ÜROLOJİ ÇIKMIŞLAR 6.

Which of the following is the mean storage

area for mature spermatozoa?
1. Which one of the following should never be a) epididymis
done in the presence of hypospadias? b) ampulla of the vas
a) Circumcision c) ductus ejaculatorius
b) Ruling out intersex abnormalities in proximal d) seminiferous tubules
hypospadias e) seminal vesicles
c) Surgical correction of hypospadias in early
childhood. 7. Which of the following is most common
d) Urinary ultrasound examination treatable cause of secondary male infertility by
e) Performing circumcision during or after surgery?
surgical correction of hypospadias a) Varicocele
b) Isolated hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
2. Low volume ejaculates may be due to all of the c) Bilateral absence of Vas Deference
following EXCEPT? d) Sertoli Cell – Only Syndrome
a) Varicocele e) Bilateral anorchia
b) Ejaculatory duct obstruction
c) Partial retrograde ejaculation 8. Teratospermia means:
d) Androgen Deficiency a) Absence of semen
e) Sympathetic Denervation b) Absence of sperm cells in semen
c) Sperm counts below normal limits
3. Which one of the following is a “maximum d) Impaired motility
androgen blockade”? e) Impaired morphology of sperm
a) Orchiectomy + LH-RH analog
b) Hormonal treatment + chemotherapy 9. Asthenospermia means:
c) LH-RH analog + antiandrogen treatment a) absence of semen
d) Antiandrogen treatment + 5-alpha reductase b) absence of sperm cells in semen
inhibitors c) sperm counts below normal limits
e) Bilateral subcapsular orchiectomy + 5-alpha d) impaired motility
reductase inhibitors e) seminal vesicles

4. Which one of the following statements is 10. Which one of the following is the most
wrong? common reason for priapism in today’s
a) There should be 2-3 days of ejaculative urological practice?
abstinence before giving sample for semen a) Sickle cell disease
analysis. b) Iatrogenic reasons
b) Azospermia refers to decreased sperm c) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
count in a semen analysis. d) Trauma
c) The duration of spematogenesis is 72 days in e) Advanced malignancy
humans.
d) FSH levels are found to be elevated in 11. Which one of the below statements is true for
spermotogenetic failure. Peyronie’s Disease?
e) To start the couple to evaluate for infertility, a) It is a local inflammation of Tunica Albuginia
there should be at least 1 year of regular sexual of the penis
intercourse with no pregnancy. b) Prevalence of Peyronie’s Disease is about 0.4-
2%
5. Inhibin is secreted from: c) Patients are usually between 40-60 years old.
a) Leydig cells d) Treatment options are medical, semi invasive
b) Germinal epithelium local treatments and surgery.
c) Seminiferous tubules e) All of the statements are true
d) Sertoli cells
e) Pituitary gland
12. Which one of the following statements is 16. Which one of the following statements is
wrong? wrong?
a) Communicating type of scrotal hydrocele in a a) Infant type of the scrotal hydrocele occurs
child should be surgically corrected only if it is secondary to a patent processus vaginalis.
associated with indirect inguinal hernia. b) Peyronie’s disease may lead to penile
b) Peyronie’s disease may lead to severe penile curvatures and disable intercourse.
curvatures and disable intercourse. c) Priapism should be treated in an emergency
c) Priapism should be treated in an emergency basis.
basis. d) A palpable varicocele on the right side always
d) A varicocele does not always cause infertility. needs surgical treatment.
e) The incidence of undescended testis is about e) The incidence of undescended testis is about 3
3 to 4 % in full term newborns, decreases to to 4 % in full term newborns, decreases to about
about 1% at the end of the first year of life and 1% at the end of the first year of life.
remains the same through out the life.
17. Which one of the following statements is
13. What is the most significant complication of wrong?
Peyronie’s disease? a) The testes are originally intraabdominal organs
a) It may lead to urethral obstruction and they start to descend at the 7th
b) It may lead to a severe penile inflammation month of gestation
necessitating hospitalization and i.v. antibiotics b) The incidence of undescended testis is about
c) It may lead to long-lasting penile erections that 1 % at one year of age and remains the same
are not associated with sexual intercourse throughout the life.
d) It may lead to erectile dysfunction. c) Peyronie’s Disease may lead to penile
e) It may lead to penile curvatures and painful curvature and should be treated in an emergency
erection. basis.
d) Testicular varicocele may be found in 15% of
14. Which one of the following statements is fertile men versus 40 of infertile men.
wrong? e) Prehn sign is used in the differential diagnosis
a) Undescended testis is associated with a high of testicular torsion and acute epididimo-orchitis,
risk of spermatogenetic failure and testicular but it may not be applicable in all cases due to
cancer formation. severe pain.
b) The incidence of undescended testis is about
3.4 % at the newborn period and remains so 18. Which one of the following should be check
throughout the life. before performing a radiological imaging with IV
c) Testicular torsion must be surgically corrected contrast?
in the first 6 hours to prevent irreversible a) Serum K+
ischemic damage b) Serum creatinine
d) Undescended testis must be treated before 18 c) History of IV contrast allergy
months to save spermatogenesis. d) a & b
e) Peyronie’s Disease may cause penile e) b & c
angulation and painful erection so that sexual
intercourse may be impossible. 19. What is the major contraindication for the
use of IV iodine contrast media?
15. Which one of the following diseases is not an a) Diabetes
emergency case? b) Serum creatinin more than 2 mg/dl
a) Priapism c) Multiple myeloma
b) Peyronie’s disease d) History of atopic dermatitis
c) Paraphimosis e) Bilateral acute pyelonephritis
d) Testicular torsion
e) Testicular cancer
20. The major risk factor for testicular cancer is:
25. A 15-year old boy presents with sudden right
a) Intrauterine hormone exposure testicular pain which started 3 hours ago. His
b) Trauma past medical history is unrevealing. In the
c) Infection physical examination, the right testicle is very
d) Testicular atrophy painful with palpation, reddish and enlarged. The
e) Undescended testis boy does not allow for further manupulation of
the testicle including ultrasound because of his
21. What is the treatment of advanced germ cell severe pain. What should be done next?
testicular cancer? a) Check the serum tumor markers
a) Inguinal orchiectomy + radiotherapy b) Bed rest with testicular elevation and ice-pack
b) Inguinal orchiectomy + chemotherapy application
c) Radiotherapy alone c) Immediate surgical exploration
d) Inguinal orchiectomy + retroperitoneal lymph d) Hospitalize him, obtain urine cultures and start
node dissection antibiotic treatment
e) Inguinal orchiectomy alone e) Obtain urethral cultures after prostatic massage

22. What is the first line treatment of stage I 26. Which one of the following is not a
testicular embryonal carcinoma after inguinal complication of BEP chemotherapy?
orchiectomy with a postoperatively normal serum a) Infertility
alpha-feto protein level? b) Lung toxicity
a) Chemotherapy c) Alopecia
b) Chemotherapy + radiotherapy d) Bone morrow depression
c) Radiotherapy e) Polycythemia
d) Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection
e) Chemotherapy and there after retroperitoneal 27. What is the treatment of stage I testicular
lymph node dissection seminoma?
a) BEP Chemotherapy
23. What is the stage and treatment of a b) BEP Chemotherapy + radiotherapy
testicular germ cell tumor with a skull metastasis c) Radiotherapy
after inguinal orchiectomy? d) Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection
a) stage II, radiotherapy e) Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection + BEP
b) stage III, chemotherapy Chemotherapy
c) stage III, radiotherapy
d) stage IV, chemotharapy 28. What is the treatment of stage I testicular
e) stage II, chemotherapy seminoma?
a) Inguinal radiotherapy
24. Which one of the following statements is b) Observation
wrong? c) Abdominal radiotherapy
a) The testes start to descend at the 7th month of d) Chemotherapy
gestation e) RPLND
b) The incidence of undescended testis is about
3.4 % at 1 year of age. 29. What is the treatment of stage I testicular
c) Testicular torsion must be surgically corrected seminoma?
within the first 6 hours to prevent irreversible a) Chemotherapy
ischemic damage b) Chemotherapy + radiotherapy
d) Undescended testis must be treated before age c) Radiotherapy
2. d) Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection
e) Undescended testis is associated with an 7- to e) Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection +
40-fold increased risk for testicular carcinoma. Chemotherapy
30. What is the treatment of stage I testicular 35. What is the treatment of stage III testicular
seminoma? seminoma after inguinal orchiectomy?
a) Inguinal orchiectomy + radiotherapy a) Chemotherapy
b) Inguinal orchiectomy + BEP chemotherapy b) Chemotherapy + radiotherapy
c) Inguinal orchiectomy + immunotherapy c) Radiotherapy
d) Inguinal orchiectomy + retroperitoneal lymph d) Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection
node dissection e) Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection +
e) Inguinal orchiectomy alone Chemotherapy

31. What is the first line treatment of stage I 36. Which one of the following statements is
testicular seminoma after inguinal orchiectomy? wrong?
a) Chemotherapy a) AFP is never elevated in pure testicular
b) Chemotherapy + radiotherapy choriocarcinoma
c) Radiotherapy b) AFP is never elevated in pure testicular
d) Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection seminoma
e) Chemotherapy and thereafter retroperitoneal c) AFP may be normal in testicular embrional
lymph node dissection carcinoma
d) BHCG is always elevated in choriocarcinoma
32. What is the treatment of stage II testicular e) BHCG is never elevated in pure testicular
seminoma after inguinal orchiectomy with a 10 seminoma
cm retroperitoneal lymph node metastasis and
normal AFP and BHCG levels? 37. Which one does not belong to the treatment of
a) Chemotherapy acute orchitis?
b) Chemotherapy + radiotherapy a) Bed rest
c) Radiotherapy b) Scrotal elevation
d) Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection c) Ice pack application to the scrotum.
e) Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection d) Antibiotic treatment for 10 days
followed by chemotherapy e) Obtain urine cultures and analysis before
starting antibiotic treatment
33. What is the treatment of stage II testicular
seminoma with high level of βHCG 38. Which one of the following statements is
tumor marker? wrong?
a) Inguinal orchiectomy + radiotherapy a) A scrotal hydrocele refers to fluid collection
b) Inguinal orchiectomy + BEP chemotherapy between the internal spermatic layer and tunica
c) Inguinal orchiectomy + immunotherapy vaginalis of the scrotum.
d) Inguinal orchiectomy + retroperitoneal lymph b) A varicocele is the dilation of plexus
node dissection pampiniformis of the tesis.
e) Inguinal orchiectomy alone c) Testicular torsion should be treated in an
emergency basis.
34. What is the treatment of stage III testicular d) A varicocele does not always cause infertility.
seminoma? e) The incidence of undescended testis is about 3
a) Chemotherapy to 4 % in full term newborns.
b) Chemotherapy + radiotherapy
c) Radiotherapy 39. When should one perform orchiopexy in an
d) Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection undescended testis in order to maintain
e) Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection + spermatogenesis ?
Chemotherapy a) below age 2
b) below age 4
c) below age 6
d) below age 8
e) below age 10
40. What is the appropriate age for surgical 45. A 2-year old boy presents with fever (39c).
correction of a unilateral undescended testis His past medical history reveals a surgical
palpable just proximal to the external inguinal correction of his lombar myelomeningocele in the
ring? newborn period. Ultrasound reveals bilateral
a) In the newborn period hydro-uretero-nephrosis and an over-distended
b) Before age 1 urinary bladder. What should be done as the first
c) Before age 2 thing in the management?
d) Between ages 1 and 3 a) Obtain a VCUG under antibiotic coverage
e) Surgery is not needed unless the testicle is according to urine culture test.
easily palpated in the inguinal canal b) Start third generation cephalosporins and i.v.
fluid administration, hospitalize the child until
41. When should one perform orchiopexy in an fever resolves.
undescended testis in order to prevent c) Urethral catheterization of the bladder
spermatogenetic impairment at best ? d) Start third generation cephalosporins and plan
a) below age 1.5 years urodynamic examination under antibiotic
b) below age 2 coverage after fever resolves
c) below age 3 e) Immediate bilateral percutaneous nephrostomy
d) below age 4 to drain hydronephrotic kidneys.
e) below age 5
46. What is the first line treatment of stage I
42. What is the best age to treat a child with testicular embryonal carcinoma after inguinal
unilateral undescended testis? orchiectomy with a postoperatively elevated
a) Newborn period serum alpha-feto protein level but no metastasis
b) 6 months of age on abdominal CT and chest X-ray?
c) 1 year of age a) Chemotherapy
d) 2 years of age b) Chemotherapy + radiotherapy
e) 3 year of age c) Radiotherapy
d) Retroperitoneal lymph node dissection
43. When should one perform orchiopexy in an e) Radiotherapy and thereafter retroperitoneal
undescended testis in order to prevent lymph node dissection
spermatogenetic impairment at best ?
a) after completing the 1st year of age 47. Enuresis is present what percentage of
b) after completing the 2nd year of age children at age 5 years?
c) after completing the 3rd year of age a) 5%
d) after completing the 4th year of age b) 15%
e) after completing the 5th year of age c) 25%
d) 50%
44. When should you think of bladder e) 75%
dysfunction in a child with enuresis nocturna
(EN)? 48. Which of the following is obstructive
a) If day-time lower urinary tract symptoms symptom of prostate?
co-exist a) Nocturia
b) If EN occurs every night b) Frequency
c) If EN occurs more often than 15 days per c) Urgency
month d) Terminal dribbling
d) If it is very difficult to wake up the child from e) Disuria
sleep
e) If the child takes to much fluid after dinner
49. Which of the following statement is wrong? 55. Which one is not included in the management
a) Androgen most potent mitogen to the prostate of acute prostatitis?
b) Histological BPH present 45% of men in their a) Hospitalization
fifties and 90% of men in their eighties b) Bed rest
c) 70% of men older than 60 have prostatism c) Culture of urethral discharge after prostatic
symptoms message
d) 30% of men at 50 year of age undergo d) Obtaining urine cultures
prostatectomy by 80 e) I.V. quinolones
e) No relation between prostate size, severity of
symptoms and bladder outlet obstruction 56. Which one of the following is the most
common complication of acute prostatitis?
50. Which of the following is not true for a) Prostatic abscess
definitive surgical treatment indications of b) Constipation
prostate? c) Macroscopic hematuria
a) Refractory urinary retention d) Sepsis
b) Recurrent UTI e) Urinary retention
c) Gross bleeding
d) Hydronephrosis or renal damage 57. Which one is not included in the management
e) Bladder divertucula of acute prostatitis?
a) Hospitalization
51. Which one of the following is not b) Intravenous fluid administration
complication of the TRUS Guided prostate c) Parenteral antibiotics
biopsy? d) Obtaining urine and blood cultures
a) Sepsis e) Obtaining urethral cultures after prostatic
b) Hemorrhage massage
c) Urinary Incontinence
d) Transient Erectile Dysfunction 58. Which one of the following is least likely to
e) Urinary Retention cause an elevation in serum PSA levels?
a) Digital rectal examination
52. Which one is the origin of BPH? b) Acute Cystitis
a) central zone c) Chronic bacterial prostatitis
b) peripheral zone d) Acute prostatitis
c) transitional zone e) Acute urinary retention.
d) anterior fibromuscular stroma
e) all 59. Which one of the statements about PSA is
correct?
53. Which of the following is not a minimally a) PSA is specific for prostate cancer.
invasive treatment option for BPH-induced b) Serum PSA may increase in urinary
infravesical obstruction? retention.
a) Laser prostatectomy c) Serum PSA levels higher than 40 ng/ml
b) TUIP suggest metastatic prostate cancer.
c) TUNA d) PSA levels may decrease after rectal
d) Open prostatectomy manipulation.
e) Transurethral microwave treatment e) Serum PSA is below 4 ng/ml in BPH.

54. Which of the following is not a treatment 60. Which one of the following does not cause an
option for BPH-induced infravesical obstruction? elevation of serum PSA?
a) TUR-P a) Acute prostatitis
b) Open prostatectomy b) Vesicoureteral reflux
c) Alpha-blocker medication c) Prostate message.
d) Radical prostatectomy d) Acute urinary retention.
e) Transurethral incision of the prostate (TUIP) e) Prostate biopsy.
 e) Radical prostatectomy + hormonal treatment
61. Which one of the following statements about 66. What is the appropriate treatment of a 65-
PSA is true? year-old otherwise healthy patient with organ
a) Serum PSA is always increased in prostate confined prostate cancer?
cancer. a) Surveillance
b) Serum PSA is always normal in BPH b) Radical prostatectomy
c) Serum PSA increases with age. c) Chemotherapy
d) Serum PSA does not increase with volume of d) Hormonal treatment
the prostate. e) Orchiectomy
e) PSA levels more than 10 ng/ml always indicate
prostate cancer. 67. What is the appropriate treatment of a 65-
year-old patient with newly diagnosed prostate
62. Which one of the statements about PSA is cancer and bone metastasis?
correct? a) Surveillance
a) PSA is always elevated in the presence of b) Radical prostatectomy
prostate cancer. c) Chemotherapy
b) PSA increases with age and volume of the d) Hormonal treatment
prostate. e) Radical prostatectomy + hormonal treatment
c) The optimal cut off level of PSA for biopsy of
the prostate is PSA 10 ng/ml. 68. What is the appropriate treatment of a 65
d) PSA levels do not change after rectal year old patient with organ confined prostate
manipulation. cancer?
e) PSA is below 4 ng/ml in 95% of patients with a) Surveillance
BPH. b) Radical prostatectomy
c) Chemotherapy
63. Which one of the following statements about d) Hormonal treatment
PSA is wrong? e) Orchiectomy
a) Serum PSA may be below 4 ng/ml in prostate
cancer. 69. What is the appropriate treatment of a 60
b) Serum PSA levels higher than 10ng/ml are year old patient with an organ confined prostate
always associated with prostate cancer. cancer?
c) Serum PSA increases with age. a) Bilateral orchiectomy
d) Serum PSA increases with volume of the b) Radical prostatectomy
prostate. c) Radical radiotherapy + bilateral orchiectomy
e) Prostatic biopsy may increase serum PSA d) Antiandrogen treatment
levels. e) LHRH analouges

64. Which of the following treatment modality 70. What is the appropriate treatment of a 60
should not be considered in metastatic prostate year old patient with a recently-diagnosed
carcinoma? metastatic prostate cancer?
a) Radiotherapy on metastatic bone lesion a) Radiotherapy alone
b) Maximal androgen blockade b) Radical prostatectomy
c) Orchiectomy c) Radical prostatectomy + Radiotherapy
d) Radical prostatectomy d) Radical prostatectomy + Hormonal treatment
e) Systemic chemotherapy e) Hormonal treatment alone

65. What is the appropriate treatment of a 65-

year-old patient with metastatic prostate cancer?
a) Surveillance
b) Radical prostatectomy
c) Chemotherapy
d) Hormonal treatment
71. 55 years old patient admitted to our 75. Which one of the following is not a symptom
outpatient clinic with PSA value 7. DRE was of overactive bladder syndrome?
normal. Which of the following is next step for a) Frequency
this patient? b) Urgency
a) TRUSG guided prostate biopsy c) Nocturia
b) Cytoscopy d) Urge incontinence
c) TUR (Prostate) e) Bladder pain
d) Radiotherapy
e) Chemotherapy 76. Which one of the following diseases may
cause detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia?
72. 40 years old patient admitted to our a) Spinal cord trauma
outpatient clinic with PSA value 4.5 ng/dl. b) Diabetes
Digital rectal examination was normal. Which of c) Complete cut of the hypogastric nerve during
the following is next step for this patient? pelvic surgery
a) TUR (Prostate) d) Complete cut of the pelvic nerve during pelvic
b) Cytoscopy surgery
c) TRUSG guided prostate biopsy e) Complete cut of the pudendal nerve during
d) Radical prostatectomy pelvic surgery
e) New PSA after 6 months
77. Which one of the following cannot cause true
73. What is the appropriate treatment of a 60- detrusor sphincter dyssynergia?
year-old otherwise healthy patient with an organ a) Multiple sclerosis
confined prostate cancer (PSA: 4 ng/ml, Gleason b) Spinal cord trauma
score 3+3. who does not want to undergo c) Spinal cord tumors
surgery? d) Myelodysplasia
a) Maximum androgen blockade e) Overactive bladder syndrome
b) Radical radiotherapy
c) Follow up with yearly PSA measurement, bone 78. Which of the following statement is wrong for
scan and Abdomino-pelvic CT bladder dynemic?
d) Antiandrogen treatment a) Failure to store is result of sphincteric
e) LHRH analogues weakness
b) Failure to store is result of bladder
74. A 65-year old man with no complaints hyposensitivity or detrusor weakness
presents with a PSA of 7 ng/ ml which was c) Failure to store is result of detrusor
discovered during a routine check-up. His past overactivity
medical history reveals a coronary by- pass d) Failure to empty is result of detrusor-sphincter
surgery 5 years ago. Digital rectal examination dyssynergia (DSD)
reveals a 0,5 cm hard nodule on the right lateral e) Failure to empty is result of bladder outlet
lobe of the prostate. The patient undergoes a obstruction
TRUS-guided prostate biopsy which shows a
bilateral high grade prostate cancer with 79. What is the percentage of superficial bladder
Gleason score of 7. His bone scan, chest X-ray cancer patients that will progress into muscle
and abdomino-pelvic CT reveals no metastasis. invasive disease finally?
What is the most appropriate treatment? a) %1
a) Surveillance b) %10
b) Radical prostatectomy c) %20
c) Radical radiotherapy d) %30
d) Hormonal treatment e) none of them
e) Bilateral orchiectomy
80. Which one of the following is the most 85. What is the treatment of a stage T2 GIII
ominous risk factor for renal damage in a TCCA of the bladder in a 70-year old otherwise
neurogenic bladder? healthy female patient?
a) Detrusor sphincter dyssynergia a) Radical cystectomy
b) Overflow incontinence b) Radical radiotherapy
c) Detrusor hyperreflexia c) TUR and observation
d) Total incontinence d) TUR + intracavitary chemotherapy
e) Detrusor failure e) Systemic chemotherapy

81. Which one of the following is the most 86. What is the treatment of a recurrent Ta G I
ominous risk factor for urinary tract TCCA of the bladder?
deterioration in a patient with neurogenic a) Radical cystectomy
bladder? b) Radical radiotherapy
a) Total incontinence c) TUR and observation
b) Detrusor hyperreflexia d) TUR + intracavitary chemotherapy
c) Detrusor sphincter dyssinergia e) Systemic chemotherapy
d) Decreased bladder capacity
e) Overflow incontinence 87. What is the treatment of primary T1 G II
TCCA after TUR?
82. What is the most common chromosomal a) Radical cystectomy
abnormality in bladder cancer? b) Radical radiotherapy
a) VHL gene loss c) Survaillance
b) p53 loss d) Intracavitary immunotherapy
c) Chromosome 9 loss e) Systemic chemotherapy
d) Chromosome 8 loss
e) Chromosome 7 loss 88. What is the treatment of a T2 GIII TCCA of
the bladder in a 65 year old otherwise healthy
83. What is the best treatment option for locally woman?
advanced bladder cancer? a) Radical cystectomy
a) Radical cystectomy and neoadjuvant b) Radical radiotherapy
chemotherapy c) TUR of the bladder tumor alone
b) Radical cystectomy and adjuvant d) TUR of the bladder tumor + intracavitary
chemotherapy immunotherapy
c) Radical surgery with the addition of e) Systemic chemotherapy after radiotherapy
chemotherapy after the surgical treatment
d) Radical surgery with the addition of 89. Which one is the best treatment modality for
chemotherapy before the surgical treatment multiple 2 cm superficial bladder tumors with T1
e) All of the above Grade II?
a) TUR (Mt)
84. What is the treatment of primary T1 GII b) TUR (Mt) + BCG installation in to the bladder
TCCA? c) Radiotherapy
a) Radical cystectomy d) Chemotherapy
b) Radical radiotherapy e) Immunotherapy
c) TUR
d) TUR + intracavitary chemotherapy
e) Systemic chemotherapy
90. Which one of the following statements is not 93. 50 years old male patient with no comorbidity
true? admitted to urology outpatient clinic with
a) First line diagnostic method is cytology in macroscopic hematuria. The USG revealed 2.5
superficial bladder cancer cm mass into the right lateral wall of the bladder.
b) IVP is better than ultrasound examination in Which of the following is the next step for both
diagnosing bladder cancer diagnosis and treatment?
c) Final diagnosis of bladder cancer is done by a) Complete TUR of bladder mass with/without
biopsy with open surgery intracavitery treatment
d) Patients should receive immediate intravesical b) Radical Cystectomy
chemotherapy or immunotherapy after the tumor c) Radiotherapy
is diagnosed by radiological methods d) Chemotherapy
e) all of the above e) Radiotherapy + Chemotherapy

91. 60 years old male patient with no comorbidity 94. Which one of the following is not an irritative
admitted to urology outpatient clinic with voiding symptom?
macroscopic hematuria. The USG revealed 1.5 a) Dysuria
cm mass into the posterior wall of the bladder. b) Frequency
Which of the following is the next step for both c) Terminal dribbling
diagnosis and treatment? d) Nocturia
a) Complete TUR of bladder mass with/without e) Urgency
intracavitery treatment
b) Radical Cystectomy 95. Which one of the following is not an
c) Radiotherapy obstructive voiding symptom?
d) Chemotherapy a) Hesitancy
e) Radiotherapy + Chemotherapy b) Interrupted voiding
c) Terminal dribbling
92. A 2-year old boy with myelodysplasia d) Nocturia
presents with fever, a distended bladder and e) Straining during voiding
interrupted voiding with decreased projection.
Renal and bladder ultrasound reveals a severe 96. Overflow incontinence will occur if the . .
bilateral renal collecting system dilation and a fulla) Hypogastric nerve is cut
bladder with multiple diverticula and a thickened- b) Pudendal nerve is cut
irregular bladder wall. Urine analysis from 2 days c) Pelvic nerve is cut
ago revealed significant bacteriuria and serum d) Internal urethral sphincter is damaged
renal tests are found to be elevated. What is the e) External urethral sphincter is damaged
first thing to do?
a) Take urine culture, start antibiotics and send 97. Which one of the following is not a cause for
the patient home secondary vesicoureteral reflux?
b) Perform a urodynamic study under antibiotic a) UTI
coverage b) Neurogenic bladder
c) Start i.v. antibiotics empirically and parenteral c) Parahiatal diverticula
fluids and hospitalize him until symptoms resolve d) Ectopic ureter
d) Perform a voiding cystouretrogram under e) Complete ureteral duplication
antibiotic coverage
e) Insert a urethral Foley catheter 98. Which of the following is not a component in
the structure of the vesicoureteral junction?
a) circular smooth muscle fibers of the ureter
b) longitudinal smooth muscle fibers of the ureter
c) the detrusor
d) the orifice
e) superficial trigone
 105. Which one of the following is not a cause of
99. Which one is the true diagnostic modality for infravesical obstruction?
vesicoureteral reflux? a) Urethral stricture
a) IVP b) Detrusor-sphincter dyssynergia
b) Ultrasound c) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
c) Simple cystography d) Urethral stone
d) Voiding cystourethrography e) Urethral hypermobility
e) Retrograde pyelography
106. Which one is the best radiological diagnostic
100. All of the following are typical lower urinarymodality to diagnose anterior urethral strictures?
tract symptoms associated with benign prostatic a) Voiding cystouretrography
hyperplasia EXCEPT b) Retrograde uretrography
a) Urgency c) Antegrade pyelography
b) Frequency d) Retrograde pyelography
c) Nocturia e) Endorectal coil MRI
d) Dysuria
e) Weak Urinary stream 107. Which one is the most common cause of
acute epididimo-orchitis after age 35?
101. Which one of the following is the best a) Klebsialla pnm.
radiological method in the diagnosis of posterior b) Neisseria Gonorrhoeae
urethral strictures? c) E. Coli
a) Retrograd urethrography d) Chlamydia
b) Retrograd pyelography e) Ureaplasma Urealyticum
c) CT
d) Voiding cystouretrography 108. The most common cause of acute epididimo-
e) Simple cystography orchitis before age 35 is?
a) N. gonorrhea
102. Which one is the best diagnostic modality b) Klebsiella pnomonia
for proximal urethral strictures? c) E. Coli
a) IVP d) Proteus auriginosa
b) Retrograde urethrography e) Staphylococcus aureus
c) Simple cystography
d) Voiding cystourethrography 109. Which is not a good antibiotic choice in the
e) Retrograde pyelography management of acute pyelonephritis?
a) TMP-SMX
103. Which one of the following is the best b) 3rd generation cephalosporines
radiological method in the diagnosis of posterior c) Quinolones
urethral strictures? d) Gentamycin + amoxycilin
a) Retrograd urethrography e) Seftriaxone
b) Antegrade pyelography
c) MRI 110. Which type of innervation mainly regulates
d) Voiding cystouretrography the tone of the external urethral sphincter?
e) Simple cystography a) Cholinergic
b) Somatic
104. Which one of the following is the best c) Adrenergic
radiological method in the diagnosis of VUR? d) Purinergic
a) Retrograd urethrography e) Serotoninergic
b) Retrograd pyelography
c) CT
d) Voiding cystouretrography
e) Simple cystography
111. A 75-year-old male presents to his physician 116. Which of the following statement is wrong
with pain on urination, urgency and frequency. for ADULT POLICYSTIC KIDNEY disease?
Urinalysis reveals abundant red blood cells per a) Autosomal resesive
high power field. An ultrasound examination b) Mean age of diagnosıs is 40 years
reveals normal findings. The patient is prescribed c) 95% Bilateral
quinolone antibiotics and repeat urinalysis at one d) Treatment is conservative
month reveals microscopic hematuria. What is thee) Life expectancy after diagnosis is 5-10 years
most appropriate next step?
a) Continue with antibiotics for resistant infection 117. Which of the following renal scintigraphy
and repeat urine examination at one month can measure the excretion and flow of kidney?
b) Repeat the ultrasound and then perform CT a) DTPA
scan b) MAG-3
c) Cystoscopy and biopsy c) DMSA
d) MRI scan d) MIBG
e) none of the above e) Both a and b

112. What is the incidence of horseshoe kidney? 118. Which of the following renal scintigraphy
a) 1/400 does not measure the function (excretion and
b) 1/700 flow) of kidney?
c) 1/1000 a) DTPA
d) 1/10,000 b) MAG-3
e) 1/20,000 c) DMSA
d) Both a and b
113. Which is one of the major risk factors for e) None of them
kidney cancer?
a) VHL gene loss 119. Which 99m Tc nuclear agent is best used for
b) p53 loss renal cortical imaging?
c) Chromosome 9 loss a) DMSA
d) Chromosome 8 loss b) MAG3
e) Chromosome 7 loss c) DTPA
d) Glucoheptatene
114. What is the incidence of adult type e) Pertechanate
polycystic kidney disease in chronic hemodialysis
patients? 120. What is the origin of renal cell carcinoma?
a) 5% a) spindle cells
b) 10% b) clear cells
c) 15% c) granular cells
d) 20% d) proximal tubule cells
e) 25% e) distal tubule cells

115. What is the type of the genetic heritage in 121. Which one of the following treatment
adult polycystic kidney disease? modality is best 6 cm non-metastatic renal tumor?
a) autosomal recessive a) Radiotherapy
b) autosomal dominant b) Chemotherapy
c) X-related recessive c) Immunotherapy
d) X-related dominant d) Radical nephrectomy
e) Polygenic e) Radio-frequency ablation
122. What is true for Von Hippel Lindau (VHL) 126. 40 years old male patient with no
gene? comorbidity admitted to urology outpatient clinic
a) VHL gene is a tumor supressor gene and is a with right back pain with macroscopic hematuria.
risk factor for renal cell carcinoma IVP revealed multiple right kidney stone (> 2 cm)
b) VHL gene is an oncogene and is a risk factor on the upper and lower poles. Left kidney, both
for renal cell carcinoma ureters and bladder were normal. Which of the
c) VHL gene is a tumor supressor gene and is a following is the appropriate treatment modality
risk factor for transitional cell carcinoma for this patient?
d) VHL gene is an oncogene and is a risk factor a) Open Surgery
for transitional cell carcinoma b) PCNL
e) VHL gene is a tumor supressor gene and is a c) ESWL
risk factor for both renal cell carcinoma and d) Observation
transitional cell carcinoma e) a or b

123. Which one of the following treatment 127. 35 years old male patient with no
modality is best 4 cm non-metastatic renal tumor? comorbidity admitted to urology outpatient clinic
a) Radiotherapy with left back pain with macroscopic hematuria.
b) Chemotherapy IVP revealed multiple left kidney stone (> 2 cm)
c) Immunotherapy on the upper and lower poles. Right kidney, both
d) Radical nephrectomy ureters and bladder were normal. Which of the
e) Radio-frequency ablation following is the appropriate treatment modality
for this patient?
124. Which of the following is not a component a) Open Surgery
in the structure of the vesicoureteral function? b) PCNL
a) circular smooth muscle fibers of the ureter c) ESWL
b) longitudinal smooth muscle fibers of the ureter d) Observation
c) the detrusor e) a or b
d) the orifice
e) superficial trigone 128. Urease inhibitors can be used in:
a) Uric acid stones
125. A 62-year-old patient with a long history of b) Cystine stones
hypertension has been under surveillance. An IVPc) Magnesium ammonium phosphate stones
is performed because of a recent hematuria, d) Ca-oxalate stones
which revealed left hydro- ureteronephrosis, e) Ca-phosphate stones
tumor in the left lower ureter and an atrophic non-
functional right kidney. What is the appropriate 129. Which one does not belong to the treatment
management? of uric acid stones?
a) Nephroureterectomy a) Acidification of the urine
b) BCG installation to the ureter b) Limitation of dietary protein
c) Segmental resection and uretero-neo- c) Increasing the dietary fluid
cystostomy d) Allopurinol
d) Ureteroscopic tumor ablation e) Maintaining high urinary output
e) Surveillance.
130. Calculi composed of which of the following
are not seen on plain radiographs?
a) Calcium oxalate dehydrate
b) Cystine
c) Uric Acid
d) Calcium Oxalate Monohydrate
e) Calcium Phosphate
131. Na-cellulose phosphate is used in the 6. How do you manage a patient with priapism?
treatment of which type of hypercalciuria? Please explain briefly.
a) Renal leak
b) Absorptive 7. Why is a varicocele more commonly (95%)
c) Hyperparathyroidism seen on the left side? Please explain briefly.
d) Vitamine D toxication
e) Resorptive 8. Would you please explain treatment of bladder
cancer patients with following pathological
132. Which one of the following stone types is stages?
associated with a high urine pH? a. PTaGI:
a) Magnesium-ammonium-phosphate stone b. PT1G2:
b) Uric acid stone c. PT2G2:
c) Cystine stone
d) Ca-oxalate stone 9. What is overflow urinary incontinence? Please
e) Xanthine stone explain briefly.

133. What should be the first step of treatment in 10. What is stress urinary incontinence? Please
a patient with pelvic trauma, urinary retention and explain briefly
fresh blood at external meatus?
a) Renal and bladder US 11. What is total incontinence? Please explain
b) Urethral catheterization briefly.
c) IVP
d) Retrograde urethrogram 12. What is urge urinary incontinence? Please
e) Immediate exploration explain briefly.

134. A millimeter in diameter is approximately 13. What are the normal spermiyogram
how many French? parameters ?
a) 1 French • Volume ≥ …. ml
b) 1.5 French • Concentration ≥ …. million /ml
c) 3 French • Motility ≥ …..
d) 3.5 French • Viability ≥ ….
e) 5 French • Morphology ≥ ….
• WBC < …… million/ml
Sözel Sorular
14. Explain vessel anastomosis alternatives in
1. What is the chemical reaction that leads to the renal transplantation.
formation of magnesium-ammonium phosphate
stone? What is the cause of it?

2. What is the chemical reaction that leads to the

formation of magnesium-ammonium phosphate
stone? What is the cause and mechanism of it?

3. Please write the definition of unresolved

bacteriuria.

4. How do you manage a patient with priapism?

Please explain briefly.

5. Why is a testicular varicocele more commonly

(95%) seen on the left side? Please explain
briefly.
15. What are the three treatment options of VUR 20. Please write the type of catheter which are
in pediatric age population? Please explain shown on the picture.
briefly.
a)……………
b)…………..
c)……………

16. A 16-year old boy presents with sudden right

testicular pain which started 3 hours ago. His past
21. Please explain the KUB X- Ray below?
medical history is unrevealing. In the physical
examination, the right testicle is very painful with
palpation, reddish and enlarged. The boy does not
allow for further manipulation of the testicle
including ultrasound because of his severe pain.
What should be done next?

17. What type of catheter is this?

22. What are the treatment options for 35 years

old male patient with below IVP?

18. Please write the types of large diameter

catheters (D,E,G,H,I) which are shown on the
picture.

19. Please write the correct stages of following

kidney cancers?

Stage………. Stage ………….