Rajiv Gandhi University of Knowledge Technologies
END SEMESTER EXAM
Year/Sem: Date:
Subject: Time:
Subject Code: Max. Marks :
1. Environmental studies is defined as the branch that deals with the
a) Design, study and discovery of new materials
b) The study of humanities, social, biological and physical sciences
c) Incorporate the information and physical sciences
d) Approach about the natural world and the impact of humans on its integrity
2. Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone responsible for the
absorption of UV light
a) Stratosphere b) Troposphere c) Mesosphere d) Exosphere
3. Which of the following is not a measure of sustainable water management
a) Preventing leakage from dams and canals
b) Reducng the rate of surface run-off water
c) Preventing loss in the muncipal pipes
d) Building small reservoirs in place of a few mega projects
4. Which element is considered the largest source of world’s commercial energy
consumption
a) Coal b) Oil c) Natural gas d) Nuclear energy
5. What are the two forms of alcohol are included in biofuels
a) Ethanol & Methanol
b) Ethanol & Propanol
c) Methanol & Propanol
d) None of the above
6. The functional aspects of the ecosystem are
a) Energy cycles b) Nutrient cycles c) Food chains d) All of the above
7. Which of the following is also called Detrivores
a) Herbivores b) Decomposers c) Carnivores d) Autotrophs
8. Which element is a building block of both animals and plant tissues
a) Sulfur b) Carbon c) Nitrogen d) None of the above
9. Which human activity can decreases the oxygen levels present in the
atmosphere
a) Deforestation b) Animal hunting c) Mining d) Both a and c
10. A large number of interlinked chains in an ecosystem together forms a
a) Nitrogen cycle b) Carbon cycle c) Food web d) Food chain
11. Which day is celebrated as world environment day
a) June 10th b) June 5th c) July 5th d) October 20th
12. What are the numbers of biodiversity hotspots in the world
a) 18 b) 28 c) 32 d) 36
13. Which of the following activity is incorrect about the impact of human activities
on the ecosystem
a) Depletion of ground water
b) Extinction of Species
c) Decrease of forest area
d) None of the above
14. The unfavourable alteration of environment due to human activities is termed
as
a) Ecological disturbance
b) Catastrophe
c) Ecological degradation
d) Pollution
15. BOD stands for
a) Biotic oxidation demand
b) Biological oxidation demand
c) Biological oxygen demand
d) Bio chemical oxygen demand
16. Noise is measured using sound meter and the unit is
a) Hertz b) Decible c) Joule d) Pounds
17. A river with high BOD value is
a) Highly polluted b) Highly clean c) Highly productive d) None
18. Which of the following is the cause of soil pollution
a) Ozone b) Aerosol c) Acid rain d) None
19. Minimata disease was caused by pollution of water by
a) Mercury b) Lead c) Methyl isocyanate d) Tin
20. Which of the following gas is present in the air in maximum amount
a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen c) Carbon dioxide d) Methane
21. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy
a) Coal b) Uranium c) Wind d) None
22. Which of the following is said to be a biodegradable waste
a) Plastics b) Glasses c) Egg Shell d) Polythene
23. The pollutants that decomposable and manageable in nature are termed as
a) Renewable b) Non-biodegradable c) Bio degradable d) None
24. Which of the following is the first trophic level in the food chain
a) Herbivores b) Carnivores c) Green plants d) All of the above
25. Which of the following will not cause any atmospheric pollution
a) Hydrogen b) Sulphur dioxide c) Carbon dioxide d) Carbon monoxide
26.Photochemical smog is related to the pollution of
a) Soil b) Water c) Noise d) Air
27. Most important causative pollutant of soil
a) Plastics b) Iron junks c) Detergents d) Glass junks
28. Which one of the following is a green house gas
a) Carbon dioxide b) Carbon monoxide c) Ozone d) Oxygen
29. The sound about what level is considered as harmful
a) Above 40 db b) Above 60 db c) Above 80 db d) Above 120 db
30. Ozone holes means
a) Increase in the concentration of Ozone
b) Decrease in the concentration of Ozone
c) Same concentration of ozone
d) Hole in the Stratosphere
31. Thermal pollution of water bodies is due to discharge of
a) Chemicals from industries
b) Heat from power plants
c) Agricultural run-off water
d) Wastes from mining
32. All the following contribute to pollution except
a) Thermal power plant
b) Automobiles
c) Nuclear powerplant
d) Hydroelectric power plant
33. Which gas is the major pollutant of air
a) Carbon monoxide b) Nitrogen c) Oxygen d) Propane
34. The increase in concentration of which gas is not responsible for global
warming
a) Sulphur dioxide b) Nitrogen c) Carbon dioxide d) Methane
35. …………………..is an example of an ex-situ conservation
a) Sacred groves b) Wild life sanctuary c) Seed bank d) National park
36. Below is not the threat to biodiversity
a) Pollution b) Poaching c) Deforestation d) Natural calamities
37. A bio diversity hot spot?
a) A region with a high level of endemic species
b) That have experienced great habitat loss
c) Both a and b
d) None
38. Energy flow in an ecosystem
a) Unidirectional b) Bidirectional c) Multi directional d) All
39. Total organic matter present in an ecosystem is called
a) Biomass b) Biome c) Utter d) Food
40. A food chain is
a) Group of organisms which eat the same type of food
b) Animals eating animals
c) Series of plants /animals which are interrelated in the form of organisms being
eaten as food by the others
d) None of these
41. Which of the food chain directly depends on solar radiation
a) Predator b) Grazing c) Detritus d) None
42. Food chain always starts with
a) Photosynthesis b) Respiration c) Nitrogen fixation d) Decay
43. Graphic representation of biomass relationship between the producers and
consumers in an ecosystem is called
a) Trophic level b) Ecological system c) Ecological Niche d) Ecological pyramid
44. Which one is not a factor of the abiotic environment
a) Sunlight b) Decomposers c) Water d) Temperature
45. In grassland ecosystem, the pyramis of biomass is
a) Linear b) Upright c) Inverted d) Inverted upright
46. The Red Data Book containing information on all wild plants animals in danger
of extinction has been published by which one of the following
a) International Union For Conservation Of Nature (IUCN)
b) World Wild Life (WWF)
c) World conservation Union ( WCU)
d) United National Environment Programme (UNEP)
47. Hot spots are regions of high
a) Rarity b) Endemism c) Critically endangered population d) Diversity
48. Endemic species are
a) Rare
b) Species localized in a specific region
c) Cosmopolitan in distribution
d) Critically endangered species
49. Lead poisoning
a) Reduces oxygen carrying capacity of Hb in blood
b) increases oxygen carrying capacity of Hb in blood
c) Reduces oxygen carrying capacity of Myoglobin in muscles
d) Increases oxygen carrying capacity of Myoglobin in muscles
50. Acid rain contains
a) Sulphuric acid b) Nitric acid c) Sulphuric,Nitric and hydrochloric acids d) a&b
51. Bio-geo chemical cycles are also known as
a) Material/Nutrient cycling
b) Gaseous cycling
c) Sedimentary cycling
d) None of the above
52. Which one is sedimentary cycle
a) Oxygen cycle b) Hydrogen cycle c) Nitrogen cycle d) Phosphorous cycle
53. The main nitrogen reservoir in the biosphere is the
a) Ocean b) Rocks c) Atmosphere d) Organism
54. Fluoride pollution mainly affects
a) Kidney b) Brain c) Heart d) Teeth
55. High level radioactive waste can be managed in which of the following ways
a) Open dumping
b) Composting
c) Incineration
d) Dumping in sealed containers
56. How many types of ecological succession are there
a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four
57. Which is the first process in ecological succession
a) Nudation b) Migration c) Ecesis d) Aggregation
58. The process of successful establishment of the species in a new area is called
a) Sere b) Climax c) Invasion d) Ecesis
59. The intermediate developmental phase in an ecological succession is known as
a) Ecesis b) Climax c) Nudation d) Sere
60. Which process occurs after a forest fire
a) Eutrophication
b) Photosynthesis
c) Primary succession
d) Secondary succession
Rajiv Gandhi University of Knowledge Technologies
END SEMESTER EXAM
Year/Sem: Date:
Subject: Time:
Subject Code: Max. Marks :
KEY
1. d
2. a
3. b
4. b
5. a
6. d
7. b
8. b
9. a
10. c
11. b
12. d
13. d
14. d
15. c
16. b
17. a
18. c
19. a
20. a
21. c
22. c
23. c
24. c
25. a
26. d
27. a
28. a
29. c
30. b
31. b
32. d
33. a
34. b
35. c
36. d
37. a
38. a
39. a
40. c
41. b
42. a
43. d
44. b
45. b
46. a
47. b
48. b
49. a
50. d
51. a
52. d
53. c
54. d
55. d
56. b
57. a
58. b
59. d
60. d