3.

**Which of the following valves

prevents backflow of blood into the
left ventricle?**
Lyka
a) Tricuspid valve
### Anatomy and Physiology of
b) Pulmonary valve
the Cardiovascular System
c) Mitral valve

d) Aortic valve
1. **Which chamber of the heart
receives oxygenated blood from **Answer: d) Aortic valve**
the lungs?**

a) Right atrium
4. **The term "cardiac output"
b) Left atrium refers to the:**

c) Right ventricle a) Amount of blood pumped by

the left ventricle per minute
d) Left ventricle
b) Amount of blood pumped by
**Answer: b) Left atrium**
the right atrium per minute

c) Total blood volume in the body

2. **What is the primary function of
d) Amount of blood returning to
the sinoatrial (SA) node?**
the heart
a) To pump blood through the
**Answer: a) Amount of blood
aorta
pumped by the left ventricle per
b) To act as a pacemaker by minute**
generating electrical impulses

c) To supply blood to the heart

5. **Which blood vessels are
muscle
primarily responsible for gas
d) To receive deoxygenated blood exchange?**
from the body
a) Arteries
**Answer: b) To act as a
b) Veins
pacemaker by generating electrical
impulses** c) Capillaries

d) Arterioles

**Answer: c) Capillaries**
 d) Superior vena cava

6. **What is the function of the **Answer: b) Pulmonary veins**

pericardium?**

a) To facilitate contraction of the

9. **Which layer of the heart wall is
heart muscle
responsible for its contractile
b) To provide a protective outer function?**
layer
a) Endocardium
c) To separate the right and left
b) Myocardium
sides of the heart
c) Epicardium
d) To pump blood through the
body d) Pericardium

**Answer: b) To provide a **Answer: b) Myocardium**

protective outer layer**

10. **During which phase of the

7. **The depolarization phase of cardiac cycle do the atria contract?
the cardiac cycle corresponds to:** **

a) The heart at rest a) Atrial systole

b) The contraction of the atria b) Ventricular systole

c) The contraction of the c) Diastole

ventricles
d) Ventricular diastole
d) The relaxation of the heart
**Answer: a) Atrial systole**
**Answer: c) The contraction of
the ventricles**
### Assessment of the
Cardiovascular System
8. **What structure carries
oxygenated blood from the lungs to
the heart?** 11. **Which heart sound is
associated with the closure of the
a) Pulmonary arteries
atrioventricular valves?**
b) Pulmonary veins
a) S1
c) Aorta
b) S2
 c) S3 b) 60-100 beats per minute

d) S4 c) 100-120 beats per minute

**Answer: a) S1** d) 120-140 beats per minute

**Answer: b) 60-100 beats per

minute**
12. **When assessing a patient's
pulse, what characteristic indicates
a bounding pulse?**
15. **Which condition is indicated
a) Weak and thready by the presence of a third heart
sound (S3)?**
b) Strong and forceful
a) Hypertension
c) Irregular and rapid
b) Heart failure
d) Soft and faint
c) Aortic stenosis
**Answer: b) Strong and
forceful** d) Pericarditis

**Answer: b) Heart failure**

13. **Which technique is used to

assess jugular venous pressure
16. **What is the significance of a
(JVP)?**
"thrill" felt during palpation of the
a) Palpation of the carotid artery chest?**

b) Auscultation of heart sounds a) Normal finding

c) Observation of the jugular b) Indicates turbulent blood flow

vein while the patient is at a 45-
c) Suggests a high cardiac
degree angle
output
d) Percussion of the chest
d) Sign of healthy heart valves
**Answer: c) Observation of the
**Answer: b) Indicates turbulent
jugular vein while the patient is at
blood flow**
a 45-degree angle**

17. **When assessing peripheral

14. **What is the normal range for
pulses, what is the normal grading
an adult's resting heart rate?**
for a palpable pulse?**
a) 40-60 beats per minute
a) 0
 b) 1+ c) Cardiac catheterization

c) 2+ d) Holter monitoring

d) 4+ **Answer: b) Electrocardiogram
(ECG)**
**Answer: c) 2+**

### Diagnostic Examination of the

18. **Which of the following is a
Cardiovascular System
sign of right-sided heart failure?**

a) Pulmonary edema
21. **What does an
b) Jugular venous distension
echocardiogram primarily assess?
c) Cyanosis **

d) Bradycardia a) Electrical activity of the heart

**Answer: b) Jugular venous b) Structural abnormalities and

distension** function of the heart

c) Blood flow through the

coronary arteries
19. **A "murmur" is best described
as:** d) Oxygen levels in the blood

a) An abnormal heart rhythm **Answer: b) Structural

abnormalities and function of the
b) A swishing sound heard
heart**
between heartbeats

c) A sign of myocardial infarction

22. **Which of the following is a
d) A normal variant in athletes
non-invasive test used to measure
**Answer: b) A swishing sound blood flow and oxygenation levels
heard between heartbeats** in the body?**

a) Cardiac MRI
20. **Which test is used to b) Echocardiogram
evaluate the electrical activity of
c) Pulse oximetry
the heart?**
d) Coronary angiography
a) Echocardiogram
**Answer: c) Pulse oximetry**
b) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
 d) Coronary angiography

23. **Which diagnostic test uses a **Answer: b) Cardiac MRI**

catheter to examine the heart's
blood vessels?**
Alfred
a) Electrocardiogram (ECG)

b) Echocardiogram
### 1. Which of the following is
c) Cardiac catheterization
the most common type of atrial
d) Stress test dysrhythmia?

**Answer: c) Cardiac - A. Atrial flutter

catheterization**
- B. Atrial fibrillation

- C. Atrial tachycardia
24. **During a stress test, which
- D. Premature atrial contractions
variable is most commonly
assessed to evaluate **Answer: B. Atrial fibrillation**
cardiovascular function?**

a) Heart rate recovery

### 2. What is the primary
b) Blood glucose levels characteristic of atrial fibrillation on
an ECG?
c) Respiratory rate
- A. Regular P waves
d) Blood pressure
- B. No discernible P waves and an
**Answer: a) Heart rate
irregularly irregular rhythm
recovery**
- C. Regular QRS complexes

- D. Prolonged PR interval
25. **Which of the following
diagnostic tests provides detailed **Answer: B. No discernible P
images of blood vessels and the waves and an irregularly irregular
heart without using ionizing rhythm**
radiation?**

a) Cardiac CT scan
### 3. Which of the following
b) Cardiac MRI dysrhythmias originates in the
atrioventricular (AV) node?
c) Nuclear stress test
- A. Atrial fibrillation
- B. Junctional rhythm - A. Inverted P waves before,
during, or after the QRS complex
- C. Ventricular tachycardia
- B. Regular rhythm
- D. Atrial flutter
- C. Wide QRS complex
**Answer: B. Junctional rhythm**
- D. Heart rate typically between
40-60 bpm
### 4. What is a common
**Answer: C. Wide QRS complex**
treatment for stable patients with
atrial flutter?

- A. Defibrillation ### 7. Ventricular tachycardia is

most often associated with:
- B. Pacemaker insertion
- A. Coronary artery disease
- C. Calcium channel blockers or
beta-blockers - B. Hypothyroidism

- D. Anticoagulant therapy - C. Sinus node dysfunction

**Answer: C. Calcium channel - D. Atrial enlargement

blockers or beta-blockers**
**Answer: A. Coronary artery
disease**

### 5. Which rhythm is

characterized by a rapid sequence
### 8. Which conduction
of P waves with a sawtooth
abnormality is characterized by a
appearance?
prolonged PR interval on an ECG?
- A. Atrial flutter
- A. First-degree AV block
- B. Atrial fibrillation
- B. Second-degree AV block,
- C. Sinus tachycardia Mobitz Type I

- D. Junctional tachycardia - C. Second-degree AV block,

Mobitz Type II
**Answer: A. Atrial flutter**
- D. Third-degree AV block

**Answer: A. First-degree AV
### 6. Which of the following is
block**
NOT a feature of junctional
dysrhythmias?
### 9. What is the treatment of ### 12. Which drug is commonly
choice for ventricular fibrillation? used to manage acute ventricular
tachycardia?
- A. Atropine
- A. Lidocaine
- B. Amiodarone
- B. Digoxin
- C. Defibrillation
- C. Warfarin
- D. Transcutaneous pacing
- D. Metoprolol
**Answer: C. Defibrillation**
**Answer: A. Lidocaine**

### 10. A heart rate of fewer than

40 beats per minute originating in ### 13. In second-degree AV
the AV node is known as: block Mobitz Type I (Wenckebach),
what ECG change occurs?
- A. Sinus bradycardia
- A. Gradual lengthening of PR
- B. Junctional escape rhythm
interval until a beat is dropped
- C. Atrial tachycardia
- B. Constant PR interval with
- D. Ventricular escape rhythm dropped beats

**Answer: B. Junctional escape - C. Wide QRS complexes with

rhythm** regular rhythm

- D. Complete dissociation between

P waves and QRS complexes
### 11. Which of the following
conditions might lead to a third- **Answer: A. Gradual lengthening
degree AV block? of PR interval until a beat is
dropped**
- A. Myocardial infarction

- B. Hyperthyroidism
### 14. What does a narrow QRS
- C. Hypotension
complex usually indicate in a
- D. Hyperkalemia dysrhythmia?
**Answer: A. Myocardial - A. Origin of the rhythm is in the
infarction** ventricles

- B. Origin of the rhythm is above

the ventricles
- C. A conduction delay in the - B. Chaotic, irregular waveform
ventricles with no identifiable P waves or QRS
complexes
- D. A complete heart block
- C. Prolonged QT interval
**Answer: B. Origin of the rhythm is
above the ventricles** - D. Sawtooth pattern

**Answer: B. Chaotic, irregular

waveform with no identifiable P
### 15. Which atrial dysrhythmia
waves or QRS complexes**
is characterized by rapid, regular
atrial contractions at a rate of 250-
400 bpm?
### 18. Which conduction
- A. Atrial fibrillation abnormality is often a precursor to
complete heart block?
- B. Atrial flutter
- A. First-degree AV block
- C. Sinus tachycardia
- B. Second-degree AV block,
- D. Junctional tachycardia
Mobitz Type I
**Answer: B. Atrial flutter**
- C. Second-degree AV block,
Mobitz Type II

### 16. The first-line treatment - D. Bundle branch block

for symptomatic bradycardia is:
**Answer: C. Second-degree AV
- A. Defibrillation block, Mobitz Type II**

- B. Atropine

- C. Amiodarone ### 19. What is the characteristic

finding of premature ventricular
- D. Beta-blockers
contractions (PVCs) on an ECG?
**Answer: B. Atropine**
- A. Wide and bizarre QRS complex

- B. Narrow QRS complex

### 17. What is the hallmark ECG
- C. Prolonged PR interval
finding in ventricular fibrillation?
- D. Regular P waves

**Answer: A. Wide and bizarre QRS

complex**
- A. Regular QRS complexes
### 20. Which of the following is a **Answer: C. Supraventricular
potential cause of junctional tachycardia (SVT)**
dysrhythmias?

- A. Hyperkalemia
### 23. Which electrolyte
- B. Hypokalemia imbalance is most commonly
associated with the development of
- C. Digitalis toxicity
ventricular dysrhythmias?
- D. Hypocalcemia
- A. Hypocalcemia
**Answer: C. Digitalis toxicity**
- B. Hyperkalemia

- C. Hypokalemia
### 21. Which rhythm disturbance
- D. Hyponatremia
involves the ventricles contracting
independently of the atria? **Answer: C. Hypokalemia**

- A. Atrial fibrillation

- B. Ventricular tachycardia ### 24. What is the primary

difference between Mobitz Type I
- C. Complete heart block (third-
and Mobitz Type II AV block?
degree AV block)
- A. Mobitz Type I involves a
- D. Junctional escape rhythm
constant PR interval, while Mobitz
**Answer: C. Complete heart block Type II involves a lengthening PR
(third-degree AV block)** interval

- B. Mobitz Type I involves a

lengthening PR interval, while
### 22. A patient presents with a
Mobitz Type II involves a constant
heart rate of 150 bpm, a regular
PR interval with occasional dropped
rhythm, and a narrow QRS
QRS complexes
complex. Which dysrhythmia is
most likely? - C. Both involve regular P waves
with no QRS complex
- A. Atrial fibrillation
- D. Mobitz Type I has a wider QRS
- B. Ventricular tachycardia
complex than Mobitz Type II
- C. Supraventricular tachycardia
**Answer: B. Mobitz Type I involves
(SVT)
a lengthening PR interval, while
- D. Sinus tachycardia Mobitz Type II involves a constant
PR interval with occasional dropped 2. **Which of the following is a
QRS complexes** major risk factor for developing
coronary atherosclerosis?**

- A) High blood pressure

### 25. Which type of ventricular
dysrhythmia is considered life- - B) Low cholesterol levels
threatening and requires
- C) Regular exercise
immediate intervention?
- D) Young age
- A. Ventricular fibrillation
- **Answer:** A) High blood
- B. Ventricular escape rhythm
pressure
- C. Premature ventricular
contractions
3. **What are the main
- D. Ventricular bigeminy
components of the plaques that
**Answer: A. Ventricular form in coronary atherosclerosis?**
fibrillation**
- A) Muscle and water
Gwen
- B) Fat, cholesterol, calcium, and
other substances

### Coronary Atherosclerosis - C) Bacteria and viruses

- D) Protein and carbohydrates

1. **What is coronary - **Answer:** B) Fat, cholesterol,

atherosclerosis?** calcium, and other substances

- A) Narrowing of the coronary

arteries due to a buildup of plaque
4. **Which layer of the artery does
- B) Enlargement of the coronary atherosclerosis primarily affect?**
arteries
- A) Intima
- C) A congenital heart defect
- B) Media
- D) A viral infection of the heart
- C) Adventitia
- **Answer:** A) Narrowing of the
- D) Pericardium
coronary arteries due to a buildup
of plaque - **Answer:** A) Intima
5. **Which imaging technique is 8. **What lifestyle modification is
commonly used to diagnose recommended to help manage
coronary atherosclerosis?** coronary atherosclerosis?**

- A) MRI - A) High-sodium diet

- B) Echocardiogram - B) Sedentary lifestyle

- C) Coronary angiography - C) Smoking cessation

- D) X-ray - D) Increased alcohol

consumption
- **Answer:** C) Coronary
angiography - **Answer:** C) Smoking
cessation

6. **What is the primary cause of

coronary atherosclerosis?** 9. **Which of the following
complications can arise from
- A) Viral infections
untreated coronary
- B) Bacterial infections atherosclerosis?**

- C) Plaque buildup in the arteries - A) Myocardial infarction

- D) Immune response - B) Asthma

- **Answer:** C) Plaque buildup - C) Migraine

in the arteries
- D) Anemia

- **Answer:** A) Myocardial
7. **Which of the following infarction
medications is commonly
prescribed to lower cholesterol
levels in patients with coronary 10. **What role do HDL cholesterol
atherosclerosis?** levels play in coronary
atherosclerosis?**
- A) Beta-blockers
- A) They increase the risk
- B) Statins
- B) They have no effect
- C) Anticoagulants
- C) They decrease the risk
- D) ACE inhibitors
- D) They are unrelated to
- **Answer:** B) Statins
atherosclerosis
 - **Answer:** C) They decrease - C) Deep breathing
the risk
- D) Sleeping

- **Answer:** A) Physical
### Angina Pectoris exertion or emotional stress

11. **What is angina pectoris?** 14. **Which medication is

commonly used to provide
- A) An inflammation of the heart
immediate relief for angina
lining
pectoris?**
- B) Chest pain due to reduced
- A) Nitroglycerin
blood flow to the heart
- B) Aspirin
- C) A heart muscle infection
- C) Metformin
- D) An irregular heart rhythm
- D) Warfarin
- **Answer:** B) Chest pain due
to reduced blood flow to the heart - **Answer:** A) Nitroglycerin

12. **Which type of angina occurs 15. **Which of the following is NOT
unpredictably and often at rest?** a common symptom of angina
pectoris?**
- A) Stable angina
- A) Chest pain or discomfort
- B) Unstable angina
- B) Shortness of breath
- C) Variant angina (Prinzmetal’s
angina) - C) Jaw pain

- D) Microvascular angina - D) Persistent coughing

- **Answer:** B) Unstable angina - **Answer:** D) Persistent

coughing

13. **Stable angina is typically

triggered by which of the following? 16. **How is angina pectoris
** typically diagnosed?**

- A) Physical exertion or - A) Blood tests

emotional stress
- B) Chest X-ray
- B) Rest
 - C) Stress test or - A) Several hours
electrocardiogram (ECG)
- B) A few minutes, typically less
- D) Urine analysis than 15

- **Answer:** C) Stress test or - C) A few seconds

electrocardiogram (ECG)
- D) A full day

- **Answer:** B) A few minutes,

17. **What is the primary goal in typically less than 15
the management of angina
pectoris?**
20. **Which of the following can
- A) Cure the underlying heart
precipitate an angina attack?**
disease
- A) Eating a small meal
- B) Increase the heart rate
- B) Smoking a cigarette
- C) Reduce chest pain and
prevent heart attacks - C) Resting after exercise

- D) Lower blood sugar levels - D) Sleeping in a reclined

position
- **Answer:** C) Reduce chest
pain and prevent heart attacks - **Answer:** B) Smoking a
cigarette

18. **Which type of angina is

characterized by coronary artery 21. **What is the mechanism of
spasms?** action for beta-blockers in the
treatment of angina pectoris?**
- A) Stable angina
- A) Increase heart rate
- B) Unstable angina
- B) Decrease heart rate and
- C) Variant angina (Prinzmetal’s
reduce myocardial oxygen demand
angina)
- C) Dilate the arteries
- D) Microvascular angina
- D) Increase blood pressure
- **Answer:** C) Variant angina
(Prinzmetal’s angina) - **Answer:** B) Decrease heart
rate and reduce myocardial oxygen
demand
19. **What is the typical duration
of chest pain in stable angina?**
22. **What does the term "silent - B) Coronary artery bypass graft
ischemia" refer to?** (CABG)

- A) Chest pain without - C) Nephrectomy

accompanying symptoms
- D) Pacemaker insertion
- B) Ischemia without any chest
- **Answer:** B) Coronary artery
pain or symptoms
bypass graft (CABG)
- C) A mild form of angina with
faint symptoms
25. **What does
- D) Ischemia that occurs only at
"revascularization" refer to in the
night
context of angina treatment?**
- **Answer:** B) Ischemia
- A) Removal of a blood clot
without any chest pain or
symptoms - B) Surgical or percutaneous
procedures to restore blood flow to
the heart
23. **Which population is more
- C) Strengthening the blood
likely to experience atypical
vessel walls
symptoms of angina, such as
shortness of breath, nausea, and - D) Increasing the oxygen
fatigue, instead of chest pain?** content in blood

- A) Middle-aged men - **Answer:** B) Surgical or

percutaneous procedures to restore
- B) Young adults
blood flow to the heart
- C) Postmenopausal women
Kiana
- D) Teenagers

- **Answer:** C) Postmenopausal
women
### Valvular Disorders

24. **Which surgical intervention

may be considered for severe 1. **Which of the following is a
coronary artery disease that leads common cause of mitral valve
to frequent angina?** stenosis?**

- A) Appendectomy - A) Hypertension

- B) Rheumatic fever
 - C) Atherosclerosis - A) Diastolic murmur

- D) Diabetes - B) Systolic click and late systolic

murmur
- **Answer:** B) Rheumatic fever
- C) Continuous murmur

- D) Systolic ejection murmur

2. **A patient with aortic stenosis
may present with which classic - **Answer:** B) Systolic click and
triad of symptoms?** late systolic murmur

- A) Dyspnea, palpitations, and

syncope
5. **Which medication is commonly
- B) Angina, syncope, and heart used to manage symptoms in
failure patients with valvular heart disease
and atrial fibrillation?**
- C) Fatigue, edema, and chest
pain - A) Aspirin

- D) Palpitations, cough, and - B) Warfarin

weight loss
- C) Digoxin
- **Answer:** B) Angina, syncope,
- D) Metformin
and heart failure
- **Answer:** B) Warfarin

3. **What is the primary diagnostic

tool used to assess valvular heart ### Aortic Disorders
disease?**

- A) Electrocardiogram (ECG)
6. **Aortic dissection is often
- B) Echocardiogram associated with which risk factor?**

- C) Chest X-ray - A) Hypotension

- D) Cardiac MRI - B) Hyperlipidemia

- **Answer:** B) Echocardiogram - C) Marfan syndrome

- D) Mitral valve prolapse

4. **Mitral valve prolapse is often - **Answer:** C) Marfan

associated with which type of syndrome
murmur?**
7. **The classic symptom of an - **Answer:** B) Involves the
aortic aneurysm is:** ascending aorta and/or arch

- A) Sudden onset of back or

abdominal pain
10. **Which medication class is
- B) Palpitations commonly used in the
management of aortic dissection to
- C) Dyspnea
control heart rate and blood
- D) Syncope pressure?**

- **Answer:** A) Sudden onset of - A) ACE inhibitors

back or abdominal pain
- B) Beta-blockers

- C) Statins
8. **Which type of imaging is most
- D) Diuretics
often used to diagnose an aortic
aneurysm?** - **Answer:** B) Beta-blockers

- A) Ultrasound

- B) Chest X-ray ### Rheumatic Fever

- C) CT scan

- D) MRI 11. **Rheumatic fever is a

complication of which type of
- **Answer:** C) CT scan
infection?**

- A) Viral infection
9. **Which of the following
- B) Fungal infection
describes a Stanford type A aortic
dissection?** - C) Streptococcal pharyngitis

- A) Involves the descending - D) Bacterial pneumonia

aorta only
- **Answer:** C) Streptococcal
- B) Involves the ascending aorta pharyngitis
and/or arch

- C) Involves the abdominal aorta

12. **The Jones Criteria is used to
- D) Involves the pulmonary diagnose which condition?**
artery
- A) Mitral valve prolapse

- B) Rheumatic fever
 - C) Aortic dissection - C) Teenagers

- D) Infective endocarditis - D) Elderly

- **Answer:** B) Rheumatic fever - **Answer:** C) Teenagers

13. **What is a major criterion for ### Rheumatic Heart Disease

diagnosing rheumatic fever
according to the Jones Criteria?**
16. **Rheumatic heart disease
- A) Fever
primarily affects which part of the
- B) Arthralgia heart?**

- C) Erythema marginatum - A) Pericardium

- D) Anemia - B) Myocardium

- **Answer:** C) Erythema - C) Endocardium, particularly

marginatum the valves

- D) Coronary arteries

14. **Which of the following is a - **Answer:** C) Endocardium,

common treatment for acute particularly the valves
rheumatic fever?**

- A) Beta-blockers
17. **Which valve is most
- B) Antibiotics and anti- commonly affected by rheumatic
inflammatory drugs heart disease?**

- C) Antifungals - A) Aortic valve

- D) Statins - B) Mitral valve

- **Answer:** B) Antibiotics and - C) Tricuspid valve

anti-inflammatory drugs
- D) Pulmonary valve

- **Answer:** B) Mitral valve

15. **Which age group is most
commonly affected by rheumatic
fever?** 18. **What is the long-term
management strategy for a patient
- A) Infants
with rheumatic heart disease to
- B) Young children prevent recurrence?**
 - A) Lifelong statin therapy

- B) Lifelong anticoagulation ### Mixed Questions

therapy

- C) Regular penicillin
21. **Which of the following
prophylaxis
conditions is considered a
- D) Daily aspirin structural cardiac disorder?**

- **Answer:** C) Regular - A) Aortic aneurysm

penicillin prophylaxis
- B) Mitral valve prolapse

- C) Rheumatic fever
19. **Which complication is a
- D) Pericarditis
significant risk in patients with
chronic rheumatic heart disease?** - **Answer:** B) Mitral valve
prolapse
- A) Myocardial infarction

- B) Infective endocarditis
22. **What is the typical
- C) Pulmonary embolism
presentation of rheumatic fever in
- D) Cardiomyopathy a young patient?**

- **Answer:** B) Infective - A) Chest pain and cough

endocarditis
- B) Joint pain, fever, and rash

- C) Severe headache and

20. **In rheumatic heart disease, dizziness
which surgical intervention might
- D) Abdominal pain and
be necessary for severe valve
vomiting
damage?**
- **Answer:** B) Joint pain, fever,
- A) Coronary artery bypass
and rash
grafting (CABG)

- B) Valve replacement or repair

23. **Which heart sound is typically
- C) Pacemaker insertion
heard in aortic regurgitation?**
- D) Cardiac catheterization
- A) Mid-systolic click
- **Answer:** B) Valve
- B) Opening snap
replacement or repair
- C) Diastolic murmur
 - D) Continuous murmur

- **Answer:** C) Diastolic
murmur

24. **What is the primary goal of

treatment for aortic dissection?**

- A) To decrease cholesterol
levels

- B) To increase heart rate

- C) To control blood pressure

and prevent extension of the
dissection

- D) To reduce fluid retention

- **Answer:** C) To control blood

pressure and prevent extension of
the dissection

25. **Which of the following is a

hallmark sign of acute rheumatic
fever on physical examination?**

- A) Subcutaneous nodules

- B) Petechiae

- C) Peripheral edema

- D) Cyanosis

- **Answer:** A) Subcutaneous
nodules