Que.1.

No liquid can exist as a liquid at

a) 0⁰C temperature b) 200⁰C temperature
c) Zero pressure c) Zero viscosity
Que.2. Gibb’s free Energy G is defined as
a) G= H – TS b) G= H + TS
c) G= U – TS d) G= U + TS
Que.3. The efficiency of a Carnot engine is 0.75. If cycle is reversed,
C.O.P of reversed Carnot cycle will be
a) 1.25 b) 1.33 c) 1.75 d) 1.95
Que.4. Sublimation is the process of
a) Changing from gas state to solid state
b) Changing from solid state to gas state
c) Changing from liquid to vapour state
d) Existence of solid, liquid and gases simultaneously

Que.5. Thermal efficiency of Otto cycle_____that of Brayton cycle for the

given same compression process
a) Same as b) Less than
c) Greater than d) Not comparable to

Que.6. The substance which is homogeneous and invariable in chemical

composition throughout its mass is called as ______.
a) Ideal substance b) Pure Substance
c) Solid Substance d) Gas substance

Que.7. The efficiency of diesel cycle approaches to Otto cycle efficiency

when
a) Cut-off is increased b) Cut-off is decreased
c) Cut-off is zero d) Cut-off is constant

Que.8.An ideal gas can be taken from point K to point N in three different
paths:
KLN, KN, KMN. Which of the following is a true statement?
 a) The same work is done during each process.
b) The same amount of heat is added to the gas during each
process.
c) The same change in internal energy during each process.
d) The same entropy generated during each process.

Que.9.Increase in entropy of a system represents

a) Decrease of temperature b) Increase of
pressure
c) Increase of temperature d) Degradation of
energy
Que.10. The more effective way of increasing efficiency of Carnot engine
is
a) Increase of source temperature b) Decrease of source
temperature
c) Increase of sink temperature d) Decrease of sink temperature
Que.11. The absolute zero pressure will be
a) When the molecular momentum of the system becomes zero
b) At sea level
c) At the temperature of -273K
d) At the centre of the earth
Que.12. The behaviour of superheated vapour is similar to that of
a) Perfect gas b) Steam
c) Air d) Ordinary gas
Que.13. The efficiency of Stirling cycle is ____Carnot cycle for same
temperature limits.
a) Greater than b) Less than
c) Equal to d) cannot compare
Que.14. The irreversibility associated with the process is defined as
a) Loss of qualitative energy b) Loss of energy
 c) Loss of enthalpy d) Loss of entropy
Que.15. The exergy of the system will depend on
a) Entropy generation b) Surrounding
temperature
c) Surrounding pressure d) All of the above
Que.16. The specific heat of an ideal gas depends on its_______ alone.
a) Pressure b) Volume c) Entropy d) Temperature
Que.17. For effective working of fins, the thickness of fins should be
a) Large b) Small
c) Thickness of fin does not affect fin effectiveness d)
Unpredictable
Que.18. In free convective heat transfer transition from laminar to
turbulent flow is governed by the critical value of the
a) Reynolds number grashoff’s number
b) Reynolds number
c) Grashoff’s number
d) Prandtl number and Grashoff’s number
Que.19. When is arithmetic mean temperature difference used instead of
LMTD in heat exchanger?
a) When temperature profiles of two fluids of heat exchanger are
sloping downward with curve
b) When temperature profiles of two fluids of heat exchanger are
sloping upward with curve
c) When the temperature profiles of two fluids of heat exchanger
are straight
d) When one of the temperature profile for the fluid is straight
Que.20. Nusselt number / (Reynolds number X Prandtl number ) is equal
to
a) Weber number b) Stanton number
c) Biot number d) Mach number
Que.21. The rate of heat flow through a hollow sphere of inner radius
0.25 m and outer Radius 0.35 m, whose thermal conductivity is 5
W/m k, maintained at temperature of 400⁰C and 300⁰C
respectively equal to
a) 2425W b) 5495W c) 2747.5W d)
4850W
Que.22. By which of following modes of heat transfer, heat is mainly
transferred from an insulated pipe to the surrounding still air.
a) Conduction b) Radiation
 c) Forced convection d) Natural convection
Que.23. The newmann boundary condition on heat transfer means,
a) q/A= -K dT/dx at w = 0 b) k dT/dx=0 at w = 0
c) k dT/dx=h [Tw-T∞] at w = 0 d) k dT/dx= σ [T14-T24]atw=0
Que.24. The maximum temperature raised in the solid sphere with
internal heat generation is given by
a) Tw + QgR2/6K b) Tw - QgR2/6K
c) Tw + Qg /6K d) Tw - Qg /6K
Que.25. It is desired to increase the heat dissipation rate from the
surface of an electronic device of spherical shape of 5mm radius
exposed to convection with h = 10 W/m2K, by encasing it in a
spherical sheath of conductivity 0.04 W/mK. For maximum heat
flow, the diameter of sheath should be
a) 18 mm b) 12 mm c) 8 mm d) 16 mm
Que.26. The capillary tube is not used in large capacity refrigeration
system because
a) Cost is too high b) Capacity control is not possible
c) It is made of copper d) required pressure drop cannot

be achieved

Que.27. Bell Coleman cycle used for air refrigeration system is a

a) Reversed Carnot cycle b) Reversed Otto cycle
c) Reversed joule cycle d) Reversed rankine cycle

Que.28. In the compression process of vapour compression refrigeration

system
a) Enthalpy before compression is same as enthalpy after
compression
b) Internal energy before compression is same after the
compression
c)Temperature before compression is same as temperature after
compression
d) Entropy before compression is same as entropy after

compression

Que.29. In an aqua ammonia vapour absorption refrigeration system, the

refrigerant and absorbent respectively are
a) Water and water b) Water and lithium bromide
 c) Ammonia and lithium bromide d) Ammonia and water
Que.30. The leakage in a refrigeration system using ammonia is detected
by
a) Halide torch b) Sulphur sticks
c) Soap solution d) Hot water
Que.31. If the degree of saturation of air is zero, the air is said to be
a) Superheated air b) Unsaturated air
c) Saturated air d) Atmospheric air
Que.32. The constant partial pressure lines on the psychometric chart are
a) Horizontal b) Vertical c) Inclined d) Curved lines
Que.33. Which of following components of reaction turbine increases the
head on turbine by an amount equal to the height of runner outlet
above tail race?
a) Draft tubes b) Guide vanes
c) Scroll casing d) Moving blades
Que.34. The Euler equation for turbo machine is derived on the basis of
a) Rate of change of mass b) Rate of change of angular
momentum
c) Rate of change of linear momentum d) Rate of change of
velocity
Que.35. The mass flow rate of air compressed in axial flow compressor is
_________ centrifugal compressor.
a) Less than b) Equal to c) Greater than d)

Unpredictable

Que.36. What should be the ratio of blade speed to jet speed for the
maximum efficiency of a Pelton wheel?
a) 0.25 B) 0.50 c) 0.75 d) 1.00
Que.37. Which one following pump is NOT a positive displacement pump?
a) Reciprocating pump b) Centrifugal pump
c) Lobe pump d) Vane pump

Que.38. In a parson’s turbine stage, the blade velocity is 320 m/s at the
mean
radius and the rotor blade exit angle is 30⁰. For minimum kinetic
energy of
the steam leaving the stage, the steam velocity at exit of the rotor
will be
a) 160/ √3 m/s b) 320/ √3 m/s
 c) 640/ √3 m/s d) 640 m/s
Que.39. The volumetric efficiency of compressor can be given by the
equation in terms of clearance ratio K, pressure ratio P2 /P1 is
a) 1 – K + K (P2 /P1)(1/n) b) 1 + K – K (P2 /P1)
(1/n)

c) 1 – K - K (P2 /P1)(1/n) d) 1 + K + K (P2 /P1)

(1/n)

Que.40. The specific speed of a hydraulic pump is the speed of a

geometrical similar pump working against a unit head and
a) Delivering unit quantity of water b) Consuming unit
power
c) Having unit velocity of flow d) having unit radial
velocity
Que.41. What is the need of air vessel used in a reciprocating pump?
a) To obtain a continuous supply of water at uniform rate
b) To reduce suction head
c) To increase the delivery head
d) To reduce cavitation
Que.42. Cavitation In a hydraulic turbine is most likely to occur at the
turbine
a) Entry b) Exit b) Stator exit d) Rotor exit
Que.43. The linear velocity of a body rotating at ω rad/s along a circular
path of radius r is
a) ω .r b) ω \r c) ω 2.r d) ω 2/r
Que.44. The coefficient of restitution for inelastic bodies is
a) Zero b) Between zero and one
c) One d) More than one
Que.45. The relation between number of links and number of lower pairs
is given as n=2P-4. If L.H.S is less than R.H.S of this equation then
the chain is
a) Constrained b) Locked
c) Structure d) Unconstrained
Que.46. The cam and follower without spring forms a
a) Lower pair b) Higher pair
c) Self-closed pair d) Forced closed pair
Que.47. The cam and follower extensively used in air craft engine is
 a) Knife-edge follower b) Flat faced
follower
c) Spherical face follower d) Roller follower
Que.48. The two links OA and OB are connected by a pin joint at O. if the
link OA turns with angular velocity ω1 rad/s in the clockwise
direction and the link OB turns with angular velocity ω2 rad/s in
the anti-clockwise direction, then the rubbing velocity at the pin O
is
a) ω1. ω2 .r b) (ω1. -ω2) .r
c) (ω1+. ω2 ).r d) (ω1. -ω2 ).2r

Que.49. The efficiency of screw jack is given by

tan α +∅ tan α
a) tan α b) tan α +∅
tan α −∅ tan α
c) tan α d) tan α −∅
Que.50. In a cone pulley, if the sum of the radii of the pulleys on the
driving and driven shafts is constant, then
a) Open belt drive is recommended
b) Both open and closed belt drive are recommended
c) Closed belt drive is recommended
d) Drive is recommended depending upon torque
Que.51. In under damped vibrating system, if x1 and x2 are the
successive values of the amplitude on the same side of the mean
position, then the logarithmic decrement is equal to
a) X1/X2 b) Log (X1 /X2)
c) Log (X2/X1) d) Log (X1.X2)
Que.52. In a locomotive, the maximum magnitude of the unbalanced
force acting along the perpendicular to the line of stroke is
a) Tractive force b) Swaying couple
c) Hammer blow d) None of the given answers
Que.53. In a slider crank mechanism for l/r ratio of 4, the percentage of
stroke converted by piston corresponding to 90⁰ movement of
crank from top dead centre will be
a) 0% b) Less than 50 %
c) Greater than 50% d) 100%
Que.54. Coriorlis component of acceleration exists whenever a point
moves along a path that has
a) Local acceleration b) Gravitational
acceleration
 c) Tangential acceleration d) centripetal acceleration
Que.55. According to law of governing
a) Common normal at the point of contact always passes through a
fixed point on the line joining the centres of rotation
b) The gears should be cut with the cutter having same module
c) The interference should be avoided
d) Clearance should be minimized
Que.56. The locus of a point on the circumference of a circle which rolls
without slipping on a fixed straight line is known as
a) Cycloid b) Involute
c) Hypocycloid d) Epicycloid
Que.57. A 0.5 Kg weight attached to a light spring elongates by 0.981
mm. The natural frequency of the system will be
a) 6 Hz b) 16 Hz c) 26 Hz d) 32 Hz
Que.58. A vibrating system with unity as damping factor will be
a) Critically damped b) Damped to safe limits
c) Partly damped d) Free from vibrations.
Que.59. High pressure angle of gear results in
a) Weaker teeth b) Bigger size teeth
c) Wider base and stronger teeth d) Narrow base and
weaker teeth
Que.60. In a flat belt pulley drive, the rim of the pulley is slightly crowned
to
a) Increase the strength of pulley
b) Increase the stiffness of pulley
c) Keep the belt running centrally on pulley rim
d) Increase the power transmitted

Que.61. Herringbone gear is a type of

a) Spiral bevel gear b) Crossed helical gear
c) Hypoid gear
d) Double helical gear with no groove in between the left and right
inclination
Que.62. A shaft transmits power of 30 Kw. According to maximum
principle stress theory and shear theory diameter of shaft is 70
mm and 73 mm respectively. Tensile stress acting on the shaft is
50 MPa. What will be the shaft diameter to transmit power?
a) 60 mm b) 65 mm c) 73 mm d) 82
mm
Que.63. The property of a material which enables it to resist fracture due
to high impact loads is known as
a) Brittleness b) Ductility
c) Toughness d) Hardness

Que.64. Two mating spur gear have 40 and 120 teeth respectively. The
pinion rotates at 1200 rpm and transmits a torque of 20 Nm. The
torque transmitted by the gear is
a) 10 N-m b) 20 N-m c) 40 N-m d) 60
N-m
Que.65. Square key of side “d/4” each and length l is used to transmit
torque “T” from the shaft of diameter “d” to the hub of pulley.
Assuming length of key to be equal to thickness of pulley, the
average shear stress developed in the key is given by
a) 4T/ld 16T/ld2
8T/ld2 16T/
Que.66. A beam strongest in flexural is one which has
a) Maximum bending stress b) Maximum area of
cross section
c) Maximum section modulus d) Maximum moment
of inertia
Que.67. The factor of safety considered for Euler’s formula for crippling
load is
a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6

Que.68. Which of following assumption in the theory of pure torsion is

false
a) All radii get twisted due to torsion
b) The twist is uniform along the length
c) The shaft is uniform circular section throughout
d) Cross section plane before torsion remain plane after torsion.
Que.69. When a closely coiled helical spring of mean diameter {D} is
subjected to an axial load (W), the stiffness of the spring is given by
a) Cd4/D3n b) Cd4/2D3n
c) Cd4/4D3n d) Cd4/8D3n
Que.70. A composite shaft consisting of two stepped portion having spring
constant k1 and K2 is held between two rigid supports at the
ends. Its equivalent spring constant is
a) (k1 + K2) /2 b) (k1 + K2) /k1 K2
c) k1 K2 / (k1 + K2) d) (k1 + K2)
Que.71. In a thin cylindrical shell subjected to an internal pressure p, the
ratio of longitudinal stress to the hoop stress is
a) 0.5 b) 0.75 c) 1 d) 1.5

Que.72. According to Euler’s column theory, the crippling load of a column

of length l, with one end fixed and the other end is hinged is
2 2
π EI π EI
a) l2 b) 4 l2

2 2
2 π EI 4 π EI
c) l
2 d) l
2

Que.73. The eye bolts are used for

a) Transmission of power b) Lifting and transporting heavy
machines
c) Absorbing shocks and vibrations d) Locking devices

Que.74. Which of following welded joints is designed for shear strength?

a) Transverse fillet welded joint b) Parallel fillet welded joint
c) Butt welded joint d) Transverse butt weld joint

Que.75. A plate with a circular hole in the centre is subjected to a pull of

P. The
maximum stress included at the edges of hole is (if the normal
stress is ‘f’)
a) 3f b) 2f c) f/2 d) f /3
Que.76. The angle of an ACME thread is __________ degrees.
a) 19 b) 29 c) 49 d) 69

Que.77. In a butt or half-lap coupling, the sleeve is normally fitted to the

shafts by means of________.
a) Saddle key b) Feather key
c) Woodruff key d) Sunk key

Que.78. Hatching lines are drawn at an angle of _____ to the axis or to the
main outline of sections.
a) 90⁰ b) 60⁰ c) 45⁰ d)

30⁰

Que.79. The efficiency of a power screw is maximum when the lead angel
is …… (where ∅ is the friction angle)
 π ∅ π
a) −
2 2 b) 2
−∅
π ∅ π ∅
c) −
4 4 d) −
4 2
Que.80. The pistons are usually given coating such as tin plating in order
to
a) Reduce weight b) Reduce friction
c) Reduce possibility of scoring d) Increase lubrication effect
Que.81. Surface endurance limit of gear material is dependent upon its
a) Brinnel hardness number b) Elastic strength
c) Toughness d) Yield strength

Que.82. A decomposition method in which the cells are used to model an

object need not have the same shape and size is
a) Octree model b) Part programming
c) Voxel based model d) Cell decomposition

Que.83. Which of following is not a CAPP approach

a) Variant approach b) Generative approach
c) Hybrid approach d) Expert system approach
Que.84. Backlash is
a) Sum of clearance of pinion and gear teeth
b) The amount by which the width of a tooth space exceeds the
thickness of meshing tooth on pitch circle
c) Difference between dedendum and addendum of gear tooth
d) Difference between the pitch circle of meshing gears

Que.85. Internal gears can be manufactured by

a) Shaping with rack cutter b) Shaping with pinion
cutter
c) Milling d) Hobbing
Que.86. What causes transformation of deformed martensite into
austenite phase?
a) Heating b) Cooling
c) Both cooling and heating d) Partial cooling

Que.87. Which type of material are used as bridges between human

tissues and metals?
a) Polymeric biomaterials b) Ceramic biomaterials
c) Metallic biomaterials d) Polymarised plastic

materials
Que.88. Body centered cubic structure has an atomic packing factor
equal to
a) 0.74 b) 0.68 c) 0.52 d)

0.94

Que.89. Which among the following is the character of polymers?

a) High tensile strength b) High coefficient of friction
c) Low density d) higher viscosity

Que.90. A bearing material should not possess the characteristic of

high______.
a) Coefficient of friction b) Hardness
c) Melting point d) Thermal conductivity
Que.91. In which of following methods, surface of a steel component
becomes hard due to phase transformation austenite to
martensite?
a) Carbonitriding b) Flame
hardening
c) Nitriding d) Ionization

Que.92. In Muntz metal, if 1% of tin is added it forms______

a) Admiralty brass b) Naval brass
c) Bronze d) Silver

Que.93. According to Indian standard specification, SG 400/15 means

a) Spheroidal graphite cast iron with B.H.N 400 and minimum
tensile strength 15 MPa
b) Spheroidal graphite cast iron with minimum tensile strength 400
MPa and 15% elongation
c) Spheroidal graphite cast iron with minimum compressive strength
400 MPa and 15% reduction in area
d) Spheroidal graphite cast iron with maximum tensile strength 400
MPa with 15% elongation

Que.94. A fit on a hole shaft system is specified as H7-s6. The type of fit
is
a) Clearance fit b) Running fit
c) Transition fit d) Interference fit
Que.95. The crystal structure of austenite is
 a) Body centered tetragonal b) Hexagonal closed
packed
c) Face centered cubic d) Body centered cubic

Que.96. An allotropic material has

a) Atom distributed in random patterns
b) Atom distributed in fixed pattern
c) Different crystal structure at different temperatures
d) Fixed structure at all temperature
Que.97. If the steel at room temperature is magnetic, the presence of
which constituent can be ruled out
a) Austenite b) Ferrite
c) Cementite d) Pearlite
Que.98. In a ________, the molten metal is poured and allowed to solidify
while the mould is revolving.
a) Die casting method b) Slush casting
method
c) Permanent mould casting method d) Centrifugal casting

method

Que.99. Shift is a casting defect which

a) Results in mismatching of the top and bottom parts of a casting
b) Results in general enlargement of a casing
c) Occurs near the ingrates as rough lumps on the surface of a
casting
d) Occurs as sand patches on the upper surface of a casting.

Que.100. The lead screw of a lathe with nut forms a

a) Sliding pair b) Rolling pair
c) Screw pair d) Turning pair
Que.101. The welding process by metal inert gas (MIG) welding is
a) Slower than the welding process by tungsten inert gas (TIG)
welding
b) Faster than the welding process by tungsten inert gas (TIG)
welding
c) At the same speed as welding process by tungsten inert gas (TIG)
welding
d) At unpredictable speed
Que.102. In metal cutting operation, maximum heat (i.e.80-85%) is
generated in
a) The shear zone b) The chip tool interface
zone
c) The tool work interface zone d) on the tool surface

Que.103. In which process material is removed due to the action of

abrasive grains?
a) Electro chemical grinding (ECG) b) Ultrasonic machining
(USM)
c) Laser beam machining (LBM) d) Electrical discharge

machining

Que.104. On increasing the value of rake angle, the strength of the

tool……………
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Remain constant d) Is unpredictable
Que.105. The productivity of honing operation is
a) Less than the productivity of lapping operation
b) More than the productivity of lapping operation
c) Equal to the productivity of lapping operation for the same work
piece
d) Unpredictable

Que.106. In hole basis system, the basic size is equal to

a) Maximum hole size b) Lower deviation is
zero
c) Upper deviation is zero d) Minimum hole size

Que.107. A non-consumable electrode is used in

a) Gas welding b) DC arc welding
c) AC Arc welding d) Argon arc welding

Que.108. Which of following laser source can give the highest power
density?
a) Plasma arc b) Electron beam
c) Laser continuous d) Laser pulsed
Que.109. The bonding of rubber sheet with a metal is done by
a) Welding b) High frequency die electric
heating
 c) Induction welding d) Adhesive bonding
Que.110. Tungsten carbide tipped drill bits are used for
a) Slow drilling b) Smooth surface
c) Drilling without coolant d) Drilling on glass

Que.111. The following hardening process is generally free from

scale formation.
a) Flame hardening b) Cyaniding
c) Nitriding d) Induction hardening

Que.112. In metal cutting use of low feed and high cutting speed is
desired when the objective is
a) High metal removal rate b) Dry machining
c) Use of soft cutting tool d) Surface finish

Que.113. A zinc diffusion process is called

a) Galvanizing b) Parkerizing
c) Shearadizing d) Anodizing

Que.114. The factor responsible for the formation of discontinuous

chip is
a) Low cutting speed and small rake
b) High cutting speed and small rake angle
c) High cutting speed and large rake angle
d) Low cutting speed and large rake angle

Que.115. Dye penetration inspection is generally used to locate

a) Temporary defects b) Surface breaking defects
c) Artificial defects d) Core defects
Que.116. Friction at the tool chip interface can be reduced by
a) Decreasing the rake angle b) Increasing the depth
of cut
c) Decreasing the cutting speed d) Increasing the cutting

speed

Que.117. Which among the following tool bits are made by powder
metallurgy process
a) Carbon steel tool bits b) Tungsten carbide tool bits
c) Stellite tool bits d) HSS tool bits
Que.118. While machining copper alloys by Electro chemical
Machining the electrolyte used is
a) Common salt b) Sodium sulphate
 c) Sodium chlorate d) sodium Nitrate

Que.119. brazing changes to soldering at which temperature

a) 230⁰C b) 325⁰C c) 450⁰C d) 575⁰C

Que.120. Metal forming process used for making shallow and also for
straightening parts is
a) Peen forming b) Magnetic pulse
forming
c) Stamping d) Stretch forming

Que.121. The machine members which are used to gradually

transmit motion of a driving member to another member at rest,
without shock, are termed as
a) Bearings b) Couplings
c) Clutches d) Cotters
Que.122. Group technology bring together and organizes
a) Automation and tool production b) Documentation and
analysis
c) Common parts, problems and tasks d) Parts and simulation
analysis
Que.123. Machining of complex shape on CNC machines requires
a) Simultaneous control of X, Y and Z axes
b) Simultaneous control of X and Y axes
c) Independent control of X, Y and Z axes
d) Independent control of X, Y and Z axes
Que.124. The interpolator in CNC machines controls
a) Spindle speed b) Coolant flow
c) Feed rate d) Tool change
Que.125. Flexible manufacturing allows for
a) Tool design and tool production
b) Quick and inexpensive product changes
c) Automated design
d) Factory management
Que.126. NC contouring is an example of
a) Continuous path positioning b) Point to point positioning
c) Absolute positioning d) Incremental
positioning
Que.127. In concurrent engineering. Design and manufacturing are
 a) Sequentially considered b) Separately
considered
c) Simultaneously considered d) Independently
considered
Que.128. Gantt charts provide information about the
a) Material handling b) Utilization of manpower
c) Production schedule d) Working of machines
Que.129. In time study the rating factor is applied to determine
a) Standard time of job b) Merit rating of work
c) Normal time of working d) Fixation of incentive rate
Que.130. The determination of standard time in a complex job
system is best done through a
a) Group timing technique b) Analysis of micro motion
c) Stop watch time study d) Analysis standard data
system
Que.131. Speed and direction of workers movements can be better
recorded by which one of the following
a) Flow chart b) Chronocycle graph
c) Chronometer d) String diagram
Que.132. The most important objective behind plant layout is
a) Overall simplification, safety of integration
b) Economy in space
c) Maximum travel time in plant
d) To provide conveniently located shops
Que.133. Quality improvement planning is related to which category
of cost?
a) Cost of failure b) Cost of appraisal
c) Cost of prevention d) Cost of loss
Que.134. Line balancing problem is concerned with
a) Process layout b) Product layout
c) Fixed position layout d) Cellular
manufacturing
Que.135. A master production schedule contains information about
a) Quantities and required delivery data of all final products
b) Quantities and required delivery data of all sub-assemblies
c) Inventory on hand for each sub assembly
d) Inventory on hand for each final product
Que.136. Values for the probabilistic inputs to a simulation are
 a) Controlled by decision maker
b) Calculated by fixed mathematical formula
c) Randomly generated based on historical information
d) Selected by decision maker

Que.137. A simulation model uses the mathematical expressions and

logical relationships of the
a) Estimated inferences b) Performance
measures
c) Computer model d) Real system
Que.138. The acronym DMAIC stands for
a) Develop, make, analyze, improve, control
b) Define, measure, analyze, Implement, control
c) Define, make, analyze, import, control
d) Derive, measure, analyze, implement, create

Que.139. Productivity of a production system is analogous to the

a) Output of a machine b) Input of a machine
c) Efficiency of a machine d) Efficiency of labour

Que.140. Production of large turbo generators is an example for

a) Job order production b) Batch order
production
c) Continuous production d) Selective production

Que.141. Combining together of two business parties is termed as

a) Joint stock company b) Amalgamation
c) Public limited company d) Private limited company

Que.142. Reheating in a gas turbine

a) Increases the compressor work b) Increases the turbine
work
c) Decreases the thermal efficiency d) Increases thermal

efficiency

Que.143. The process of super charging in I.C engines is meant for

a) Raising the exhaust pressure
b) Increasing the density of intake air
c) Increasing quality of fuel going into the cylinder
d) Decreasing the density of air
Que.144. In the perpetual inventory control, the material is checked
as it reaches its___ value.
a) Maximum b) Average
c) Alarming d) Minimum

Que.145. Free trade zone means

a) Two countries without tariff
b) Two manufacturers without tax liability
c) Manufacturer and consumer
d) Manufacturer and wholesaler
Que.146. For resistance welding, the
a) Voltage is low and current is high
b) Voltage is high and current is low
c) Both voltage and current are low
d) Both voltage and current are high

Que.147. Which of following test can be used to detect surface

cracks in the welding of non-magnetic alloys?
a) Gamma ray test b) X-ray test
c) Fluorescent test d) Magnaflux test

Que.148. In petrol engines, advancing the spark timing will

a) Decreases b) Not effect
c) Increases the knocking tendency d) Unpredictable

Que.149. Ignition lag is

a) Time before actual fuel injection and the pump plunger start to
pump fuel
b) Time corresponding to actual ignition
c) Time corresponding to actual injection and TDC
d) Time taken by fuel after injection ( before TDC) to reach up to
auto ignition temperature
Que.150. In C.I engine, the function air swirl is
a) Haphazard motion of air in the cylinder
b) Rotary motion of the air for proper distribution of fuel in the
cylinder
c) Radial motion of air in the cylinder
d) Mixing of air and fuel.