Selection differential b. Genetic gain
c. Gene load d. Heritability
129. The selection procedure that involves many cycles of selection and
breeding is known as-
a. Mass selection b. Current selection
c. Recurrent selection d. Progeny selection
130. Foundation seed is the progeny of-
a. Nucleus seed b. Breeder seed
c. Foundation seed d. Registered seed
131. Tag colour of breeder seed is-
a. Yellow b. White
c. Purple d. Green
132. Montmorillonite is an example of-
a. 2:1 non-expanding types b. 2:1 expanding types
c. 1:1 expanding types d. 1:2 expanding types
133. Land capability soil class suitable for wildlife & watershed-
a. Class Ⅳ b. Class Ⅵ
c. Class Ⅶ d. Class Ⅷ
134. T and V programme was introduced in the year-
a. 1943 b. 1974
c. 1986 d. 2002
135. Lab to Land programme was started by ICAR on-
a. Silver jubilee b. Golden jubilee
c. Diamond jubilee d. Platinum jubilee
136. Panchayati Raj was first started in-
a. Bihar b. Rajasthan
c. Pantanagar d. Pondicherry

Answers
127. b 128. a 129. c 130. b 131. a 132. b
133. d 134. b 135. a 136. b
410 t Universal Objective Forestry

137. z-test is applicable when the sample size is/are-

a. ≥ 50 b. > 30
c. < 50 d. < 30
138. Degree of freedom is-
a. (n + k) b. (n – k)
c. (n/k) d. (n × k)
139. The ranges of t-test lies between-
a. –1 to +1 b. 0 to 1
c. –∞ to +∞ d. 0 to ∞
140. The ranges of probability lies between-
a. –1 to +1 b. 0 to 1
c. –∞ to +∞ d. 0 to ∞
141. Plant hormone which helps in closing of stomata is-
a. GA3 b. Auxin
c. Cytokinin d. ABA
142. Effect of low temperature on the initiation and development of
flower called-
a. Cryopreservation b. Photoperiodism
c. Vernalization d. Anthesis
143. First carboxylation in C4-cycle occurs by-
a. PGA b. RNA polymerase
c. Rubisco d. PEP case
144. Concept of photorespiration was given by -
a. Decker & Tio b. Calvin & Benson
c. Haberlandt d. Emerson & Arnold
145. Which is/are micronutrients-
a. Ca b. Mg
c. Zn d. P
146. Which is natural auxin hormone-
a. NAA b. IBA
c. IAA d. IPA

Answers
137. b 138. b 139. c 140. b 141. d 142. c
143. d 144. a 145. c 146. c
 UPPSC ACF Examination 2015 t 411

Chapter 24

UPPSC ACF
Examination 2015

1. Who was the ruler of Vatsa during the time of Buddha-

a. Bodhi b. Udayana
c. Satanika d. Nichakshu
2. Which one countries has not yielded any Ashoka edict-
a. Afghanistan b. India
c. Sri Lanka d. Pakistan
3. The first Gupta ruler to isssue silver coins was-
a. Chandragupta Ⅰ b. Samundragupta
c. Chandragupta Ⅱ d. Kumargupta Ⅰ
4. Who was the founder of Vikramshila monastery-
a. Gopal b. Devpal
c. Mahipal d. Dharampal
5. In Vedic times the basis of untouchability was-
a. Impurity b. Occupation
c. Poverty d. None
6. Who has written Taj-ul-Maasir-
a. Isami b. Hasan Nizami
c. Al-Beruni d. Amir Khusrau
7. Who among the following Sultans renamed ‘Devagiri’ as ‘Qubbatul
Islam’-
a. Ala-ud-din Khalji b. Firoz Shah Tughluq
c. Mohd Bin Tughluq d. Abu Bakr Shah
Answers
1. a 2. a 3. c 4. d 5. b 6. b
7. c
412 t Universal Objective Forestry

8. Who among the following emperor called as ‘Qalander’-

a. Akbar b. Jahangir
c. Shah Jahan d. Babur
9. Who among the following was disciple of Baba Farid-
a. Shaikh Nazamuddin Auliya b. Amir Khusrau
c. Shaikh Salim Chisti d. None
10. Who among the following had annexed the independent kingdom of
Golkunda in the Mughal empire-
a. Akbar b. Jahangir
c. Aurangzeb d. Shah Jahan
11. Who is called ‘Parrot of India’-
a. Jaisi b. Amir Hasan
c. Faizi d. Amir Khusrau
12. Who is called ‘Shahe Bekhabar’-
a. Farrukhsiyar b. Jahandar
c. Muhammad Shah d. Bahadur Shah
13. Who among the following sultans ordered that in his dominion
foreigners should be addressed as ‘aizza;-
a. Ala-ud-din Khalji b. Firoz Shah Tughluq
c. Mohd Bin Tughluq d. Ghiyas-ud-din
14. Who among the following sultans first introduced token currency in
India-
a. Iltutmish b. Mohd Bin Tughluq
c. Khizr Khan d. Bahlol Lodi
15. Who among the following sultans shifted the capital of the Sultanat
from Delhi to Agra-
a. Ibrahim Lodi b. Sher Shah
c. Sikander Lodi d. Akbar
16. The Bombay Plan prepared in post-independence period intended
to focus on-
a. Political development b. Social development
c. Educational development d. Economic development

Answers
8. d 9. a 10. c 11. d 12. c 13. b
14. b 15. c 16. b
 UPPSC ACF Examination 2015 t 413

17. Who among the following was the first Indian to go to jail for
performing his duty as a journalist-
a. Surendranath Banerjee b. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
c. Rashbehari Bose d. Pheroz Shah Mehta
18. Who among the following had declared that the real revolutionary
armies are in the villages and factories
a. Mahatma Gandhi b. Bhagat Singh
c. Karl Marx d. Jai Prakash Narayan
19. Who among the following was the first to bring a printing press in
India-
a. Dutch b. Briton
c. Portuguese d. French
20. During the early phase of resistance to British rule, the newspaper
Indian Mirror was edited by-
a. Bal Gangadhar Tilak b. Surendranath Banerjee
c. Manmohan Ghosh d. N.N Sen
21. Which one of the following river is known as Ganga of South-
a. Kaveri b. Tungabhadra
c. Krishna d. Godavari
22. Selvas in Brazil are-
a. Coffee producing areas b. Dense equatorial forest
c. Tropical grasslands d. High mountain pastures
23. Periyar wildlife sanctuary is located in-
a. Kerala b. Karnataka
c. Tamil Nadu d. Arunchal Pradesh
24. Which Sea is surrounded by three continents-
a. Red Sea b. Arabian Sea
c. Bering Sea d. Mediterranean Sea
25. Sun appear earliest in India-
a. Nagaland b. Mizoram
c. Assam d. Arunchal Pradesh
26. Which is caused by rotation of the earth-
a. Tides b. Day & Night
c. Change of season d. Eclipse

Answers
17. c 18. b 19. c 20. c 21. d 22. b
23. a 24. d 25. d 26. b
414 t Universal Objective Forestry

27. ‘Ring of fire’ is associated with the distribution of-

a. Volcanoes b. Warm sea currents
c. Petroleum d. Global warming
28. How many high pressure belts are found over the globe-
a. 5 b. 4
c. 3 d. 2
29. Cocoa triangle is located in-
a. Togo b. Ethiopia
c. Brazil d. Ghana
30. Golden triangle in south South-East Asia is known in the world for-
a. Oil seeds production b. Golden fleece production
c. Opium production d. Gold mining
31. The preamble of the Indian Constitution was amended in the year-
a. 1975 b. 1976
c. 1978 d. 1979
32. Articles of Indian Constitution is related to Indian Foreign Policy-
a. Article 51 b. Article 60
c. Article 50 d. Article 380
33. The minimum age of Indian voters was reduced from 21 to 18 years
in-
a. 62nd amendment b. 60th amendments
c. 52 amendments d. 61st amendments
34. Panchayati Raj is included in the-
a. Union list b. Concurrent list
c. State list d. Residuary list
35. Articles never implemented into action of Indian Constitution-
a. Article 356 b. Article 360
c. Article 352 d. Article 60
36. In which schedules of Indian Constitution anti defection law is
placed-
a. 10th b. 9th
c. 6th
d. None

Answers
27. a 28. d 29. d 30. c 31. b 32. d
33. d 34. c 35. b 36. a
 UPPSC ACF Examination 2015 t 415

37. Which can not be dissolved but can be abolished-

a. Lok Sabha b. Rajya Sabha
c. State Legislative Assembly d. State Legislative Council
38. The concept of concurrent list was borrowed from the Constitution
of-
a. USA b. UK
c. Australia d. Canada
39. How many cadre in the all India services-
a. 3 b. 4
c. 5 d. 6
40. Which word is not a part of Indian Constitution-
a. Democratic b. Political
c. Republic d. Socialist
41. Who is the Head of the executive-
a. Prime Minister b. President
c. Cabinet d. None
42. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of-
a. 4 years b. 5 years
c. 6 years d. 8 years
43. In India right to property was taken away by which one of the
constitutional amendments-
a. 43rd b. 44th
c. 49 th
d. None
44. Legislative powers of the Indian Union are vested in-
a. Parliament b. President
c. Prime minister d. Supreme court
45. The maximum gap between two successive Sessions of the Indian
Parliament can be-
a. 12 months b. 9 months
c. 6 months d. 4 months
46. The parliament of India consists of-
a. Both the House of Parliament
b. Lok Sabha only
c. Rajya Sabha only
d. President, Lok Sabha and Lok Sabha
Answers
37. d 38. c 39. a 40. b 41. a 42. c
43. b 44. a 45. c 46. d
416 t Universal Objective Forestry

47. Who among the following presides over the joint sitting of both the
Houses of the Parliament-
a. Speaker of Lok Sabha b. President
c. Vice President d. None
48. Schedule-xi of Indian Constitution deals with-
a. Municipality b. Panchayati Raj
c. Central State relation d. Anti-defection
49. Which part of Indian Constitution deals with the citizenship-
a. Part iv b. Part iii
c. Part ii d. Part i
50. Founder of ‘Swatantra Party’-
a. C. Rajagopalchari b. C. R. Das
c. K. M. Munshi d. K. Kamraj
51. Which country supported the membership of India in Nuclear
Suppliers Group-
a. China b. Brazil
c. Switzerland d. France
52. Brand ambassador of Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao scheme-
a. Aishwarya Bachchan b. Rekha
c. Madhuri Dixit d. Shabana Azmi
53. 2018 FIFA world cup will be held at-
a. Russia b. Qatar
c. France d. Netherlands
54. The lonely Planet group has given the ‘Best Indian Destination for
Wildlife’ award in May 2016-
a. Kerala tourism b. Madhya Pradesh tourism
c. Gujarat tourism d. Assam tourism
55. The female tribal of a district have first declared to impose social
boycott on those who cut trees-
a. Chhattisgarh b. Uttarakhand
c. Himanchal Pradesh d. Rajasthan
56. In whose memory a commemorative coin o Rs. 100 and a circulation
coin of Rs. 10 have been released by te union govt. in May 2016-
a. Dr. Ambedkar b. Swami Chinmayananda
c. Maharana Pratap d. Jamshedji Tata
Answers
47. a 48. b 49. c 50. a 51. a 52. c
53. a 54. b 55. c 56. c
 UPPSC ACF Examination 2015 t 417

57. ‘Swabhiman Yojna’ is related to-

a. Spreading rural banking
b. Women empowerment
c. Scheme of pension for landless
d. Adolescence girl education
58. The Govt. of India has banned which food additives in June 2016 as
the study reports found that its presence causes cancer-
a. Potasium chromate b. Potassium bromate
c. Potassium sulphate d. Potassium gluconate
59. Which state declared 35 per cent quota for females on non-gazetted
posts-
a. Jharkhand b. West Bengal
c. Bihar d. Maharashtra
60. Which state become first to provide free treatment to confirmed
cases of Hepatitis C-
a. Rajasthan b. Gujarat
c. Bihar d. Punjab
61. Global e-company, eBay has entered into an agreement with
Handloom Corporation with which state-
a. Rajasthan b. Gujarat
c. Haryana d. Uttar Pradesh
62. 2017 FIFA under-17 World cup will be held-
a. Spain b. India
c. Argentina d. Brazil
63. Which country receive maximum funds from India for promotion of
technical co-operation-
a. Nepal b. Afghanistan
c. Bhutan d. Bangladesh
64. Green Passage scheme for orphan students was released in May
2016 by the state-
a. Bihar b. Kerala
c. Madhya Pradesh d. Odisha

Answers
57. a 58. d 59. c 60. d 61. d 62. b
63. a 64. d
418 t Universal Objective Forestry

65. Theme of ‘International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit

Trafficking’ observed on the 26th June, 2016-
a. Drug-stop it b. Listen first
c. Save health-say no to drugs d. Let’s develop without Drugs
66. World longest and deepest rail tunnel has been officially opened in
June 2016-
a. Switzerland b. China
c. Japan d. Germany
67. First country in the world to ban deforestation-
a. New Zealand b. Germany
c. Norway d. Poland
68. Afghanistan-India Friendship Dam inaugurated in the June 2016 is
situated in which provenance of Afghanistan-
a. Helmand b. Herat
c. Farah d. Nimruz
69. According to ‘Good Country Index, 2015’ report released in June
2016, which among the following countries has got the highest
positions-
a. Iceland b. Netherlands
c. Ireland d. Sweden
70. China has recently launched its first ‘Dark Sky Reserve’ in which
area of Tibet-
a. Ngari Prefecture b. Lhasa
c. Shannam d. Ahasa
71. India Stonemart 2015 was organized in-
a. Hyderabad b. Mumbai
c. Jaipur d. Pune
72. According to WHO, first country to eliminate ‘Mother to Baby’ HIV-
a. Malaysia b. Thailand
c. South Korea d. Myanmar
73. Fat tax introducing state of India is-
a. Karnataka b. Tamil Nadu
c. Maharashtra d. Kerala

Answers
65. b 66. a 67. c 68. b 69. d 70. a
71. c 72. b 73. d
 UPPSC ACF Examination 2015 t 419

74. Which committee has submitted its reports on New Education Policy
on 27th May, 2016-
a. T.S.R Subramanian Committee
b. J. S. Rajput Committee
c. R. M. Lodha Committee
d. Ashok Dalwai Committee
75. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched-
a. Vinesh Phogat - Wrestling
b. Kothgai - Hockey
c. Vijendra Singh - Football
d. Pintala - Chess
76. ‘Nanga Parbat’ is located in-
a. Uttarakhand b. Himanchal Pradesh
c. Jammu & Kashmir d. Meghalaya
77. Which district have largest area in U.P-
a. Allahabad b. Lakhimpur Khiri
c. Lalitpur d. Sonbhadra
78. The longest river in the world-
a. Nile b. Amazon
c. Brahmaputra d. Mississippi
79. The longest mountain range in the world-
a. Himalayas b. Rocky
c. Alps d. Andes
80. Nasik is located along the river-
a. Narmada b. Penganga
c. Godavari d. Mahi
81. Wildlife Institute of India is located in-
a. Almora b. Dehra Dun
c. Bhopal d. Guwahati
82. Number of National Parks notified upto 2014 is-
a. 103 b. 98
c. 106 d. 94

Answers
74. a 75. c 76. c 77. b 78. a 79. d
80. c 81. b 82. c
420 t Universal Objective Forestry

83. Project tiger was launched in the year-

a. 1965 b. 1973
c. 1983 d. 1978
84. World wildlife day is observed on-
a. 3rd March b. 22nd March
c. 28 March
th
d. 7th April
85. Green revolution is related with-
a. Food grain b. Oil seeds
c. Fish d. Potato
86. Which one of the following States was not among the three new
States included in ‘National Dairy Plan (Plane Ⅰ)’ in June 2015-
a. Chhattisgarh b. Uttar Pradesh
c. Jharkhand d. Uttarakhand
87. Who among the following has won ‘Mr. World 2016’ crown at a
contest held in Great Britain on July 9, 2016-
a. Fernandez b. Aldo Esparza
c. Abrahim Alexander d. Rohit Khandelwal
88. The UP Govt. has celebrated 2015-2016 as which one of the
following-
a. Kisan Year
b. Yuva Year
c. Mahila Suraksha Year
d. Environmental Conservation Year
89. Which one of the following States had the highest production of
onion in India in the year 2015-16-
a. Gujarat b. Karnataka
c. Maharashtra d. West Bengal
90. The maximum speed of Talgo train run on 13th July, 2016-
a. 200 km/hr. b. 180 km/hr.
c. 150 km/hr. d. 120 km/hr.
91. The scientists of which one of the following countries have recently
claimed to discover a new state of matter ‘Jahn-Teller metal-
a. Germany b. China
c. USA d. Japan
Answers
83. b 84. a 85. a 86. b 87. d 88. a
89. c 90. b 91. d
 UPPSC ACF Examination 2015 t 421

92. Who among the following inaugurated ‘Rio 2016 Olympic Torch’
unveiling ceremony in the first week of July, 2015-
a. Dilma Rousseff b. Jaqueline Mourao
c. Carlos Arther Nuzman d. Beth Lula
93. The meeting of Inter-State Council held on 16th July, 2016 in New
Delhi was-
a. 9th b. 10th
c. 11 th
d. 12th
94. Recently a robot took life of a man, In which one of the following
countries this incident occurred-
a. Germany b. France
c. Japan d. USA
95. What was the theme of 6th Jagran Film Festival started on 1st July,
2015 at Siri Fort Auditorium, New Delhi-
a. Cinema for ‘Better India’ b. Cinema for ‘Happy Lives’
c. Promotion of ‘Art Film’ d. None
96. The largest uranium producing country of the world-
a. France b. China
c. USA d. Kazakhstan
97. The number of Islands in the South China Ocean is-
a. 350 b. 300
c. 250 d. 200
98. GAGAN system launched in July 2015 will facilitate-
a. Launching missiles b. Swift civil aviation
c. Guiding of submarines d. None
99. The advised to replacement of the word ‘Adhinayak’ by ‘Mangal’ in
the National song of India was given-
a. Smiriti Irani b. Sushma Swaraj
c. Kesari Nath Tripathi d. Kalyan Singh
100. The Islamic proclaimer associated with Islamic Research Foundation-
a. Zakir Naik b. Zahir Naik
c. Salman Naik d. None

Answers
92. a 93. c 94. a 95. b 96. d 97. c
98. b 99. d 100. a
422 t Universal Objective Forestry

101. The number of the member countries in the Nuclear Suppliers Group
till July, 2016-
a. 38 b. 48
c. 58 d. 68
102. CNG train was started for the first time in-
a. Madhya Pradesh b. Maharashtra
c. Rajasthan d. Haryana
103. Which Indian state declared ‘Blue Mormon’ as the state butterfly-
a. Uttarakhand b. Tamil Nadu
c. Maharashtra d. Gujarat
104. The Commonwealth Games 2018 will be held in-
a. Australia b. India
c. South Africa d. Pakistan
105. Artificial island in South China Ocean was buit by-
a. Japan b. China
c. Indonesia d. Malaysia
106. Which Chief Minister demanded scrapping of Governer’s post in the
Inter-state Council held on 16th July, 2016 in New Delhi-
a. Mamata Banerjee b. Harish Rawath
c. Akhilesh Yadav d. Nitish Kumar
107. The high speed Talgo train was run on 13th July, 2016 between-
a. Agra-Gwalior b. New Delhi-Rewari
c. Mathura-Palwal d. New Delhi-Mathura
108. The number of countries in European Union from which UK is
likely to be out is-
a. 28 b. 38
c. 18 d. 08
109. The Prime Minister of UK in July, 2016 after resignation of David
Cameron was-
a. Boris Johnson b. Theresa May
c. Priti Patel d. Dominic Raab
110. ‘Water is not any substance but it is a human rights’ has been said by-
a. Nitisk Kumar b. Manohar Lal Khattar
c. Arvind Kejriwal d. Mamata Banerjee

Answers
101. b 102. d 103. c 104. c 105. b 106. d
107. c 108. a 109. b 110. c
 UPPSC ACF Examination 2015 t 423

111. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched-

a. Decibel-unit of sound intensity
b. Horse power- unit of power
c. Nautical mile- Unit of Distance
d. Celsius- unit of heat
112. Kilowatt-hour is unit-
a. Mass b. time
c. Electrical energy d. Electric power
113. The objects are visible in light due to-
a. Scattering b. Refraction
c. Absorption d. Fluorescence
114. Rainbow is seen due to-
a. Interference by thin film b. Dispersion of sunlight
c. Scattering of sunlight d. Diffraction of sunlight
115. One gram of ice is kept with one gram of stream in a thermal chamber.
After thermal equilibrium, the temperature of this mixture will be-
a. 20 0C b. 50 0C
c. 80 0C d. 100 0C
116. A 100-watt bulb illuminates for eight hours daily. The electrical
energy consumed in the entire month of April will be-
a. 12 units b. 36 units
c. 24 units d. 48 units
117. A green-coloured glass plate when seen through red light appears-
a. Black b. Red
c. Green d. Blue
118. A massless rubber ballon is filled with 200 gram water. Its weight in
water will be-
a. 100 grams b. zero
c. 200 grams d. 400 grams
119. Which one of the following is not the unit of time-
a. Year b. Day
c. Light-year d. Hour

Answers
111. d 112. d 113. a 114. b 115. d 116. c
117. a 118. b 119. c
424 t Universal Objective Forestry

120. Which of the following substances is also called ‘liquid gold’-

a. Petroleum b. Platinum
c. Aqua regia d. Mercury
121. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched-
a. Chloromycetin- Antityphoid b. Crystal violet- Antiseptic
c. Quinine- Antimalarial d. Cinchonine- Anaesthetic
122. The light from the sun reaches the earth in about
a. 0.5 second b. 5 second
c. 50 second d. 500 second
123. German silver is an alloy of-
a. Copper, zinc and nickel b. Zinc, nickel and cobalt
c. Nickel, cobalt and copper d. Silver, zinc and copper
124. Which one of the following compounds is known as gammexane-
a. Trinitrobenzene b. Trinitrotoluene
c. Benzene hexachloride d. Benzene hexabromide
125. Which one of the following gases absorbs ultraviolet radiation-
a. Oxygen b. Ozone
c. Argon d. Sulphur dioxide
126. Which one of the following compounds is called ‘Chinese white’-
a. Lead oxide b. Mercuric oxide
c. Lead peroxide d. Zinc oxide
127. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched-
a. Vitamin A- colour blindness
b. VitaminB1- beriberi
c. VitaminB12- anemia
d. Vitamin-C- scurvy
128. Which one among the following substances is sweetest-
a. Sucronic acid b. Sucralose
c. Saccharin d. Aspartame
129. Lead pencil contains-
a. Lead (Pb) b. Graphite
c. Iron sulphide d. Lead sulphide

Answers
120. a 121. d 122. d 123. a 124. c 125. b
126. d 127. a 128. a 129. b
 UPPSC ACF Examination 2015 t 425

130. Baking soda is the commercial name of-

a. Sodium carbonate b. Sodium borate
c. Sodium bicarbonate d. Sodium thiosulphate
131. CO2 is transported in the human blood as-
a. Carbonic acid b. Sodium carbonate
c. Sodium bicarbonate d. Potassium carbonate
132. In human body, urea is synthesized in-
a. Liver b. Kidney
c. Uninary bladder d. Spleen
133. Which statement is true about bile juice-
a. Synthesized in the bile juice
b. Contains salts which emulsify fats
c. Contains enzymes which digest fats
d. Acidic in nature
134. The main nitrogenous excretory product of human is-
a. Ammonia b. Uric acid
c. Guanine d. Urea
135. Which one of the following is not an essential fatty acids-
a. Linolenic acid b. Linoleic acid
c. Stearic acid d. Arachidonic acid
136. During respiration, the conc. Of which one of the following gases
remains unchanged in the inspired and expired air-
a. N2 b. O2
c. CO2 d. None
137. Human teeth appears only in permanent dentition-
a. Incisor b. Molar
c. Canine d. Premolar
138. Bird produces milk is-
a. Sparrow b. Dove
c. Crow d. Pigeon
139. The fastest running bird is-
a. Kiwi b. Emu
c. Ostrich d. Cassowary
Answers
130. c 131. c 132. a 133. b 134. d 135. d
136. a 137. b 138. d 139. b
426 t Universal Objective Forestry

140. Albinism is characterized by the complete absence of which of the

following-
a. Melanin b. Albumin
c. Cholesterol d. Bilirubin
141. Chilgoza is obtained from-
a. Taxus baccata b. Cedrus deodara
c. Cycas revoluta d. Pinus gerardiana
142. Which is used for manuring rice field-
a. Pteris b. Azolla
c. Seleginella d. Equisetum
143. Most poisonous fungi-
a. Agaricus bisporus b. A. campestris
c. Amantia phalloides d. Podaxon podaxis
144. Binomial system of nomenclature was given by-
a. C. Linnaeus b. A. P. Candolle
c. Darwin d. Mendel
145. Which is not a modified root-
a. Carrot b. Potato
c. Asparagus d. Sweet potato
146. Intraxylary phloem is found in-
a. Achyranthes b. Boerhavvia
c. Dracaena d. Strychnos
147. Which does not fix nitrogen-
a. Rhizobium b. Cyanobacteria
c. Mycorrhiza d. Frankia
148. C4- cycle was first reported in-
a. Maize b. Sugarcane
c. Wheat d. Carrot
149. Pyramid of energy in an ecosystem is always-
a. Inverted b. Spindle shape
c. Curved d. Upright
150. The initiation codon in protein synthesis is-
a. AUG b. GUA
c. GCA d. CCA

Answers
140. a 141. d 142. b 143. c 144. a 145. b
146. c 147. c 148. a 149. d 150. a
 Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education t 427

INDIAN COUNCIL OF FORESTRY

RESEARCH AND EDUCATION
POST: SCIENTIST-B (FORESTRY)

1. 2Gs/r formula for yield regulation proposed by

a. Masson b. Von mantel
c. Howard d. Simmon
2. Growing Grasses in rotation with field crops
a. Dry farming b. Contour farming
c. Lay farming d. Relay cropping
3. Growth rings are formed by activities of
a. Xylem b. Cambium
c. Xylem & Phloem d. Phloem
4. In the Raunkier’s life forms trees are categorized under
a. Chamaephytes b. Phanerophytes
c. Hemicryptophytes d. Cryptophytes
5. A simple mechanical tissue devoid of lignin is
a. Collenchyma b. Sclerenchyma
c. Parenchyma d. None of these
6. A Distinct and unique forest type found in carnatic coast from
Tirunelveli to Nellore
a. Tropical dry evergreen forest
b. Littoral and swamp forest
c. Red sanders beuring forest
d. Southern tropical semi evergreen
7. State which statement is correct
a. The rate of nutrient cycling is high in coniferous forests
b. Nutrient cycling is low in northern latitude compared to tropical region
c. Nutrient cycling between regions are same
d. No difference in nutrient cycling between Silvicultural system
Answers
1. b 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. c 6. a
7. b
428 t Universal Objective Forestry

8. Sclerophyllus natural vegetation is found in

a. Tundra regions b. Equatorial regions
c. Monsoon regions d. Mediterranean regions
9. Gugul is obtained from
a. Pinus kesiya b. Kingliodendron pinnatum
c. Dipterocarpus turbinatus d. Boswellia serrate
10. Concept of progressive yield attributable to
a. Von montel b. Brandis
c. Smith d. Harting
11. Shingles are called as
a. Bobbin b. Sleepers
c. Wood tiles d. Picker arms
12. Which is a population of individuals which has become adapted to
a specific environment in which it has been planted
a. Provenance b. Ecotype
c. Seed Source d. Land race
13. National Green Tribunal came into existence in the year
a. 2010 b. 2012
c. 2011 d. 2015
14. Class I Lands having slope of
a. Upto 8% b. 1-33 %
c. 33% to 100% d. 8% to 33%
15. Spike disease of Santalum album caused.
a. Mycoplasam like bodies b. Fusarium solani
c. Fomes badius d. Ganoderma lucidum
16. Gulatheria fragrantissima yields
a. Winter green oil b. Citriodra oil
c. Camphor oil d. Costus oil
17. The Colour of mammals and birds of warm region is darker than
those living in cold areas called as.
a. Gloger’s rule b. Jordan’s rule
c. Allen’s rule d. Bergmann’s rule

Answers
8. d 9. d 10. d 11. c 12. d 13. a
14. b 15. a 16. a 17. a
 Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education t 429

18. Protein banks are form of

a. Agri Silvicultural system b. Alley cropping
c. Agro Silvopastoral system d. Silvopastoral system
V − V 200
19. × V-V × 200 increment percent formula proposed by
V +V N
a. Pressler b. Schneider
c. Biolley d. Von mantel

20. Structural material resulting from glued lamination called as

a. Plywood b. Glulam
c. Core board d. Particle board
21. Method of yield regulation suitable for extensive tropical forests and
where selection fellings are the rule.
a. Volume unit method b. French method
c. Brandis method d. Hufnagl method
22. losoma beesoni used for control of
a. Defoliator of sal b. Defoliator of the toon
c. Defoliator of deodar d. Defoliator of shisham
23. Kokam butter obtained from
a. Madhuca indica b. Garcinia indica
c. Aleurites fordi d. Shorea robusta
24. One metric tonnes of Carbon equals the following metric tones of
CO2 equivalent?
a. 3.76 b. 3.06
c. 3.02 d. 3.66
25. The average growing stock in recorded forest area per hectare in
India is
a. 25.2 m3 b. 121.8 m3
c. 59.79 m 3
d. 95.4m3
26. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Rec-
ognition of Forest Rights) Act was enacted in
a. 2004 b. 2006
c. 2005 d. 2007

Answers
18. d 19. a 20. b 21. c 22. c 23. b
24. d 25. c 26. b
430 t Universal Objective Forestry

27. One of the following project does not require Environmental Impact
Assessment
a. Chemical fertilizer industry b. Nuclear Power Project
c. Petrolium refining industry d. Micro-hydel Projects
28. Institute of Wood Science and Technology located at
a. Mumbai b. Bengaluru
c. Itanagar d. Chennai
29. The Forest Conservation Act was enacted in the year
a. 1980 b. 1978
c. 1988 d. 2000
30. Chi square test was developed by
a. Fisher b. Mahalanobis
c. Galton d. Karl pearson
31. Agro-climatic zones of our country recognized by planning com-
mission of India are
a. 11 b. 13
c. 15 d. 17
32. Correlation coefficient ranges between
a. 0 to 1 b. –1 to +1
c. 1 to 0 d. 0 to –1
33. Normal distribution curve is exactly
a. Modal shape b. Sphere shape
c. Bell shape d. All of these
34. Asia’s first marine biosphere reserve is
a. Gulf of Kutch b. Gulf of Cambay
c. Sunderbans d. Gulf of Mannar
35. Method of handling of dormant seeds, in which the imbibed seeds
are subjected to a period of chilling after-ripen embryo is called as,
a. Scarification b. Caprification
c. Fructification d. Stratification
36. Which of these is a defoliator
a. Calandra glandium b. Eutectona machaeralis
c. Tonica niviferana d. Hyblaea puera
Answers
27. d 28. b 29. a 30. d 31. c 32. b
33. c 34. d 35. d 36. d
 Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education t 431

37. Resin canals located in plants fibro-vascular system is characteristic

feature of Anacardiacea family, which one of the following species
do not exhibit it
a. Pistachio vera b. Anacardium occidentale
c. Semecarpus anacardium d. Mangifera indica
38. A Sub-division of a felling series formed with the object of regulat-
ing felling in some special manner
a. Coupe b. Beat
c. Cutting section d. Block
39. State of Forest Report published by FSI, Dehradun is once in
a. Two years b. Three years
c. Annually d. Quinquennially
40. This deer species Endemic to Manipur
a. Dancing deer b. Mouse deer
c. Swamp deer d. Spotted deer
41. Largest area covered by this forest type in India
a. Tropical Dry Evergreen b. Tropical Wet Evergreen
c. Tropical dry Deciduous d. Tropical Moist Deciduous
42. Indicator plant for lime rich soils in the peninsular India
a. Ixora parviflora b. Acaia leucophloea
c. Chloroxylon swietenia d. Cupressus torulosa
43. A nail was driven into the trunk of a tree at a point 1.5 m from the
soil level. After 3 years, the nail will
a. Move up b. Move sideways
c. Remain where it was d. Move down
44. Cork cambium is also called as
a. Phelloderm b. Phellogen
c. Phellem d. Vascular cambium
45. Factor- product relationship is also known as
a. Law of equi-marginal returns
b. Least cost combination
c. Law of returns
d. All of these

Answers
37. a 38. c 39. a 40. a 41. c 42. a
43. c 44. c 45. a
432 t Universal Objective Forestry

46. Tyloses occur in

a. Heart wood b. Sap wood
c. Hard wood d. Soft wood
47. Incomplete designs refers to
a. Lattice design b. RBD
c. Latin square design d. Augmented design
48. Rhea fibre obtained form
a. Boehmeria nivea b. Calotropis gigantea
c. Sterculia villosa d. Cannabis sativa
49. Burrs of which species yields figured decorative wood
a. Walnut b. Siris
c. Laurel d. All of these
50. Disease free plants can be produced through
a. Meristem culture b. Callus culture
c. Protoplast culture d. Embryo culture
51. How many percent of the incoming solar radiation is reflected back
to atmosphere
a. 10 b. 46
c. 28 d. 42
52. If the level of contour lines increased from outer to inner portion, it
indicates
a. Close loop b. Valley
c. Saddle d. Hill
53. Development of an embryo from any cell of the gametophyte
other than egg cell called
a. Apogamy b. Parthenogenesis
c. Sporophytic budding d. Conjugation
54. Maximum net return is obtained when marginal cost (MC) is
the marginal return (MR)
a. Less than b. Equal to
c. More than d. All of these
55. Kranz type of anatomy is found in
a. C3 plants b. C4 plants
c. Both in C3 & C4 d. CAM Plants
Answers
46. a 47. a 48. a 49. d 50. A 51. d
52. d 53. a 54. b 55. b
 Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education t 433

56. Number of sample plots required for a Species in each thinning re-
gime to prepare a yield table
a. 400 b. 500
c. 600 d. 700
57. Ral, an oleoresin extracted from
a. Vateria indica b. Pinus roxburgii
c. Shorea robusta d. Pinus wallichiana
58. Which one of the following is a species of grasses suitable for soil
conservation of ravine lands and the land affected by shifting culti-
vation
a. Pennisetum polystachyon b. Cenchurus setigerus
c. Lasiurus sindicus d. Penicum antidotale
59. Good seed year of Cedrus deodara is
a. 10 years b. 1-2 years
c. 5-6 years d. 4-5 years
60. Indicator plant for favourable conditions for natural regeneration of
deodar and kail
a. Spirea sorbifolia b. Viola canescens
c. Narenga porphyrocoma d. Saccharum procerum
61. In regeneration survey, ‘U’ symbol represents
a. Establish regeneration
b. Sub-whippy seedlings whose height is less than 50 cm
c. Browsed Whippy
d. Unbrowsed
62. Whippy How many seedlings per acre will you need for planting
trees at a spacing of 9 feet x 9 feet ?
a. 81 b. 304
c. 436 d. 538
63. Which of the following is NOT true about the role forests play in
protecting water quality?
a. Filtering pollutants b. Shading water
c. Stabilizing banks d. Releasing nutrients

Answers
56. c 57. c 58. a 59. d 60. b 61. b
62. d 63. d
434 t Universal Objective Forestry

64. Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of inva-

sive plants?
a. High seed production and good ability of those seeds to germinate
b. Seed is dispersed by wind, water and/or animals over great dis-
tances
c. Predator avoidance and/or deterrence
d. Leaf out later in the spring and lose their leaves earlier in the fall
65. Which of the following factors does NOT have a significant effect
on the behavior of a forest fire?
a. Relative humidity b. Topography
c. Temperature d. Soil texture
66. Which term is used to define the capacity of a tree to develop and
grow in the shade while in competition with other trees?
a. Tracheids b. Reproduction
c. Toughness d. Tolerance
67. Competition for water, minerals, light and space is most severe be-
tween two
a. Closely related species occupying the same niche
b. Closely related species occupying different niche
c. Unrelated species occupying the same niche
d. Speciesoccupying different overlapping ecosystems
68. A habitat of long severe winters and growing season limited to a few
months of summer constitutes:
a. Savanah ecosystem b. Taiga ecosystem
c. Tundra ecosystem d. None of these
69. Which one of the following terms does not reflect the idea of eco-
system:
a. Holocene b. Cherposem
c. Biosystem d. Geobiocoenosis
70. Which of the following statement is NOT true about mangrove for-
ests?
a. They grow along thecoast especially in the river deltas
b. These plants are able to grow in a mix of saline and fresh water
c. They grow luxuriantly in muddy areas
d. All of these statements are false
Answers
64. d 65. d 66. d 67. a 68. b 69. b
70. d
 Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education t 435

71. According to State of Forest Report, 2017 published by Ministry of

Environment, Forest and Climate Change, the total forest cover in
India is around:
a. 33% b. 23%
c. 21% d. 28%
72. A tabulation of volume, basal area, number of trees, etc. per acre
found in full stands on specified sites at specified ages
a. consistence b. pole stand
c. yield table d. Site index
73. Harvesting or killing trees infected or highly susceptible to insects or
diseases to protect the rest of the forest stand.
a. sanitation cut b. consistence
c. site index d. selection thin
74. Which of the following species is endemic to India?
a. King Cobra b. Snow Leopard
c. Bonnet Macauque d. Great Hornbill
75. Which of the following protected areas comprises of montane
grasslands interspersed with forest patches called “Sholas”?
a. Kaziranga NP, Assam
b. Eravikulam NP, Kerala
c. Kedarnath WLS, Uttarakhand
d. Kanha NP, MP
76. Which among the following is the first widely used herbicide ?
a. 2,4-D b. TCDD
c. Limonene d. Vinegar
77. The study of the life history and general characteristics of forest tree,
with particular reference to environmental factors
a. Silvics b. Silviculture
c. Volume regulation d. Dendrology
78. India’s first National Centre for Marine Bio-diversity (NCMB) is
located in:
a. Bhavnagar b. Jamnagar
c. Mumbai d. Puducherry

Answers
71. c 72. c 73. a 74. c 75. b 76. a
77. a 78. b
436 t Universal Objective Forestry

79. A branch of life sciences that studies the short term and long-term
changes in the size and age composition of population, and the
biological and environmental processes influencing those changes
a. population dynamics b. conservation biology
c. mutations d. evolution
80. As per the India State of Forest Report, 2017, the three states which
have shown increase in the forest cover in the country are:
a. Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala
b. AndhraPradesh, Karnataka and Kerala
c. Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Sikkim
d. Madhya Pradesh, Odisha and Jharkhand
81. Area wise which state has the largest forest cover in the country?
a. Arunachal Pradesh b. Chhattisgarh
c. Madhya Pradesh d. Odisha
82. In which of the following marine protected area would you not find
coral reefs?
a. Gulf of Mannar b. Gulf of Kutch
c. Andaman & Nicobar d. Sundarbans
83. Currently Asiatic Lions are found only in the Gir National Park of
Gujarat. A major disaster/ disease outbreak is likely to wipe out the
entire population in one stroke, In order to have a back up popula-
tion in case of such eventuality, an alternate home for the Asiatic
Lion is being created at:
a. Kanha Natoinal Park in Madhya Pradesh
b. Kuno Palpur Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh
c. Pench National Park in Maharashtra
d. Ranthambore National Park, Rajasthan
84. Which of the following is a non-poisnous snake of India?
a. King Cobra b. Saw scaled viper
c. Common Krait d. Indian Rock Python
85. Organisms which are typically saprophytic, but under certain condi-
tions may be parasitic eg. Decay fungi in living trees
a. facultative saprophytes b. characteristics of hyphea
c. obligate parasites d. facultative parasites
Answers
79. a 80. b 81. c 82. d 83. b 84. d
85. d
 Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education t 437

86. The swollen tip of a hyphae or germ tube that facilitates attachment
and penetration of the host by the fungi
a. appressorium b. haustorium
c. witches broom d. proboscis
87. Which is not a part of National Action Plan on Climate Change?
a. National Water Mission
b. National Mission on Pollution Control
c. National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture
d. National Mission on Sustainable Habitat
88. Which common names of insects is associated with the order Hy-
menoptera?
a. Wasps and ants b. Beetles and weevils
c. Flies and mosquitoes d. Grasshoppers and crickets
89. Which of the following engineering structures is not a part of Soil &
Moisture control measures?
a. Gully Plugs b. Check dams
c. Causeway d. Loose boulder structure
90. Which of the following is the right chronology for various forest
related legislation of our country?
a. Wildlife Protection Act, Forest Conservation Act, Indian Forest
Act
b. Indian Forest Act, Forest Conservation Act, Wildlife Protection
Act
c. Indian Forest Act,Wildlife Protection Act, Forest Conservation
Act
d. None of these
91. Which among the following multilateral convention seeks to protect
the human health and environment from Persistant Organic Pollut-
ants (POPs)?
a. Bonn Convention b. Stockholm Convention
c. Rotterdam Convention d. Basel Convention

Answers
86. a 87. b 88. a 89. c 90. c 91. b
438 t Universal Objective Forestry

92. Which among the following multilateral environment agreements

(MEAs) is not correctly paired with the respective issue it deals
with?
a. Montreal Protocol of 1987 – Ozone Depleting Substances
b. Bonn Convention of 1979 – The conservation of Migratory Spe-
cies
c. Basel Convention of 1989 – Regulation of transboundary move-
ment, transit, handling and use of Living Modified Organisms.
d. Rotterdam Convention of 1998 – Consensual International Trade
in certain Hazardous Chemicals and Pesticides.
93. Which one of the following is a useful biological indicator of Sul-
phur-dioxide pollution ?
a. Bryophytes b. Algal blooms
c. Pseudomonas d. Lichens
94. Identify the non Green-House Gas(GHG) from the following :
a. Methane b. Nitrous oxide
c. Sulphur Hexafluoride d. Carbon Monoxide
95. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. Photochemical smog always contains Ozone.
b. The toxic effect of Carbon Monoxide is due to its greater affinity
for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen.
c. Lead is the most hazardous metal pollutant of automobile exhaust.
d. None of these
96. The First Chairperson of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) was ?
a. Justice A.S. Naidu b. Justice Lokeshwar Singh Pan-
ta
c. Justice Markandey Katju d. Justice A K Ganguly
97. Green Economy is led by?
a. United NationsEnvironment Programme
b. InternationalHydrological Organization
c. Intergovernmental Panel for Climate Change
d. European Union

Answers
92. c 93. d 94. d 95. d 96. b 97. a
 Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education t 439

98. Which among the following protocols is also related to the Access
and Benefit Sharing (ABS) mechanism?
a. Kyoto protocol b. Nagoya Protocol
c. Geneva Protocol d. Cartagena Protocol
99. Which among the following city was declared as “Tiger Gateway
of India”?
a. Bhopal b. Nagpur
c. Mysore d. Lucknow
100. Which among the following will emit maximum mass of carbon
dioxide , when the same quantity is burnt of all of them?
a. Kerosene b. Natural Gas
c. Gasoline d. Propane

Answers
98. b 99. b 100. a