COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING AND MATERNAL AND CHILD NURSING

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1. May arrives at the health care clinic D. Increase Insulin

and tells the nurse that her last menstrual
5. Nurse Michelle is assessing a 24 year
period was 9 weeks ago. She also tells the
old client with a diagnosis of hydatidiform
nurse that a home pregnancy test was
mole. She is aware that one of the
positive, but she began to have mild
following is unassociated with this
cramps and is now having moderate
condition?
vaginal bleeding. During the physical
examination of the client, the nurse notes A. Excessive fetal activity.
that May has a dilated cervix. The nurse
determines that May is experiencing B. Larger than normal uterus for
which type of abortion? gestational age.

A. Inevitable C. Vaginal bleeding

B. Incomplete D. Elevated levels of human chorionic

gonadotropin.
C. Threatened
6. A pregnant client is receiving
D. Septic magnesium sulfate for severe pregnancy
induced hypertension (PIH). The clinical
2. Nurse Reese is reviewing the record of
findings that would warrant use of the
a pregnant client for her first prenatal
antidote , calcium gluconate is:
visit. Which of the following data, if noted
on the client’s record, would alert the A. Urinary output 90 cc in 2 hours.
nurse that the client is at risk for a
spontaneous abortion? B. Absent patellar reflexes.

A. Age 36 years C. Rapid respiratory rate above

40/min.
B. History of syphilis
D. Rapid rise in blood pressure.
C. History of genital herpes
7. During vaginal examination of Janah
D. History of diabetes mellitus who is in labor, the presenting part is at
station plus two. Nurse, correctly
3. Nurse Hazel is preparing to care for a
interprets it as:
client who is newly admitted to the
hospital with a possible diagnosis of A. Presenting part is 2 cm above the
ectopic pregnancy. Nurse Hazel develops plane of the ischial spines.
a plan of care for the client and
determines that which of the following B. Biparietal diameter is at the level
nursing actions is the priority? of the ischial spines.

A. Monitoring weight C. Presenting part in 2 cm below the

plane of the ischial spines.
B. Assessing for edema
D. Biparietal diameter is 2 cm above
C. Monitoring apical pulse the ischial spines.
D. Monitoring temperature 8. A pregnant client is receiving oxytocin
(Pitocin) for induction of labor. A condition
4. Nurse Oliver is teaching a diabetic
that warrant the nurse in-charge to
pregnant client about nutrition and insulin
discontinue I.V. infusion of Pitocin is:
needs during pregnancy. The nurse
determines that the client understands A. Contractions every 1 ½ minutes
dietary and insulin needs if the client lasting 70-80 seconds.
states that the second half of pregnancy
require: B. Maternal temperature 101.2

A. Decreased caloric intake C. Early decelerations in the fetal

heart rate.
B. Increased caloric intake
D. Fetal heart rate baseline 140-160
C. Decreased Insulin bpm.
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9. Calcium gluconate is being 13. Which action should nurse Marian

administered to a client with pregnancy include in the care plan for a 2 month old
induced hypertension (PIH). A nursing with heart failure?
action that must be initiated as the plan
A. Feed the infant when he cries.
of care throughout injection of the drug is:
B. Allow the infant to rest before
A. Ventilator assistance
feeding.
B. CVP readings
C. Bathe the infant and administer
C. EKG tracings medications before feeding.
D. Continuous CPR D. Weigh and bathe the infant before
feeding.
10. A trial for vaginal delivery after an
earlier caesareans, would likely to be 14.Nurse Hazel is teaching a mother who
given to a gravida, who had: plans to discontinue breast feeding after
5 months. The nurse should advise her to
A. First low transverse cesarean was
include which foods in her infant’s diet?
for active herpes type 2 infections;
vaginal culture at 39 weeks A. Skim milk and baby food.
pregnancy was positive.
B. Whole milk and baby food.
B. First and second caesareans were
C. Iron-rich formula only.
for cephalopelvic disproportion.
D. Iron-rich formula and baby food.
C. First caesarean through a classic
incision as a result of severe fetal 15.Mommy Linda is playing with her
distress. infant, who is sitting securely alone on
the floor of the clinic. The mother hides a
D. First low transverse caesarean was
toy behind her back and the infant looks
for breech position. Fetus in this
for it. The nurse is aware that estimated
pregnancy is in a vertex
age of the infant would be:
presentation.
A. 6 months
11.Nurse Ryan is aware that the best
initial approach when trying to take a B. 4 months
crying toddler’s temperature is:
C. 8 months
A. Talk to the mother first and then to
the toddler. D. 10 months

B. Bring extra help so it can be done 16.Which of the following is the most
quickly. prominent feature of public health
nursing?
C. Encourage the mother to hold the
child. A. It involves providing home care to
sick people who are not confined in
D. Ignore the crying and screaming. the hospital.
12.Baby Tina a 3 month old infant just B. Services are provided free of
had a cleft lip and palate repair. What charge to people within the
should the nurse do to prevent trauma to catchments area.
operative site?
C. The public health nurse functions
A. Avoid touching the suture line, as part of a team providing a public
even when cleaning. health nursing services.
B. Place the baby in prone position. D. Public health nursing focuses on
preventive, not curative, services.
C. Give the baby a pacifier.
17.When the nurse determines whether
D. Place the infant’s arms in soft
resources were maximized in
elbow restraints.
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implementing Ligtas Tigdas, she is promotion and prevention and

evaluating treatment of disease.
A. Effectiveness D. The goal of community health
nursing is to provide nursing
B. Efficiency
services to people in their own
C. Adequacy places of residence.

D. Appropriateness 22.Nurse Tina is aware that the disease

declared through Presidential
18.Vangie is a new B.S.N. graduate. She Proclamation No. 4 as a target for
wants to become a Public Health Nurse. eradication in the Philippines is?
Where should she apply?
A. Poliomyelitis
A. Department of Health
B. Measles
B. Provincial Health Office
C. Rabies
C. Regional Health Office
D. Neonatal tetanus
D. Rural Health Unit
23.May knows that the step in community
19.Tony is aware the Chairman of the organizing that involves training of
Municipal Health Board is: potential leaders in the community is:
A. Mayor A. Integration
B. Municipal Health Officer B. Community organization
C. Public Health Nurse C. Community study
D. Any qualified physician D. Core group formation
20.Myra is the public health nurse in a 24.Beth a public health nurse takes an
municipality with a total population of active role in community participation.
about 20,000. There are 3 rural health What is the primary goal of community
midwives among the RHU personnel. How organizing?
many more midwife items will the RHU
need? A. To educate the people regarding
community health problems
A. 1
B. To mobilize the people to resolve
B. 2 community health problems
C. 3 C. To maximize the community’s
D. The RHU does not need any more resources in dealing with health
midwife items. problems.

21.According to Freeman and Heinrich, D. To maximize the community’s

community health nursing is a resources in dealing with health
developmental service. Which of the problems.
following best illustrates this statement? 25.Tertiary prevention is needed in which
A. The community health nurse stage of the natural history of disease?
continuously develops himself A. Pre-pathogenesis
personally and professionally.
B. Pathogenesis
B. Health education and community
organizing are necessary in C. Prodromal
providing community health
D. Terminal
services.
26.The nurse is caring for a primigravid
C. Community health nursing is
client in the labor and delivery area.
intended primarily for health
Which condition would place the client at
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risk for disseminated intravascular for 1 week. This type of menstrual pattern
coagulation (DIC)? is bets defined by:
A. Intrauterine fetal death. A. Menorrhagia
B. Placenta accreta. B. Metrorrhagia
C. Dysfunctional labor. C. Dyspareunia
D. Premature rupture of the D. Amenorrhea
membranes.
32. Jannah is admitted to the labor and
27.A fullterm client is in labor. Nurse Betty delivery unit. The critical laboratory result
is aware that the fetal heart rate would for this client would be:
be:
A. Oxygen saturation
A. 80 to 100 beats/minute
B. Iron binding capacity
B. 100 to 120 beats/minute
C. Blood typing
C. 120 to 160 beats/minute
D. Serum Calcium
D. 160 to 180 beats/minute
33.Nurse Gina is aware that the most
28.The skin in the diaper area of a 7 common condition found during the
month old infant is excoriated and red. second-trimester of pregnancy is:
Nurse Hazel should instruct the mother
A. Metabolic alkalosis
to:
B. Respiratory acidosis
A. Change the diaper more often.
C. Mastitis
B. Apply talc powder with diaper
changes. D. Physiologic anemia
C. Wash the area vigorously with each 34.Nurse Lynette is working in the triage
diaper change. area of an emergency department. She
sees that several pediatric clients arrive
D. Decrease the infant’s fluid intake to
simultaneously. The client who needs to
decrease saturating diapers.
be treated first is:
29.Nurse Carla knows that the common
A. A crying 5 year old child with a
cardiac anomalies in children with Down
laceration on his scalp.
Syndrome (tri-somy 21) is:
B. A 4 year old child with a barking
A. Atrial septal defect
coughs and flushed appearance.
B. Pulmonic stenosis
C. A 3 year old child with Down
C. Ventricular septal defect syndrome who is pale and asleep
in his mother’s arms.
D. Endocardial cushion defect
D. A 2 year old infant with stridorous
30.Malou was diagnosed with severe
breath sounds, sitting up in
preeclampsia is now receiving I.V.
his mother’s arms and drooling.
magnesium sulfate. The adverse effects
associated with magnesium sulfate is: 35.Maureen in her third trimester, arrives
at the emergency room with painless
A. Anemia
vaginal bleeding. Which of the following
B. Decreased urine output conditions is suspected?

C. Hyperreflexia A. Placenta previa

D. Increased respiratory rate B. Abruptio placentae

31.A 23 year old client is having her C. Premature labor

menstrual period every 2 weeks that last
D. Sexually transmitted disease
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36.A young child named Richard is 40.How should Nurse Michelle guide a
suspected of having pinworms. The child who is blind to walk to the
community nurse collects a stool playroom?
specimen to confirm the diagnosis. The
A. Without touching the child, talk
nurse should schedule the collection of
continuously as the child walks
this specimen for:
down the hall.
A. Just before bedtime
B. Walk one step ahead, with the
B. After the child has been bathe child’s hand on the nurse’s elbow.
C. Any time during the day C. Walk slightly behind, gently guiding
the child forward.
D. Early in the morning
D. Walk next to the child, holding the
37.In doing a child’s admission
child’s hand.
assessment, Nurse Betty should be alert
to note which signs or symptoms of 41.When assessing a newborn diagnosed
chronic lead poisoning? with ductus arteriosus, Nurse Olivia
should expect that the child most likely
A. Irritability and seizures
would have an:
B. Dehydration and diarrhea
A. Loud, machinery-like murmur.
C. Bradycardia and hypotension
B. Bluish color to the lips.
D. Petechiae and hematuria
C. Decreased BP reading in the upper
38.To evaluate a woman’s understanding extremities
about the use of diaphragms for family
D. Increased BP reading in the upper
planning, Nurse Trish asks her to explain
extremities.
how she will use the appliance. Which
response indicates a need for further 42.The reason nurse May keeps the
health teaching? neonate in a neutral thermal environment
is that when a newborn becomes too cool,
A. “I should check the diaphragm
the neonate requires:
carefully for holes every time I use
it” A. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s
metabolic rate increases.
B. “I may need a different size of
diaphragm if I gain or lose weight B. More oxygen, and the newborn’s
more than 20 pounds” metabolic rate decreases.
C. “The diaphragm must be left in C. More oxygen, and the newborn’s
place for atleast 6 hours after metabolic rate increases.
intercourse”
D. Less oxygen, and the newborn’s
D. “I really need to use the diaphragm metabolic rate decreases.
and jelly most during the middle of
43.Before adding potassium to an infant’s
my menstrual cycle”.
I.V. line, Nurse Ron must be sure to assess
39.Hypoxia is a common complication of whether this infant has:
laryngotracheobronchitis. Nurse Oliver
A. Stable blood pressure
should frequently assess a child with
laryngotracheobronchitis for: B. Patant fontanelles
A. Drooling C. Moro’s reflex
B. Muffled voice D. Voided
C. Restlessness 44.Nurse Carla should know that the most
common causative factor of dermatitis in
D. Low-grade fever
infants and younger children is:
A. Baby oil
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B. Baby lotion C. Mass screening tests

C. Laundry detergent D. Interview of suspects
D. Powder with cornstarch 49.A 33-year old female client came for
consultation at the health center with the
45.During tube feeding, how far above an
chief complaint of fever for a week.
infant’s stomach should the nurse hold
Accompanying symptoms were muscle
the syringe with formula?
pains and body malaise. A week after the
A. 6 inches start of fever, the client noted yellowish
discoloration of his sclera. History showed
B. 12 inches that he waded in flood waters about 2
C. 18 inches weeks before the onset of symptoms.
Based on her history, which disease
D. 24 inches condition will you suspect?
46. In a mothers’ class, Nurse Lhynnete A. Hepatitis A
discussed childhood diseases such as
chicken pox. Which of the following B. Hepatitis B
statements about chicken pox is correct? C. Tetanus
A. The older one gets, the more D. Leptospirosis
susceptible he becomes to the
complications of chicken pox. 50.Mickey a 3-year old client was brought
to the health center with the chief
B. A single attack of chicken pox will complaint of severe diarrhea and the
prevent future episodes, including passage of “rice water” stools. The client
conditions such as shingles. is most probably suffering from which
C. To prevent an outbreak in the condition?
community, quarantine may be A. Giardiasis
imposed by health authorities.
B. Cholera
D. Chicken pox vaccine is best given
when there is an impending C. Amebiasis
outbreak in the community.
D. Dysentery
47.Barangay Pinoy had an outbreak of
51.The most prevalent form of meningitis
German measles. To prevent congenital
among children aged 2 months to 3 years
rubella, what is the BEST advice that you
is caused by which microorganism?
can give to women in the first trimester of
pregnancy in the barangay Pinoy? A. Hemophilus influenzae
A. Advice them on the signs of B. Morbillivirus
German measles.
C. Steptococcus pneumoniae
B. Avoid crowded places, such as
D. Neisseria meningitidis
markets and movie houses.
52.The student nurse is aware that the
C. Consult at the health center where
pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s
rubella vaccine may be given.
spot and you may see Koplik’s spot by
D. Consult a physician who may give inspecting the:
them rubella immunoglobulin.
A. Nasal mucosa
48.Myrna a public health nurse knows
B. Buccal mucosa
that to determine possible sources of
sexually transmitted infections, the BEST C. Skin on the abdomen
method that may be undertaken is:
D. Skin on neck
A. Contact tracing
53.Angel was diagnosed as having
B. Community survey Dengue fever. You will say that there is
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slow capillary refill when the color of the 58.Several clients is newly admitted and
nailbed that you pressed does not return diagnosed with leprosy. Which of the
within how many seconds? following clients should be classified as a
case of multibacillary leprosy?
A. 3 seconds
A. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin
B. 6 seconds
smear
C. 9 seconds
B. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin
D. 10 seconds smear

54.In Integrated Management of C. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin

Childhood Illness, the nurse is aware that smear
the severe conditions generally require
D. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin
urgent referral to a hospital. Which of the
smear
following severe conditions DOES NOT
always require urgent referral to a 59.Nurses are aware that diagnosis of
hospital? leprosy is highly dependent on
recognition of symptoms. Which of the
A. Mastoiditis
following is an early sign of leprosy?
B. Severe dehydration
A. Macular lesions
C. Severe pneumonia
B. Inability to close eyelids
D. Severe febrile disease
C. Thickened painful nerves
55.Myrna a public health nurse will
D. Sinking of the nosebridge
conduct outreach immunization in a
barangay Masay with a population of 60.Marie brought her 10 month old infant
about 1500. The estimated number of for consultation because of fever, started
infants in the barangay would be: 4 days prior to consultation. In
determining malaria risk, what will you
A. 45 infants
do?
B. 50 infants
A. Perform a tourniquet test.
C. 55 infants
B. Ask where the family resides.
D. 65 infants
C. Get a specimen for blood smear.
56.The community nurse is aware that
D. Ask if the fever is present everyday.
the biological used in Expanded Program
on Immunization (EPI) should NOT be 61.Susie brought her 4 years old daughter
stored in the freezer? to the RHU because of cough and colds.
Following the IMCI assessment guide,
A. DPT
which of the following is a danger sign
B. Oral polio vaccine that indicates the need for urgent referral
to a hospital?
C. Measles vaccine
A. Inability to drink
D. MMR
B. High grade fever
57.It is the most effective way of
controlling schistosomiasis in an endemic C. Signs of severe dehydration
area?
D. Cough for more than 30 days
A. Use of molluscicides
62.Jimmy a 2-year old child revealed
B. Building of foot bridges “baggy pants”. As a nurse, using the IMCI
guidelines, how will you manage Jimmy?
C. Proper use of sanitary toilets
A. Refer the child urgently to a
D. Use of protective footwear, such as hospital for confinement.
rubber boots
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B. Coordinate with the social worker her baby will have protection against
to enroll the child in a feeding tetanus for
program.
A. 1 year
C. Make a teaching plan for the
B. 3 years
mother, focusing on menu planning
for her child. C. 5 years
D. Assess and treat the child for D. Lifetime
health problems like infections and
intestinal parasitism. 67.Nurse Ron is aware that unused BCG
should be discarded after how many
63.Gina is using Oresol in the hours of reconstitution?
management of diarrhea of her 3-year old
child. She asked you what to do if her A. 2 hours
child vomits. As a nurse you will tell her B. 4 hours
to:
C. 8 hours
A. Bring the child to the nearest
hospital for further assessment. D. At the end of the day

B. Bring the child to the health center 68.The nurse explains to a breastfeeding
for intravenous fluid therapy. mother that breast milk is sufficient for all
of the baby’s nutrient needs only up to:
C. Bring the child to the health center
for assessment by the physician. A. 5 months

D. Let the child rest for 10 minutes B. 6 months

then continue giving Oresol more
C. 1 year
slowly.
D. 2 years
64.Nikki a 5-month old infant was brought
by his mother to the health center 69.Nurse Ron is aware that the
because of diarrhea for 4 to 5 times a day. gestational age of a conceptus that is
Her skin goes back slowly after a skin considered viable (able to live outside the
pinch and her eyes are sunken. Using the womb) is:
IMCI guidelines, you will classify this
infant in which category? A. 8 weeks

A. No signs of dehydration B. 12 weeks

B. Some dehydration C. 24 weeks

C. Severe dehydration D. 32 weeks

D. The data is insufficient. 70.When teaching parents of a neonate

the proper position for the neonate’s
65.Chris a 4-month old infant was brought sleep, the nurse Patricia stresses the
by her mother to the health center importance of placing the neonate on his
because of cough. His respiratory rate is back to reduce the risk of which of the
42/minute. Using the Integrated following?
Management of Child Illness (IMCI)
guidelines of assessment, his breathing is A. Aspiration
considered as: B. Sudden infant death syndrome
A. Fast (SIDS)

B. Slow C. Suffocation

C. Normal D. Gastroesophageal reflux (GER)

D. Insignificant 71.Which finding might be seen in baby

James a neonate suspected of having an
66.Maylene had just received her 4th infection?
dose of tetanus toxoid. She is aware that
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A. Flushed cheeks 76. When teaching umbilical cord care for

Jennifer a new mother, the nurse Jenny
B. Increased temperature
would include which information?
C. Decreased temperature
A. Apply peroxide to the cord with
D. Increased activity level each diaper change

72.Baby Jenny who is small-for-gestation B. Cover the cord with petroleum jelly
is at increased risk during the transitional after bathing
period for which complication?
C. Keep the cord dry and open to air
A. Anemia probably due to chronic
D. Wash the cord with soap and water
fetal hyposia
each day during a tub bath.
B. Hyperthermia due to decreased
77.Nurse John is performing an
glycogen stores
assessment on a neonate. Which of the
C. Hyperglycemia due to decreased following findings is considered common
glycogen stores in the healthy neonate?

D. Polycythemia probably due to A. Simian crease

chronic fetal hypoxia
B. Conjunctival hemorrhage
73.Marjorie has just given birth at 42
C. Cystic hygroma
weeks’ gestation. When the nurse
assessing the neonate, which physical D. Bulging fontanelle
finding is expected?
78.Dr. Esteves decides to artificially
A. A sleepy, lethargic baby rupture the membranes of a mother who
is on labor. Following this procedure, the
B. Lanugo covering the body
nurse Hazel checks the fetal heart tones
C. Desquamation of the epidermis for which the following reasons?

D. Vernix caseosa covering the body A. To determine fetal well-being.

74.After reviewing the Myrna’s maternal B. To assess for prolapsed cord

history of magnesium sulfate during
C. To assess fetal position
labor, which condition would nurse
Richard anticipate as a potential problem D. To prepare for an imminent
in the neonate? delivery.
A. Hypoglycemia 79.Which of the following would be least
likely to indicate anticipated bonding
B. Jitteriness
behaviors by new parents?
C. Respiratory depression
A. The parents’ willingness to touch
D. Tachycardia and hold the new born.

75.Which symptom would indicate the B. The parent’s expression of interest

Baby Alexandra was adapting about the size of the new born.
appropriately to extra-uterine life without
C. The parents’ indication that they
difficulty?
want to see the newborn.
A. Nasal flaring
D. The parents’ interactions with each
B. Light audible grunting other.

C. Respiratory rate 40 to 60 80.Following a precipitous delivery,

breaths/minute examination of the client’s vagina reveals

D. Respiratory rate 60 to 80 a fourth-degree laceration. Which of the

breaths/minute following would be contraindicated when
caring for this client?
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A. Applying cold to limit edema during successfully resuscitated. Within several

the first 12 to 24 hours. hours she develops respiratory grunting,
cyanosis, tachypnea, nasal flaring, and
B. Instructing the client to use two or
retractions. She’s diagnosed with
more peripads to cushion the area.
respiratory distress syndrome, intubated,
C. Instructing the client on the use of and placed on a ventilator. Which nursing
sitz baths if ordered. action should be included in the baby’s
plan of care to prevent retinopathy of
D. Instructing the client about the prematurity?
importance of perineal (kegel)
exercises. A. Cover his eyes while receiving
oxygen.
81. A pregnant woman accompanied by
her husband, seeks admission to the B. Keep her body temperature low.
labor and delivery area. She states that
C. Monitor partial pressure of oxygen
she’s in labor and says she attended the
(Pao2) levels.
facility clinic for prenatal care. Which
question should the nurse Oliver ask her D. Humidify the oxygen.
first?
85. Which of the following is normal
A. “Do you have any chronic newborn calorie intake?
illnesses?”
A. 110 to 130 calories per kg.
B. “Do you have any allergies?”
B. 30 to 40 calories per lb of body
C. “What is your expected due date?” weight.
D. “Who will be with you during C. At least 2 ml per feeding
labor?”
D. 90 to 100 calories per kg
82.A neonate begins to gag and turns a
86. Nurse John is knowledgeable that
dusky color. What should the nurse do
usually individual twins will grow
first?
appropriately and at the same rate as
A. Calm the neonate. singletons until how many weeks?
B. Notify the physician. A. 16 to 18 weeks
C. Provide oxygen via face mask as B. 18 to 22 weeks
ordered
C. 30 to 32 weeks
D. Aspirate the neonate’s nose and
D. 38 to 40 weeks
mouth with a bulb syringe.
87. Which of the following classifications
83. When a client states that her “water
applies to monozygotic twins for whom
broke,” which of the following actions
the cleavage of the fertilized ovum occurs
would be inappropriate for the nurse to
more than 13 days after fertilization?
do?
A. conjoined twins
A. Observing the pooling of straw-
colored fluid. B. diamniotic dichorionic twins
B. Checking vaginal discharge with C. diamniotic monochorionic twin
nitrazine paper.
D. monoamniotic monochorionic twins
C. Conducting a bedside ultrasound
for an amniotic fluid index. 88. Tyra experienced painless vaginal
bleeding has just been diagnosed as
D. Observing for flakes of vernix in the having a placenta previa. Which of the
vaginal discharge. following procedures is usually performed
to diagnose placenta previa?
84. A baby girl is born 8 weeks
premature. At birth, she has no A. Amniocentesis
spontaneous respirations but is
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B. Digital or speculum examination intradermal injection of purified protein

derivative (PPD) of the tuberculin bacilli is
C. External fetal monitoring
given. She is considered to have a
D. Ultrasound positive test for which of the following
results?
89. Nurse Arnold knows that the following
changes in respiratory functioning during A. An indurated wheal under 10 mm
pregnancy is considered normal: in diameter appears in 6 to 12
hours.
A. Increased tidal volume
B. An indurated wheal over 10 mm in
B. Increased expiratory volume diameter appears in 48 to 72
C. Decreased inspiratory capacity hours.

D. Decreased oxygen consumption C. A flat circumcised area under 10

mm in diameter appears in 6 to 12
90. Emily has gestational diabetes and it hours.
is usually managed by which of the
following therapy? D. A flat circumcised area over 10 mm
in diameter appears in 48 to 72
A. Diet hours.
B. Long-acting insulin 95. Dianne, 24 year-old is 27 weeks’
pregnant arrives at her physician’s office
C. Oral hypoglycemic
with complaints of fever, nausea,
D. Oral hypoglycemic drug and insulin vomiting, malaise, unilateral flank pain,
and costovertebral angle tenderness.
91. Magnesium sulfate is given to Jemma Which of the following diagnoses is most
with preeclampsia to prevent which of the likely?
following condition?
A. Asymptomatic bacteriuria
A. Hemorrhage
B. Bacterial vaginosis
B. Hypertension
C. Pyelonephritis
C. Hypomagnesemia
D. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
D. Seizure
96. Rh isoimmunization in a pregnant
92. Cammile with sickle cell anemia has client develops during which of the
an increased risk for having a sickle cell following conditions?
crisis during pregnancy. Aggressive
management of a sickle cell crisis A. Rh-positive maternal blood crosses
includes which of the following measures? into fetal blood, stimulating
fetal antibodies.
A. Antihypertensive agents
B. Rh-positive fetal blood crosses into
B. Diuretic agents maternal blood,
C. I.V. fluids stimulating maternal antibodies.

D. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain C. Rh-negative fetal blood crosses

into maternal blood,
93. Which of the following drugs is the stimulating maternal antibodies.
antidote for magnesium toxicity?
D. Rh-negative maternal blood
A. Calcium gluconate (Kalcinate) crosses into fetal blood, stimulating
B. Hydralazine (Apresoline) fetal antibodies.

C. Naloxone (Narcan) 97. To promote comfort during labor, the

nurse John advises a client to assume
D. Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) certain positions and avoid others. Which
position may cause maternal hypotension
94. Marlyn is screened for tuberculosis
and fetal hypoxia?
during her first prenatal visit. An
 COMMUNITY HEALTH NURSING AND MATERNAL AND CHILD NURSING
REVIEWER TEST

A. Lateral position
B. Squatting position
C. Supine position
D. Standing position
98. Celeste who used heroin during her
pregnancy delivers a neonate. When
assessing the neonate, the nurse
Lhynnette expects to find:
A. Lethargy 2 days after birth.
B. Irritability and poor sucking.
C. A flattened nose, small eyes, and
thin lips.
D. Congenital defects such as limb
anomalies.
99. The uterus returns to the pelvic cavity
in which of the following time frames?
A. 7th to 9th day postpartum.
B. 2 weeks postpartum.
C. End of 6th week postpartum.
D. When the lochia changes to alba.
100. Maureen, a primigravida client, age
20, has just completed a difficult, forceps-
assisted delivery of twins. Her labor was
unusually long and required oxytocin
(Pitocin) augmentation. The nurse who’s
caring for her should stay alert for:
A. Uterine inversion
B. Uterine atony
C. Uterine involution
D. Uterine discomfort