1.

All are iodinated forms of contrast media except: 12 Generic name for telepaque:
A. Urovison A. Iothalamate
B. Conray B. Iohexol
C. Barium enema C. Iopanoic acid
D. Ultravist D. Iopamidol
2. All are true regarding ionic type of contrast media except: 13 Generic name for uromiro:
A. Have a higher osmolarity A. Iohexol
B. More side effect B. Ioversol
C. Less side effect C. Iodamide meglumine
D. Lower cost D. Iopamidol
3. All are true regarding non-ionic contrast media except: 14 The generic name for Biligrafin:
A. Low osmolar A. Iodamide
B. Less side effect B. Sodium iopodate
C. Low cost C. Sodium iodipamide
D. Hydrophelic D. Sodium meglumine oxithalamate
4. All are characteristic of the ionic contrast media except: 15 Anti spasmodic drug which relieves pain cause by spasm in
A. High osmolar the muscle of the GIT:
B. More side effect A. Buscopan
C. Hydrophilic B. Hyoscine
D. Low cost C. Gastrografin
5. All describes about the negative contrast media except: D. A & B
A. Lower atomic number 16 All are paired cartilage that forms the larynx except:
B. Lesser attenuation density than surrounding A. Arytenoid
tissue B. Corniculate
C. Appears white in the finished radiograph C. Cricoids
D. Radiolucent D. Cuneiform
6. All are considered as the major reaction to contrast media 17 The contrast media of choice for laryngopharyngography
except: is:
A. Cardiac arrest A. Barium enema
B. Severe bronchial spasm B. Gastrografin
C. Burning sensation C. Dionosil
D. Severe hypertension D. Cholegrafin
7. All describes about the positive contrast media except; 18 Given to the patient who undergo nasopharyngography
A. Substance with higher atomic purposely to suppress nasopharynx and buccal secretion and
number than surrounding prevent laryngospasm:
tissue B. Appears white on the A. Buscopan
finish radiograph B. Hyoscine
C. Radiolucent C. Atropine
D. Radiopaque D. Sparklers
8. All are categorized as local reaction to contrast media 19 For the completion of the examination in
except: nasopharyngography, to evacuate the contrast media the
A. Increase salivation patient is instructed to:
B. Rushes A. Swallow the contrast media
C. Bronchial spasm B. Urinate the contrast media
D. Burning sensation C. Sit up and blow the nose
9. Salivary gland which is considered as the largest, have D. Drink plenty of water
flattened superficial portion and wedge shape deep: 20 All belongs to the alimentary canal of
A. Submandibular the digestive system except; A. Esophagus
B. Sublingual B. Stomach
C. Parotid C. Pancreas
D. Whartons D. Large intestine
10.Considered as anti spasmodic drug: 21 All are accessory organ of the digestive system except:
A. Biloptin A. Pancreas
B. Telebrex B. Liver
C. Buscopan C. Stomach
D. Liopodol D. Gall bladder
11 Generic name for iopamiro:
22 All functions to absorbed digestive food except:
A. Iohexol
A. Small intestine
B. Iopromide
B. Stomach
C. Iopamidol
C. Large intestine
D. Iopanoic acid
D. A & B
23 Mixture for thick barium: 33 All are true regarding the duodenum except:
A. 4 parts of water to 4 part of barium A. Shortest, widest and most fixed portion of the
small bowel
B. A parts of water to 1 part of barium
B. Retroperitoneal structure
C. 1 part of water to 4 parts of barium
C. S shape organ
D. 1 part of water and 1 part of gastroluf
D. Located posterior to parietal peritoneum
24 To best demonstrate opaque foreign bodies lodged in the
34 The location of the duodenal bulb in hypersthenic patient:
pharynx in esophagogram:
A. T 7 – T 9
A. Use water soluble contrast media
B. L2 – L4
B. Use non ionic contrast media
C. T11 – T12
C. Use of tuft or saturated pledgets of
cotton saturated with a thin barium D. Use D. L3 – L4
of negative contrast media 35 Gastric peristalsis is usually more active if the patient is put
in:
25 Gullet is the 3rd part of the alimentary canal which is a
collapsible fibro muscular tube that begins and end A. Butterfly method
approximately: B. Upright
A. C1 – L2 C. RAO
B. C1 – T 1 D. Chassard lapine
C. C6 – T11 36 A modification of the trendenlenburg which shows the
D. C6 – T1 relationship of the stomach to the diaphragm:
26 All are true regarding the location of the esophagus A. Gordon’s method
except: B. Perrie method
A. Posterior to larynx C. Wolf method
B. Anterior to cervical and thoracic D. Alistair’s method
C. Posterior to cervical and thoracic 37 The patient is in supine position, the body is rotated
D. Posterior to trachea and heart approximately 45 degrees towards the side of interest, and
27 All are considered as the normal narrowing of the esophagus these best demonstrate the left like pattern of the pylorus
except: and valve:
A. Level of cricoid A. Poppels method
B. Level of aortic knob B. Gugliantini method
C. Level of pylorus C. Hampton’s method
D. Opposite of the crossing of left bronchus D. Alistair’s method
38 The degree of angulation and direction for gugliantini
28 All are considered as the three segment of the esophagus
method
except:
A. 35 – 45 degree cephalad
A. Cervical segment
B. Perpendicular
B. Thoracic segment
C. 20 – 25 degree caphalad
C. Pyloric segment
D. 35 – 45 degree caudad
D. Intrathoracic segment
39 PA axial modification for the stomach which best
29 A condition characterized by abnormal constriction of the
demonstrate pyloric canal and duodenal valve for infant
gastro esophageal junction is term as:
patient:
A. Chalasia
A. Alistair’s method
B. Mallory weiss
B. Gordon’s method
C. Achalasia
C. Gugliantini method
D. Zenker’s
D. Butterfy method
30 Seen radiographically as outpouching or sac protruding
40 Congenital abnormality due to partial persistence of the
from esophageal lumen:
mesenteric duct resulting in a diverticulum and considered as
A. Mallory weiss tear
fairly common birth defect found in the ileum of the small
B. Hiatal hernia
bowel:
C. Zenker’s diverticula
A. Crohn’s disease
D. Chalasia
B. Regional enteritis
31 Best demonstrate esophageal reflux except:
C. Meckel’s diverticulum
A. Valsalva maneuver
D. Intussusceptions
B. Water test
41 All are true to accelerate peristalsis during small bowel
C. Mhueller test series for patient with hypo motility except:
D. Compression technique A. Patient is given a glass of ice water of food
32 All describes the stomach except: stimulant
A. A sac like organ, most B. A tea or coffee or other peristaltic
dilated portion of the stimulant is given to the patient
alimentary canal B. Gaster C. Patient instructed to sleep to
C. Located in the left lower quadrant of the fasten the stimulation of food
abdomen
D. Patient is instructed to walk inside
D. J shape consist of cardia, fundus, antrum, corpus
and pylorus the department between time
interval
42 All are true regarding volvulus except: 51 For non cholecystectomy patient, maximum opacification
A. Tapered or corkscrew appearance takes place approximately:
B. Twisting of the bowel on itself that A. 10 minutes after injection
may lead to intestinal obstruction B. 20 minutes after injection
C. Saw tooth appearance in the C. 2 hours after injection
radiograph D. A & B
D. Frequently involves the cecum and sigmoid colon 52 All are considered as major risk in doing the percutaneous
43 All are true regarding the diverticula except: transhepatic cholangio-pancreatography except:
A. Saw tooth appearance in the radiograph A. Liver hemorrhage
B. Outpouching that represent herniations of B. Pneumothorax
mucosa C. Liver cancer
C. Corkscrew appearance in the radiograph D. Escape of bile
D. Most commonly occurs in the sigmoid and rarely 53 Introduced by Mirizzi in 1932, and carried out during
in less than 30 years of age biliary tract surgery and forms as an integral part of the
44 For hyposthenic patient, the patient is required to rotate biliary surgery:
how many degrees of obliquity to shift the gallbladder away A. ERCP
from the spine: B. PTC
A. 35 – 45 degrees LAO C. Operative cholangiography
B. 15 - 20 degrees LAO D. Oral cholecystography
C. 20 – 25 degrees LAO 54 What is the centering point for an average size patient
D. 5 – 10 degrees LAO for RAO of the stomach:
45 For asthenic patient, the patient is required to rotate how A. Cardiac antrum
many degrees of obliquity to shift the gallbladder away from
B. Duodenal bulb
the spine:
C. Greater curvature
A. 5 – 10 degrees LAO
D. Iliac crest
B. 15 - 20 degrees LAO
55 Generic name for ultravist:
C. 35 – 45 degrees LAO
A. Iopromide
D. 25 – 30 degrees LAO
B. Iopamidol
46 All are true regarding the gallbladder except:
C. Iohexol
A. 7 – 10 cm long and 3 cm wide
D. Ioversol
B. 2 ounces or 30 – 40 ml of bile capacity 56. Which of the following best demonstrate the
C. Thin walled, C shape musculomembranous sac hepatic flexure of the colon:
D. Function to store and concentrate bile A. RPO and LAO
47 In oral cholecystography, if the patient is instructed to B. RPO and LPO
exhale during the exposure the gallbladder moves in what C. LPO and RAO
direction:
D. RAO and LAO
A. GB moves downward and near the midline
57. Which term describes the accumulation of
B. GB moves laterally and near midline abnormal amounts of fluid in the intercellular spaces:
C. GB moves upward and away from midline A. Abscess
D. GB moves inferiorly and near the midline B. Infarct
48 In oral cholecystography, if the patient is instructed to C. Edema
inhale during the exposure the gallbladder moves in what
D. Hemorrhage
direction:
58. Generic name for biloptin:
A. GB moves laterally and near midline
A. Sodium iopodate
B. GB moves upward and away from midline
B. Iohexol
C. GB moves downward and near the midline
C. Ioversol
D. GB moves inferiorly and near the midline
D. Bisacodyl
49 A modification in oral cholecystography which best
separate the GB shadow from hepatic flexure or from iliac
crest in asthenic patient: 59. Drugs that are use to relax the muscle and relieve
the spasm of the GI tract
A. Right decubitus
B. PA upright A. Benadryl
C. Fleischner’s modification B. Antiemetic
D. Alistair’s modification C. Hyoscine
50 In intravenous cholangiography, maximum opacification D. Diuretic
take approximately how many minutes: 60. Antispasmodic drug:
A. 10 – 20 minutes after injection A. Epinephrine
B. 20 – 30 minutes after injection B. Benadryl
C. 30 – 40 minutes after injection C. Buscopan
D. 40 – 50 minutes after injection D. Antitussive
61. Which of the following unite to form the common bile 69. Iohexol is:
duct? A. Optiray
1. Common hepatic duct B. Hypaque
2. Pancreatic duct C. Omnipaque
3. Cystic duct D. Conray
A. 1 and 2 only 70. Which of the following will best demonstrate
B. 1 and 3 only the splenic flexure of the colon?
C. 2 and 3 only A. PA
D. 1, 2, and 3 B. Lateral
62. What term is used to describe the opening between the C. LAO
duodenum and the stomach: D. RAO
A. Pyloric orifice 71. Contrast media use for bronchography:
B. Cardiac orifice A. Gastroluf
C. Sphincter of Oddi B. Gastrofin
D. Pylorus C. Dionosil
63. Which of the following are names for the same salivary gland? D. A & B
1. Sublingual 72. Which of the following secretes bile?
2. Submandibular A. Gallbladder
3. Submaxillary B. Pancreas
A. 1 and 2 only C. Liver
B. 1 and 3 only D. Stomach
C. 2 and 3 only 73. A liquid cholestokinetic agent use to stimulate gall
D. 1, 2, and 3 bladder:
64. Which of the following can be detected with A. Hytrast
postoperative cholangiography? B. Biloptin
1. The status of the sphincter of the C. Neo cholex
hepatopancreatic ampulla D. AOTA
2. The presence of previously undetected stones 74. At which vertebral level does the trachea
3. The patency of the ducts form a junction with the larynx? A. 4th
A. 1 and 2 only cervical
B. 1 and 3 only B. 6th cervical
C. 2 and 3 only C. 2ndthoracic
D. 1, 2 and 3 D. 4ththoracic
65. What are the proper breathing instructions for an AP 75. Which of the following describes the areas of incomplete
abdomen? ossification present in the newborn infant calvarium?
A. Shallow breathing A. Bregmatic fossae
B. Rapid breathing B. Ossificans
C. Full exhalation C. Fontanels
D. Full inhalation D. Depressions
66. Generic name for pantopaque: 76. What is the primary direction in which the stomach will
A. Dionosil move when a patient changes from an upright to recumbent
B. Iopanoic acid position?
C. Iophendylate A. Posterior
D. Sodium diatrizoate B. Anterior
67. Which of the following describes a retrograde pyelogram? C. Superior
1. Cystography D. Lateral
2. Nephrotomography
3. Urography 77. Which of the following procedures uses a fiber optic
A. 1 only endoscope?
B. 2 only A. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography
C. 3 only B. Endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography
D. 1, 2, and 3 C. Postoperative cholangiography
68. Which of the following signal completion of small bowel D. Operative cholangiography
study? 78. Which of the following tissues should be demonstrated
1. 60 minutes after on an AP abdomen projection?
ingestion of barium 1. Psoas muscles
2. Barium in the rectum 2. Liver
3. Barium in the cecum 3. Kidneys
A. 1 only A. 1 only
B. 2 only B. 2 only
C. 3 only C. 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
79. Which of the following are contained within the pelvis 88. Which organ includes the duct of Wirsung?
cavity? A. Spleen
1. Urinary bladder B. Liver
2. Rectum C. Pancreas
3. Kidneys D. Kidney
A. 1 and 2 only 89. What is the normal number of parathyroid glands?
B. 1 and 3 only A. 2
C. 2 and 3 only B. 3
D. 1, 2, and 3 C. 4
80. What is the largest foramen in the body? D. 5
A. Foramen magnum 90. Generic name for hypaque:
B. Obturator foramen A. Dionosil
C. Foramen ovale B. Ioversol
D. Jugular foramen C. Meglumine sodium diatrizoate
81. What is rugae? D. Iopamidol
A. A region of duodenum prone to ulcers 91. Also known as Bisacodyl:
because of their thin walls A. Penicillin tablet
B. Outpouching of the wall of the colon B. Hytrast
C. Stones that may form in the gallbladder C. Dulcolax
D. Gastric mucosal folds D. Neo cholex
82. What structures are examined during sialography? 92. Where should a Colcher-Sussman ruler is placed for an
1. Salivary glands AP:
2. Salivary ducts A. 10 cm above the table top
3. Esophagus B. 15 cm above the table top
A. 1 and 2 only C. 10 cm below the symphysis pubis
B. 1 and 3 only D. At the level of the symphysis pubis
C. 2 and 3 only 93. What is the normal time period from intravenous
D. 1, 2, and 3 injection to the greatest concentration of urographic contrast
83. What is the relationship of the thymus gland to other media in the renal collecting system?
thoracic structures: A. 30 to 60 seconds
1. Anterior to the trachea? B. 2 to 8 minutes
2. Superior to the heart C. 15 to 20 minutes
3. Medial to the sternoclavicular joints D. 45 to 60 minutes
A. 1 and 2 only 94. All are contrast media use in urinary except:
B. 1 and 3 only A. Dionosil
C. 2 and 3 only B. Iopromide
D. 1, 2, and 3 C. Iohexol
84. What is the primary reason for considering the D. Ioversol
use of a PA projection of the abdomen instead of 95. In barium enema examination, which of the following
an AP: projections best demonstrates the rectum?
A. A magnification of the kidneys to increase A. PA
recorded detail
B. RAO
B. Patient motion is reduced
C. Lateral
C. Reduction of patient dose
D. LAO
D. Fecal material drops into the cecum or rectum
96. What is the proper tube direction and degree of
85. Which of the following would best demonstrate fluid in the
angulation for the PA axial of the colon?
right pleural cavity?
A. 10 degrees to 20 degrees caudad
A. Left lateral decubitus chest B. 10 degrees to 20 degrees cephalad
B. Ventral decubitus chest C. 30 degrees to 40 degrees caudad
C. Right lateral decubitus chest
D. 30 degrees to 40 degrees cephalad
D. Dorsal decubitus chest
97. What term describes the region in which all thoracic
86. All are contrast media use in biliary except: organs except the lungs are located?
A. Biloptin A. Sternal cavity
B. Cholebrin B. Diaphragm
C. Hytrast C. Mediastinum
D. Telepaque D. Bronchial tree
87. Which term describes a localized area of necrotic tissue? 98. At what level is the duodenal bulb located:
A. Abscess A. T10
B. Edema B. L4
C. Infarct C. L2
D. Hemorrhage D. L5
99. Which of the following provide evaluation of renal 107. Which term describes the vessels
function? that leave the renal
1. Cystourethrogram glomerulus? 1. Henle’s loop
2. Retrograde Pyelogram 2. Afferent arteriole
3. Intravenous Urogram (IVP) 3. Efferent arteriole
A. 1 only A. 1 only
B. 2 only B. 2 only
C. 3 only C. 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 D. 1, 2, and 3
100. Which term describes the thin flap that covers the 108. Contrast media use in myelography:
laryngeal entrance during swallowing? A. Iophendylate
A. Pharynx B. Dionosil
B. Cricoid C. Iopamidol
C. Epiglottis D. Iopanoic acid
D. Hyoid 109. What is the purpose of the valsalva maneuver:
101. Which is a tablet in form? A. To close the esophagus
A. Optiray B. To elevate the diaphragms
B. Ultravist C. To distend the trachea
C. Telepaque D. To close the epiglottis
D. Conray 110. Which of the following is considered to be
102. Which of the following best demonstrate part of the lymphatic system? A. Liver
the splenic flexure of the colon? A. RPO B. Gall bladder
and LPO C. Spleen
B. LPO and RAO D. Pancreas
C. RPO and LAO 111. How is the trachea filled with air to better demonstrate
D. RAO and LAO its position during an AP projection?
102. Which portion of the gastrointestinal tract is the A. The patient holds a deep inspiration
longest? B. The patient slowly exhales during the exposure
A. Esophagus C. The patient slowly inhales during the exposure
B. Stomach D. The patient holds a deep expiration
C. Small bowel 112. Which of the following describe the relationship
D. Colon between the trachea and other thoracic structures?
103. Which of the following will project the gallbladder away 1. Anterior to the esophagus
from superimposition of the vertebral column? 2. Anterior to the vertebral column
A. AP 3. Superior to the heart
B. PA A. 1 and 2 only
C. LAO B. 1 and 3 only
D. LPO C. 2 and 3 only
104. Which of the following are salivary glands? D. 1, 2, and 3
1. Sublingual 113. Which of the following are malignant?
2. Submandibular 1. Adenoma
3. Suborbital 2. Sarcoma
A. 1 and 2 only 3. Adenocarcinoma
B. 1 and 3 only A. 1 and 2 only
C.2 and 3 only B. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 C. 2 and 3 only
105. Which of the following involves destructive changes in D. 1, 2, and 3
the small airways with a decrease in the volume of air in the
114. Which two portion of vowel meet at the angle of Treitz:
lungs?
A. Jejunum and ileum
A. Pneumonia
B. Ileum and ascending colon
B. Histoplasmosis
C. Duodenum and jejunum
C. Emphysema
D. Descending colon and sigmoid
D. Pneumoconiosis
115. Which of the following are auditory ossicles?
106. Which of the following are critical elements of an
1. Incus
operative cholangiography procedure?
2. Stapes
1. Minimum exposure time
3. Malleus
2. Film centered to the right upper quadrant of the
abdomen A. 1 and 2 only
3. A pressure injector is available if needed B. 1 and 3 only
A. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
116. What is the normal time period from intravenous 125. Which term describes the lost of blood:
injection to radiographic appearance of urographic contrast A. Abscess
media in the pelvicalyceal system? A. 30 to 60 seconds B. Edema
B. 15 to 20 minutes C. Hemorrhage
C. 2 to 8 minutes D. Infarct
D. 45 to 60 minutes 126. Which of the following will produces the best image of
117. What is another term for ensiform process? the duodenal bulb and pyloric canal during a barium stomach
A. Gladiolus examination:
A. Erect
B. Xiphoid
B. Supine
C. Manubrium
C. RAO
D. Coracoid
D. Prone
118. Which of the following are divisions of the stomach?
127. Which of the following are useful in demonstrating
1. Pylorus
air-fluid levels in the abdomen?
2. Duodenum 1. Dorsal decubitus abdomen
3. Fundus 2. Lateral decubitus abdomen
A. 1 and 2 only 3. Supine PA abdomen
B. 1 and 3 only A. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only B. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 C. 2 and 3 only
119. Where is the liver located?
D. 1, 2, and 3
A. Lower right quadrant
128. Which organ produces oxygen into, and removes the
B. Upper left quadrant
carbon dioxide from, the blood:
C. Upper right quadrant
A. Spleen
D. Lower left quadrant
B. Kidney
120. Which of the following best demonstrates
C. Lung
the hepatic flexure of the colon? A.PA
D. Heart
B. lateral
129. Which of the following are methods by which
C. RAO
malignant neoplasms metastasize?
D. LAO
1. Seeding within body cavities
121. What is the reason why a patient should be maintained
2. Lymphatic spread
in a left lateral position for 10 to 20 minutes prior to the
3. Embolistic spread
exposures intended to demonstrate free air in the abdomen:
A. 1 and 2 only
1. It allows gas to rise to the right hemi diaphragm
B. 1 and 3 only
2. It allows fluid to accumulate in the retro renal
spaces C. 2 and 3 only
3. It allows gas to distribute evenly under both D. 1, 2, and 3
diaphragms 130. What is the average normal transit time for food to
A. 1 only travel from the mouth to the ileocecal valve?
B. 2 only A. 24 hours
C. 3 only B. 1o to 12 hours
D. 1, 2, and 3 C. 2 to 3 hours
122. Which of the following are contained within the abdominal D. 48 hours
cavity? 131. Which of the following is examined during endoscopic
1. Liver retrograde cholangio-pancreatography?
2. Kidneys 1. Pancreatic and biliary duct
3. Stomach 2. Common bile duct
A. 1 and 2 only 3. Wharton’s duct
B. 1 and 3 only A. 1 only
C. 2 and 3 only B. 2 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 C. 3 only
123. Which of the following is the common name for osteitis D. 1, 2, and 3
deformans? 132. Which of the following describes a fistula?
A. Rickets A. An abnormal passage leading to an abscess
B. Gout B. A blocked vein that no longer functions
C. Paget’s disease C. An abnormal passage, usually between two
D. Ewing’s sarcoma organs
D. A blocked artery that no longer functions
124. Which of the following is a common cause of ileus?
133. At which of the following ages would the thymus gland
A. Ingestion of barium
most likely be at its maximum size:
B. Pneumonia
A. 9 months
C. Surgery
B. 4 years
D. Malignant tumor
C. 14 years
D. 65 years
134. To which of the following is the renal glomerular capsule 142. What is intended by the abbreviation “prn”?
connected: A. with
1. Henle’s loop B. without
2. Proximal convoluted tubule C. as needed
3. Distal convoluted tubule D. nothing by mouth
A. 1 only 143. What is intended by the abbreviation “c”?
B. 2 only A. cubic centimeter
C. 3 only B. without
D. 1, 2, and 3 C. with
135. What term describes the sacculations of the colon that D. centimeter
are formed between the taeniae coli in the wall?
144. What legal doctrine, now in decline, holds that the
A. Ligaments employer is responsible for the acts of the radiographer?
B. Sphincters A. Assault & battery
C. Haustra B. Res ipsa loquitor
D. Rugae C. Respondent superior
136. What is the proper obliquity of the body for D. Habeas corpus
an RAO position of the colon? A. 45 to
145. Generic name for optiray:
55 degrees
A. Ioversol
B. 25 to 35 degrees
B. Iopromide
C. 35 to 45 degrees
C. Iopamidol
D. 15 to 25 degrees
D. Iopanoic acid
137. What is the approximate length of the human
146. Arrange the meninges from inner to outer:
gastrointestinal tract?
A. Dura, arachnoid and pia
A. 5 feet
B. Arachnoid, pia and dura
B. 10 feet
C. Pia, arachnoid and dura
C. 30 feet
D. Pia, dura and arachnoid
D. 75 feet
147. In myelography, to prevent the contrast media from
138. Which of the following will best demonstrate
passing into the cerebral ventricles, the patient head is put
esophageal varices by increasing venous pressure during an
in:
esophagram?
A. Acute flexion
1. Recumbent LPO
B. Rotate on the left side
2. Recumbent LAO
C. Acute extension
3. Erect LAO
D. Head is lower than feet
A. 1 and 2 only
148. All are special radiographic examination for non gravid
B. 1 and 3 only
patient except:
C. 2 and 3 only
A. Hysterosalpingography
D. 1, 2, and 3
B. Pelvic pneumography
139. Which of the following involves inflammation of the
C. Placentography
walls of the alveoli and supporting structures of the lung?
D. Vaginography
A. Alveolar pneumonia
149. All are special radiographic
B. Bronchopneumonia
examination for gravid
C. Interstitial pneumonia
patient except: A. Fetography
D. Aspiration pneumonia
B. Amniography
140. Which of the following documents are parts of
C. Pelvic pneumography
the patient’s medical record?
D. Pelvimetry
1. Record of medications given 150. Pelvis type which is heart shape, triangular inlet,
2. Consent forms prominent ischial spine and more angulated pubis:
3. Radiographs A. Anthropoid
A. 1 and 2 only B. Platypelloid
B. 1 and 3 only C. Android
C. 2 and 3 only D. Hysteroid
D. 1, 2, and 3 151. The following are contrast agent recommended for
141. Which of the following persons may prescribe a radiographic better visualization of GB via oral method except:
procedure? A. Telepaque
1. Radiographer B. Biloptin
2. Radiologist C. Buscopan
3. Nuclear medicine technologist D. Cholebrin
A. 1 only 152. All are indication for Intravenous cholangiography
except:
B. 2 only
A. Further assessment of non functioning GB in oral
C. 3 only chole
D. 1, 2 and 3 B. Post cholecystectomy patients with recurrent
symptoms of biliary tract disease
C. To evaluate the head of the pancreas in cases of
obstruction
 D. To demonstrate common bile duct
abnormalities if oral chole is negative 164. What type of technique is used in the arteriography?
153. Which of the following refers to the softening A. Wangestine
of the walls of the esophagus? B. Wagging
A. Esophagocele C. Seldinger
B. Esophagomalacia D. Lithotomy
C. Esophagoptosis 165. Degree and direction of tube for demonstration of
D. Esophagostoma hiatal hernia in wolf method:
154. All are radiographic procedures that are functional & non A. 5 – 8 degree cephalad
invasive except: B. 10 – 20 degree cephalad
A. Oral chole C. 10 – 20 degree caudad
B. Rapid sequence timed IVU D. 5 – 8 degree caudad
C. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography 167. Radiographic examination of the urinary bladder
D. Intravenous pyelography after it had been filled with CM:
155. Which of the following radiologic procedures of choice A. Urography
for the detection of suspicious renal tumor, abscess or stone? B. Bladergraphy
A. Retrograde pyelography C. Cystography
B. Barium enema D. Urethrography
C. IV urography 168. Which of the following is the preferred sequence of
D. IV cholangiography scheduling?
156. The following are indications of A. Lower GI, Abdomen ultrasound, Upper GI
intravenous cholangiography, except: B. Abdomen Ultrasound, Lower GI, Upper GI
A. Vesicoureteric reflux C. Abdomen Ultrasound, Upper GI, Lower GI
B. Stress incontinence D. Upper GI, Lower GI, Abdomen Ultrasound
C. Pytosis 169. Which of the following procedures uses an indwelling
D. Abnormalities of the urinary bladder drainage tube for CM administration?
157. Which of the following is not seen in 5 minutes shot IVP: A. ERCP
A. Renal pyramid B. Operative cholangiography
B. Renal pelvis C. T tube cholangiography
C. Urinary bladder D. PTC
D. Calyxes 170. During myelography, CM is introduced into:
158. The usual dose of contrast media for adult IVP: A. Subdural space
A. 100 – 150 ml B. Sub arachnoid space
B. 150 – 200 ml C. Epidural space
C. 10 – 20 ml D. Epidural space
C. 30 – 100 ml 171. Which of the following will most effectively move GB
159. Radiographic examination of choice for evaluation of away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient?
esophagogastric reflux: A. LPO
A. Intravenous cholangiography B. RAO
B. PTC C. LAO
C. Water test D. Erect
D. Retrograde pyelography 172. Which of the following procedures would function to
160. For a cholecystectomy patient, what radiographic procedure dilate a stenotic vessel?
is done? A. Percutaneous Nephrolithiasis
A. Cholangiography B. Renal arteriography
B. Cholecystography C. Percutaneous angioplasty
C. Urography D. Surgical nephrostomy
D. Pyelography 173. When the erect position is requested as part of the
161. Nitrous oxide is used as a CM in what procedure: IVP, it is used to demonstrate:
A. Myelography A. Adrenal gland
B. Arthrography B. Renal structure
C. Pelvis pneumography C. Kidney mobility
D. Hysterosalpingography D. Bladder neck
161. A direct surgico radiographic examination wherein CM is 174. ERCP usually involves:
introduced in the duct of wirsung: 1. Cannulation of the hepatopancreatic Ampulla
A. Enteroclysis 2. Introduction of CM into the CBD
B. GI intubation 3. Introduction of barium directly into the
C. Pancreatography duodenum
D. Duodenography A. 1 only
162. Which of the following method in orbit radiography uses B. 1 & 2
device that determine the exact location of foreign body C. 1 & 3
using geometric calculation: D. 1, 2 & 3
A. Modified lysholm method 175. What is the name of the air contrast study of the
B. Parallax method duodenum after injection of an antispasmodic drug?
C. Sweet method localization A. Air contrast GI
D. Pfeiffer comberg method B. Air contrast duodenography
163. The method of orbit radiography that indicate whether C. Hypotonic duodenography
the foreign body is located within eyeball but requires no D. Gastrography
special apparatus: 176. All are categorized as moderate reaction to contrast
A. Modified lysholm media except:
B. Sweet method localization A. Excessive hives
C. Parallax method B. Tachycardia
D. Pfeiffer comberg method C. Nausea
D. Excessive vomiting
 188. A 4 year old is brought down to the radiology
177. Majority of all reaction to contrast media occurs within department for intravenous urogram, the radiologist orders
how many minutes from the start of injection:
40% of the normal 50cc adult dosage is used. The amount to
A. 60 minutes
be prepared is:
B. 30 minutes
C. 1 – 5 minutes A. 45 cc
D. 20 minutes B. 38 cc
178. Considered as the two most common allergic reaction to C. 30 cc
contrast media: D. 20 cc
1. Metallic taste in the mouth 189. Before the study of the large intestines is performed, it
2. Temporary hot flush is important that the patient be prepared, this will generally
3. Itching
involve:
4. Hives
A. 1 and 3 1. Gastric lavage
B. 2 and 3 2. Colonic lavage
C. 1 and 2 3. Dietary restrictions
D. 2 and 4 4. Enteroclysis
179. A drug given for management of non insulin dependent A. 1 & 4
diabetic mellitus patient:
B. 2 & 3
A. Aspirin
B. Buscopan C. 1, 2 & 4
C. Metformine hydrochloride D. 1, 2 , 3 & 4
D. Benadryl 190. What is a safe rate of intravenous infusion?
180. Pelvicalyceal system is seen in how many minutes after A. 2 – 6 drops / min
the injection of contrast media:
B. 15 – 20 drops/ min
A. 15 minutes
B. 10 minutes C. 25 – 35 drops / min
C. 2 – 8 minutes D. 40 – 50 drops / min
D. 1 minutes 191. What is the triangular portion of the urinary bladder
181. Pelvicacyceal system seen with greatest appearance: along the inner & posterior surface?
A. 45 minutes A. Bladder
B. 30 minutes
B. Trigone
C. 15 – 20 minutes
D. 2 – 8 minutes C. Prostate
182. Which of the following will best visualize the left D. Uterus
kidney in profile for IPV examination? 192. In cases of lumbar region obstruction, a myelogram may
A. LPO be performed by using a _____injection site:
B. Lateral A. Ventricular
C. RPO
B. Subdural
D. Supine
183. Best demonstrate the axial image of the posterior C. Cisternal
surface of the bladder and the lower end of the ureter in D. Cranial sinus
retrograde cystography: 193. Which of the following media is classified as a type of
A. Supine colloidal suspension?
B. RAO
A. Sodium diatrizoate
C. Squat shot
D. LAO B. Iopanoic acid
184. Which of the following will best visualize the right kidney in C. Nitrous oxide
profile for IPV examination? D. Barium sulfate
A. RPO 194. The used of sodium diatrizoate (Hypaque) is not
B. Lateral considered safe for _______ injections:
C. LPO
A. Intravenous
D. Supine
185. When iodinated CM is employed, the maximum B. Intramuscular
kilovoltage that should be used is: C. Intrathecal
A. 60 kVp D. Intra-arterial
B. 80 kVp 195. The signs of flushing, sneezing and urticaria from an
C. 95 kVp iodine contrast media injection are some of the warning signs
D. 110 kVp of:
186. The principal route of elimination of most aqueous iodine A. Prophylaxis
CM is the: B. Iodine coma
A. GI tract C. Extravasation
B. Respiratory system D. Anaphylaxis
C. Biliary tract 196. An intravenous urogram patient has an anaphylactic
D. Urinary tract shock reaction. You pull the emergency tray out. The drug
that is most likely to be administered first is: A. Heparin
187. The resistance of a fluid to change form or position due
to the molecular cohesion is termed: B. Epinephrine
A. Viscosity C. Antibiotics
B. Miscibility D. Atropine
C. Toxicity
D. Osmolality
197. Barium sulfate suspensions are nearly totally safe if they
remain within the G.I. tract. Their toxicity increases
dramatically if spillage occurs into the:
1. Duodenum
2. Peritoneum
3. Circulatory system
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 & 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3
198. All are true regarding hysterosalpingography except:
A. Demonstrate patency of the oviduct in case of
infertility
B. Special radiographic examination of the fallopian
tube, ovaries and uterus
C. Schedule about 15 days after the start of
menstruation or just before ovulation
D. Pregnancy is one of the contraindication
199. All are indications for the
hysterosalpingography
procedure except: A. Study of
infertility
B. Restoring patency of occluded tubes
C. Active uterine bleeding
D. Determination of cause of dysmenorrhea
200. All are true regarding fetography examination except:
A. Detection of fetal abnormalities
B. Determine the position of the fetus
C. Study of the infertility
D. Determination of the amount of amniotic fluid