Medical Technology Board Examination Review Notes on 8.

Which term is defined as a urine volume in excess of 2000

Clinical Microscopy mL excreted over a 24-hour period?
a. Anuria
Clinical Microscopy b. Oliguria
c. Polyuria
d. Hypersthenuria
1. The primary chemical affected by the renin-angiotensin-
aldosterone system is:
9. Which of the following will contribute to a specimen’s
a. Chloride specific gravity if it is present in a person’s urine?
b. Sodium a. 50-100 RBC/hpf
c. Potassium b. 85 mg/dL glucose
d. Hydrogen c. 3+ amorphous phosphates
d. Moderate bacteria
2. The fluid leaving the glomerulus has a specific gravity of:
10. Why is the first-voided morning urine specimen the most
a. 1.005
desirable specimen for routine urinalysis?
b. 1.010
a. Most dilute specimen of the day
c. 1.015 b. Less contamination by microorganisms
d. 1.020 c. It can detect orthostatic proteinuria
3. What are the variables included in the Cockgroft and Gault d. Most concentrated specimen of the day
formula for creatinine clearance?
1. Age 3. Urine creatinine 11. Freshly voided normal urine is usually clear; however, if it
2. Sex 4. Body weight is alkaline, a white turbidity may be present due to:
a. 1, 2 and 3 a. Yeast cells
b. 1 and 3 b. Uroerythrin
c. 1, 2 and 4 c. WBCs
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 d. Amorphous phosphates

4. The average total volume of urine produced by a normal 12. A strong odor of cabbage in a urine specimen could
adult every 24 hours is about: indicate:
a. 750 mL a. Methionine malabsorption
b. 1200 mL b. Trimethylaminuria
c. 2000 mL c. Phenylketonuria
d. 2400 mL d. Tyrosyluria

5. An abnormal decrease in urine production is called: 13. A specimen with a strong ammonia odor and a heavy
a. Anuria white precipitate when it arrives in the laboratory may require:
b. Oliguria a. Collection of a fresh specimen
c. Polyuria b. Centrifugation
d. Dysuria c. Dilution for specific gravity
d. Testing under a hood
6. Cloudiness in a freshly-voided urine could indicate the
presence of: 14. A correlation exists between a specific gravity of 1.050
a. Protein and a:
b. Sugar a. 2+ protein
c. WBCs b. 2+ glucose
d. Any of these c. Radiographic dye infusion
d. First morning specimen
7. Which of these plasma substances is NOT normally filtered
through the glomerulus in significant amounts? 15. A yellow-brown specimen that produces a yellow foam
a. Protein when shaken can be suspected of containing:
b. Glucose a. Carrots
c. Creatinine b. Hemoglobin
d. Urea c. Rhubarb
 d. Bilirubin 23. All of the statements below regarding urine bilirubin tests
are true EXCEPT:
16. A patient with a 1+ protein reading in the afternoon is a. A positive test indicates either liver or hepatobiliary disease
asked to submit a first morning specimen. The second b. The test detects only conjugated bilirubin
specimen also has a 1+ protein. This patient is: c. High levels of ascorbate usually do not interfere
a. Positive for orthostatic proteinuria d. Standing urine may become falsely negative due to bacterial
b. Negative for orthostatic proteinuria hydrolysis
c. Positive for Bence Jones proteinuria
d. Negative for clinical proteinuria 24. A positive test for blood in urine can occur in the
following EXCEPT:
17. Urinalysis on a patient with severe back and abnominal a. Extravascular hemolytic anemia
pain is frequently performed to check for: b. Crush injury
a. Bilirubinuria c. Malignancy of the kidney or urinary system
b. Proteinuria d. Renal calculi
c. Hematuria
d. Hemoglobinuria 25. Which of the following is the major organic substance
found in urine?
18. Reagent strip – specific gravity readings are affected by: a. Sodium
a. Glucose b. Glucose
b. Radiographic dye c. Chloride
c. Alkaline urine d. Urea
d. All of the above
26. A reagent test strip impregnated with an aromatic amine
19. The reagent strip reaction that requires the longest reaction such as p-arsanilic acid or sulfanilamide may be used to detect
time is: which analyte?
a. Bilirubin a. Bilirubin
b. Leukocyte esterase b. Blood
c. pH c. Nitrite
d. Glucose d. Urobilinogen

20. The enzyme dipstick test for glucose has a sensitivity of: 27. What is the expected pH range of a freshly voided urine
a. 10 mg/dL specimen?
b. 50 mg/dL a. 3.5-8.0
c. 100 mg/dL b. 3.5-9.0
d. 200 mg/dL c. 4.0-8.5
d. 4.5-8.0
21. Which of the following is true of the detection of urinary
glucose? 28. False positive levels of 5-HIAA can be caused by a diet
a. Any reducing substance can give a false positive reaction w/ high in:
copper reduction test for glucose a. Bananas
b. The copper reduction method is specific for glucose b. Tomatoes
c. Glucose cannot appear in the urine in the absence of c. Pineapples
elevated plasma glucose d. All of these
d. Ketonuria may produce a false positive dipstick test for
glucose 29. Blue diaper syndrome is associated with:
a. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
22. Which of the reagents below is used to detect urobilinogen b. Hartnup disease
in urine? c. Alkaptonuria
a. p-Dinitrobenzene d. Dubin-Johnson syndrome
b. p-Aminosalicylate
c. p-Dichloroaniline 30. Hurler, Hunter and Sanfilippo syndrome are hereditary
d. p-Dimethylaminobenzaldehyde disorders affecting metabolism of:
a. Tryptophan
b. Purines
 c. Mucopolysaccharides c. Goblet cells
d. Porphyrins d. Beta2-microglobulin

31. Uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase deficiency is associated 39. The purpose of the Hansel stain is to identify:
with which of the following? a. Neutrophils
a. Acute intermittent porphyria (AIN) b. Monocytes
b. Hereditary coproporphyria (HCP) c. Renal tubular cells
c. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria (CEP) d. Eosinophils
d. Porphyria cutanea tarda (PCT)
40. What is the normal value for urinary eosinophils?
32. Urinary screening tests for mucopolysaccharides: a. >10%
1. Acid albumin 3. Cyanide-Nitroprusside b. <1%
2. CTAB 4. Nitroso-naphthol c. >1%
a. 1 and 2 d. <10%
b. 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 41. A disorder characterized by the disruption of the electrical
d. 3 and 4 charges that produce the tightly fitting podocyte barrier
resulting in massive loss of proteins and lipids:
33. He discovered phenylketonuria from a mentally retarded a. Alport syndrome
child with a peculiar mousy odor to his urine: b. Nephrotic syndrome
a. Ivan Folling c. IgA nephropathy
b. Garrod d. Lipid nephrosis
c. Cotugno
d. Frederik Dekkers 42. Visicoureteral reflux or the reflux of urine from the
bladder back into the ureters may result to:
34. A clinically significant epithelial cell is the: a. Acute glomerulonephritis
a. Cuboidal cell b. Cystitis
b. Clue cell c. Acute pyelonephritis
c. Caudate cell d. Acute interstitial nephritis
d. Squamous epithelial cell
43. The presence of renal tubular epithelial cells and casts is
35. When using the glass slide and coverslip method, which of an indication of:
the following might be missed if the coverslip is overflowed? a. Acute interstitial nephritis
a. RBCs b. Chronic glomerulonephritis
b. WBCs c. Minimal change disease
c. Casts d. Acute tubular necrosis
d. Bacteria
44. End-stage renal disease is characterized by all of the
36. Which of the following should be used to reduce light following EXCEPT:
intensity in bright-field microscopy? a. Electrolyte imbalance
a. Centering screws b. Azotemia
b. Aperture diaphragm c. Hypersthenuria
c. Rheostat d. Isosthenuria
d. Condenser aperture diaphragm
45. Broad and waxy casts are most likely associated with:
37. The finding of dysmorphic RBCs is indicative of: a. Nephrotic syndrome
a. Renal calculi b. Acute renal failure
b. Traumatic injury c. Chronic renal failure
c. Glomerular bleeding d. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
d. Coagulation disorders
46. It is described as a genetic disorder showing lamellated
38. The primary component of urinary mucus is: and thinning of glomerular basement membrane:
a. Albumin a. Goodpasture syndrome
b. Uromodulin b. Alport syndrome
 c. Nephrotic syndrome
d. Wegener’s granulomatosis
55. What is the gold standard for fecal fat determination?
47. Casts are formed primarily in which portion of the kidney? a. Van de Kamer titration
a. Distal convoluted tubule b. Van den Berg reaction
b. Glomerulus c. APT test
c. Loop of Henle d, D-Xylose test
d. Proximal convoluted tubule
56. Which of the following pairings of stool appearance and
48. A parasite associated with a positive leukocyte esterase is: cause does not match?
a. Enterobius vermicularis a. Pale, frothy: steatorrhea
b. Trichomonas vaginalis b. Black, tarry: blood
c. Schistosoma haematobium c. Yellow-gray: bile duct obstruction
d. Candida albicans d. Yellow-green: barium sulfate

49. The hormone characteristically present in the blood of 57. All of the following statements about CSF are true
pregnant women and which, when its concentration in the EXCEPT:
blood reaches a certain point, also appears in the urine is: a. CSF is formed by ultrafiltration of plasma through the
a. Estradiol choroid plexus
b. Aldosterone b. CSF circulates in the subarachnoid space and ventricles of
c. Progesterone the brain
d. hCG c. The chemical composition of CSF is similar to plasma
d. Reabsorption of CSF occurs via vessels in the sagittal sinus
50. HCG is produced by which of the following?
a. Cytotrophoblast cells 58. All of the following are indication of CSF traumatic tap
b. Argentaffin cells EXCEPT:
c. Endocervical glandular cells a. Clearing of fluid as it is aspirated
d. Type II pneumocytes b. A clear supernatant after centrifugation
c. Xanthochromia
51. The most common composition of renal calculi is: d. Presence of a clot in the sample
a. Calcium oxalate
b. Magnesium ammonium phosphate 59. The term used to denote a high WBC count in the CSF is:
c. Cystine a. Empyema
d. Uric acid b. Neutrophilia
c. Pleocytosis
52. A renal calculi described as yellowish to brownish red in d. Lymphocytosis
color with a moderately hard consistency is:
a. Cystine 60. The limulus lysate test on CSF is a sensitive assay for:
b. Phosphate a. Viral meningitis
c. Calcium oxalate b. Cryptococcal meningitis
d. Uric acid c. Gram positive bacterial exotoxin
d. Gram negative bacterial endotoxin
53. A renal calculi described as pale and friable is:
a. Cystine 61. A normal CSF glucose and lactate level is associated with
b. Phosphate which type of meningitis?
c. Calcium oxalate a. Viral meningitis
d. Uric acid b. Bacterial meningitis
c. Fungal meningitis
54. A stool specimen collected from an infant with diarrhea d. Tubercular meningitis
has a pH of 5.0. This result correlates with a:
a. Positive APT test 62. The most common cause of male infertility is:
b. Negative trypsin test a. Mumps
c. Positive Clinitest b. Klinefelter’s syndrome
d. Negative occult blood test c. Varicocele
 d. Malignancy d. None of these

63. Which of the following stains is used to determine sperm 71. A gastric disorder characterized by achlorhydria due to the
viability? presence of anti-parietal cell antibodies:
a. Eosin a. Zollinger-Ellison disease
b. Hematoxylin b. Helicobacter pylori infection
c. Papanicolau c. Pernicious anemia
d. Methylene blue d. Cystic fibrosis

64. Seminal fluid viscosity graded as 4 is described as: 72. All of the following may be associated with bronchial
a. Watery asthma EXCEPT:
b. Fair a. Creola bodies
c. Friable b. Curschmann’s spirals
d. Gel-like c. Charcot-Leyden crystals
d. Pneumoliths
65. The sugar present in the seminal fluid in high
concentration is: 73. A sputum that is rusty-colored and filled with pus is
a. Glucose associated with:
b. Lactose a. Congestive heart failure
c. Fructose b. Lobar pneumonia
d. Sucrose c. Tuberculosis
d. Anthracosis
66. Maturation of spermatozoa takes place in the:
a. Sertoli cells 74. Rice bodies are called so because:
b. Seminiferous tubules a. It was discovered by Dr. Rice
c. Epididymis b. It resembles cooked rice
d. Seminal vesicles c. It resembles uncooked rice
d. It resembles polished rice
67. Which test for FLM is least affected by contamination
with hemoglobin and meconium? 75. Lyme arthritis is caused by:
a. Amniostat-FLM a. Borrelia recurrentis
b. Foam stability b. Borrelia hermsii
c. Lamellar body count c. Borrelia burgdorferi
d. L/S ratio d. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

68. How are specimens for FLM testing delivered to and 76. CYFRA 21-1 is a tumor marker for:
stored in the laboratory? a. Uterine cancer
a. Delivered on ice and refrigerated or frozen b. Colon cancer
b. Immediately centrifuged c. Lung cancer
c. Kept at room temperature d. Breast cancer
d. Protected from light
77. This is a sensitive test for the detection of intra-abdominal
69. The presence of a fetal neural tube disorder may be bleeding:
detected by: a. Peritoneal lavage
a. Increased amniotic fluid bilirubin b. Bronchioalveolar lavage
b. Increased maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein c. Thoracic lavage
c. Decreased amniotic fluid phosphatidyl glycerol d. Pericardial lavage
d. Decreased maternal serum acetylcholinesterase
78. What is the method of choice for preservation of routine
70. What type of tube for gastric fluid collection is inserted urinalysis samples?
through the mouth? a. Boric acid
a. Rehfuss tube b. Formalin
b. Levine tube c. Sodium fluoride
c. Diagnex tube d. Refrigeration
 c. Tube 3
79. A urine specimen for routine urinalysis would be rejected d. Any of these
by the laboratory because:
a. The specimen had been refrigerated 86. If seminal fluid fructose analysis will be delayed for more
b. More than 50 mL was in the container than 2 hours, the sample should be stored at what condition?
c. The label was placed on the side of the container a. Refrigerator temperature
d. The specimen and accompanying request did not match b. Frozen
c. Body temperature
80. Which of the following is the preferred urine specimen for d. Room temperature
cytology studies?
a. Catheterized 87. It is the process that provides documentation of proper
b. First morning sample identification from the time of collection to the receipt
c. Suprapubic aspiration of laboratory results:
d. Three-glass collection a. Proficiency testing
b. Accreditation
81. Following collection, urine specimens should be delivered c. Chain of custody
to the laboratory promptly and tested within ___ hour(s) d. Pre-analytical phase
a. 1
b. 2 88. This is also known as the modulation contrast microscope:
c. 3 a. Nomarski
d. 4 b. Hoffman
c. Kohler
82. All of the following changes occur in unpreserved urine d. Phase-contrast
EXCEPT:
1. Decreased glucose 3. Increased ketones 5. Incr. 89. It refers to the ability of a microscopic lens to distinguish
urobilinogen two small objects that are a specific distance apart:
2. Increased pH 4. Increased clarity 6. Increased bacteria a. Parfocal
a. 3, 4 and 5 b. Birefringence
b. 1, 2 and 6 c. Illumination
c. 1, 3 and 5 d. Resolution
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
90. Which type of microscopy is used to aid in identification
83. Which of the following matches regarding specimen of cholesterol in oval fat bodies, fatty casts and crystals?
collection is/are incorrect? a. Polarizing
1. Arthrocentesis – synovial fluid 3. Thoracentesis – Ascitic b. Phase-contrast
fluid c. Interference-contrast
2. Amniocentesis – amniotic fluid 4. Pericardiocentesis – d. Dark-field
Pleural fluid
a. 1 and 2 91. It is based on the principle that the frequency of a sound
b. 3 and 4 wave entering a solution changes in proportion to the density
c. 1 and 3 of the solution
d. 2 and 4 a. Harmonic oscillation densitometry
b. Refractive index
84. The most representative sample for fecal fat analysis is: c. Urinometer
a. First morning d. Reagent strip
b. 3-day collection
c. 2-day collection 92. What is the minimum urine volume required by the
d. None of the above Clinitek Atlas automated instrument?
a. 1 mL
85. Three labeled tubes of CSF specimen were sent to the b. 2 mL
laboratory. Which of these tubes will be used for cell c. 7 mL
counting? d. 15 mL
a. Tube 1
b. Tube 2
93. All of the following are important to protect the integrity
of reagent strips EXCEPT:
a. Storing in an opaque bottle 1. B
b. Storing at room temperature 2. B
c. Removing the dessicant from the bottle 3. C
d. Resealing the bottle after removing a strip 4. B
5. B
94. When a control is run, what information is documented? 6. C
a. The lot number 7. A
b. Expiration date of the control 8. C
c. The test results 9. B
d. All of the above 10. D
11. D
95. Given the following, identify the preanalytical errors: 12. A
1. Patient misidentification 4. Insufficient urine volume 13. A
2. Poor handwriting 5. Delayed transport of urine to lab 14. C
3. Reagent deterioration 6. Instrument malfunction 15. D
a. 1, 4 and 5 c. 1, 2 and 3 16. B
b. 2, 3 and 6 d. 4, 5 and 6 17. C
18. C
96. The best way to break the chain of infection is: 19. B
a. Decontamination 20. C
b. PPE 21. A
c. Aerosol prevention 22. D
d. Handwashing 23. C
24. A
97. An acceptable disinfectant for blood and body fluid 25. D
decontamination is: 26. C
a. NaOH 27. D
b. Antimicrobial soap 28. D
c. H2O2 29. B
d. Sodium hypochlorite 30. C
31. D
98. The last thing to do when a fire is discovered is to: 32. A
a. Rescue persons in danger 33. A
b. Activate the alarm system 34. B
c. Close doors to other areas 35. C
d. Extinguish the fire if possible 36. C
37. C
99. A class ABC fire extinguisher contains: 38. B
a. Water 39. D
b. Dry chemicals 40. B
c. Sand 41. B
d. Acid 42. C
43. D
100. Correct procedure for handwashing, EXCEPT: 44. C
a. Wet hands with warm water 45. C
b. Thoroughly clean between fingers for at least 15 seconds 46. B
c. Rinse hands in an upward position 47. A
d. Turn off faucets with a clean paper towel 48. B
49. D
50. A
ANSWER KEY: Clinical Microscopy 51. A
52. D
53. B
54. C
55. A
56. D
57. C
58. C
59. C
60. D
61. A
62. C
63. A
64. D
65. C
66. C
67. A
68. A
69. B
70. A
71. C
72. D
73. B
74. D
75. C
76. C
77. A
78. C
79. D
80. C
81. B
82. A
83. B
84. B
85. C
86. B
87. C
88. B
89. D
90. A
91. A
92. B
93. C
94. D
95. A
96. D
97. D
98. D
99. B
100. C