CLUSTER-5

1. A transaction completes its execution is said to be

A Committed
B. Aborted
C. Rolled back
D. Failed

2. In order to maintain the consistency during transactions database provides

A. Commit

B. Atomic

C. Flashback

D. Retain

3. In order to undo the work of transaction after last commit which one should be used ?

A. View

B. Commit

C. Rollback

D. Flashback

4. A transaction is said to be a unit of programs

A. Evaluation
B. Execution
C. Computation
D. Controlling
5. Th e term stating all operations of the transaction to be displayed at the database or none
at all is known to be
A. Atomicity
B. Inconsistency
C. Isolation
D. Durability
6. Forming a sinlge logical unit of task from a collection of routine operations is called
A. Transaction
B. Evaluation
c. Computation
D. Execution
7. A term saying that no two transactions to be executed concurrently is referred as

Atomicity

Inconsistency

Isolation

Durability

8. The scheme that controls the interaction between executing transactions is called as _____
a) Concurrency control scheme
b) Multiprogramming scheme
c) Serialization scheme
d) Schedule scheme

9. Which of the following is not a transaction state?

a) Active
b) Partially committed
c) Failed
d) Compensated

10. A transaction that has not been completed successfully is called as _______

a) Compensating transaction

b) Aborted transaction

c) Active transaction

d) Partially committed transaction

11. Which of the following systems is responsible for ensuring durability?

a) Recovery system

b) Atomic system

c) Concurrency control system

d) Compiler system

12. Execution of translation in isolation preserves the _________ of a database

a) Atomicity

b) Consistency

c) Durability

d) All of the mentioned

13. I and J are _________ if they are operations by different transactions on the same data item,
and at least one of them is a write operation.
a) Conflicting
b) Overwriting
c) Isolated
d) Durable

14. If a schedule S can be transformed into a schedule S’ by a series of swaps of non-conflicting

instructions, then S and S’ are
a) Non conflict equivalent
b) Equal
c) Conflict equivalent
d) Isolation equivalent

15. A schedule is __________ if it is conflict equivalent to a serial schedule.

a) Conflict serializable
b) Conflicting
c) Non serializable
d) None of the mentioned

16. The set of ________ in a precedence graph consists of all the transactions participating in
the schedule
a) Vertices
b) Edges
c) Directions
d) None of the mentioned

17. A ___________of the transactions can be obtained by finding a linear order consistent with
the partial order of the precedence graph.
a) Serializability order
b) Direction graph
c) Precedence graph
d) Scheduling scheme

18. State true or false: If I = read(Q) and J = read(Q) then the order of I and J does not matter.
a) True
b) False

19. ___________ allows uncommitted data to be read

a) Read uncommitted
b) Serializable
c) Repeatable read
d) Read committed
20. ________ allows only committed data to be read and further requires that no other
transaction is allowed to update it between two reads of a data item by a transaction.
a) Read uncommitted
b) Serializable
c) Repeatable read
d) Read committed

21. Which of the following are the advantages of transaction concurrency?

a) Increased throughput
b) Increased utilization
c) Reduces average response time
d) All of the mentioned

22. If a transaction has obtained a __________ lock, it can read but cannot write on the item
a) Shared mode
b) Exclusive mode
c) Read only mode
d) Write only mode

23. A transaction can proceed only after the concurrency control manager ________ the lock to
the transaction
a) Grants
b) Requests
c) Allocates
d) None of the mentioned

24. If a transaction can be granted a lock on an item immediately in spite of the presence of
another mode, then the two modes are said to be ________
a) Concurrent
b) Equivalent
c) Compatible
d) Executable

25. State true or false: It is not necessarily desirable for a transaction to unlock a data item
immediately after its final access
a) True
b) False

26. The situation where no transaction can proceed with normal execution is known as
________
a) Road block
b) Deadlock
c) Execution halt
d) Abortion

27. The protocol that indicates when a transaction may lock and unlock each of the data items is
called as __________
a) Locking protocol
b) Unlocking protocol
c) Granting protocol
d) Conflict protocol

28. If a transaction Ti may never make progress, then the transaction is said to be ____________
a) Deadlocked
b) Starved
c) Committed
d) Rolled back

29. If a transaction may obtain locks but may not release any locks then it is in _______ phase
a) Growing phase
b) Shrinking phase
c) Deadlock phase
d) Starved phase

30. Which of the following is not a method in deadlock handling

a) Deadlock prevention
b) Deadlock detection
c) Deadlock recovery
d) Deadlock distribution

31. Deadlocks can be prevented using

a) Preemption and transaction rollbacks
b) Wait and die scheme
c) Wound-wait scheme
d) All of the mentioned

32. State true or false: Wait die scheme is a non-preemptive technique

a) True
b) False
33. The _________ graph describes deadlocks precisely
a) Wound wait graph
b) Wait die graph
c) Wait for graph
d) None of the mentioned

34. Which of the following cannot be used to implement a timestamp

a) System clock
b) Logical counter
c) External time counter
d) None of the mentioned

35. W-timestamp(Q) denotes?

a) The largest timestamp of any transaction that can execute write(Q) successfully
b) The largest timestamp of any transaction that can execute read(Q) successfully
c) The smallest timestamp of any transaction that can execute write(Q) successfully
d) The smallest timestamp of any transaction that can execute read(Q) successfully

36. A ________ ensures that any conflicting read and write operations are executed in
timestamp order
a) Organizational protocol
b) Timestamp ordering protocol
c) Timestamp execution protocol
d) 802-11 protocol

37. State true or false: The Thomas write rule has a greater potential concurrency than the
timestamp ordering protocol
a) True
b) False

38. In timestamp ordering protocol, suppose that the transaction Ti issues read(Q) and
TS(Ti)<W-timestamp(Q), then
a) Read operation is executed
b) Read operation is rejected
c) Write operation is executed
d) Write operation is rejected

39. The _________ requires each transaction executes in two or three different phases in its
lifetime
a) Validation protocol
b) Timestamp protocol
c) Deadlock protocol
d) View protocol

40. During the _________ phase the validation test is applied to the transaction
a) Read phase
b) Validation phase
c) Write phase
d) None of the mentioned

41 Which of the following timestamps is used to record the time when a transaction has finished
its read phase?
a) Start(i)
b) Validation(i)
c) Finish(i)
d) Write(i)

42. State true or false: We determine the serializability order of validation protocol by the
validation ordering technique

True
b) False

43. In _______ schemes, each write operation creates a new version of Q

a) Multiversion
b) Snapshot isolation
c) Lock based
d) Timestamp

44. If the first update is overwritten by a second, it is called as a _______ update

a) Useful
b) Overlapping
c) Lost
d) Concurrent

Oracle uses __________ for the serializable isolation level

a) Multiversion scheme
b) Timestamp protocol
c) Lock based protocol
d) Snapshot isolation
CLUSTER-6

1. If the database modifications occur while the transaction is still active, the transaction is said
to use the __________ modification technique
a) Deferred
b) Immediate
c) More than one of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned

2. A __________ checkpoint is a checkpoint where transactions are allowed to perform updates

even while buffer blocks are being written out.
a) Temporary
b) Fuzzy
c) Permanent
d) Recovery
3. State true or false: Using checkpoints reduces overhead
a) True
b) False
4. If a transaction does not modify the database until it has committed it is said to use a _______
modification technique
a) Deferred
b) Immediate
c) More than one of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
The unique identifier of the transaction that performed the write operation is called as
_______
5. a) Transaction identifier
b) Data-item identifier
c) Old value
d) New value
6. An update log record describes a ________ database write
a) Single
b) Double
c) Triple
d) Quadruple
7. The num,ber of fields in an update log record are
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
8. The operating system reserves space on disk for storing virtual-memory pages that are not
currently in main memory; this space is called
a) Latches
b) Swap Space
 c) Dirty Block
d) None of the mentioned
9. WAL stands for
a) Wall Ahead logging
b) Wall Ahead Language
c) Write Ahead Logging
d) Write Ahead Language
10. Writing the buffered log to disk is sometimes refereed to
a) Log Unit
b) Log-force
c) Log filing
d) Log Record
11. A block that is not allowed to be written back to disk is said to be ______________
a) Pinned
b) Forced
c) Buffer
d) All of the mentioned
12. There are situations in which it is necessary to write back the block to disk, even though the
buffer space that it occupies is not needed. This write is called the
a) Pinned block strategy
b) Forced output block
c) Buffer replacement strategy
d) All of the mentioned

13. ARIES uses a ___________ to identify log records, and stores it in database pages.

a. Log sequence

number

b. Log number

c. Lock number

d. Sequence
13. _____________ is used to minimize unnecessary redos during recovery.
Dirty page table
b. Page table
c. Dirty redo
d. All of the mentioned

14. __________ scheme that records only information about dirty pages and associated information
and does not even require of writing dirty pages to disk.
Fuzzy

logic

b. Checkpoints

c. Fuzzy-checkpoint

d. Logical checkpoint
15. Whenever an update operation occurs on a page, the operation stores the LSN of its log record
in the _______ field of the page.

LS

b. ReadLSN

c. PageLSN

d. RedoLSN
16. There are special redo-only log records generated during transaction rollback, called
_________ in ARIES.
a) Compensation log records
b) Read log records
c) Page log records
d) Redo log records
17. __________ starts from a position determined during analysis, and performs a redo,
repeating history, to bring the database to a state it was in before the crash.
a) Analysis pass
b) Redo pass
c) Undo pass
d) None of the mentioned

18. Remote backup system must be _________ with the primary site.
a) Synchronised
b) Separated
c) Connected
d) Detached but related

19. The time to process the remote backup can be reduced by

a) Flags
b) Breakpoints
c) Redo points
d) Checkpoints

20. A transaction commits as soon as its commit log record is written to stable storage at the
primary site. This is
a) One Safe
b) Two Safe
c) Two-very Safe
d) Very Safe

21. A transaction commits as soon as its commit log record is written to stable storage at the
primary and the backup site. This is
a) One Safe
b) Two Safe
c) Two-very Safe
d) Very Safe

1. Which one is true about clustered index?

a) Clustered index is not associated with table
b) Clustered index is built by default on unique key columns
c) Clustered index is not built on unique key columns
d) None of the mentioned

2. What are composite indexes?

a) Are those which are composed by database for its internal use
b) A composite index is a combination of index on 2 or more columns
c) Composite index can never be created
d) None of the mentioned

3. What is the purpose of the index in sql server?

a) To enhance the query performance
b) To provide an index to a record
c) To perform fast searches
d) All of the mentioned

4. What is the purpose of the index in sql server?

a) To enhance the query performance
b) To provide an index to a record
c) To perform fast searches
d) All of the mentioned
 5. In multilevel indexes, primary index created for its first level is classified as
zero level of multilevel index
b. third level of multilevel index
c. second level of multilevel index
d. first level of multilevel index

28. Example of non dense index is

a. ternary index
b. secondary index
c. primary index
d. clustered index

29. An indexing operation

a. sorts a file using a single key

b. sorts file using two keys

c. establishes an index for a file

d. both (b) and (c

30.If you want to organize a file in multiple ways, it is

better to _____ the data rather than to sort it.

a. Delete

b. Update

c. Sort Key

d. Index

31. The queries used to find all records with search key values in a particular range are known as
________
a) Gap queries
b) Graph queries
c) Range queries
d) None of the mentioned
 32. Statement 1: Insertion of record might require the change in position of the initial nodes.
Statement 2: Deletion of records might require the change in position of the initial nodes.
a) Both the statements are true
b) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false
c) Statement 2 is true but statement 1 is false
d) Both the statements are false

33. In a __________ , we obtain the address of the disk block containing a desired record
directly by computing a function on the search key value of the record
a) Hash file organization
b) Hash index organization
c) Hashing address
d) None of the mentioned

34. Overflow handling using a linked list of buckets is called as ____________

a) Bucket chaining
b) Overflow chaining
c) Bucket linking
d) Overflow linking

35. Dynamic hashing allows us to?

a) Accommodate the growth of the database
b) Accommodate the shrinkage of the database
c) Allows modification of hash function
d) All of the mentioned

36. The space overhead in dynamic hashing is ________ than that of static hashing
a) More
b) Less
c) Equal
d) None of the mentioned

37. Hash structures are not the best choice for which of the following?
a) A search key on which individual point queries are likely
b) A search key which is invalid
c) A search key on which range queries are likely
d) A search key on which multi-level queries are likely

Cluster 3&4
Because of the calculus expression, the relational calculus is considered as
A. Procedural Language B. Non- Procedural Language
C. Structural Language D. Functional Language.

A Tuple Relational Calculus query is expressed as ____________

A. {P()|T} B. {T|p(T)}
C. {T|P()| T} D. {p(T)|T}

Find the ID, name, dept name, salary for instructors whose salary is greater than 80,000 .
a) {t | t ε instructor ∧ t[salary] > 80000}
b) Э t ∈ r (Q(t))
c) {t | Э s ε instructor (t[ID] = s[ID]∧ s[salary] > 80000)}
d) None

Which of the following symbol is used in the place of except?

a) ^ b) V c) ¬ d) ~
Which of the following is the comparison operator in tuple relational calculus
a) ⇒
b) =
c) ε
d) All of the mentioned
An expression in the domain relational calculus is of the form
a) {P(x1, x2, . . . , xn) | < x1, x2, . . . , xn > }
b) {x1, x2, . . . , xn | < x1, x2, . . . , xn > }
c) { x1, x2, . . . , xn | x1, x2, . . . , xn}
d) {< x1, x2, . . . , xn > | P(x1, x2, . . . , xn)}
In domain relaional calculus “there exist” can be expressed as
a) (P1(x))
b) (P1(x)) Э x
c) V x (P1(x))
d) Э x (P1(x))
According to Relational calculus, A set of possible data values is called
a) Attribute
b) Degree
c) Tuple
d) Domain

which of the following uses a domain variable that can on values from an attribute domain ,rathaer that
values for an entire tuple.?
A) Tuple Relational Calculus
B) Domain relational Calculus
C) Relational algebra
D) Tuple Algebra
Query By Example is based on _____________
A) Relational algebra
B) Tuple Relational Calculus
C)Domain Relational Calculus
D) NONE of the above

The value of the atom which evaluates either condition is 'True' or 'False' for particular combination of
tuples is classified as
A) Insertion value
B) union value
C) Truth value
D) deny value
The types of Quantifiers are
A) universal Quantifiers
B) Existential quamtifier
C) Local quantifiers
D) both a and b
The expression used in relational calculus to specify request of retrieval is clasified as
A) declarative expression
B) procedural expression
C) structural expression
D) functional expression

What is the full form of SQL?

A) Structured Query List
B) Structure Query Language
C) Sample Query Language
D) None of these.

Which of the following is 'True' about the SQL AS clause?

A) The AS clause in SQL is used to change the column name in the output or assign a name to a
derived column.
B) The SQL AS clause can only be used with the JOIN clause.
C) The AS clause in SQL is used to defines a search condition.
D) All of the mentioned

Which of the following is the correct order of a SQL statement?

A) SELECT, GROUP BY, WHERE, HAVING
B) SELECT, WHERE, GROUP BY, HAVING
C) SELECT, HAVING, WHERE, GROUP BY
D) SELECT, WHERE, HAVING, GROUP BY
In SQL, which command is used to SELECT only one copy of each set of duplicable rows
A) SELECT DISTNICT
B) SELECT UNIQUE
C) SELECT DIFFERENT
D) All of the above
Which of the following statement is 'True'
A) SELECT sname AND rating From sailors
B) SELECT sname , rating where rating >7
C)SELECT sname, rating From sailors Where rating>7
D) SELECT sname OR rating From sailors

which of the following statement is 'True' to find the names of sailors whoose age is lessthan 60
A) select snames from sailors where age <60
B) select snames from sailors where age is <60
C) select snames from sailors where age lessthan 60
D)NONE

Which of the following is not a valid aggregate function?

A)COUNT
B)COMPUTE
C) SUM
D) MAX

Consider a “CUSTOMERS” database table having a column “CITY” filled with all the names of Indian
cities (in capital letters). The SQL statement that finds all cities that have “GAR” somewhere in its
name, is:
A) Select * from customers where city = ‘%GAR%’;
B) Select * from customers where city = ‘$GAR$’;
C) Select * from customers where city like ‘%GAR%’;
D) Select * from customers where city as ‘%GAR’;

Which of the following statements are 'True' about an SQL query?

P : An SQL query can contain a HAVING clause even if it does not have a GROUP BY clause
Q : An SQL query can contain a HAVING clause only if it has a GROUP BY clause
R : All attributes used in the GROUP BY clause must appear in the SELECT clause
S : Not all attributes used in the GROUP BY clause need to appear in the SELECT clause
A) P and R
B) P and S
C) Q and R
D) Q and S
If we have not specified ASC or DESC after a SQL ORDER BY clause, the following is used by
default
A. DESC
B. ASC
C. There is no default value
D. None of the mentioned

Which of the following is 'True' about the HAVING clause?

A. Similar to the WHERE clause but is used for columns rather than groups.
B. Similar to WHERE clause but is used for rows rather than columns.
C. Similar to WHERE clause but is used for groups rather than rows.
D. Acts exactly like a WHERE clause.

Which statement is used to get all data from the student table whose name starts with p?
A. SELECT * FROM student WHERE name LIKE '%p%';
B. SELECT * FROM student WHERE name LIKE 'p%';
C. SELECT * FROM student WHERE name LIKE '_p%';
D. SELECT * FROM student WHERE name LIKE '%p';

Which type of JOIN is used to returns rows that do not have matching values?
A. Natural JOIN
B. Outer JOIN
C. EQUI JOIN
D. All of the above

Which of the following is also called an INNER JOIN?

A. SELF JOIN
B. EQUI JOIN
C. NON-EQUI JOIN
D. None of the above

What operator tests column for absence of data

A. NOT Operator
B. Exists Operator
C. IS NULL Operator
D. None of the above
Table aliases are used to make multiple table quries shorter and readable
A) 'True'
B) 'False'
we can substitute _______ for '= any' and _____ for '!=any'
A) ALL, in
B) ALL, any
C) IN, NOT IN
D) ALL, NOT IN
Correlated sub query is a
A) Query evaluated once for the entite parent statement
B) Evaluated once for every row processed by the parent statement
To Evaluate a query when the subquery return more than one value we use
i) any ii)all iii)in iv)not in
A) only (i) and (ii) operators
B)only (i) operator
C) only (i), (ii) and (iv) operators
D) all (i), (ii),(iii) , (iv) operatots

SELECT s.rating .AVG(s.age) AS average

FROM Sailors s
Group By s.rating
HAVING COUNT(*) >1
A) retrieves the avg age of sailors for each rating level that has atleast one sailor
B) retrieves the avg age of sailors of all ratings
C) retrieves the avg age of sailors for each rating level that has atleast two sailor
D) None
The nesting of q query is possible upto
A) only one level
B) 3 levels
C) 5 levels
D) many levels

A sub query is the form of a select statement enclosed in paranthesis. It can't have
A) an order by clause
B) a union clause
C) Both
D) none

A natural join eliminates the redundant column data in the results set that an equi join produces
A) 'True' B) 'False'
An outer join can be done between
A) only two tables
B) only three tables
C) any number of tables
D) None
which of the following is 'True'
I. The WHERE clause searches the rows after they are grouped by using 'GROUP BY ' Clause
II. The GROUP BY clause collects rows that met the WHERE clause search conditions and
places those rows into a group for each unique value in the GROUP BY clause.
III.Omitting the GROUP BY clause creates a single roup for the whole table.
A) I & II are 'True' B) I & III are 'True'
C) II & III are 'True' D) All are 'True'
SELECT COUNT('Constatnt Value') From employees
A) return the number of rows in employees
B) return '0'(ZERO)
C) return '1'(ONE)
D) return number of rows which have the constant value
SELECT first_name, last_name FROM customer EXCEPT
SELECT first_name, last_name FROm employees
A) Lists all the customers that are employees
B) Lists all employees that are customers
C) List all the customers
D) Lists all the customers that are not also employees

Consider a schema R(A,B,C,D) and functional dependencies A->B and C->D. Then the
decomposition of R into R1(AB) and R2(CD) is
A. dependency preserving and lossless join
B. lossless join but not dependency preserving
C. dependency preserving but not lossless join
D. not dependency preserving and not lossless join

Given the following relation instance.

x y z
1 4 2
1 5 3
1 6 3
3 2 2
Which of the following functional dependencies are satisfied by the instance?
A. XY -> Z and Z -> Y
B. YZ -> X and Y -> Z
C. YZ -> X and X -> Z
D. XZ -> Y and Y -> X

The set of attributes X will be fully functionally dependent on the set of attributes Y if the
following conditions are satisfied.
A). X is functionally dependent on Y
B). X is not functionally dependent on any subset of Y
C). Both (A) and (B)
D). None of these
Suppose the following functional dependencies hold on a relation U with attributes P,Q,R,S, and
T:
P -> QR
RS -> T
Which of the following functional dependencies can not be inferred from the above functional
dependencies?
A. PS -> T
B. R -> T
C. P -> R
D. PS -> Q

Let R = ABCDE is a relational scheme with functional dependency set F = {A -> B, B -> C, AC ->
D}. The attribute closures of A and E are
A. ABCD, φ
B. ABCD, E
C. Φ, φ
D. ABC, E

Which of the following FD can’t be implied from FD set: {A->B, A->BC, C->D} ?
A. A->C
B. B->D
C. BC->D
D. All of the above

Which of the following is NOT a superkey in a relational schema with attributes V, W, X, Y, Z

and primary key V Y ?
A. V X Y Z
B. V W X Z
C. V W X Y
D. V W X Y Z

Let R = ( A, B, C, D, E, F ) be a relation scheme with the following dependencies: C ->F, E ->A,

EC ->D, A ->B. Which of the following is a key of R?
A. CD
B. EC
C. AE
D. AC

Let x, y, z, a, b, c be the attributes of an entity set E. If {x}, {x,y}, {a,b}, {a,b,c}, {x,y,z} are
superkeys then which of the following are the candidate keys?
A. {x,y} and {a,b}
B. {x} and {a,b}
C. {x,y,z} and {a,b,c}
D. {z} and {c}
Which of the following is not Armstrong’s Axiom?
a) Reflexivity rule
b) Transitivity rule
c) Pseudotransitivity rule
d) Augmentation rule

Consider a relation R(A,B,C,D,E) with the following functional dependencies:

ABC -> DE and
D -> AB
The number of superkeys of R is:
a) 2
b) 7
c) 10
d) 12
Decomposition rule is:
A) XZ -> YZ |= X-> Y
B) X ->Y, Y->Z |= X->YZ
C) X-> YZ |= X->Y, X ->Z
D) X->Y, WY->Z |= WX ->Z

Consider the set of Functional dependecy,

F={PQ -> R, P -> Q, S ->PQ, S ->T}
G={P ->QR, S ->PT}
Which of the followin is 'True'?
A) F Covers G
B) G Covers F
C) F & G are equivalent
D) Cannot say
The Relation R(ABCDEF) with the set of FDs F={A->CE, B -> D, C->AD, BD ->EF}. Find the
closure Of AB
A) ABCE B)ACED
C) ABCD
D)ABCDEF

Suppose relation R(A,B,C,D,E) has the following functional dependencies:

A -> B
B -> C
BC -> A
A -> D
E -> A
D -> E
Which of the following is not a key?
a) A
b) E
c) B, C
d) D
There are two functional dependencies with the same set of attributes on the left side of the
arrow:
A->BC
A->B
This can be combined as
a) A->BC
b) A->B
c) B->C
d) None of the mentioned
What are the desirable properties of a decomposition
a) Partition constraint
b) Dependency preservation
c) Redundancy
d) Security
___________ are the anomalies caused by redundancy
A)updation, insertion anomalies
B) deletion and update anomalies
C) only insertion anomaly
D) updation, insertion and deletion anomalies\
In the Reflexive rule, the 'True' dependecies generated are classified as
A)trivial
B) non trivial
C) inferntial
D) functional

Decomposition of relation R into R1 and R2 is said to be lossless join decomposition if _______

the following holds
A)(R1 ∩ R2) → R1 (OR) (R1 ∩ R2) → R2
B) (R1 ∩ R2) → R1 AND (R1 ∩ R2) → R2

Which of the following is 'True'?

A. Every relation in 3NF is also in BCNF
B. A relation R is in 3NF if every non-prime attribute of R is fully functionally dependent on
every key of R
C. Every relation in BCNF is also in 3NF
D. No relation can be in both BCNF and 3NF

Consider the relation scheme R = {E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, M} and the set of functional

dependencies {{E, F} -> {G}, {F} -> {I, J}, {E, H} -> {K, L}, K -> {M}, L -> {N} on R. What is the
key for R?
A {E, F}
B {E, F, H}
C {E, F, H, K, L}
D {E}
Given the following two statements:
S1: Every table with two single-valued attributes is in 1NF, 2NF, 3NF and BCNF.
S2: AB->C, D->E, E->C is a minimal cover for the set of functional dependencies AB->C, D-
>E, AB->E, E->C.
Which one of the following is CORRECT?
A S1 is 'True' and S2 is 'False'.
B. Both S1 and S2 are 'True'.
C. S1 is 'False' and S2 is 'True'.
D. Both S1 and S2 are 'False'

The maximum number of superkeys for the relation schema R(E,F,G,H) with E as the key is
A) 5
B) 6
C)7
D)8

Maximum no. of possible superkeys for a table with n attributes

A) 2^(n-1)
B) 2^n
C) 2^(n+1)
D) 2^(n-1)-1

Consider a relational table R that is in 3NF, but not in BCNF. Which one of the following
statements is 'True' ?
(A) R has a nontrivial functional dependency X→A, where X is not a superkey and A is a prime
attribute
(B) R has a nontrivial functional dependency X→A, where X is not a superkey and A is a non-
prime attribute and X is not a proper subset of any key
(C) R has a nontrivial functional dependency X→A, where X is not a superkey and A is a non-
prime attribute and X is a proper subset of some key
(D) A cell in R holds a set instead of an atomic value

Which normal form is based on the concept of 'full functional dependency'?

A. First Normal Form
B. Second Normal Form
C. Third Normal Form
D. Fourth Normal Form
For a database relation R(a,b,c,d) where the domains of a, b, c and d include only atomic values,
only the following functional dependencies and those that can be inferred from them hold
a -> c
b -> d
The relation is in
A. First normal form but not in second normal form
B. Second normal form but not in third normal form
C. Third normal form
D. None of the above

Select the ''False'' statement from the following statements about Normal Forms:
A. Lossless preserving decomposition into 3NF is always possible
B. Lossless preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible
C. Any Relation with two attributes is in BCNF
D. BCNF is stronger than 3NF

The Relation Vendor Order (V_no, V_ord_no, V_name, Qty_sup, unit_price) is in 2NF because:
A. Non_key attribute V_name is dependent on V_no which is part of composite key
B. Non_key attribute V_name is dependent on Qty_sup
C. Key attribute Qty_sup is dependent on primary_key unit price
D. Key attribute V_ord_no is dependent on primary_key unit price

BCNF is not used for cases where a relation has

A. Two (or more) candidate keys
B. Two candidate keys and composite
C. The candidate key overlap
D. Two mutually exclusive foreign keys

The best normal form of relation scheme R(A, B, C, D) along with the set of functional
dependencies F = {AB → C, AB → D, C → A, D → B} is
A. Boyce-Codd Normal form
B. Third Normal form
C. Second Normal form
D. First Normal form

Which of the following is 'False'?

A. Every binary relation is never be in BCNF.
B. Every BCNF relation is in 3NF.
C. 1 NF, 2 NF, 3 NF and BCNF are based on functional dependencies.
D. Multivalued Dependency (MVD) is a special case of Join Dependency (JD).
Consider the schema R= ( S, T, U, V ) and the dependencies S→T, T→U, U→V and V→S. Let R
(R1 and R2) be a decomposition such that R1∩R2 ≠ Ø. The decomposition is:
A. Not in 2NF
B. In 2NF but not in 3NF
C. In 3NF but not in 2NF
D. In both 2NF and 3NF

Which normal form is considered adequate for normal relational database design?
A. 2NF
B. 5NF
C. 4NF
D. 3NF

In RDBMS, different classes of relations are created using __________ technique to prevent
modification anomalies.
A. Functional Dependencies
B. Data integrity
C. Referential integrity
D. Normal Forms

A table has fields Fl, F2, F3, F4, F5 with the following functional dependencies F1 -> F3 , F2->
F4, (F1 F2) ->F5. In terms of Normalization, this table is in
A. 1 NF
B. 2 NF
C. 3 NF
D. none
The normal form which satisfies multivalued dependencies and which is in BCNF is
a) 4 NF
b) 3 NF
c) 2 NF
d) All of the mentioned
Which of the following is a tuple-generating dependencies?
a) Functional dependency
b) Equality-generating dependencies
c) Multivalued dependencies
d) Non-functional dependency