Chapter 1

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Mrs. Smith is writing her daily observations of a student and writes, without
interpretation, that the student is not completing the class work and is constantly
speaking out of turn. Which of the following objectives does she appear to be using?
a. prediction
b. description
c. explanation
d. exploration

2. Which of the following is a form of research typically conducted by teachers,

counselors, and other professionals to answer questions they have and to specifically
help them solve local problems?
a. action research
b. basic research
c. predictive research
d. orientational research

3. How much confidence should you place in a single research study?

a. you should completely trust a single research study.
b. you should trust research findings after different researchers have found the
same findings
c. neither a nor b
d. both a and b

4. The development of a solid foundation of reliable knowledge typically is built from

which type of research?
a. basic research
b. action research
c. evaluation research
d. orientational research

5. Which form of reasoning is the process of drawing a specific conclusion from a set
of premises?
a. rationalism
b. deductive reasoning
c. inductive reasoning
d. probabilistic

6. The idea that when selecting between two different theories with equal explanatory
value, one should select the theory that is the most simple, concise, and succinct is
known as ____________.
a. criterion of falsifiability
b. critical theory
c. guide of simplicity
 d. rule of parsimony

7. Research that is done to examine the findings of someone else using the "same
variables but different people" is which of the following?
a. exploration
b. hypothesis
c. replication
d. empiricism

8. ________________ is the idea that knowledge comes from experience.

a. rationalism
b. deductive reasoning
c. logic
d. empiricism

9. According to your text, what are the five key objectives of science?
a. prediction, summary, conclusion, explanation, description
b. influence, prediction, questions, exploration, answers
c. exploration, description, explanation, prediction, influence
d. questions, answers, prediction, explanation, summary

10. A researcher designs an experiment to test how variables interact to influence how
well children learn spelling words. In this case, the main purpose of the study was:
a. Explanation
b. Description
c. Influence
d. Prediction
11. There is a set of churches in the U.S. where part of the service involves snake
handling. The researcher wants to find out why the people attending these churches do
this and how they feel and think about it. In this case, the primary purpose of the study
is:
a. Exploration
b. Description
c. Influence
d. Prediction

12. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good theory or explanation?

a. It is parsimonious
b. It is testable
c. It is general enough to apply to more than one place, situation, or person
d. All of the above are characteristics of good theories

13. Which of the following is not a basic assumption of science?

a. Science cannot provide answers to all questions
b. It is possible to distinguish between more and less plausible claims
c. Researchers should follow certain agreed upon norms and practices
 d. Science is best at solving value conflicts, such as whether abortion is
immoral

14. What general type of research is focused on collecting information to help a

researcher advance an ideological or political position?
a. Evaluation research
b. Basic research
c. Action research
d. Orientational research

15. Which “scientific method” follows these steps: 1) observation/data, 2) patterns, 3)

theory?
a. Inductive
b. Deductive
c. Imductive
d. Top down

16. Rene Descartes is associated with which of the following approached to knowledge
generation?
a. Empiricism
b. Rationalism
c. Expert opinion
d. None of the above

17. Which scientific method is a top-down or confirmatory approach?

a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d. Pattern method

18. Which scientific method is a bottom-up or generative approach to research?

a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d. Pattern method

19. Which scientific method focuses on testing hypotheses developed from theories?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
d. Pattern method

20. Which scientific method often focuses on generating new hypotheses and theories?
a. Deductive method
b. Inductive method
c. Hypothesis method
 d. Pattern method

21. Which of the following statements is true of a theory?

a. it most simply means “explanation”
b. it answers the “how” and “why” questions
c. it can be a well developed explanatory system
d. all of the above are correct

Chapter 2
Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which research paradigm is based on the pragmatic view of reality?

a. quantitative research
b. qualitative research
c. mixed research
d. none of the above

2. Which research paradigm is least concerned about generalizing its findings?

a. quantitative research
b. qualitative research
c. mixed research
d. none of the above

3. Which of the following best describes quantitative research?

a. the collection of nonnumerical data
b. an attempt to confirm the researcher’s hypotheses
c. research that is exploratory
d. research that attempts to generate a new theory

4. A condition or characteristic that can take on different values or categories is called

___.
a. a constant
b. a variable
c. a cause-and-effect relationship
d. a descriptive relationship

5. A variable that is presumed to cause a change in another variable is called a(n):

a. categorical variable
b. dependent variable
c. independent variable
d. intervening variable

6. All of the following are common characteristics of experimental research except:

a. it relies primarily on the collection of numerical data
b. it can produce important knowledge about cause and effect
c. it uses the deductive scientific method
 d. it rarely is conducted in a controlled setting or environment

7. Qualitative research is often exploratory and has all of the following characteristics
except:
a. it is typically used when a great deal is already known about the topic of
interest
b. it relies on the collection of nonnumerical data such as words and pictures
c. it is used to generate hypotheses and develop theory about phenomena in the
world
d. it uses the inductive scientific method

8. Which type of research provides the strongest evidence about the existence of cause-
and-effect relationships?
a. nonexperimental Research
b. experimental Research

9. What is the key defining characteristic of experimental research?

a. extraneous variables are never present
b. a positive correlation usually exists
c. a negative correlation usually exists
d. manipulation of the independent variable

10. In _____, random assignment to groups is never possible and the researcher cannot
manipulate the independent variable.
a. basic research
b. quantitative research
c. experimental research
d. causal-comparative and correlational research

11. What is the defining characteristic of experimental research?

a. resistance to manipulation
b. manipulation of the independent variable
c. the use of open-ended questions
d. focuses only on local problems

12.. A positive correlation is present when _______.

a. two variables move in opposite directions.
b. two variables move in the same direction.
c. one variable goes up and one goes down
d. several variables never change.

13. Research in which the researcher uses the qualitative paradigm for one phase and
the quantitative paradigm for another phase is known as ______.
a. action research
b. basic research
c. quantitative research
 d. mixed method research
e. mixed model research

14. Research in which the researcher uses both qualitative and quantitative research
within a stage or across two of the stages in the research process is known as ______.
a. action research
b. basic research
c. quantitative research
d. mixed method research
e. mixed model research

15.. Research that is done to understand an event from the past is known as _____?
a. experimental research
b. historical research
c. replication
d. archival research

16. ______ research occurs when the researcher manipulates the independent variable.
a. causal-comparative research
b. experimental research
c. ethnography
d. correlational research

17.. Which of the following includes examples of quantitative variables?

a. age, temperature, income, height
b. grade point average, anxiety level, reading performance
c. gender, religion, ethnic group
d. both a and b

18.. What is the opposite of a variable?

a. a constant
b. an extraneous variable
c. a dependent variable
d. a data set

19. Which of the following is the type of nonexperimental research in which the primary
independent variable of interest is categorical?
a. causal-comparative research
b. experimental research
c. qualitative research
d. mixed research

20. Which of the following can best be described as a categorical variable?

a. age
b. annual income
c. grade point average
 d. religion

21. In research, something that does not "vary" is called a ___________.

a. variable
b. method
c. constant
d. control group

22. When interpreting a correlation coefficient expressing the relationship between two
variables, it is very important to avoid _______.
a. checking the strength of relationship
b. jumping to the conclusion of causality
c. checking the direction of the relationship
d. expressing a relationship with a correlation coefficient

23. A researcher studies achievement by children in poorly funded elementary schools.

She develops a model that posits parent involvement as an important variable. She
believes that parent involvement has an impact on children by increasing their
motivation to do school work. Thus, in her model, greater parent involvement leads to
higher student motivation, which in turn creates higher student achievement. Student
motivation is what kind of variable in this study?
a. Manipulated variable
b. Extraneous variable
c. Confounding variable
d. Mediating or intervening variable

24. The strongest evidence for causality comes from which of the following research
methods?
a. Experimental
b. Causal-comparative
c. Correlational
d. Ethnography

25. Which correlation is the strongest?

a. +.10
b. -.95
c. +.90
d. -1.00

26. The correlation between intelligence test scores and grades is:
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Perfect
d. They are not correlated

Chapter 3
 Multiple Choice Questions

1. A good qualitative problem statement:

a. Defines the independent and dependent variables
b. Conveys a sense of emerging design
c. Specifies a research hypothesis to be tested
d. Specifies the relationship between variables that the researcher expects to
find

2. The “tool” function of theory is to:

a. Summarize existing knowledge
b. Summarize existing hypotheses
c. Suggest new relationships and make new predictions
d. Suggest new theories

3. The statement of purpose in a research study should:

a. Identify the design of the study
b. Identify the intent or objective of the study
c. Specify the type of people to be used in the study
d. Describe the study

4. Why is the statement “What are the effects of extracurricular activities on cognitive
development of school age children” not a good statement of a quantitative research
question?
a. Because there is no connection between extracurricular activities and
cognitive
development
b. Because there are not enough school age children engaged in extracurricular
activities
to conduct the study
c. Because the study would be too difficult to do given all the different
extracurricular
activities
d. Because the statement was not specific enough to provide an understanding
of the
variables being investigated

5. A qualitative research question:

a. Asks a question about some process, or phenomenon to be explored
b. Is generally an open-ended question
c. both a and b are correct
d. None of the above

6. According to the text, which of the following orders is the recommended in the
flowchart of the development of a research idea?
a. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, and
 hypothesis
b. Research topic, research purpose, research problem, research question, and
hypothesis
c. Research topic, research problem, research purpose, research question, and
hypothesis
d. Research topic, hypothesis, research problem, research question, research
purpose

7. It is essential that you evaluate the quality of internet resources because information
obtained via the internet ranges from very poor to very good.
a. True
b. False

8. One step that is not included in planning a research study is:

a. Identifying a researchable problem
b. A review of current research
c. Statement of the research question
d. Conducting a meta-analysis of the research
e. Developing a research plan

9. Sources of researchable problems can include:

a. Researchers’ own experiences as educators
b. Practical issues that require solutions
c. Theory and past research
d. All of the above

10. A key characteristic of past research that guides researchers in new research
questions is that:
a. Extensive research conclusively and definitively answers research questions
b. Studies typically generate more research questions than they answer

11. Which of the following is a function of theory?

a. Integrating and summarizing current knowledge
b. Making predictions
c. Explaining phenomena
d. All of the above are important functions of theory

12. A review of the literature prior to formulating research questions allows the
researcher to do which of the following?
a. To become familiar with prior research on the phenomenon of interest
b. To identify potential methodological problems in the research area
c. To develop a list of pertinent problems relative to the phenomenon of interest
d. All of the above

13. Sometimes a comprehensive review of the literature prior to data collection is not
recommended by grounded theorists.
 a. True
b. False

14. What kind of ideas can’t be empirically researched?

a. Effectiveness of different methods of instruction
b. Description of educational practices
c. Issues of values and morality such as the correctness of having prayer in
schools
d. Factors helpful in predicting future drug use

15. Which of the following is not a database containing information to be used during
the literature review?
a. ERIC
b. PsychINFO
c. SocioFILE
d. all of the above are potentially useful data bases

16. Computer database searches can be done:

a. With a computer with CD-ROM drive
b. At the library
c. Online
d. All of the above

17. The feasibility of a research study should be considered in light of:

a. Cost and time required to conduct the study
b. Skills required of the researcher
c. Potential ethical concerns
d. All of the above

18. A formal statement of the research question or “purpose of research study”

generally ______.
a. Is made prior to the literature review
b. Is made after the literature review
c. Will help guide the research process
d. All of the above
e. b and c

19. Is the following qualitative research purpose statement “well stated” or “poorly
stated”? “The focus of the present study was to explore distressing and nurturing
encounters of patients with caregivers and to ascertain the meanings that are
engendered by such encounters. The study was conducted on one of the surgical units
and the obstetrical/gynecological unit of a 374-bed community hospital.”
a. It is a well stated
b. It is poorly stated

20. Which of the following quantitative research questions is superior?

 a. “What is the effect of participation in various extracurricular activities on
academic performance?”
b. “What effect does playing high school football have on students’ overall
grade point average during the football season?”

21. A statement of the quantitative research question should:

a. Extend the statement of purpose by specifying exactly the question(s) the
researcher will
address
b. Help the research in selecting appropriate participants, research methods,
measures, and
materials
c. Specify the variables of interest
d. All of the above

22. The research participants are described in detail in which section of the research
plan?
a. Introduction
b. Method
c. Data analysis
d. Discussion

23. Research hypotheses are ______.

a. Formulated prior to a review of the literature
b. Statements of predicted relationships between variables
c. Stated such that they can be confirmed or refuted
d. b and c

24. Hypotheses in qualitative research studies usually _____.

a. Are very specific and stated prior to beginning the study
b. Are often generated as the data are collected, interpreted, and analyzed
c. Are never used
d. Are always stated after the research study has been completed

25. A research plan _____.

a. Should be detailed
b. Should be given to others for review and comments
c. Sets out the rationale for a research study
d. All of the above

26. The Method section of the research plan typically specifies

a. The research participants
b. The results of prior studies that address the phenomena of interest
c. The apparatus, instruments, and materials for the research study
d. The planned research procedures
e. a, c and d
27. The Introduction section of the research plan
a. Gives an overview of prior relevant studies
b. Contains a statement of the purpose of the study
c. Concludes with a statement of the research questions and, for quantitative
research, it includes
the research hypothesis
d. All of the above

28. According to your text, which of the following is not a source of research ideas?
a. Everyday life
b. Practical issues
c. Past research
d. Theory
e. All of the above ARE sources of research ideas

Chapter 4
Multiple Choice Questions

1. Ethics is the set of principles and guidelines that help us to uphold the things we
value.
a. True
b. False

2. Which of the following is necessary in obtaining informed consent?

a. A description of the statistical analyses that will be carried out
b. A description of the purpose of the research
c. A description of the reliability and validity of test instruments
d. A list of publications that the researcher has had in the last ten years

3. Which of the following need(s) to be obtained when doing research with children?
a. Informed consent from the parent or guardian
b. Assent from the child if he or she is capable
c. Informed consent from the child
d. Both a and b

4. Which of the following is true about the use of deception in research?

a. It should never be used
b. It can be used anytime
c. If there is deception in a study, the participants may need to be debriefed
d. The use of deception must be outweighed by other benefits of the study
e. Both c and d are true

5. Which of the following generally cannot be done in qualitative studies conducted in

the field?
a. Getting informed consent
 b. Keeping participants from physical harm
c. Maintaining consent forms
d. Having full anonymity rather than just confidentiality

6. What is the primary approach that is used by the IRB to assess the ethical
acceptability of a research study?
a. Utilitarianism
b. Deontology
c. Ethical skepticism
d. Comparativeism

7. Which of the following approaches says that ethical issues should be judged on the
basis of some universal code?
a. Deontological
b. Ethical skepticism
c. Utilitarianism

8 Which of the following is not an ethical guideline for conducting research with humans?
a. Getting informed consent of the participant
b. Telling participants they must continue until the study has been completed
c. Keeping participants’ identity anonymous
d. Telling participants they are free to withdraw at any time

9. Which of the three ethics approaches says research ethics should be a matter of the
individual's conscience?
a. Deontological approach
b. Ethical skepticism
c. Utilitarianism
d. Ontological skepticism

10. ________ means that the participant's identity, although known to the researcher, is
not revealed to anyone outside of the researcher and his or her staff.
a. Anonymity
b. Confidentiality

11. Which of the following is not true?

a. Misrepresenting and creating fraudulent data is dishonest
b. Misrepresenting data is very easy to detect
c. Misrepresenting data can be difficult to detect
d. Breaking confidentiality is not a problem

12. Ideally, the research participant's identity is not known to the researcher. This is
called:
a. Anonymity
b. Confidentiality
 c. Deception
d. Desensitizing

13. Which of the following approaches taken by people to resolve ethical issues is the
primary approach used by the federal government and most professional organizations?
a. Deontological approach
b. Ethical skepticism
c. Utilitarianism
d. None of the above

14. What is it called when the participants are not revealed to anyone but researcher
and staff?
a. Confidentiality
b. Anonymity
c. Ethics
d. Discretion

15. Research participants must give what before they can participate in a study?
a. Guidelines
b. A commitment
c. Informed consent
d. Private information

16. There are three basic approaches that people tend to adopt when considering
ethical issues in research. Which one of the following is not one of the approaches?
a. Ethical skepticism
b. Deontology
c. Ontology
d. Utilitarianism

17. Identify the term that refers to a poststudy interview in which all aspects of the
study are revealed, reasons for the use of deception are given, and the participants’
questions are answered?
a. Desensitizing
b. Debriefing
c. Dehoaxing
d. Deploying

18. A set of principles to guide and assist researchers in deciding which goals are most
important and in reconciling conflicting values when conducting research is called ____.
a. Research ethics
b. Deontological approach
c. Utilitarianism
d. None of the above

19. IRB is an acronym for which of the following?

 a. Internal Review Board
b. Institutional Rating Board
c. Institutional Review Board
d. Internal Request Board

20. When it is necessary to engage in a good amount of deception to conduct a

scientifically valid study, what procedure(s) should a researcher consider following?
a. Debriefing
b. Dehoaxing
c. Desensitizing
d. All of the above should be considered

21. The act of publishing the same data and results in more than one journal or
publication refers to which of the following professional issues:
a. Partial publication
b. Duplicate publication
c. Deception
d. Full publication

22. Concerning "authorship" in educational research, intellectual ownership is

predominantly a function of:
a. Effort expended
b. Creative contribution
c. Professional position
d. Level of higher education

23. Which term refers to publishing several articles from the data collected in one large
study?
a. Duplicate publication
b. Partial publication
c. Triplicate publication
d. None of these

24. Which of the following is a right of each participant according to the AERA?
a. Deception
b. Utilitarianism
c. Freedom to withdraw
d. Participants have no rights

Chapter 5
Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is not an assumption underlying testing and measurement?

a. Various approaches to measuring aspects of the same thing can be useful
b. Error is rarely present in the measurement process
c. Present-day behavior predicts future behavior
 d. Testing and assessment benefit society

2. Systematic error is associated with:

a. Reliability
b. Validity

3. Which of the following is a type of criterion–related validity evidence?

a. Concurrent evidence
b. Predictive evidence
c. Internal consistency
d. Both a and b are correct answers

4. If a test measures a single construct then:

a. The items should correlate with the total score
b. The items should not correlate with the total score
c. The test should not correlate with other measures of the same construct
d. There must be a reliable alternative form.

5. Professor X develops a test of emotional intelligence. Which of the following

represent convergent and discriminant evidence?
a. The test correlates highly with another test of emotional intelligence and is
uncorrelated with self-efficacy
b. The test correlates with highly with another test of emotional intelligence and
is
highly correlated with self-efficacy
c. The test does not correlate with another test of emotional intelligence, but
does
correlate with self-efficacy
d. The test does not correlate with other tests of emotional intelligence nor with
self-
efficacy

6. An ordinal scale is used to rank order people, objects, or characteristics.

a. True
b. False

7. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement?

a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio

8. ______ tests focus on information acquired through the informal learning that
goes on in life. a. Personality
b. Achievement
c. Aptitude
 d. Intelligence

9. Let’s say that a test accurately indicates participants’ scores on a future criterion (e.g.,
the PSAT is used to indicate high-school GPA scores). This test would clearly have
which of the following?
a. Face validity
b. Concurrent validity
c. Predictive validity
d. Content validity

10. If a baseball coach calculates batting averages, what scale would be used?
a. Interval scale
b. Ratio scale
c. Nominal scale
d. Ordinal scale

11. According to the text, most of the outcome/dependent variable characteristics and
attributes measured in educational research probably exist at the ______________ level of
measurement.
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio

12. Which of the following is most clearly an example of a psychological trait?

a. Anxiety enduring for months or years
b. Anxiety over just seeing a spider
c. Shyness when meeting a stranger for the first time
d. Depression caused by the loss of a ball game

13. All of the following are examples of Intelligence Tests except _________:
a. Wechsler Scales
b. Stanford-Binet
c. Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory(MMPI)
d. Slosson

14. Reliability is most simply known as which of the following?

a. Consistency or stability
b. Appropriateness of interpretations on the basis of test scores
c. Ways in which people are the same
d. A rank order of participants on some characteristic

15. An ordinal scale is:

a. The simplest form of measurement
b. A rank-order scale of measurement
c. A scale with equal intervals between adjacent numbers
 d. A scale with an absolute zero point
e. A categorical scale

16. Which of the following is not a type of reliability?

a. Test-retest
b. Split-half
c. Content
d. Internal consistency

17. Which of the following statements accurately describes test-retest reliability?

a. Measure of consistency of test scores over time
b. Measure of consistency of scores obtained from two equivalent halves of the
same test
c. Measure of consistency with which a test measures a single construct or
concept
d. Measure of degree of agreement between two or more scorers, judges, or
raters

18. Which of the following types of reliability refers to the consistency of test scores
over time?
a. Equivalent forms reliability
b. Split-half reliability
c. Test-retest reliability
d. Inter-scorer reliability

19. Identify the following term that most closely refers to a judgement of the extent to
which scores from a test can be used to infer, or predict, the examinees' performance in
some activity:
a. Content reliability
b. Face validity
c. Criterion-related validity
d. Inference validity

20. Which of the following is the correct order of Stevens’ four levels of measurement?
a. Ordinal, nominal, ratio, interval
b. Nominal, ordinal, interval, ratio
c. Interval, nominal, ordinal, ratio
d. Ratio, interval, nominal, ordinal
21. Which is the process of gathering evidence supporting inferences based test scores?
a. Validation
b. Validity
c. Reliability
d. Prediction

22. When evaluating tests and assessments, “reliability” refers to asking ourselves
which of the following questions?
 a. Does it measure what it is supposed to measure?
b. Are there ways to avoid subjective judgments when measuring something?
c. Does it give consistent results?
d. Does it measure multiple constructs?

23. Validity of a test designed to measure a construct such as self-esteem is best

described by which of the following?
a. Scores from the test correlate highly with most intelligence tests
b. Scores from the test correlate highly with most tests of different constructs
c. Scores from the test are not correlated with anything
d. Scores from the test have a relatively strong and positive correlation with
other tests of the same construct (i.e., with other measures of self-esteem) but
much lower correlations
with tests of different constructs

24. Which type of reliability refers to the consistency of a group of individuals' scores on
two equivalent forms of a test designed to measure the same characteristic?
a. Split-half
b. Test-retest
c. Split-forms
d. Equivalent forms

25. Achievement tests are designed to measure the degree of learning that has taken
place after a person has been exposed to a specific learning experience.
a. True
b. False

26. _________ refers to how well the particular sample of behaviors used to measure a
characteristic reflects the entire domain of behaviors that constitutes that characteristic.
a. Construct validity evidence
b. Criterion-related validity evidence
c. Content validity evidence
d. Face validity evidence

Chapter 6
Multiple Choice Questions

1. According to your text, how many points should a rating scale have?
a. Five
b. Four
c. Ten
d. Somewhere from 4 to 11 points

2. What is the problem(s) with this set of response categories to the question “What is
your current age?”
1-5, 5-10, 10-20, 20-30, 30-40
a. The categories are not mutually exclusive
b. The categories are not exhaustive
c. Both a and b are problems
d. There is no problem with the above set of response categories

3. You should mix methods in a way that provides complementary strengths and
nonoverlapping weaknesses. This is known as the fundamental principle of mixed
research.
a. True
b. False

4. According to the text, questionnaires can address events and characteristics taking
place when?
a. In the past (retrospective questions)
b. In the present (current time questions)
c. In the future (prospective questions)
d. All of the above

5. Which of the following are principles of questionnaire construction?

a. Consider using multiple methods when measuring abstract constructs
b. Use multiple items to measure abstract constructs
c. Avoid double-barreled questions
d. All of the above
e. Only b and c

6. Which of these is not a method of data collection.

a. Questionnaires
b. Interviews
c. Experiments
d. Observations

7. Secondary/existing data may include which of the following?

a. Official documents
b. Personal documents
c. Archived research data
d. All of the above

8. An item that directs participants to different follow-up questions depending on their

response is called a ____________.
a. Response set
b. Probe
c. Semantic differential
d. Contingency question

9. Which of the following terms best describes data that were originally collected at an
earlier time by a different person for a different purpose?
a. Primary data
b. Secondary data
c. Experimental data
d. Field notes

10. Researchers use both open-ended and closed-ended questions to collect data.
Which of the following statements is true?
a. Open-ended questions directly provide quantitative data based on the
researcher’s predetermined response categories
b. Closed-ended questions provide quantitative data in the participant’s own
words
c. Open-ended questions provide qualitative data in the participant’s own words
d. Closed-ended questions directly provide qualitative data in the participants’
own words

11. Open-ended questions provide primarily ______ data.

a. Confirmatory data
b. Qualitative data
c. Predictive data
d. None of the above

12. Which of the following is true concerning observation?

a. It takes less time than self-report approaches
b. It costs less money than self-report approaches
c. It is often not possible to determine exactly why the people behave as they
do
d. All of the above

13. Qualitative observation is usually done for exploratory purposes; it is also called
___________ observation.
a. Structured
b. Naturalistic
c. Complete
d. Probed

14. As discussed in chapter 6, when constructing a questionnaire it is important to do

each of the following except ______.
a. Use "leading" or "loaded" questions
b. Use natural language
c. Understand your research participants
d. Pilot your test questionnaire

15. Another name for a Likert Scale is a(n):

a. Interview protocol
b. Event sampling
 c. Summated rating scale
d. Ranking

16. Which of the following is not one of the six major methods of data collection that
are used by educational researchers?
a. Observation
b. Interviews
c. Questionnaires
d. Checklists

17. The type of interview in which the specific topics are decided in advance but the
sequence and wording can be modified during the interview is called:
a. The interview guide approach
b. The informal conversational interview
c. A closed quantitative interview
d. The standardized open-ended interview

18. Which one of the following in not a major method of data collection:
a. Questionnaires
b. Interviews
c. Secondary data
d. Focus groups
e. All of the above are methods of data collection

19. A question during an interview such as “Why do you feel that way?” is known as a:
a. Probe
b. Filter question
c. Response
d. Pilot

20. A census taker often collects data through which of the following?
a. Standardized tests
b. Interviews
c. Secondary data
d. Observations

21. The researcher has secretly placed him or herself (as a member) in the group that is
being studied. This researcher may be which of the following?
a. A complete participant
b. An observer-as-participant
c. A participant-as-observer
d. None of the above

22. Which of the following is not a major method of data collection?

a. Questionnaires
b. Focus groups
 c. Correlational method
d. Secondary data

23. Which type of interview allows the questions to emerge from the immediate context
or course of things?
a. Interview guide approach
b. Informal conversational interview
c. Closed quantitative interview
d. Standardized open-ended interview

24. When conducting an interview, asking "Anything else?, What do you mean?, Why do
you feel that way?," etc, are all forms of:
a. Contingency questions
b. Probes
c. Protocols
d. Response categories

25. When constructing a questionnaire, there are 15 principles to which you should
adhere. Which of the following is not one of those principles?
a. Do not use "leading" or "loaded" questions
b. Avoid double-barreled questions
c. Avoid double negatives
d. Avoid using multiple items to measure a single construct

Chapter 7
Multiple Choice Questions

1. When each member of a population has an equally likely chance of being selected,
this is called:
a. A nonrandom sampling method
b. A quota sample
c. A snowball sample
d. An Equal probability selection method

2. Which of the following techniques yields a simple random sample?

a. Choosing volunteers from an introductory psychology class to participate
b. Listing the individuals by ethnic group and choosing a proportion from within
each ethnic group at random.
c. Numbering all the elements of a sampling frame and then using a random
number table to pick cases from the table.
d. Randomly selecting schools, and then sampling everyone within the school.

3. Which of the following is not true about stratified random sampling?

a. It involves a random selection process from identified subgroups
b. Proportions of groups in the sample must always match their population
 proportions
c. Disproportional stratified random sampling is especially helpful for getting
large enough subgroup samples when subgroup comparisons are to be done
d. Proportional stratified random sampling yields a representative sample

4. Which of the following statements are true?

a. The larger the sample size, the greater the sampling error
b. The more categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis,
the larger the sample needed
c. The fewer categories or breakdowns you want to make in your data analysis,
the larger
the sample needed
d. As sample size decreases, so does the size of the confidence interval

5. Which of the following formulae is used to determine how many people to include in
the original sampling?
a. Desired sample size/Desired sample size + 1
b. Proportion likely to respond/desired sample size
c. Proportion likely to respond/population size
d. Desired sample size/Proportion likely to respond

6. Which of the following sampling techniques is an equal probability selection method

(i.e., EPSEM) in which every individual in the population has an equal chance of being
selected?
a. Simple random sampling
b. Systematic sampling
c. Proportional stratified sampling
d. Cluster sampling using the PPS technique
e. All of the above are EPSEM

7. Which of the following is not a form of nonrandom sampling?

a. Snowball sampling
b. Convenience sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Purposive sampling
e. They are all forms of nonrandom sampling

8. Which of the following will give a more “accurate” representation of the population
from which a sample has been taken?
a. A large sample based on the convenience sampling technique
b. A small sample based on simple random sampling
c. A large sample based on simple random sampling
d. A small cluster sample

9. Sampling in qualitative research is similar to which type of sampling in quantitative

research?
 a. Simple random sampling
b. Systematic sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Purposive sampling

10. Which of the following would generally require the largest sample size?
a. Cluster sampling
b. Simple random sampling
c. Systematic sampling
d. Proportional stratified sampling

11. How often does the Census Bureau take a complete population count?
a. Every year
b. Every five years
c. Every ten years
d. Twice a year

12. People who are available, volunteer, or can be easily recruited are used in the
sampling method called ______.
a. Simple random sampling
b. Cluster sampling
c. Systematic sampling
d. Convenience sampling

13. Which of the following types of sampling involves the researcher determining the
appropriate sample sizes for the groups identified as important, and then taking
convenience samples from those groups?
a. Proportional stratified sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. One-stage cluster sampling
d. Two-stage cluster sampling

14. A type of sampling used in qualitative research that involves selecting cases that
disconfirm the researcher's expectations and generalizations is referred to as
_______________.
a. Extreme case sampling
b. Typical-case sampling
c. Critical-case sampling
d. Negative-case sampling

15. Using Figure 6.6 (pg. 178), how many participants will you need for a research study
with a population of 120,000?
a. 242
b. 331 c. 377
d. 384
16. In which of the following nonrandom sampling techniques does the researcher ask
the research participants to identify other potential research participants?
a. Snowball
b. Convenience
c. Purposive
d. Quota

17. Which of the following is the most efficient random sampling technique discussed
in your chapter?
a. Simple random sampling
b. Proportional stratified sampling
c. Cluster random sampling
d. Systematic sampling

18. If we took the 500 people attending a school in New York City, divided them by
gender, and then took a random sample of the males and a random sampling of the
females, the variable on which we would divide the population is called the _____.
a. Independent variable
b. Dependent variable
c. Stratification variable
d. Sampling variable

19. A number calculated with complete population data and quantifies a characteristic
of the population is called which of the following?
a. A datum
b. A statistic
c. A parameter
d. A population

20. The type of sampling in which each member of the population selected for the
sample is returned to the population before the next member is selected is called
_________.
a. Sampling without replacement
b. Sampling with replacement
c. Simple random sampling
d. Systematic sampling

21. Which of the following is not a type of nonrandom sampling?

a. Cluster sampling
b. Convenience sampling
c. Quota sampling
d. Purposive sampling
e. They are all type of nonrandom sampling

22. Which of the following would usually require the smallest sample size because of its
efficiency?
 a. One stage cluster sampling
b. Simple random sampling
c. Two stage cluster sampling
d. Quota sampling

23. A technique used when selecting clusters of different sizes is called _____.
a. Cluster sampling
b. One-stage sampling
c. Two-stage sampling
d. Probability proportional to size or PPS

24. The process of drawing a sample from a population is known as _________.

a. Sampling
b. Census
c. Survey research
d. None of the above

25. It is recommended to use the whole population rather than a sample when the
population size is of what size?
a. 500 or less
b. 100 or less
c. 1000 or less
d. you should always use a sample

26. Which of the following is not an example of a nonrandom sampling technique?

a. Purposive
b. Quota
c. Convenience
d. Cluster

27. Which of the following sampling methods is the best way to select a group of
people for a study if you are interested in making statements about the larger
population?
a. Convenience sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. Purposive sampling
d. Random sampling

28. ___________ is a set of elements taken from a larger population according to certain
rules.
a. Sample
b. Population
c. Statistic
d. Element

29. Determining the sample interval (represented by k), randomly selecting a number
between 1 and k, and including each kth element in your sample are the steps for which
form of sampling?
a. Simple Random Sampling
b. Stratified Random Sampling
c. Systematic Sampling
d. Cluster sampling

30. The nonrandom sampling type that involves selecting a convenience sample from a
population with a specific set of characteristics for your research study is called _____.
a. Convenience sampling
b. Quota sampling
c. Purposive sampling
d. Snowball sampling

Chapter 8
Multiple Choice Questions

1. When a extraneous variable systematically varies with the independent variable and
influences the dependent variable, it is called:
a. Another dependent variable
b. A confounding variable
c. A moderating variable
d. An unreliable variable

2. Which of the following statements is true?

a. A statistical relationship is sufficient evidence to infer causality
b. Temporal order of the cause and effect is not important in inferring causality
c. A statistical relation of X and Y is insufficient evidence for inferring causality
d. Temporal order of cause and effect variables and statistical relation are all
that are
needed to infer causality

3. A school district examines a program that uses mentors to help very poor readers
improve their reading performance. The children in the program are at the 4th percentile
at pretest. At posttest they are around the 20th percentile. While it is possible that the
program made the difference, another reason for the change in scores could be:
a. History
b. Regression artifact
c. Multiple-treatment interference
d. Differential selection

4. A group of researchers do a study where children from particular classrooms are

assigned to treatment or control conditions. After the study, the researcher finds out
that the students in the control group are higher achievers than those in the
experimental group. He found no treatment effect. The failure to find an effect may be
due to:
a. A treatment effect
b. A testing effect
c. A differential selection effect
d. A maturation effect

5. A researcher examines a program looking at the effects of mentoring on poor

readers' reading achievement. He looks at two different schools. One serves as the
control and the other the experimental group. Both schools had reading achievement
that was around the 50th percentile. During the time that the mentoring program is in
place in the experimental group, a statewide reading initiative is started in randomly
selected schools. The experimental, but not the control school is involved in the
initiative. At the end of the year, the experimental group does better than the control.
From the information presented above, a likely threat to the internal validity of the study
is:
a. Selection by mortality interaction
b. Mortality
c. Selection-history effect
d. Selection-maturation effect

6. Which type of validity refers to the degree to which you can infer that the relationship
between two variables is causal?
a. Internal validity
b. Population validity
c. Ecological validity
d. Statistical conclusion validity

7. Which type of validity refers to the ability to infer that the independent and dependent
variables are related ant that the measured strength of the relationship is accurate?
a. Internal validity
b. Population validity
c. Ecological validity
d. Statistical conclusion validity

8. An extraneous variable that systematically varies with the independent variable and
also influences the dependent variable is known as a _______________.
a. Confounding variable
b. Third variable
c. Second variable
d. Both a and b are correct

9. The use of multiple observers to allow cross-checking of observations to make sure

that the investigators agree with what took place is known as _______.
a. Interpretive validity
b. Researcher bias
c. Multiple operationalism
 d. Investigator triangulation

10. _____________ is the lowest inference descriptor of all because it uses the
participant’s own words.
a. Participant feedback
b. A verbatim
c. Data triangulation
d. Investigator triangulation

11. ___________ refers to physical or mental changes that may occur within individuals
over time, such as aging, learning, boredom, hunger, and fatigue.
a. Instrumentation
b. History
c. Maturation
d. Testing

12. What type of validity refers to the extent to which the results of a study can be
generalized across time?
a. Ecological validity
b. External validity
c. Internal validity
d. Temporal validity

13. Which of the following best describes interpretive validity?

a. Factual accuracy of an account as reported by the researcher
b. Accurately portraying the meanings given by the participants to what is being
studied
c. Degree to which a theoretical explanation fits the data
d. Ability to generalize the study results across settings

14. Which of the following terms is a strategy where the researcher actively engages in
critical self-reflection about his or her potential biases and predispositions.
a. Experimenter effect
b. Reactivity
c. Investigator triangulation
d. Reflexivity

15. Which of the following is not considered one of the criteria for inferring causality?
a. Evidence that the independent and dependent variables are related
b. Evidence that the relationship between the variables being investigated is not
due to a
confounding extraneous variable
c. Evidence that changes in variable A occur before changes in variable B
d. The temporal ordering of the variables being investigated does not matter
because a relationship is all that is really needed
16. The use of multiple data sources to help understand a phenomenon is one strategy
that is used to promote qualitative research validity. Which of the following terms
describes this strategy?
a. Data matching
b. Pattern matching
c. Data triangulation
d. Data feedback

17. What may happen when different comparison groups experience a different history
event?
a. History effect
b. Selection-history effect
c. Selection effect
d. Group effect

18. What is another term that refers to a confounding extraneous variable?

a. Last variable
b. First variable
c. Third variable
d. Fourth variable

19. Which of the following refers to any systematic change that occurs over time in the
way in which the dependent variable is assessed?
a. Instrumentation
b. Maturation
c. Testing
d. Selection

20. Which of the following terms describes the ability to generalize from the sample of
individuals on which a study was conducted to the larger target population of
individuals and across different subpopulations within the larger target population?
a. External validity
b. Population validity
c. Ecological validity
d. Temporal validity

21. Which of the following is not a strategy used to promote qualitative research validity?
a. Peer review
b. Theory triangulation
c. Extended fieldwork
d. Random assignment

22. The use of several measures of a construct is called:

a. Multiple operationalism
b. Multiple construct measurement
c. Operationalism
 d. Methods triangulation

23. A physical or mental change that occurs in participants over time that affects their
performance on the dependent variable is called ________.
a. Instrumentation
b. Maturation
c. Regression
d. None of above

24. Attrition generally occurs in research where ____.

a. You do demographic research
b. The study fails
c. Some participants do not complete the study
d. The study is very brief

25. Differential attrition occurs when the people dropping out from one group are
different from the others in their group or from the people in the comparison group.
a. True
b. False

26. Internal validity refers to which of the following?

a. The ability to infer that a casual relationship exists between 2 variables
b. The extent to which study results can be generalized to and across
populations of persons, settings, and times
c. The use of effective measurement instruments in the study
d. The ability to generalize the study results to individuals not included in the
study

27. Which strategy used to promote qualitative research validity uses multiple research
methods to study a phenomenon?
a. Data triangulation
b. Methods triangulation
c. Theory triangulation
d. Member checking

28. Which type of validity refers to the factual accuracy of an account as reported by the
researcher?
a. Ecological validity
b. Temporal validity
c. Descriptive validity
d. None of the above

29. Which of the following in not one of the key threats to internal validity?
a. Maturation
b. Instrumentation
c. Temporal change
 d. History

30. This type of validity refers to the ability to generalize the results of a study across
settings.
a. Temporal validity
b. Internal validity
c. Ecological validity
d. External validity

31. Which is not a direct threat to the internal validity of a research design?
a. History
b. Testing
c. Sampling error
d. Differential selection

32. Alteration in performance due to being aware that one is participating in a study is
known as ______.
a. Operationalism
b. Reactivity
c. Temporal validity
d. Mortality

33. The idea that the more times a research finding is shown with different sets of
people, the more confidence we can place in the finding and in generalizing beyond the
original participants is known as ___________.
a. Naturalistic generalization
b. Methods generalization
c. Data triangulation
d. Replication logic

Chapter 9
Multiple Choice Questions

1. Analysis of covariance is:

a. A statistical technique that can be used to help equate groups on specific
variables
b. A statistical technique that can be used to control sequencing effects
c. A statistical technique that substitutes for random assignment to groups
d. Adjusts scores on the independent variable to control for extraneous variables

2. To determine whether noise affects the ability to solve math problems, a researcher
has one group solve math problems in a quiet room and another group solve math
problems in a noisy room. The group solving problems in the noisy room completes 15
problems in one hour and the group solving problems in the quiet room completes 22
problems in one hour. In this experiment, the independent variable is ____________ and
the dependent variable is _____________.
 a. The number of problems solves; the difficulty of the problems
b. The number of problems solved; the noise level in the room
c. The noise level in the room; the number of problems solved
d. The noise level in the room; the difficulty of the problems

3. The posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups is likely to control for which of
the following threats to internal validity:
a. History
b. Differential selection
c. Additive and interactive effects
d. Differential attrition

4. When all participants receive all treatment conditions, the study is susceptible to:
a. Order effects
b. Carryover effects
c. Analysis of covariance
d. a and b

5. A researcher is interested in the effects of a preschool program on later school

performance. Because she is concerned that socio-economic-status (SES) is a potential
extraneous variable in her study, she picks children to study who are only from low SES
homes. The control technique she used in this study was:
a. Matching
b. Random assignment
c. Holding the extraneous variable constant
d. Statistically controlling the extraneous variable

6. Which of the following terms best describes an interaction effect?

a. The effect of one independent variable (on a DV) depends on the level of
another independent variable
b. Eliminating any differential influence of extraneous variables
c. Sequencing effect that occurs from the order in which the treatment
conditions are
administered
d. The effect of one independent variable on the dependent variable

7. Which of the following terms refers to a statistical method that can be used to
statistically equate groups on a pretest or some other variable?
a. Experimental control
b. Differential influence
c. Matching
d. Analysis of covariance

8. Which of the following is not a way to manipulate an independent variable?

a. Presence technique
b. Amount technique
 c. Type technique
d. Random technique

9. Which of the following designs permits a comparison of pretest scores to determine

the initial equivalence of groups on the pretest before the treatment variable is
introduced into the research setting.
a. One-group pretest-posttest design
b. Pretest-posttest control group design
c. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups
d. Both b and c

10. Counterbalancing is _________.

a. Usually based on random selection of participants
b. Only used when one pretest variable needs to be controlled
c. Chosen to control for such things as order and carryover effects*
d. All of the above

11. The group that receives the experimental treatment condition is the _____.
a. Experimental group
b. Control group
c. Participant group
d. Independent group

12. Which of the following control techniques available to the researcher controls for
both known and unknown variables?
a. Building the extraneous variable into the design
b. Matching
c. Random assignment
d. Analysis of covariance

13. The group that does not receive the experimental treatment condition is the ________.
a. Experimental group
b. Control group
c. Treatment group
d. Independent group

14. There are a number of ways in which confounding extraneous variables can be
controlled. Which control technique is considered to be the best?
a. Random assignment
b. Matching
c. Counterbalancing
d. None of the above

15. Which of the following could be used for randomly assigning participants to groups
in an experimental study?
a. Split-half (e.g., first half versus second half of a school directory)
 b. Even versus odd numbers
c. Use a list of random numbers or a computer randomization program
d. Let the researcher decide which group will be the best

16. Which term is not a related to counterbalancing?

a. Carryover effect
b. Order effect
c. Sequencing effects
d. Matching

17. A cell is a combination of two or more ____ in a factorial design.

a. Research designs
b. Research measurements
c. Dependent variables
d. Independent variables

18. Which of the following designs does an excellent job of controlling for rival
hypotheses that threaten the internal validity of an experiment?
a. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups
b. Posttest-only control-group design
c. Pretest-posttest control-group design
d. Both b and c are excellent designs

19. Manipulating the independent variable by varying the type on the independent
variable that is presented to the different comparison groups is known as _____.
a. Amount technique
b. Absence technique
c. Type technique
d. Presence technique

20. Which of the following terms is a sequencing effect that occurs from the order in
which the treatment conditions are administered?
a. Carry-over effect
b. Order effect
c. Sequencing effects
d. None of the above

21. When manipulating the independent variable in an educational experiment, which of

the following describes this method?
a. An independent variable is manipulated using the presence or absence
technique
b. The researchers varies the amount of the independent variable that is
administered
c. The researcher varies the type of the independent variable
d. All of the above are possible
22. Which method of controlling confounding extraneous variables takes precedence
over all other methods?
a. Matching individual participants
b. Holding extraneous variables
c. Building the extraneous variable into the research design
d. Counterbalancing
e. Randomly assign research participants to the groups

23. In an experimental research study, the primary goal is to isolate and identify the
effect produced by the ____.
a. Dependent variable
b. Extraneous variable
c. Independent variable
d. Confounding variable

24. This type of design is one where all participants participate in all experimental
treatment conditions.
a. Factorial design
b. Repeated measures design
c. Replicated design
d. Pretest-posttest control-group design

25. A factorial design is one in which ____.

a. Only one independent variable is studied to determine its effect on the
dependent variable
b. Only two independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine their
independent and interactive effects on the dependent variable
c. Two or more independent variables are simultaneously studied to determine
their independent and interactive effects on the dependent variable
d. Two dependent variables are studied to determine their interactive effects

26. The design in which one group of research participants is administered a treatment
and is then compared, on the dependent variable, with another group of research
participants who did not receive the experimental treatment is ____.
a. One-group posttest-only design
b. One-group pretest-posttest design
c. Posttest-only design with nonequivalent groups
d. time series design

27. _____ refers to the influence of a single independent variable.

a. Interaction effect
b. Reactive effect
c. Main effect
d. Proactive effect

28. A sequencing effect that occurs when performance in one treatment condition is
influenced by participation in a prior treatment condition is known as ____.
a. Counterbalancing effect
b. Carryover effect
c. Treatment effect
d. Order effect

29. Which of the following is possible in a factorial design with two independent
variables?
a. There is only one main effect present
b. There are two main effects present
c. There are two main effects and an interaction effect present
d. All of the above are possible

30. Which of the following is a factorial design where different participants are
randomly assigned to the levels of one independent variable but participants take all
levels on another independent variable?
a. One-group pretest-posttest
b. Pretest-posttest control-group design
c. Factorial design
d. Factorial design based on a mixed model

Chapter 10
Multiple Choice Questions

1. A researcher does a study examining the effects of a preschool program. He uses a

nonequivalent comparison group design. He finds that the cognitive growth of his
experimental group is greater than that of his control. Unfortunately, he later finds that
in general children who live in the area where he drew his experimental group tend to
grow faster cognitively than children who were from the area where he drew his control
group. When he discovered this problem, he discovered what threat to the internal
validity of his study?
a. Selection-maturation effect
b. History effect
c. Selection-instrumentation effect
d. Testing effect

2. For a treatment to be deemed effective when used in the context of an A-B-A single
case design, what has to occur?
a. Behavior should change as the treatment is implemented
b. Behavior should return to baseline levels when the treatment is removed
c. When the treatment is removed, behavior should stay at the level that was
created by the treatment rather than revert back to the baseline
d. Both a and b

3. In a changing-criterion design, changes in criterion are best done:

 a. As soon as the prior criterion is met
b. When the previous criterion is met and the behavior has stabilized
c. Regardless of the previous criteria
d. After a fixed number of trials

4. The non-equivalent comparison group design is a quasi-experimental design in which,

for reasons of practicality, we cannot insure that the control and experimental groups
are equivalent to each other when the experiment begins. The major interpretational
difficulty imposed by this design is:
a. Measuring whether the two groups are different from each other on the
posttest
b. Deciding how much each group has gained
c. Determining when enough data points are collected
d. Being sure that any differences between groups at the end of the experiment
are
due to the independent variable’s influence and not due to preexisting group
differences.

5. A treatment effect is demonstrated in the regression discontinuity design by:

a. A discontinuity in the regression line
b. A significant difference in the pretest and posttest scores
c. Analysis of covariance
d. The demonstration of an interaction

6. Which of the following is a primary threat to the interrupted time-series design?

a. History effect
b. Selection-history
c. Selection-maturation
d. All of the above

7. A design consisting of an experimental and a control group but participants are not
randomly assigned to the groups is which of the following?
a. Interrupted time-series design
b. Nonequivalent comparison-group design
c. Single case design
d. A-B-A-B design

8. A form of the nonequivalent comparison-group design is recommended when ____.

a. It is not possible to control for a basic history effect
b. It is not possible to randomly assign participants to groups
c. It is not possible to identify two groups
d. All of the above

9. A threat to internal validity in the nonequivalent comparison-group design is the _____

effect.
a. Selection-maturation effect
 b. Selection-history effect
c. Selection-regression
d. All of the above are threats

10. A threat to internal validity in the nonequivalent comparison-group design is the

_____ effect.
a. Maturation effect
b. Selection-history effect
c. Failure to revert to baseline
d. All of the above

11. How many variables should be changed at a time when conducting a single-case
design?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1

12. In quasi-experimental research designs, causal interpretations can be made _______.

a. Only when rival explanations have been shown to be plausible
b. Only when rival explanations have been shown to be implausible
c. Only when the participants have been randomly selected
d. Only when there is a single participant in the experiment

13. In single-case research, “baseline” refers to ________.

a. The beginning point of the treatment condition
b. The end point of the treatment condition
c. The rate of response established prior to the experimental intervention
d. The time during which a treatment condition is administered

14. Which type of design can be used when the goal is to create a step-by-step increase
(or decrease) in the amount, accuracy, or frequency of some behavior over a period of
time?
a. Nonequivalent comparison-group design
b. A-B-A-B
c. Changing-criterion design
d. A-B design

15. Which of the following occurs in a comparison group design when one of the two
groups of participants grows or naturally develops faster than the other group?
a. Main effect
b. Sequencing effect
c. Order effect
d. Selection-maturation effect

16. An observation of a dependent variable response prior to any attempt to change this
response is known as the ___________.
a. Flat line
b. Baseline
c. Variance
d. Reverse

17. The most frequently used quasi-experimental design is the _________ design.
a. Nonequivalent comparison-group
b. Interrupted time-series
c. Changing-criterion
d. Regression discontinuity

18. A baseline _____________.

a. Is used as the standard against which change induced by the treatment is
assessed
b. Is the occurrence of a response in its freely occurring or natural state
c. Is first obtained prior to the administration of a treatment
d. All of the above are true

19. A single-case experimental design in which the response to a treatment is

compared to baseline occurring before and after the treatment is called what?
a. A-B-A design
b. Single-case design
c. Multiple-baseline
d. Changing-criterion

20. In a single-case design, you hope that the behavior of the participants prior to the
administration of a treatment condition is ________.
a. Not highly variable
b. Highly variable
c. Moving at a steep rate of change
d. None of the above

21. The ________________ design rules out history by demonstrating that the dependent
variable response reverts back to the baseline when the treatment is withdrawn.
a. Changing-criterion design
b. A-B
c. A-B-A design
d. Interrupted time-series design

22. Which design would use analysis of covariance during data analysis?
a. Nonequivalent comparison-group design
b. Interrupted time-series design
c. Changing criterion design
d. A-B-A-B design
23. The interrupted time-series design can also be viewed as a(n):
a. A-B design
b. A-B-A design
c. A-B-A-B design
d. Control-group design

24. Why is it important to change one variable at a time in single case designs?
a. Changing one variable allows isolation of the cause of the change
b. Changing more than one variable at a time confounds those independent
variables
c. Both a and b are true
d. None of the above

25. What is the difference between A-B-A design and A-B-A-B design?
a. Both designs end on the treatment condition
b. Neither design ends on a treatment condition
c. Baseline conditions are only established in the A-B-A-B design
d. A-B-A-B allows the reintroduction of the treatment condition during the last
phase

26. Which of the following is not a phase in the A-B-A design?

a. Baseline measurement
b. Introduction of treatment
c. Introduction of a second treatment
d. Removal of treatment

27. Researchers can attempt to eliminate the threat of bias from the selection-
maturation effect in the nonequivalent comparison-group design by matching
experimental and control participants on important variables.
a. True
b. False

28. Group comparison designs are always superior to single-case designs.

a. True
b. False

Chapter 11
Multiple Choice Questions

1. The number of police officers and the number of crimes are positively related. This
relationship is:
a. A causal relationship
b. A direct relationship
c. A probabilistic causal relation
d. A spurious relationship
2. A research studies the relation between early reading and later school achievement.
She decides that a potentially extraneous variable in the relationship is IQ. In developing
her groups for her study, she pairs each child who was an early reader with a child of the
same IQ level who was not an early reader. The control technique she used was:
a. Holding the extraneous variable constant
b. Statistical control
c. Matching
d. Random assignment

3. Partial correlation analysis involves:

a. Examining the relationship between two or more variables controlling for
additional variables statistically
b. Including only one group in a correlational analysis
c. Matching participants on potential confounding variables
d. Limiting the sample to individuals at a constant level of an extraneous variable

4. The directors of a graduate program in educational research wish to see what types
of jobs their graduates take after they finish their program. They randomly sample
students from the program and have them fill out questionnaires with items asking
about the types of jobs they have had. They also are asked to describe the roles they
play in their current positions. This project is best described as having what kind of
objective:
a. Descriptive
b. Predictive
c. Explanatory

5. When research is done to test hypotheses and theories about how and why
phenomena operate as they do, then the primary purpose of such research is:
a. Descriptive
b. Predictive
c. Explanatory

6. The variable the researcher matches to eliminate it as an alternative explanation is

called a(n) _________ variable.
a. Matching
b. Independent
c. Dependent
d. Partial

7. Which of the following is not a longitudinal design?

a. Panel
b. Cross-sectional
c. Trend
d. Both a and c are longitudinal designs

8. The positive correlation between teachers’ salaries and the price of liquor is _________.
 a. Spurious
b. Due to a third-variable
c. Nonspurious
d. Both a and b

9. Which of the following is considered a special case of the general linear model?
a. A variable
b. Partial correlation
c. Analysis of covariance
d. Both b and c

10. When a researcher starts with the dependent variable and moves backwards, it is
called ________.
a. Predictive research
b. Retrospective research
c. Exploratory research
d. Descriptive research

11. The method of working multiple hypotheses refers to a technique for identifying
rival explanations.
a. True
b. False

12. GLM refers to which of the following?

a. General Logit Model
b. General Limited Model
c. General Lab Model
d. General Linear Model

13. The post hoc fallacy is ____.

a. Making the argument that because A preceded B, A must have caused B
b. Making the argument that because A preceded B, A and B must be correlated
c. Making the argument that because A preceded B, they cannot be correlated
d. None of the above

14. Which one of the following is not a step in nonexperimental research?

a. Determine research problem and hypotheses
b. Analyze data
c. Interpret results
d. All are steps

15. If a research finding is statistically significant, then ____.

a. The observed result is probably not due to chance
b. The observed result cannot possibly be due to chance
c. The observed result is probably a chance result
d. The null hypothesis of “no relationship” is probably true
16. Which of the following is/are necessary condition(s) for causation?
a. The relationship condition
b. The temporal antecedence condition
c. The lack of alternative explanation condition
d. All of the above

17. Which of the following independent variables cannot be manipulated in a research

study?
a. Gender
b. Ethnicity
c. Intelligence and other traits
d. None of ht above can be manipulated in a research study

18. __________ is a form of explanatory research in which the researcher develops a

theoretical model and empirically tests the model to determine how well the model fits
the data.
a. Causal modeling
b. Predictive research
c. Descriptive research
d. Exploratory research

19. Nonexperimental research in which the primary independent variable of interest is

categorical is sometimes called_____________.
a. Causal-comparative research
b. Correlational research

20. Which approach is the strongest for establishing that a relationship is causal?
a. Causal-comparative
b. Correlational
c. Experimental
d. Historical

21. Which approach is the strongest for establishing that a relationship is causal?
a. Causal-comparative
b. Correlational
c. One CANNOT say without additional information (i.e., it could be either
depending on how well the researcher established the three necessary
conditions for cause and effect)

22. _______ is the most commonly used technique for controlling for extraneous
variables in nonexperimental research.
a. Matching
b. Holding extraneous variables constant
c. Statistical control
d. Static control
23. It is best to use the method of working multiple hypotheses when _____.
a. You are finished with your research
b. You are planning your research study
c. You are hoping to publish your already obtained research results
d. None of the above

24. Matching can be done when your independent variable is categorical or quantitative.
a. True
b. False

25. If a correlation coefficient is .96, we would probably be able to say that the
relationship is ____.
a. Weak
b. Strong
c. Statistically significant
d. b is true and c is probably true

26. What happens in a completely spurious relationship once the researcher controls for
a confounding third-variable?
a The relationship between the original variables will get stronger
b. The relationship between the original variables will remain unchanged
c. The correlation coefficient will get closer to 1.0
d. The relationship between the original variables will get weaker or, if the
original relationship is fully spurious, it will disappear (i.e., the original
relationship will become zero as measured by a correlation coefficient).

27. Which of the three necessary conditions for cause and effect is almost always
problematic in nonexperimental research?
a. Condition 1: Variable A and Variable B must be related (the relationship
condition).
b. Condition 2: Proper time order must be established (the temporal antecedence
condition).
c. Condition 3: The relationship between variable A and Variable B must not be
due to some confounding extraneous variable"
d. Nonexperimental research is always weak on all three of the conditions

28. Which of the following is NOT a form of longitudinal research?

a. Trend study
b. Panel study
c. Cross-sectional study

29. Observing a relationship between two variables is NOT sufficient grounds for
concluding that the relationship is a causal relationship.
a. True
b. False
30. This type of longitudinal research studies the same individuals over an extended
period of time.
a. Trend study
b. Panel study
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b

31. This type of research tests hypotheses and theories in order to explain how and why
a phenomenon operates as it does.
a. Descriptive research
b. Predictive research
c. Explanatory research
d. None of the above

32. The Pearson product moment correlation measures the degree of _________
relationship present between two variables.
a. Curvilinear
b. Nonlinear
c. Linear and quadratic
d. Linear

Chapter 12
Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is characteristic of qualitative research?

a. Generalization to the population
b. Random sampling
c. Unique case orientation
d. Standardized tests and measures

2. Phenomenology has its disciplinary origins in:

a. Philosophy
b. Anthropology
c. Sociology
d. Many disciplines

3. The primary data analysis approach in ethnography is:

a. Open, axial, and selective coding
b. Holistic description and search for cultural themes
c. Cross-case analysis
d. Identifying essences of a phenomenon

4. The term used to describe suspending preconceptions and learned feelings about a
phenomenon is called:
 a. Axial coding
b. Design flexibility
c. Bracketing
d. Ethnography

5. A researcher studies how students who flunk out of high school experienced high
school. She found that it was common for such students to report that they felt like they
had little control of their destiny. Her report that this lack of control was an invariant
part of the students’ experiences suggests that lack of control is _______ of the “flunking
out” experience.
a. A narrative
b. A grounded theory
c. An essence
d. A probabilistic cause

6. The specific cultural conventions or statements that people who share a culture hold
to be true or false are called ______.
a. Shared attitudes
b. Shared beliefs
c. Shared values
d. Norms

7. The written and unwritten rules that specify appropriate group behavior are called
_____.
a. Shared attitudes
b. Shared beliefs
c. Shared values
d. Norms

8. Which of the following is not an advantage of studying multiple cases?

a. Multiple cases can be compared for similarities and differences
b. Multiple cases can more effectively test a theory than a single case
c. Generalizations about population are usually better when based on multiple
cases.
d. Cost is lower and depth of analysis is easier when you study multiple cases
in a
single research study

9. _____ are the standards of a culture about what is good or bad or desirable or
undesirable.
a. Shared attitudes
b. Shared beliefs
c. Shared values
d. Norms

10. _________ is the study of human consciousness and individuals’ experience of some
phenomenon.
a. Phenomenology
b. Ethnography
c. Grounded theory
d. Case study research

11. Which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research?

a. Design flexibility
b. Inductive analysis
c. Context sensitivity
d. All of the above

12. ________ is a general methodology for developing theory that is based on data
systematically gathered and analyzed.
a. Theory confirmation
b. Grounded theory
c. Theory deduction
d. All of the above

13. The final stage in grounded theory data analysis is called ___________.
a. Axial coding
b. Theoretical saturation
c. Constant comparative method
d. Selective coding

14. Which major characteristic of qualitative research refers to studying real world
situations as they unfold naturally?
a. Holistic perspective
b. Naturalistic inquiry
c. Dynamic systems
d. Inductive analysis

15. In which qualitative research approach is the primary goal to gain access to
individuals’ inner worlds of experience?
a. Phenomenology
b. Ethnography
c. Grounded theory
d. Case study

16. The type of qualitative research that describes the culture of a group of people is
called ____.
a. Phenomenology
b. Grounded theory
c. Ethnography
d. Case study
17. The grounded theorist is finished analyzing data when theoretical saturation occurs.
a. True
b. False

18. In which of the following case study designs does the researcher focus her primary
interest on understanding something more general than the particular case?
a. Intrinsic case study
b. Instrumental case study
c. Collective case study
d. It could be b or c

19. Which of the following phrases best describes "ethnocentrism"?

a. Special words or terms used by the people in a group
b. An external, social scientific view of reality
c. The study of the cultural past of a group of people
d. Judging people from a different culture according to the standards of your
own culture

20. Which of the following is usually not a characteristic of qualitative research?

a. Design flexibility
b. Dynamic systems
c. Naturalistic inquiry
d. Deductive design

21. Which of the following involves the studying of multiple cases in one research study?
a. Intrinsic case study
b. Single case study
c. Instrumental case study
d. Collective case study

22. Which of the following does not apply to qualitative research?

a. Data are often words and pictures
b. Uses the inductive scientific method
c. Ends with a statistical report
d. Involves direct and personal contact with participants

23. The difference between ethnographic research and other types of qualitative
research is that ethnographers specifically use the concept of “culture” to help
understand the results.
a. True
b. False

24. What term refers to the insider's perspective?

A. Ethnocentrism
B. Emic perspective
C. Etic perspective
 D. Holism

25. In data analysis of the grounded theory approach, the step which focuses on the
main idea, developing the story line, and finalizing the theory is called ________.
a. Open coding
b. Axial coding
c. Selective coding
d. Theoretical saturation

26. Which of the following is not one of the 4 major approaches to qualitative research.
a. Ethnography
b. Phenomenology
c. Case study
d. Grounded theory
e. Nonexperimental

27. In "phenomenology," a well written report will be highly descriptive of the

participants’ experiences and will often elicit in the reader a feeling that they feel as
though they are experiencing the phenomenon themselves. This experience is called
_____.
a. A phenomenal experience
b. A vicarious experience
c. A significant experience
d. A dream

28. You want to study a Native American group in New Mexico for a six month period to
learn all you can about them so you can write a book about that particular tribe. You
want the book to be accurate and authentic as well as informative and inspiring. What
type of research will you likely be conducting when you get to New Mexico?
a. Ethnography
b. Phenomenology
c. Grounded theory
d. Collective case study

29. The emic perspective refers to an external, social scientific view of reality.
a. True
b. False

30. _________ is used to describe cultural scenes or the cultural characteristics of a

group of people.
a. Phenomenology
b. Ethnography
c. Grounded theory
d. Instrumental case study

31. Terms such as “geeks,” “book worms,” “preps,” are known as _____ terms.
 a. Emic
b. Etic

32. When a researcher identifies so completely with the group being studied that he or
she can no longer remain objective you have what is called _________.
a. Culture shock
b. Going native
c. Regression
d. Cultural relativism

Chapter 13
Multiple Choice Questions

1. A researcher was interested in studying why the “new math” of the 1960s failed. She
interviews several teachers who used the new math during the 1960s. These teachers
are considered:
a. Primary sources
b. Secondary Sources
c. External critics
d. Internal critics

2. The process of dealing with concerns over the authenticity of a source is referred to
as:
a. Sourcing
b. Internal criticism
c. Secondary criticism
d. External criticism

3. A researcher studying the history of medical education finds a manuscript that

purports to be from the 14th century. Before he uses the source, he goes to three other
experts who help him identify whether the manuscript is authentic or not. His
authentification of the object is referred to as:
a. Positive criticism
b. Internal criticism
c. Secondary criticism
d. External criticism

4. A historical researcher studying the implementation of the “new math” during the
1960s uses as a source a text written on the subject by a critic who was a mathematics
teacher during that time period. As she examines the document, she discovers that the
data that the individual based his or her conclusions on was falsified. Hence, the
conclusions drawn were erroneous. Her analysis of the document to check its accuracy
is referred to as:
a. Positive criticism
b. Internal criticism
 c. External criticism
d. Secondary criticism

5. A researcher is interested in studying approaches to teaching writing in schools

during the 1800s. She discovers a grammar book, but there is no author or copyright
date in the book. She examines the typeface in the book as well as the writing style.
After investigating further, she finds a reference to the book from a teacher’s diary from
the 1800s. The diary also mentions an author’s name. After further searching around
she is able to identify the author of the book. The investigator was engaged in what
process?
a. Sourcing
b. Positive criticism
c. Presentism
d. Axial coding

6. Historical research is conducted for which of the following reasons?

a. To identify the relationship that the past has to the present
b. To evaluate and record accomplishments of individuals or entities
c. To enhance understanding of the culture in which we live
d. To uncover the unknown
e. All of the above

7. Historical research is interpretative.

a. True
b. False

8. The following is a step in the process of historical research?

a. Preparing a report or narrative exposition
b. Identifying a research topic and formulation of the research problem or
question
c. Data synthesis
d. Data collection and/or literature review
e. All of the above

9. Oral histories can be based on ______.

a. Interviews with people
b. Stories and tales
c. Songs
d. All of the above

10. In historical research, a primary source _________.

a. Consists of first hand accounts by witnesses to events
b. Can consist of sources that include original maps, diaries, transcripts of the
minutes of a meeting, and photographs
c. Both a and b
11. In historical research secondary sources are _________.
a. Generally considered more useful that primary sources
b. Generally considered less useful than primary sources

12. In evaluating historical research sources, external criticism ________.

a. Can involve the use of carbon dating and handwriting experts
b. Helps determine the validity, trustworthiness or authenticity of a source
c. Can involve use of historical linguists’ knowledgeable with the writing style of
the period
d. All of the above

13. Contextualization refers to the process of identifying when and where an event took
place.
a. True
b. False

14. The process of determining the reliability or accuracy of the information contained
in the sources collected is known as ______.
a. External criticism
b. Internal criticism
c. Vagueness
d. Presentism

15. Presentism in historical sources ________.

a. Is the presence of the author in a historical source
b. Is a first-hand accounts of events
c. Is the assumption that the present-day connotations of terms also existed in
the past
d. Is the assumption that the past influences the present

16. “Comparing document to each other to determine whether they provide the same
information or reach the same conclusion” is known as ________.
a. Contextualization
b. Sourcing
c. Corroboration
d. Negative criticism

17. The “identification of when and where an event took place” is known as _____.
a. Contextualization
b. Sourcing
c. Corroboration
d. Negative criticism

18. Three heuristics suggested by Wineburg (1991) for evaluating documents are:
a. Corroboration, sourcing, and contextualization
b. Sourcing, internal criticism, and external criticism
 c. Corroboration, internal criticism and external criticism
d. Contextualization, corroboration and presentism

19. In historical research, data synthesis usually does not include ______.
a. Defining and interpreting key words, phrases and terms
b. Chronologically ordering events
c. Differentiating between how people should behave and how they did behave
d. Inferring causation based on simple correlation
e. Maintaining a distinction between intent and consequences

20. When writing their narratives, many historical researchers prefer to use _____.
a. The Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association (1994)
b. The Chicago Manual of Style
c. The Historical Manual of Style
d. The Historian’s Manual of Style

Chapter 14
Multiple Choice Questions

1. According to the typology used in your text, research in which quantitative and
qualitative techniques are mixed in a single study is specifically called:
a. Mixed research
b. Mixed method research
c. Mixed model research
d. Multimethod research

2. According to the typology used in your text, research in which quantitative and
qualitative approaches are mixed within or across the stages of the research process is
specifically called:
a. Mixed research
b. Mixed method research
c. Mixed model research
d. Multimethod research

3. According to the typology used in your text, research in which a quantitative phase
and a qualitative phase are included in the overall research study is specifically called:
a. Mixed research
b. Mixed method research
c. Mixed model research
d. Multimethod research

4. The use of a qualitative research objective, collection of qualitative data, and

performance of
quantitative analysis is an example of:
a. Mixed method research
 b. Within-stage mixed model research
c. Across-stage mixed model research
d. Monomethod research

5. The use of a quantitative research objective, collection of quantitative data, and the
use of quantitative data analysis is known as:
a. Mixed method research
b. Within-stage mixed model research
c. Across-stage mixed model research
d. Monomethod research

6. Mixed researchers typically use the pragmatist philosophy.

a. True
b. False

7. The pragmatist philosophy is most closely associated with which of the following
positions?
a. The incompatibility thesis
b. The compatibility thesis

8. Which of the following is a weakness of quantitative research?

a. Provides precise, numerical data
b. The researcher’s categories that are used might not reflect local
constituencies’
understandings
c. Testing hypotheses that are constructed before the data are collected
d. Can study a large number of people

9. Which of the following is a weakness of qualitative research?

a. The results are more easily influenced by the researcher’s personal
idiosyncrasies
b. Data are based on the participant’s own categories of meaning
c. Can determine idiographic causation
d. Useful for describing complex phenomena

10. Which of the following is a weakness of mixed research?

a. Words, pictures, and narrative can be used to add meaning to numbers
b. Researchers can generate and test a grounded theory
c. Numbers can be used to add precision to words, pictures, and narrative
d. It is more time consuming and expensive

11. If you develop and use a questionnaire that includes closed-ended and open-ended
items then you have done which type of research?
a. Within-stage mixed model research
b. Across-stage mixed model research
12. Here is a mixed design using notation: “QUAL-->quan” What type of mixed research
is this?
a. Mixed model
b. Mixed method

13. Here is a mixed design using notation: QUAL + QUAN. What does this mean?
a. Qualitative has the dominant status and it is followed by a quantitative phase
b. Quantitative has the dominant status and it is followed by a qualitative phase
c. Qualitative and quantitative are given equal status but the qualitative phase
occurs
before the quantitative phase
d. Qualitative and quantitative are given equal status and they are done
concurrently

14. What would this mixed method design be called: Qual-->QUAN

a. Dominant-status sequential design
b. Equal-status sequential design
c. Dominant-status concurrent design
d. Equal-status concurrent design

15. What would this mixed method design be called: QUAL-->QUAN

a. Dominant-status sequential design
b. Equal-status sequential design
c. Dominant-status concurrent design
d. Equal-status concurrent design

16. What would this mixed method design be called: Qual + QUAN
a. Dominant-status sequential design
b. Equal-status sequential design
c. Dominant-status concurrent design
d. Equal-status concurrent design

17. What would this mixed method design be called: QUAL + QUAN
a. Dominant-status sequential design
b. Equal-status sequential design
c. Dominant-status concurrent design
d. Equal-status concurrent design

18. Which of the following cannot be a purpose or rationale for a mixed research design?
a. Triangulation
b. Complementarity
c. Development
d. Initiation
e. Expansion
f. All of the above can be purposes
19. Which of the following mixed research rationales seeks elaboration, enhancement,
illustration, clarification of the results from one method with the results from the other
method?
a. Triangulation
b. Complementarity
c. Development
d. All of the above

20. What two questions must be answered in order to select one of the specific mixed
method designs provided in the textbook?
a. Is the qualitative or quantitative paradigm going to be given priority, or will they
be
given equal status in your study?
b. Should the qualitative and quantitative components be carried out concurrently
or
sequentially
c. Should the study be theory driven or data driven?
d. a and c
e. a and b

21. A researcher wants to understand why people are willing to handle snakes as a part
of their church activities in several rural churches in Tennessee, Alabama, and Georgia.
He makes qualitative observations at several churches but also hands out fairly lengthy
instruments that quantitatively measure several constructs (IQ, religiousity, self-esteem,
and a political attitudes). He keeps the qualitative and quantitative data separate during
analysis. He does some mixing during the discussion of his report about the qualitative
and quantitative insights are related. Which design is this?
a. Dominant-status sequential design
b. Equal-status sequential design
c. Dominant-status concurrent design
d. Equal-status concurrent design

Chapter 15
Multiple Choice Questions

1. What is the median of the following set of scores?

18, 6, 12, 10, 14 ?
a. 10
b. 14
c. 18
d. 12
2. Approximately what percentage of scores fall within one standard deviation of the
mean in a normal distribution?
a. 34%
b. 95%
c. 99%
 d. 68%

3. The denominator (bottom) of the z-score formula is

a. The standard deviation
b. The difference between a score and the mean
c. The range
d. The mean
4. Let's suppose we are predicting score on a training posttest from number of
years
of education and the score on an aptitude test given before training. Here is the
regression
equation Y = 25 + .5X1 +10X2,
where X1 = years of education and X2 = aptitude test score.

4. What is the predicted score for someone with 10 years of education and a aptitude
test score of 5?
a. 25
b. 50
c. 35
d. 80

5. The standard deviation is:

a. The square root of the variance
b. A measure of variability
c. An approximate indicator of how numbers vary from the mean
d. All of the above

6. Hypothesis testing and estimation are both types of descriptive statistics.

a. True
b. False

7. A set of data organized in a participants(rows)-by-variables(columns) format is

known as a “data set.”
a. True
b. False

8. A graph that uses vertical bars to represent data is called a ____.

a. Line graph
b. Bar graph
c. Scatterplot
d. Vertical graph

9. The goal of ___________ is to focus on summarizing and explaining a specific set of

data.
a. Inferential statistics
b. Descriptive statistics
 c. None of the above
d. All of the above

10. The most frequently occurring number in a set of values is called the ____.
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Range

11. As a general rule, the _______ is the best measure of central tendency because it is
more precise.
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Range

12. Focusing on describing or explaining data versus going beyond immediate data and
making inferences is the difference between _______.
a. Central tendency and common tendency
b. Mutually exclusive and mutually exhaustive properties
c. Descriptive and inferential
d. Positive skew and negative skew

13. Why are variance and standard deviation the most popular measures of variability?
a. They are the most stable and are foundations for more advanced statistical
analysis
b. They are the most simple to calculate with large data sets
c. They provide nominally scaled data
d. None of the above

14. ____________ is the set of procedures used to explain or predict the values of a
dependent variable based on the values of one or more independent variables.
a. Regression analysis
b. Regression coefficient
c. Regression equation
d. Regression line

15. The ______ is the value you calculate when you want the arithmetic average.
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. All of the above

16. ___________ are used when you want to visually examine the relationship between
two quantitative variables.
a. Bar graphs
 b. Pie graphs
c. Line graphs
d. Scatterplots

17. The _______ is often the preferred measure of central tendency if the data are
severely skewed.
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Range

18. Which of the following is the formula for range?

a. H + L
b. L x H
c. L - H
d. H – L

19. Which is a raw score that has been transformed into standard deviation units?
a. z score
b. SDU score
c. t score
d. e score

20. Which of the following is NOT a measure of variability?

a. Median
b. Variance
c. Standard deviation
d. Range

21. Which of the following is NOT a common measure of central tendency?

a. Mode
b. Range
c. Median
d. Mean

22. What is the median of this set of numbers: 4, 6, 7, 9, 2000000?

a. 7.5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 4

23. What is the mean of this set of numbers: 4, 6, 7, 9, 2000000?

a. 7.5
b. 400,005.2
c. 7
d. 4
24. Which of the following is interpreted as the percentage of scores in a reference
group that falls below a particular raw score?
a. Standard scores
b. Percentile rank
c. Reference group
d. None of the above

25. The median is ______.

a. The middle point
b. The highest number
c. The average
d. Affected by extreme scores

26. Which measure of central tendency takes into account the magnitude of scores?
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Range

27. If a test was generally very easy, except for a few students who had very low scores,
then the distribution of scores would be _____.
a. Positively skewed
b. Negatively skewed
c. Not skewed at all
d. Normal

28. How many dependent variables are used in multiple regression?

a. One
b. One or more
c. Two or more
d. Two

29. Which of the following represents the fiftieth percentile, or the middle point in a set
of numbers arranged in order of magnitude?
a. Mode
b. Median
c. Mean
d. Variance

30. If a distribution is skewed to the left, then it is __________.

a. Negatively skewed
b. Positively skewed
c. Symmetrically skewed
d. Symmetrical
31. In a grouped frequency distribution, the intervals should be what?
a. Mutually exclusive
b. Exhaustive
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B

32. When a set of numbers is heterogeneous, you can place more trust in the measure
of central tendency as representing the typical person or unit.
a. True
b. False

33. Non-overlapping categories or intervals are known as ______.

a. Inclusive
b. Exhaustive
c. Mutually exclusive
d. Mutually exclusive and exhaustive

34. To interpret the relationship between two categorical variables, a contingency table
should be constructed with either column or row percentages, and ----.
a. If the percentages are calculated down the columns, then comparisons should
be made across the rows
b. If the percentages are calculated across the rows, comparisons should be
made down the columns
c. Both a and b are correct
d. Neither a nor b is correct

Chapter 16
Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following symbols represents a population parameter?

a. SD
b. σ
c. r
d. 0

2. If you drew all possible samples from some population, calculated the mean for each
of the samples, and constructed a line graph (showing the shape of the distribution)
based on all of those means, what would you have?
a. A population distribution
b. A sample distribution
c. A sampling distribution
d. A parameter distribution

3. What does it mean when you calculate a 95% confidence interval?

a. The process you used will capture the true parameter 95% of the time in the
 long run
b. You can be “95% confident” that your interval will include the population
parameter
c. You can be “5% confident” that your interval will not include the population
parameter
d. All of the above statements are true

4. What would happen (other things equal) to a confidence interval if you calculated a
99 percent confidence interval rather than a 95 percent confidence interval?
a. It will be narrower
b. It will not change
c. The sample size will increase
d. It will become wider

5. Which of the following statements sounds like a null hypothesis?

a. The coin is not fair
b. There is a correlation in the population
c. There is no difference between male and female incomes in the population
d. The defendant is guilty

6. The analysis of variance is a statistical test that is used to compare how many group
means?
a. Three or more
b. Two or more

7. What is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution called?

a. Sampling error
b. Sample error
c. Standard error
d. Simple error

8. Hypothesis testing and estimation are the two key branches of the field of inferential
statistics?
a. True
b. False

9. A ______ is a subset of a _________.

a. Sample, population
b. Population, sample
c. Statistic, parameter
d. Parameter, statistic

10. A _______ is a numerical characteristic of a sample and a ______ is a numerical

characteristic of a population.
a. Sample, population
b. Population, sample
 c. Statistic, parameter
d. Parameter, statistic

11. A sampling distribution might be based on which of the following?

a. Sample means
b. Sample correlations
c. Sample proportions
d. All of the above

12. As a general rule, researchers tend to use ____ percent confidence intervals.
a. 99%
b. 95%
c. 50%
d. none of the above

13. Which of the following is the researcher usually interested in supporting when he or
she is engaging in hypothesis testing?
a. The alternative hypothesis
b. The null hypothesis
c. Both the alternative and null hypothesis
d. Neither the alternative or null hypothesis

14. When p<.05 is reported in a journal article that you read for an observed relationship,
it means that the author has rejected the null hypothesis (assuming that the author is
using a significance or alpha level of .05).
a. True
b. False

15. When p>05 is reported in a journal article that you read for an observed relationship,
it means that the author has rejected the null hypothesis (assuming that the author is
using a significance or alpha level of .05).
a. True
b. False

16. _________ are the values that mark the boundaries of the confidence interval.
a. Confidence intervals
b. Confidence limits
c. Levels of confidence
d. Margin of error

17. _____ results if you fail to reject the null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is
actually false.
a. Type I error
b. Type II error
c. Type III error
d. Type IV error
18. A good way to get a small standard error is to use a ________.
a. Repeated sampling
b. Small sample
c. Large sample
d. Large population

19. The car will probably cost about 16,000 dollars; this number sounds more like a(n):
a. Point estimate
b. Interval estimate

20. Identify which of the following steps would not be included in hypothesis testing.
a. State the null and alternative hypotheses
b. Set the significance level before the research study
c. Eliminate all outliers
d. Obtain the probability value using a computer program such as SPSS
e. Compare the probability value to the significance level and make the statistical
decision

21. A ________ is a range of numbers inferred from the sample that has a certain
probability of including the population parameter over the long run.
a. Hypothesis
b. Lower limit
c. Confidence interval
d. Probability limit

22. ________ is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution.

a. Standard error
b. Sample standard deviation
c. Replication error
d. Meta error

23. An effect size indicator is a statistical measure of the strength of a relationship.

a. True
b. False

24. Which of the following can be viewed as an effect size indicator?

a. r-squared
b. r
c. Eta-squared
d. Omega-squared
e. All of the above

25. When the researcher rejects a true null hypothesis, a ____ error occurs.
a. Type I
b. Type A
 c. Type II
d. Type B

26. A post hoc test is ___.

a. A test to compare two or more means in one overall test
b. A test to determine regression to the mean
c. A follow-up test to the analysis of variance when there are three or more
groups
d. A follow-up test to the independent t-test

27. The use of the laws of probability to make inferences and draw statistical
conclusions about populations based on sample data is referred to as ___________.
a. Descriptive statistics
b. Inferential statistics
c. Sample statistics
d. Population statistics

28. A statistical test used to compare 2 or more group means is known as _____.
a. One-way analysis of variance
b. Post hoc test
c. t-test for correlation coefficients
d. Simple regression

29. A statistical test used to determine whether a correlation coefficient is statistically

significant is called the ___________.
a. One-way analysis of variance
b. t-test for independent samples
c. Chi-square test for contingency tables
d. t-test for correlation coefficients

30. The cutoff the researcher uses to decide whether to reject the null hypothesis is
called the:
a. Significance level
b. Alpha level
c. Probability value
d. Both a and b are correct

31. Which ____ percent confidence interval will be the widest (i.e., the least precise) for a
particular data set that includes exactly 500 cases?
a. 99%
b. 95%
c. 90%
d. None of the above

32. As sample size goes up, what tends to happen to 95% confidence intervals?
a. They become more precise
 b. They become narrower
c. They become wider
d. Both a and b

33. __________ is the failure to reject a false null hypothesis.

a. Type I error
b. Type II error
c. Type A error
d. Type B error

34. Which of the following statements is/are true according to the logic of hypothesis
testing?
a. When the null hypothesis is true, it should be rejected
b. When the null hypothesis is true, it should not be rejected
c. When the null hypothesis is false, it should be rejected
d. When the null hypothesis is false, it should not be rejected
e. Both b and c are true

35. What is the key question in the field of statistical estimation?

a. Based on my random sample, what is my estimate of the population
parameter?
b. Based on my random sample, what is my estimate of normal distribution?
c. Is the value of my sample statistic unlikely enough for me to reject the null
hypothesis?
d. There is no key question in statistical estimation

36. Assuming innocence until “proven” guilty, a Type I error occurs when an innocent
person is found guilty.
a. True
b. False

37. This is the difference between a sample statistic and the corresponding population
parameter.
a. Standard error
b. Sampling error
c. Difference error
d. None of the above

38. The “equals” sign (=) is included in which hypothesis when conducting hypothesis
testing?
a. Null
b. Alternative
c. It can appear in both the null and the alternative hypothesis

39. A Type I error is also known as a ______.

a. False positive
 b. False negative
c. Double negative
d. Positive negative

40. A Type II error is also known as a ______.

a. False positive
b. False negative
c. Double negative
d. Positive negative
41. If a finding is statistically significant one must also interpret the data, calculate an
effect size indicator, and make an assessment of practical significance.
a. True
b. False

42. The p-value used in statistical significance testing should be used to assess how
strong a relationship is. For example, if relationship A has a p=.04 and relationship B
has a p=.03 then you can conclude that relationship B is stronger than relationship A.
a. True
b. False

Chapter 17
Multiple Choice Questions

1. A researcher does a study of students' phenomenological feelings about problem

solving. One of her categories of codes involves positive affect. Two subcategories of
that category of positive affect are smiles when solves the problem, and shouts hooray
when finished. The relation between these subcategories and the overall category of
positive affect is:
a. Spatial
b. Sequence
c. Strict inclusion
d. Function

2. In looking at the relationships between coding categories, the relation, "X is a place in
Y; X is part of Y" in Spradley's taxonomy of semantic relations is labeled:
a. Spatial
b. Rationale
c. Means-end
d. Strict inclusion

3. In looking at the relationships between coding categories, the relation X is a kind of Y

in Spradley's taxonomy of semantic relations is labeled:
a. Spatial
b. Rationale
c. Means-end
 d. Strict inclusion

4. A researcher is doing a study of peer groups in middle school. She interviews 5 girls
and 5 boys. She is doing a grounded theory study; hence, she decides to generate her
codes as she scans through her transcriptions of her data. These codes are labeled:
a. A priori codes
b. Post hoc codes
c. Inductive codes
d. Master list codes

5. Sarah is a qualitative researcher studying how children and parents interact in Head
Start Centers. As she examines her data (videotapes and transcripts), she jots down
notes concerning the interactions, generating hypotheses, suggesting relationships
among categories of information she is examining and so on. This process of jotting
notes as she examines the data is called:
a. Memoing
b. Transcription
c. Face sheet coding
d. Drawing diagrams

6. Qualitative data analysis is still a relatively new and rapidly developing branch of
research methodology.
a. True
b. False

7. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words, or

category names is known as _______.
a. Concurring
b. Coding
c. Coloring
d. Segmenting

8. What is the cyclical process of collecting and analyzing data during a single research
study called?
a. Interim analysis
b. Inter analysis
c. Inter-item analysis
d. Constant analysis

9. What is the recording of reflective notes about what you are learning from your data
during data analysis called?
a. Coding
b. Segmenting
c. Memoing
d. Reflecting
10. Which of the following is one of Spradley’s types of relationships?
a. Strict inclusion
b. Sequence
c. Cause-effect
d. All of the above

11. Which of the following is not one of Spradley’s types of relationships?

a. Strict inclusion
b. Sequence
c. Cause-effect
d. Correlational

12. Codes that apply to a complete document or case are called ________.
a. Cover codes
b. False sheet codes
c. Factual codes
d. Facesheet codes

13. A classification system generally used in the social sciences that break something
down into different types or levels is called a ________.
a. Diagram
b. Flow chart
c. Hierarchical category system
d. Category

14. When you have high consistency among different coders about the appropriate
codes for a set of data, you have ____.
a. High intercoder reliability
b. High intracoder reliability

15. Codes developed before examining the current data being coded are called ______.
a. Co-occuring codes
b. Inductive codes
c. A priori codes
d. Facesheet codes

16. The process of quantifying data is referred to as _________.

a. Typology
b. Diagramming
c. Enumeration
d. Coding

17. Which of the following refers to the cyclical process of collecting and analyzing data
during a single research study?
a. Memoing
b. Segmenting
 c. Coding
d. Interim analysis

18. An advantage of using computer programs for qualitative data is that they _______.
a. Can reduce time required to analyze data (i.e., after the data are transcribed)
b. Help in storing and organizing data
c. Make many procedures available that are rarely done by hand due to time
constraints
d. All of the above

19. _________ are codes that are developed during the process of coding.
a. Inductive codes
b. A priori codes
c. Co-occurring codes
d. Facesheet codes

20. Boolean operators are words that are used to create logical combinations.
a. True
b. False

21. __________ are the basic building blocks of qualitative data.

a. Categories
b. Units
c. Individuals
d. None of the above

22. When a segment of textual data has overlapping codes, this is called a(n) __________.
a. Inductive code
b. Co-occurring codes
c. Priori code
d. Facesheet code

23. This is the process of transforming qualitative research data from written interviews
or field notes into typed text.
a. Segmenting
b. Coding
c. Transcription
d. Memoing

24. Network diagrams show only direct links between variables or events over time.
a. True
b. False

25. A challenge of qualitative data analysis is that it often includes data that are
unwieldy and complex; it is a major challenge to make sense of the large pool of data.
a. True
 b. False

Chapter 18
Multiple Choice Questions

1. When a citation includes more than ____ authors, only the surname of the first author
is cited followed by et al.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

2. When referencing other works you have cited within the text of the report you should
a. State the first and last name of the author
b. Use the author, date citation method
c. Use an asterisk and a footnote
d. Insert the complete citation in parenthesis

3. Which of the following abbreviations can be used in a research report?

a. IQ
b. sec. for second
c. yr. for year
d. mo. for month

4. Editorial style specifies that ______ should be used infrequently or sparingly.

a. Italics
b. Abbreviations
c. Headings
d. Both a and b

5. The factor that should determine whether you decide to prepare a research report of
you study for a conference or for publication is
a. Whether the study is free from flaws
b. Whether the study is important enough to justify presentation or publication
c. Whether others would be interested in the work
d. All of the above

6. Which of the following is not true about the use of language in research reports?
a. You should choose accurate and clear words that are free from bias.
b. You should avoid labeling people whenever possible
c. You should avoid using the term “subjects” whenever possible
d. All of the above are true according to the APA Guidelines
7. Regarding disabilities, writers should “avoid equating people with their disabilities”
such as in mentally retarded people.
a. True
b. False

8. You should avoid the use of sexist language in research reports.

a. True
b. False

9. Which is more appropriate when referring to someone with a disability?

a. A stroke victim
b. A person who has had a stroke

10. You should try to use italics frequently when writing a report.
a. True
b. False

11. You should try to use abbreviations sparingly.

a. True
b. False

12. Use words for numbers that begin a sentence and for numbers that are below ten.
a. True
b. False

13. You should double space all material in the manuscript.

a. True
b. False

14. Which of the following is not one of the seven major parts to the research report?
a. Results
b. Abstract
c. Method
d. Footnotes

15. The Introduction section should not be labeled.

a. True
b. False

16. The abstract should be about how many words?

a. 50
b. 75
c. 120
d. 300

17. The Method section should start on a separate page in a manuscript.

 a. True
b. False

18. It is in this section that you fully interpret and evaluate your results.
a. Introduction
b. Method
c. Results
d. Discussion

19. Where do you provide a step-by-step account of what the researcher and
participants did during the research study?
a. Introduction
b. Abstract
c. Procedure
d. Design

20. References should be single spaced.

a. True
b. False

21. Qualitative research reports do not need a Method section.

a. True
b. False

22. When writing the qualitative results section, an overriding concern should be to
provide sufficient and convincing evidence to back up your assertions.
a. True
b. False

23. When writing the qualitative results section, you will need to find an appropriate
balance between description and interpretation.
a. True
b. False

24. Diagrams, matrices, tables, and figures should never be used in qualitative research
reports.
a. True
b. False

25. Your textbook authors argued that in qualitative research it is important to fit the
research findings back into the relevant research literature even if the study is
exploratory.
a. True
b. False