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SET :- 08 (Power Sharing, Federalism & Sector of the Indian Economy)
Sub:- S. Sc. Class:- X Time Allowed:- 60 Minutes Max Marks:- 40
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➢ General Instruction:
1. The Question Paper contains four sections A, B, C & D.
2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.
3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18 questions.
4. Section C has 12 questions (Case Based). Attempt any 10 questions.
5. Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
6. All questions carry equal marks.
7. There is no negative marking.

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SECTION – A
Q1. Sri Lankan Tamils launched a struggle for
(a) Language recognition, autonomy and equal opportunities (b) Language based divison of country and major jobs
(c) Equal distribution of resources and separate land (d) Government jobs and equal representation in government
Q2. Prudential reasons of power sharing are ____.
(a) The stability of political order (b) To reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups
(c) A fair share to minority (d) All of these
Q3. Which form of power sharing is also termed as vertical division of power?
(a) Power shared among different organs of government.
(b) Power shared among different social groups.
(c) Power shared among different political parties,pressure groups and movements.
(d) Power shared among government at different levels.
Q4. A type of government in which many political parties join together to prove their majority in the house ____.
(a) Community government (b) Democratic government (c) State government (d) Coalition government
Q5. Belgium shares its border with how many countries of Europe?
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six
Q6. Which of the following is not a region of Belgium?
(a) Flemish (b) Wallon (c) Luxembourg (d) Brussels - capital region
Q7. In which part of Sri Lanka are the Indian Tamils concentrated?
(a) North and South (b) North and East (c) East and West (d) South and East
Q8. Different arguments are usually put forth in favour of and against power sharing. Identify those which are in favour of
power sharing and select the answer using the codes given below.
A. Power sharing reduces conflict among different communities
B. Power sharing decreases the possibility of arbitrariness
C. Power sharing delays decision making process
D. Power sharing accommodates diversities
E. Power sharing increases instability and divisiveness
F. Power sharing promotes people’s participation in government
G. Power sharing undermines the unity of a country
(a) A, B, D, F (b) A, C, E, F (c) A, B, D, G (d) B, C, D, G
Q9. In those days, the Central Government would often misuse the Constitution to dismiss the State governments that
were controlled by rival parties. the time was____
(a) before 1990 (b) after 1990 (c) before 1947 (d) after 2016
Q10. Which period saw the rise of regional political parties in many states of our country ?
(a) After 1990 (b) Before 1990 (c) After 1947 (d) Before 1950
Q11. What is the present coalition government in India?
(a) National Democratic Alliance (b) Indian National Congress (c) Bharatiya Janata Party (d) all of these
Q12. How many languages are there in the 2011 census of India?
(a) more than 1300 (b) less than 1300 (c) more than2000 (d) more than 5000
Q13. After grouping of languages, the Census found ___ major languages. Of these ___ languages are now included in the
Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and are therefore called ‘Scheduled Languages’.
(a) 121, 22 (b) 22, 167 (c) 148, 21 (d) 126, 11
Q14. How many countries have more population than Uttar Pradesh?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
Q15. In which year a major step towards decentralization was taken up?
(a) 1985 (b) 1991 (c) 1992 (d) 1993
Q16. In Panchayati Raj system, ____of the seats have been reserved for women.
(a) 2/3rd (b) 1/3rd (c) 1/4th (d) 1/5th
Q17. Which one of the following sectors has the largest employer in India ?
(a) Primary (b) Secondary (c) Tertiary (d) IT sector
Q18. Which of the following is an activity of unorganized sector ?
(a) Teacher taking a class in Kendriya Vidyalaya (b) A nurse working in a Govt. hospital
(c) A farmer irrigating his field (d) A clerk working in the post office
Q19. Which one of the following is a feature of public sector ?
(a) Ownership of assets is in the hands of private individuals or companies
(b) Activities are guided by the motive to earn profits
(c) The government owns most of the assets
(d) None of the above
Q20. Which of the following is a tertiary occupation?
(a) Engineering (b) Agriculture (c) Fishing (d) Tourism
Q21. From the following, ____ does not come under organised sector.
(a) Postman (b) Doctor (c) Teacher (d) Agricultural labour
Q22. When was the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act” passed?
(a) 2001 (b) 2003 (c) 2005 (d) 2007
Q23. Who is responsible for measuring the GDP in India?
(a) State government (c) World bank with the help of the central government
(b) Central government (d) Central government with the help of stategovernments and union territories
Q24. Who measures the GDP in India?
(a) State government (c) World bank with the help of the central government
(b) Central government (d) Central government with the help of stategovernments and union territories
SECTION – B
Q25. Which of the following was not a provision of the Act of 1956 passed in Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhala was recognised as the only official language (b) Buddhism was to be protected by the state
(c) Provinces were given autonomy (d) Sinhalas were favoured in government jobs
Q26. What does Elem stands for ?
(a) Tamil name for Sri lanka (b) Tamil name for State (c) LTTE (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q27. Which of the following measures does not establish Sinhala supremacy in Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhala is the only official language. (b) Preferential policies for government jobs.
(c) The state shall protect and foster Buddhism. (d) Equal political rights to Sri Lankan Tamils
Q28. The Belgian government shifted to a federal from a ____ form of government.
(a) Accommodative (b) Authoritarian (c) Unitary (d) None of the above
Q29. Non-sharing of power leads to
(a) Peace among all the communities (b) Tyranny of the majority and oppression of the minority
(c) Negation of the very spirit of democracy (d) Both (b) and (c)
Q30. Which of the following was not one of the initial demands of the Sri Lankan Tamils?
(a) Recognition of Tamil as an official language (b) Regional autonomy
(c) Equality of opportunity in securing jobs and education (d) Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam
Q31. Consider the following statements about the ethnic composition of Sri Lanka:
A. Major social groups are the Sinhala- speaking (74%) and Tamil-speaking (18%)?
B. Among the Tamils, there are two sub-groups, Sri Lankan Tamils and Indian Tamils.
C. There are about 7% Christians, who are both Tamil and Sinhala.
D. Most of the Sinhala-speaking are Hindus or Muslims and most of the Tamil-speaking are Buddhists.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) A, B, C (b) A, B, D (c) B, C, D (d) A, B, C, D
Q32. Which institution has been created in each State of India to conduct Panchayat and Municipal elections?
(a) SAC (b) MAC (c) PEC (d) SEC
Q33. A council consisting of several ward members, often called panch, and a president or Sarpanch is called ____.
(a) Gram Sabha (b) Gram Panchayat (c) Gram Parishad (d) none of these
Q34. A few Gram Panchayats are grouped together to form what is usually called _____.
(a) Panchayat samiti (b) Block samiti (c) Mandal samiti (d) All of the above
Q35. Municipal chairperson is the political head of the municipality. In a municipal corporation such an office-bearer is
called the ____.
(a) sarpanch (b) city head (c) Mayor (d) sheriff
Q36. The experiment of combining the decentralization with participative democracy was carried out in ____.
(a) Sao Paulo (b) Porto Alegre (c) New York (d) San Diego
Q37. Porto Alegre is a popular city of which country?
(a) Brazil (b) India (c) USA (d) UK
Q38. Who is the guardian of the Constitution of India
(a) The Supreme Court of India (b) The government of India
(c) The constitution of India (d) The District Court of India
Q39. Which of the following scheme has NOT been launched to provide any type of employment to beneficiaries?
(a) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (b) Mid Day Meal Scheme
(c) National Food for Work Programme (d) All are employment-generating schemes
Q40. We know that the industrial sector plays an important role in the development of India. Which sector does not come
under industrial sector?
(a) Mining (b) Manufacturing (c) Banking (d) Utilities
Q41. Agriculture sector contributes around 55% of GDP in 1950-51, which has come down to .......... % in 2011-12.
(a) 20 (b) 14 (c) 25 (d) 28
Q42. Share of agriculture and their allied products in total export is about .......... as per 2011-12.
(a) 60% (b) 65% (c) 10% (d) 75%
Q43. Employment in small industry sector has been .......... .
(a) nearly 50% of total industrial employment
(b) one-third of the number of employment offered by modern industries
(c) about 10% of the total industrial employment
(d) only 20% of the total industrial employment
Q44. In India, percentage of population employed in Agriculture has .......... from period of independence to the current
date.
(a) increased (b) decreased (c) remained constant (d) nothing can be said
Q45. In the case of .......... countries, the share of service sector to GDP is about 60% or more.
(a) underdeveloped (b) developing (c) developed (d) all of the above
Q46. Which of the following occupied the highest place in growth rate during the 10th Plan period 2002−2007?
(a) Agricultural sector (b) Service sector (c) Industrial sector (d) Mining
SECTION – C
CASE STUDY – 1
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the most appropriate option:

The need for decentralisation was recognised in our Constitution. Since then, there have been several attempts to decentralise
power to the level of villages and towns. Panchayat in villages and municipalities in urban areas were set up in all the States.
But these were directly under the control of state governments. Elections to these local governments were not held regularly.
Local governments did not have any powers or resources of their own. Thus, there was very little decentralisation in effective
terms. A major step towards decentralisation was taken in 1992. The Constitution was amended to make the third-tier of
democracy more powerful and effective. Now it is constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government
bodies. Seats are reserved in the elected bodies and the executive heads of these institutions for the Scheduled Castes,
Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes. At least one-third of all positions are reserved for women. An independent
institution called the State Election Commission has been created in each State to conduct panchayat and municipal elections.
The State governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies. The nature of sharing
varies from State to State

Q47. What is the basic idea behind decentralization?

(a) There are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the local level.
(b) Besides, at the local level it is possible for the people to directly participate in decision making. This helps to
inculcate a habit of democratic participation
(c) Local government is the best way to realise one important principle of democracy, namely local self-government.
(d) All the above
Q48. Consider the following statements on the practice of federalism in India.
A. Local governments did not have any power or resources of their own.
B. It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government bodies.
C. The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies.
D. No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other backward classes.
Identify those which hold true for decentralization after 1992.
(a) B and C (b) A and C (c) A and D (d) B and D
Q49. In local self-government institutions at least onethird of all positions are reserved for?
(a) Men (b) Women (c) Scheduled caste (d) Scheduled tribe
Q50. Which of these is incorrect, based on the Consitutional Amendment, 1992?
(a) One-fourth of positions are reserved for women.
(b) Regular elections should be held to the local government bodies.
(c) Seats are reserved for SCs, STs and OBCs.
(d) State Election Commission looks after these elections
Q51. In which year a major step towards decentralization was taken up?
(a) 1985 (b) 1991 (c) 1992 (d) 1993
Q52. The Constitution of India was amended in 1992 to make the third-tier of democracy more effective. As a result, at
least one-third of all positions in the local bodies are reserved for women. This is because ___________.
(a) Women are good at managing resources
(b) Women had inadequate representation in decision-making bodies
(c) We have many powerful women leaders
(d) Women are obedient and would follow the constitutional provisions well
CASE STUDY – 2
Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the most appropriate option:
This sector is characterised by small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government. There
are rules and regulations but these are not followed. Jobs here are low-paid and often not regular. There is no provision
for overtime, paid leave, holidays, leave due to sickness etc. Employment is not secure. People can be asked to leave
without any reason. When there is less work, such as during some seasons, some people may be asked to leave. A lot also
depends on the whims of the employer. This sector includes a large number of people who are employed on their own
doing small jobs such as selling on the street or doing repair work. Similarly, farmers work on their own and hire
labourers as and when they require

Q53. Which sector are we talking about?

(a) Private sector (b) Public sector (c) Organised sector (d) Unorganised sector
Q54. Which of the following is applicable for a worker, who works in the above mentioned sector?
(a) She gets medical allowance
(b) She got an appointment letter stating the terms and conditions of work when she joins work.
(c) She gets a regular salary at the end of the month.
(d) She is not paid for leave
Q55. Choose the correct meaning of the organised sector:
(a) It covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are regular.
(b) It is outside the control of the government.
(c) Jobs are not regular
(d) It provides low salaries.
Q56. Read the statements given below and choose the incorrect options:
(a) There is no provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays,etc. in the organised sector.
(b) Workers in organised sector enjoy security of employment.
(c) Organised sector covers those places of work where the terms of employment are regular.
(d) Workers in the organised sector expected to work only a fixed number of hours.
Options:
(a) Only (a) is incorrect (b) (a) and (b) both are incorrect
(c) (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect (d) Only (d) is incorrect
Q57. Which sector includes a large number of people who are employed on their own doing small jobs?
(a) Private sector (b) Public sector (c) Organised sector (d) Unorganised sector
Q58. In which sector employment is not secure?
(a) Private sector (b) Public sector (c) Organised sector (d) Unorganised sector
SECTION – D
MAP BASED QUESTIONS
A map of India is given below. Answer the following questions on the basis of this map :

Q59. Identify the state marked as A on the map which is major producer of Sugarcane.
(a) Punjab (b) Karnataka (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Rajsthan
Q60. Identify the state marked as B on the map which is major producer of Coffee.
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Karnataka (c) Odisha (d) Rajasthan