PBN REVIEW

1. PBN stands for:

a) Personal Best Navigator
b) Performance Based Next-generation
c) Probability Based Navigation
d) Performance Based Navigation

2. PBN includes Navigation, Communication, Surveillance and Air Traffic

Management.
a) True
b) False

3. ICAO Doc. 9613 includes training that both pilots and Air Traffic Controllers
should complete.
a) True
b) False

4. The 3 components of PBN are:

a) Navigation Specification, Navigation Application, Navigation Infrastructure
b) Navigation Sensors, Navigation Application, Navigation Infrastructure
c) Navigation Specification, Navigation Application, Navigation Certification
d) Navigation Specification, Navigation Accuracy, Navigation Infrastructure

5. PBN performance requirements are defined in term of:

a) Absolute Integrity, Continuity and, Availability
b) Accuracy, Information, Course and, Availability
c) Accuracy, Integrity, Availability and, Continuity
d) Absolute Integrity, Continuity and, Analysis

6. In PBN altimeters are still used for vertical guidance.

a) True
b) False

7. A single flight is required to use only one navigation specification for he entire
flight.
a) True
b) False

8. All GNSS systems use GPS

a) True
b) False

9. WGS84 is the agreed upon standard insuring that:

a) An Aircraft is certified to fly GPS
b) Ground position and satellite based position calculations match
c) Satellites fly a correct orbit
d) Prove the earth is not flat

10. An Operator who buys a GPS equipped aircraft is PBN approved.

a) True
b) False

11. How many satellites are required for an aircraft to calculate its position?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

12. During a flight, the Inertial Navigation System (INS) becomes more accurate
over time.
a) True
b) False

13. What does GBAS stand for?

a) Ground-Based Accuracy System
b) Ground-Based Augmentation System
c) Ground Broadcast And Surveillance
d) Great Big Airplane Solution

14. OPMA stands for:

a) On-board Performance Measurement and Augmentation
b) On-board Performance Monitoring and Alerting
c) On-board Primary Measurement and Alerting
d) None of the above

15. RNAV aircraft and RNP aircraft use different GNSS signals.
a) True
b) False
16. RAIM is the process that the GNSS receiver uses to assess the accuracy and
integrity of the navigation signals being received.
a) True
b) False

17. Waypoints specify a geographic location, in term of:

a) Altitude
b) Latitude and Longitude
c) Speed
d) All of the above

18. Which letter or letters must be used in Item 10 to indicate a flight is PBN
approved.
a) PBN/
b) R
c) N
d) R/

19. In a Closed-Path STAR, the distance to fly to the runway is unknown.

a) True
b) False

20. Once ATC clears an A/C for a Closed-Path STAR, the A/C must be left on the
procedure and cannot be vectored.
a) True
b) False

21. RNAV approaches do not required OPMA.

a) True
b) False

22. RNAV (RNP) RWY 23 is a basic GNSS approach.

a) True
b) False

23. The letter “Z” in the approach title indicates:

a) The pilot must be given the correct zulu time prior to commencing the approach.
b) The approach goes to multiple runways
c) There is more the one RNAV approach to this runway
d) None of the above
24. ICAO Doc. 4444 lists exact detailed procedures to be followed for every single
contingency situation you may encounter.
a) True
b) False

25. In non-radar environment, two arriving aircraft on paralleled RNP 1 tracks can
be separated by not less than:
a) 3 nm
b) 5 nm
c) 7 nm
d) 9 nm

26. A navigation specification based on area navigation that does not include the
requirement for on-board performance monitoring and alerting is:
a) RNAV specification
b) RNP specification
c) PBN specification
d) NAVAIDS specification

27. A navigation specification based on area navigation that includes the

requirement for on-board performance monitoring and alerting is:
a) RNAV specification
b) RNP specification
c) PBN specification
d) NAVAIDS specification

28. A form of ABAS whereby a GNSS receiver processor determines the integrity
of the GNSS navigation signals using only GPS signals or GPS signals augmented
with altitude (baro-aiding).
a) Receiver automatic integrity monitoring (RAIM)
b) Receiver autonomous inertial monitoring (RAIM)
c) Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM)
d) Receiver autonomous integrity management (RAIM)

29. A navigation system which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path
within the coverage of station-referenced navigation aids or within the limits of the
capability of selfcontained aids, or a combination of these.
a) RNAV
b) RNAV route
c) RNAV system
d) RNP system

30. An area navigation system which supports on-board performance monitoring

and alerting.
a) RNP system
b) RNP
c) RNP route
d) RNAV system

31. The application of a navigation specification and the supporting NAVAID

infrastructure, to routes, procedures, and/or defined airspace volume, in accordance
with the intended airspace concept
a) Navigation function
b) Navigation application
c) Navigation specification
d) NAVAID infrastructure

32. The detailed capability of the navigation system (such as the execution of leg
transitions, parallel offset capabilities, holding patterns, navigation databases)
required to meet the airspace concept.
a) Navigation function
b) Navigation application
c) Navigation specification
d) NAVAID infrastructure

33. A set of aircraft and aircrew requirements needed to support Performance-

based Navigation operations within a defined airspace.
a) NAVAID infrastructure
b) Navigation function
c) Navigation specification
d) Navigation application

34. Navigation aid infrastructure refers to space-based and or ground-based

NAVAIDs available to meet the requirements in the navigation specification.
a) Navigation application
b) NAVAID infrastructure
c) Navigation function
d) Navigation application
35. An ATS route established for the use of aircraft capable of employing area
navigation.
a) RNAV route
b) PBN route
c) RNP route
d) ATS route

36. A method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight
path within the coverage of ground or space-based navigation aids or within the
limits of the capability of selfcontained aids, or a combination of these.
a) PBN route
b) RNAV
c) PBN route
d) RNAV route

37. Area navigation based on performance requirements for aircraft operating

along an ATS route, on an instrument approach procedure or in a designated
airspace.
a) RNAV system
b) RNP system
c) PBN
d) CNS

38. An augmentation system that augments and/or integrates the information

obtained from the other GNSS elements with information available on board the
aircraft.
a) Aircraft-based augmentation system (ABAS)
b) Performance-based navigation (PBN)
c) Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring (RAIM)
d) Satellite-based augmentation system (SBAS)

39. The main benefits that result from PBN implementation are:
a) Reducing infrastructure, increasing operational efficiency
b) Increasing airspace capacity
c) Reducing enviormental impact, improving safety
d) All of the above

40. Navigation specification applied in Oceanic/Remote areas:

a) RNAV 10
b) RNP 4
c) RNAV 1, RNP 1
d) a and b

41. Navigation specification applied in SIDs, STARs in Radar evironment:

a) RNAV 1
b) RNAV 5
c) RNAV 2
d) a and c
42. The Performance-based Navigation (PBN) concept specifies that aircraft
RNAV and RNP system performance requirements be defined in terms of:
Accuracy, integrity, continuity, and functionality.
43. Under PBN, generic navigation requirements are delined based on:
Operational requirements.
44. What advantage(s) does Performance-based Navigation provide? It reduces
the need to maintain sensor-specific routes and procedures
45. What is the main difference between RNAV and RNP? RNP includes the
requirement for onboard performance monitoring and alerting.
46. Both RNP and RNAV specifications have certain functional requirements,
including which of the following? Navigation data storage function.
47. Does the PBN concept include vertical performance? No, although some
navigation specifications include requirements for vertical guidance using
GNSS or barometric vertical navigation.
48. For oceanic, remote, en-route, and terminal operations, an RNP specification is
designated as: RNP/RNAV "X"; such as RNP 4.
49. True or False? An aircraft approved for RNP 1 is automatically approved for
RNP 4. False. Aircraft approved for more stringent requirements may not
meet functional requirements of less stringent specifications.
50. In order to be eligible for RNP or RNAV operations, an aircraft must: Have a
statement of compliance in the AFM, POH, or operating manual for their
avionies.
51. RNAV is a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any
desired fight path within the coverage of station referenced navigation aids, self-
contained aids, or a combination. To use RNAV, the specified RNAV accuracy
must be met for how much of the flight time? 95%.
52. When condueting an RNAV DP or STAR procedure, differences between the
chart and navigation display are operationally acceptable as long as they do not
exceed: 3 degrees.
53. In the event that any loss of RNAV capability is experienced the pilot should:
Notify ATC including the proposed course of action.
54. During a STAR, a "descend via" clearance provides pilots the option to:
Descend from a previously assigned altitude to the waypoint altitude at the
pilot's discretion.
55. IF ATC issues a heading assignment that takes the aircraft off a procedure, do
the specified route-accuracy requirements still apply? No. (While off the
published procedure, the accuracy requirements do not apply).
56. Pilots must verify that the current local altimeter at the airport of intended
landing is set no later then when reaching the: FAF (Final approach fix)
57. If during an RNP AR approach the lateral deviation exceeds 1xRNP or the
vertical deviation exceeds 75 feet, the pilot should: Execute a missed approach,
unless visual references are acquired.
58. In order to provide ATC with the necessary information on what type of
RNAV capability the aircraft has, the appropriate code must be written in the
Flight Plan for items 10 or 18. For aircraft that are equipped with B-RNAV/RNAV
5, what would they enter for Item 10a? Class A Terrain Awareness and
Warning System.
59/ When loading a P-RNAV procedure, which of the following waypoints may be
used? Only existing waypoints.
60 During B-RNAV operations if RAIM detection function is lost or experiences a
loss of integrity, may you continue to use the GPS or WAAS equipment for
navigation? Yes. If cross-checking other on-board navigation systems reveals
there is still an acceptable level of IFR navigation performance.
61. During operator approval, operators will normally have authorization to
conduct RNP AR approaches using minima associated with RNP 0.3 for a period
of 90 days until 100 AR approaches in each aircraft is accumulated. When an
approach procedure has no line of minima associated with RNP 0.3 you must: Fly
the procedure in visual meteorological conditions.
62. When conducting RNP operations with non-WAAS equipped aireraft, reliable
navigation in case of GPS system failure must be assured and RAIM availability
confirmed. RAIM predictions can be used for flight-planning up to how many
hours in advance of the planned departure? 72 hours
63. The minimum level of availability and integrity required for P-RNAV systems
may be met by a single installed system that is comprised of: 3 degrees - 75 feet
64. A non-WAAS equipped flight must be delayed, canceled, re-routed, or re-
planned using a type of navigation other than RNP, if there is a continuous
predicted loss of RAIM for how long? 5 minutes
65. True or False? RNP AR missed approaches will use the same RNP as the RNP
AR approach. False. There are two types of RNP AR missed approaches, RNP
1.0 and RNP less than 1.0. RNP less than 1.0 will be noted on the approach
chart.
66. What is the primary navigation system to support RNP APCH procedures?
GPS
67. During RNP APCH procedures, scaling should change automatically.
However, pilots of aircraft with a lateral deviation indicator must ensure it's sealing
is suitable for the various segments. These should be: Initial and Intermediate
segments: +-1,0 NM; FAS: +-0,3 NM; Missed Approach segment: +-1.0 NM.
68. During normal RNP AR operations, pilots should limit cross-track error to the
associated navigation accuracy. +- one half.
69. RNAV (GPS) approaches with an LNAV/VNAV line of minima are required
to contain a low and high temperature limitation. Under what condition may you
operate to the LNAV/VNAV DA when the actual temperature is above or below
the limitations? The aircraft baro-VNAV system has temperature
compensation capability.
70. P-RNAV is defined as RNAV that meets a track keeping accuracy that is equal
to or better than: +1 NM for 95% of the flight time.
71. In order to conduct RNP AR approaches, what of the following equipment
must be operational? Class A Terrain Awareness and Warning System.
72. May you use DME/DME updating as a reversionary mode during the RNP AR
approach or missed approach? Yes. Under all of these conditions.
73. Pilots are expected to maintain route centerlines during all RNP operations and
limit cross track error/deviations to +/- half the RNP value required for the
procedure or route, though brief deviations from this during and immediately after
procedure/route turns is allowable, up to a maximum of: I times the navigation
accuracy.
74. During RNP APCH procedures, pilots must confirm that the system has
initiated a transition from terminal mode to the approach mode at what distance
prior to the FAF? 2NM
75. During en route RNP operations (RNP 2, 4, and 10) on flexible route
structures, is manual entry of waypoints permitted? Yes. But only for flexible
route structures and if entry errors are mitigated by flighterew procedures.
76. In order to conduct B-RNAV operations, the aircraft must be equipped with
one or more navigation systems. If only one system is used, which of the following
conditions must be met in the event of a failure? The system must be able to
continue navigation using ground-based aids
77. During operations on the initial and intermediate segments and for the missed
approach of an RNP APCH procedure, the lateral Total System Error (TSE) and
along-track (ATRK) error must be within: +-1 NM for at least 95% of the total
flight time.
78. True or False? At certain locations, the airspace or obstacle environment may
require an RNP capability of less than 1.0 during a missed approach. True.
Typically these approaches also require redundant equipment.
79. Each published line of minima for an RNP AR IAP has an associated RNP
value. All RNP AR approaches will have an RNP value of: 0.3 or less.
80. If during an RF leg, you begin a missed approach prior to the decision altitude,
what speed limitation must you maintain? Maintain the segment speed to the DA
and then any further limitations for the MAS.
81. In order to be considered eligible for B-RNAV, aircraft equipment must meet a
minimum track keeping accuracy equal to or better than: +5 NM.
82. Which of the following procedures should be followed when on
B-RNAV/RNAV 5 routes: Select other NAVAIDs to allow immediate cross-
checking or reversion in the event of a loss of RNAV capability.
83. During normal RNP AR operations, the vertical deviation during the Final
Approach Segment (FAS) must be within: 75 feet.
84. True or False? During terminal P-RNAV procedures, a means of vertical
navigation is not required. True. There is no mandate for VNAV, so pilots
should ensure a traditional means of VNAV is available.
85. Which of the following is a minimum required system function for conducting
B-RNAV/RNAV 5 operations? 75 feet Only existing waypoints
86. During B-RNAV operations if RAIM detection function is lost or experiences a
loss of integrity, may you continue to use the GPS or WAAS equipment for
navigation? TRUE
87. RNAV systems included several Failure Alerts including: Failure Alerts if on-
board RNAV computer fails or RNAV Navigation Reference Source becomes
Unreliable
88. Using RNAV as the Aircraft Navigation System can: Reduce flight time, Save
on fuel costs due to less flight time, and Reduce pollution due to less flight time
TRUE
89. LNAV provides both lateral and vertical navigation FALSE
90. A Waypoint is a LATITUDE-LONGITUDE position TRUE
91. VNAV approaches are used for both lateral and vertical approaches TRUE
92. RNAV can use GPS, VOR/DME, INS, or LORAN for a Navigation Reference
Seurce FALSE
9.3 RNAV only provides IFR aircraft position information and can't provide time
or distance to next waypoint FALSE
94. RNAV computer requires stored data that includes: Route of Flight Waypoint
Data
95. RNAV courses are "straight flight" courses because Aircraft can fly from one
point to any other point using an on-board computing system (using internal
or external navigation references) that produces a straight course for the
aircrew to fly the aircraft
96. VOR Stations provide a North Orientation 360 degree Navigation Reference
Source to allow the to RNAV computer to orient to North TRUE
97. In the PBN specifications, the number included in the specification name refers
to ? The required accuracy, in NM, of the navigation system
98. Which of the following is not a basic function required in all PBN navigation
specifications: Facility to operate offset parallel tracks
99. Which of the navigation aids may be used in PBN: GNSS, VOR, DME and
INS
100. Which of the following statements regarding PBN model is true: Navigation
system error is usually negligible
101. A requirement of PBN is that the total system error is ... Is equal or less than
the required accuracy of the navigation specification for at least 95% of the
time
102. The navigation database ... Is valid for 28 days and must be confirmed
valid prior to operating
103. When completing a fight plan for a flight which is intended to include
operations in PBN airspace: Block 18 contains information on the aireraft PBN
capabilities relevant to the flight, and is limited to 8 entries
104. When considering a notified RAIM outage that affects a planned Night... A
RAIM outage of more than 5 minutes will require a re-routing or re timing of
the flight
105. When planning for an RNP APCH arrival at destination, it is necessary to
ensure: Sufficient means are available to permit either the destination or
alternate in the event of a loss of the RNP
106. In order to operate on PBN routes and procedures
⁃ The aircraft must be certified to the required navigation specification
⁃ The pilot must be approved for PBN operntions
107. When operating in PBN airspace, if a system failure results in loss of PBN
capability... AlC must be notified using the phrase, unable RNP due..."
108. The radius to fix leg.......? Is useable in terminal airspace by aireraft
certified specifically to perform RF legs
109. Why must a SID or STAR be selected by name from the database rather than
be created manually by insertion of the waypoints: The database coding of the
procedure includes additional information such as the RNP value for alerting
110. The database coding of the procedure includes additional information such as
the RNP value for alerting Direct to... actions may be performed, at the request
of ATC
110. Approach operations are classified either 2D or 3D. A 3D approach
operation... Is performed to DA, allowing for height loss after the
commencement of a missed approach
112. Which statement is correct regarding approach operations to LNAV/VNAV
minima? Either Baro - VNAV or SBAS may be used to operate these
approaches
113. Missed approaches based on PBN navigation specifications .... May be used,
provide the reason for the missed approach was not the loss of PBN capability
on the aircraft
114. Verification of the approach procedure prior to operation... Should be
performed by comparison with the appropriate chart
115. For RNP APCH approaches using Baro-VNAV, the temperature published on
the chart.... Is the minimum temperature at which the use of the procedure is
authorized
116. Vertical deviation is displayed to the pilot using a deviation scale. These
scales .... Will be calibrated such that full scale deflection represents the
maximum allowed deviation from the vertical path
117. RNAV Approach reporting requirement: Every unsuccessful RNAV
operation shall for whatever reason be reported.
118. RTF phraseology to fly RNAV Approach: "TWR DOP601 REQUEST
RNAV APPROACH VIA ADURA RWY 27"
119. Can you accept vectors to the FAF/FAP of an RNAV approach? No, But you
can to IF, providing that the resulting track change at the IF does not execed
45 degrees.
120. What must you take into account when planning flights to airfields with only
PBN approaches? You can only plan an airfield as an IFR alternate with only
RNAV approaches it the destination airfield has published conventional
approaches.
NOTE:
rnp1, b-rnav: 5nm
rnav: 95%
3 degrees
75ft
rnp 0.3
72h
5min
rnp 1.0
+-1, +-0,3, +-1
+-one half
p-rnav: +1, 95%
rnp arch: 2nm
0.3 or less
28days
block 18, 8 entries
raim: 5min
faf/fap: 45 degrees