workforce

Workforce Ability Test 3

Solution Booklet

Instructions

This Ability test comprises 50 questions, and you will have 50 minutes in which
to correctly answer as many as you can. Calculators are not permitted for this test,
and it is recommended you have some rough paper to work on.
The test comprises of three sections:
1. Verbal Section (20 Questions)
2. Abstract Section (10 Questions)
3. Numerical Section (20 Questions)
You will have to work quickly and accurately to perform well in this test. If you don't
know the answer to a question, leave it and come back to it if you have time.
You may click Back and Next during the test to review or skip questions.
You can submit your test at any time. If the time limit is up before you click submit
the test will automatically be submitted with the answers you have selected. It is
recommended to keep working until the time limit is up.
Try to find a time and place where you will not be interrupted during the test.
When you are ready, begin the test.
 For ambitious employees, a good relationship with their immediate boss is
crucial. A bad relationship can lead to missed opportunities for promotion,
and even damage professional reputations. A boss who possesses a thorough
understanding of the company's future direction and ultimate goals is the
person best equipped to help an employee achieve success.
Communication is key. It is important to understand a boss’s personal goals
and priorities within the company, as well as their individual management
approach. Clarifying instructions, anticipating needs, requesting feedback,
and accepting criticism gracefully all help to build a solid working
relationship.
On the other hand, artificial flattery or excessive deference are tactics
unlikely to impress if promotion is the goal – a good employee should
demonstrate the potential to be an equally effective boss.

Q1 Employees must reject criticism to build a good working relationship with their
boss.

True False Cannot say

False – the passage explicitly states the opposite, that “accepting criticism gracefully
[helps to] build a solid working relationship.”

Q2 A bad relationship with a boss can lead to missed opportunities, but does not
risk an employee's reputation.

True False Cannot say

False – the passage states, “A bad relationship [with an employer] can...damage professional
reputations.” The statement is therefore incorrect.
Q3 Flattering the boss can be an effective approach for an employee seeking
promotion.

True False Cannot say

Cannot say - the passage states “artificial flattery [is] unlikely to impress if promotion is
the goal”, but makes no comment about the effect of sincere flattery. So that tells us
about artificial flattery and that it is unlikely to impress. Regarding flattery in general,
the passage does not state that flattery can or cannot be an effective approach for
seeking promotion, so we cannot say if this is true or false.
 Well-regulated, ethical practices should always be an area of primary concern
for any business. In an environment where multinational conglomerates
predominate, owners of small businesses may feel anonymous enough to
become flexible about their code of ethics. However, the increasingly
inescapable attention of the media allows an unprecedented number of
individuals to access news and information with greater speed than ever before
– unethical practices can become a matter of public knowledge overnight, with
devastating consequences. Codes of ethical practice should apply not only to
clients, but to employees, who are just as able to draw inappropriate behaviour
on the part of their employers to the public's attention. In today's society,
businesses of any size must be able to demonstrate transparency and
accountability in their dealings with employees, clients, and the public alike.

Q4 Unethical practices are only a problem if the public becomes aware of them.

True False Cannot say

Cannot say – the passage states that “the increasingly inescapable attention of the media” means
that “unethical practices can become a matter of public knowledge overnight, with devastating
consequences.” It does not however make any explicit reference to the consequences of unethical
practices which do not come to the public attention.

Q5 Employees of a company should be subject to ethical codes of practice.

True False Cannot say

True – The passage states that, “Codes of ethical practice should apply not only to clients,
but to employees”.
Q6 More people than ever before have access to information about companies'
ethical practices.

True False Cannot say

True – the passage states that the media “allows an unprecedented number of
individuals to access news and information” and explicitly confirms that this includes
information about companies' ethical practices by adding “unethical practices can
become a matter of public knowledge overnight”.
 Successful and cost-effective advertising is an important issue to consider
when starting up a business. A comprehensive business plan should include
details of advertising strategies, a helpful starting point for which is an
analysis of the advertising currently being used by competitors in the same
line of business.
The rise of the internet has provided a variety of new opportunities for
advertising, of which an innovative business should take full advantage. A
well-designed website should ideally combine a professional appearance with
user-friendly functionality, and be widely promoted to draw as much traffic
as possible. This not only increases the visibility of a company, but assures
potential clients that the company has a forward-thinking, enterprising
outlook, and is willing to embrace as well as exploit the latest technological
developments.

Q7 An analysis of competitors' advertisements is helpful in laying out

advertising strategies for a new business

True False Cannot say

True – the passage states, “a helpful starting point for [planning advertising strategies] is an
analysis of the advertising currently being used by competitors”. The statement is therefore
correct.

Q8 A professional and user-friendly website will attract a lot of traffic.

True False Cannot say

Cannot say – the passage states that “A well-designed website” should

 Q9 Clients prefer a company that is forward-thinking and enterprising.

True False Cannot say

Cannot say – the passage states that a website “assures potential clients that the company
has a forward-thinking, enterprising outlook”, but does not explicitly state that a client
would or would not prefer such a company.
 Work-related stress is one of the biggest causes of sick leave in the UK. If you’ve
noticed you always seem to be rushing about, or miss meal breaks, take work
home or don’t have enough time for relaxation, seeing your family or for
exercise, then you may well find yourself under stress, especially at work. There is
often no single cause of work-related stress, but it can be caused by poor working
conditions, long hours, relationship problems with colleagues, or lack of job
security. Stress is often the result of a combination of these factors that builds up
over time. Work-related stress can result in both physical problems such as
headaches, muscular tension, back or neck pain, tiredness, digestive problems and
sweating; or emotional problems, such as a lower sex drive, feelings of
inadequacy, irritability and lack of concentration. According to recent surveys, one
in six of the UK working population said their job is very stressful, and thirty
percent of men said that the demands of their job interfere with their private lives.

Q10 Stress at work is often caused by relationship problems with your partner.

True False Cannot say

Cannot say - This may well be true, but is not stated in the passage so we have to answer Cannot
Say. The passage refers only to relationship problems with colleagues and does not say if
relationship problems with a partner do or don’t cause stress.

Q11 Work-related stress can result in tiredness and a lack of concentration.

True False Cannot say

True -The fifth sentence lists tiredness as one of the physical problems caused
by stress, and lack of concentration is listed under emotional problems.
Q12 One in six working men say their job is very stressful.

True False Cannot say

Cannot say - One in six “of the UK working population” said their job is very stressful
in the study referred to in the passage. The passage does not tell us the ratio for men
only, which may be higher, equal, or lower.
 Many people are aware that high cholesterol contributes to heart disease, but
they will be surprised to learn that cholesterol performs essential functions in
the human body. A lipid made in the liver and found in animal cell
membranes, cholesterol is used to repair tissues and digest fat, as well as in the
manufacture of hormones, bile salts, and Vitamin D. However, problems arise
when an excess of cholesterol builds up on blood vessel walls, thus impeding
blood flow. A person’s blood cholesterol count is comprised of two different
types of cholesterol: low-density lipoprotein (LDL), sometimes called “bad”
cholesterol, and high-density lipoprotein (HDL), known as “good” cholesterol.
Whereas HDL carries cholesterol away from the arteries to the liver, LDL
carries cholesterol from the liver to the arteries where it accumulates. Although
certain foods deriving from animals, such as meat, shellfish, cheese and eggs,
are high in dietary cholesterol, it is actually the consumption of the saturated
fats found in red meat, full-fat dairy products, cakes and biscuits that raises
levels of “bad” cholesterol. Conversely, eating polyunsaturated fats and
soluble fibre can lower LDL.

Q13 Full-fat dairy products have no effect on a person’s levels of LDL.

True False Cannot say

False – the sixth sentence says that it is the eating saturated fats found in “full-fat dairy products,
cakes and biscuits that raises the levels of “bad” cholesterol”– i.e. LDL.

Q14 Not everyone is aware of the true effect of cholesterol on one’s health.

True False Cannot say

True – the first sentence states that many people would be “surprised to learn that cholesterol
performs essential functions in the human body”.
Q15 To maximise blood flow in the arteries, HDL levels should be minimised.

True False Cannot say

False – the reverse is true according to sentences four and five.

The next 5 Questions deal with Critical Reasoning:

Q16 The ice on the front windshield of the car had formed when moisture condensed
during the night. The ice melted quickly after the car was warmed up the next
morning because the defrosting vent, which blows on the front windshield, was
turned on fullforce.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously jeopardizes the validity of the
explanation for the speed with which the ice melted?

A. The side windows had no ice condensation on them

B. Even though no attempt was made to defrost the back window, the ice there
melted at the same rate as did the ice on the front windshield.
C. The speed at which ice on a window melts increases as the temperature of
the air blown on the window increases
D. The warm air from the defrosting vent for the front windshield cools rapidly
as it dissipates throughout the rest of the car.
E. The defrosting vent operates efficiently even when the heater, which blows
warm air toward the feet or faces of the driver and passengers, is on.

B is the best answer

The speed with which the ice on the windshield melted is attributed to the air blowing
full force from the defrosting vent onto the front windshield. This explanation of B is
undermined if, as B states, no attempt was made to defrost the back window and the
ice on the back window melted as quickly as did the ice on the windshield. Therefore,
B is the best answer. In the absence of other information, the lack of ice condensation
on the side windows that is mentioned in A is irrelevant to the validity of the
explanation. C might support the explanation, since the air from the defrosting vent
was warm. Neither of D and E gives a reason to doubt that air from the vent caused
the ice's melting, and thus neither jeopardizes the explanation' validity.
Q17 A conservation group in the United States is trying to change the long-
standing
image of bats as frightening creatures. The group contends that bats are
feared and persecuted solely because they are shy animals that are active
only at night.

Which of the following, if true, would cast the most serious doubt on the
accuracy of the group's contention?

A. Bats are steadily losing natural roosting places such as caves and hollow trees
and are thus turning to more developed areas for roosting.
B. Bats are the chief consumers of nocturnal insects and thus can help make their
hunting territory more pleasant for humans.
C. Bats are regarded as frightening creatures not only in the United States but
also
in Europe, Africa, and South America.
D. Raccoons and owls are shy and active only at night; yet they are not generally
feared and persecuted.
E. People know more about the behavior of other greatly feared animal species,
such as lions, alligators, and greatly feared animal species, such as lions, alligators,
and snakes, than they do about the behavior of bats.

D is the best answer.

The group's contention suggests that animals that are shy and active at night are
feared and persecute for that reason. D establishes that raccoons and owls are shy
and active at night, but that they are neither feared nor persecuted. Therefore, D is
the best answer. Although an increasing prevalence of bats might explain the
importance of addressing people's fear of bats, A does not address the original
causes of that fear. B and E, while relevant to the rationality of people's fear of
bats, do not affect the assessment of the accuracy of the group's contention.
That bats are feared outside the United States, as C states, does not conflict with
the group's explanation for fear of bats in the United States.
Q18 Opponents of laws that require automobile drivers and passengers to wear
seat belts argue that in a free society people have the right to take risks as
long as the people do not harm other as a result of taking the risks. As a
result, they conclude that it should be each person's decision whether or not
to wear a seat belt.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the conclusion drawn
above?

A. Many new cars are built with seat belts that automatically fasten when someone sits
in the front seat.
B. Automobile insurance rates for all automobile owners are higher because of the need
to pay for the increased injuries or deaths of people not wearing seat belts.
C. Passengers in airplanes are required to wear seat belts during takeoffs and landings.
D. The rate of automobile fatalities in states that do not have mandatory seat belt laws is
greater than the rate of fatalities in states that do have such laws.
E. In automobile accidents, a greater number of passengers who do not wear seat belts
are injured than are passengers who do wear seat belts.

B is the best answer

The principle that people are entitled to risk injury provided they do not thereby harm
others fails to justify the individual's right to decide not to wear seat belts if it can be
shown, as B shows, that that decision does harm others. Therefore, B is the best answer. A
suggests that the law may be irrelevant in some cases, but it does not address the issue of
the law's legitimacy. C cites a requirement analogous to the one at issue, but its existence
alone does not bear on the legitimacy of the one at issue. The argument implicitly
concedes that individuals take risks by not wearing seat belts; therefore, D and E, which
simply confirm this concession, do not weaken the conclusion.
Q19 The cost of producing radios in Country Q is ten percent less than the cost of
producing radios in Country Y. even after transportation fees and tariff
charges are added, it is still cheaper for a company to import radios from
Country Q to Country Y than to produce radios in Country Y.

The statements above, if true, best support which of the following assertions?

A. labor costs in Country Q are ten percent below those in Country Y.

B. importing radios from Country Q to Country Y will eliminate ten percent of the
manufacturing jobs in Country Y.
C. the tariff on a radio imported from Country Q to Country Y is less than ten percent
of the cost of manufacturing the radio in Country Y.
D. the fee for transporting a radio from Country Q to Country Y is more than ten
percent of the cost of manufacturing the radio in Country Q.
E. it takes ten percent less time to manufacture a radios in Country Q than it does in
Country Y

C is the best answer.

If the tariff on importing radios from Country Q to Country Y were as high as ten percent
or more of the cost of producing radios in Y, then, contrary to what the passage says, the
cost of importing radios from Q to Y would be equal to or more than the cost of producing
radios in Y. thus, the tariff cannot be that high, and C is the best answer. A and E give
possible partial explanations for the cost difference, but neither is supported by the
passage because the cost advantage in Q might be attributable to other factors. B and D
are both consistent with the information in the passage, but the passage provides no
evidence to support them.

Q20 During the Second World War, about 375,000 civilians died in the United
States and about 408,000 members of the United States armed forces died
overseas. On the basis the those figures, it can be concluded that it was not
much more dangerous to be overseas in the armed forces during the Second
World War than it was to stay at home as a civilian.
Which of the following would reveal most clearly the absurdity of the conclusion
drawn above?

A. Counting deaths among members of the armed forces who served in the United
State in addition to deaths among members of the armed forces serving overseas
B. Expressing the difference between the numbers of deaths among civilians and
members of the armed forces as a percentage of the total number of deaths
C. Separating deaths caused by accidents during service in the armed forces from
deaths caused by combat injuries
D. Comparing death rates per thousand members of each group rather than
comparing total numbers of deaths
E. Comparing deaths caused by accidents in the United States to deaths caused by
combat in the armed forces

D is the best answer

Concluding from the similar numbers of deaths in two groups that the relative
danger of death was similar for both groups is absurd if, as here, one group was far
smaller. D exposes this absurdity by pointing out the need to compare death rates of
the two groups, which would reveal the higher death rate for the smaller group.
Therefore, D is the best answer. Since the conclusion acknowledges the difference
between the number of civilian and armed forces deaths, expressing this difference
as a percentage, as suggested by B, is beside the point. A is inappropriate because
it simply adds a third group to the two being compared. Because cause of death in
not at issue, C and E are irrelevant.

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 In each question you will be presented with a logical sequence of five figures. You will
need to determine which of the possible answers best matches the next figure in the
sequence, or which replaces the question mark.

Q21

The Right Answer is E

Rule 1: The shape alternates between a circle and square.

Rule 2: The line outside of the shape moves clockwise one place to the next
corner, then two places, then three places and so on.
Rule 3: The line inside the shape rotates 45˚ clockwise each time.
Q22

The Right Option is E

Rule 1: The flag moves down one place each time, and then begins again
from the top.
Rule 2: The flag alternates between pointing left and right.
Rule 3: The line in the flag rotates 45˚ counterclockwise each time.
Q23

The Right Option is C

Rule 1: The shaded circle moves down one place each time, and then begins again
from the top.
Rule 2: The crossed circle moves one place to the right each time and then
begins again from the left.
Rule 3: The blank circle moves one place clockwise each time.
Q24

The Right Option is D

Rule 1: The square rotates 45˚ each time.

Rule 2: Both arrows move one place clockwise around the box each time.
Rule 3: The arrows always point in opposite directions.
Q25

The Right Answer is B

Rule 1: The shape rotates 90˚ counterclockwise each time.

Rule 2: The shape alternates between shaded and unshaded.
Rule 3: The shape moves from top left, to middle right, to bottom left and
then repeats.
Q26

The Right Answer is A

Rule 1: The shaded block moves one place to the right each time and then
begins again from the left.
Rule 2: The cross alternates between the top and bottom of the shape.
Rule 3: The circle moves one place clockwise every two boxes.
Q27

The Right Answer is C

Rule 1: The outer cirlce rotates 45˚counterclockwise each time.

Rule 2: The shape inside the circle rotates 90˚ counterclockwise each time.
Rule 3: The shape inside the circle alternates between shaded and
unshaded.
Q28

The Right Answer is D

Rule 1: The horizontally barred square moves one place clockwise around
the box each time.
Rule 2: The bars on the horizontally barred square alternate between shaded
and unshaded.
Rule 3: The vertically barred square moves up one place each time, then
begins again from the bottom.
Q29

The Right Answer is C

Rule 1: The rows of triangles move clockwise to the next edge of the box
each time. The row of six triangles is always closest to the edge.
Rule 2: The triangles alternate between pointing to the centre of the box,
and pointing away from the box.
Rule 3: The total number of shaded triangles increases by one each time .
Q30

The Right Answer is E

Rule 1: The small circle rotates counterclockwise one place, then two places, then three
places and so on.

Rule 2: The middle circle moves one place clockwise around the large circle.

Rule 3: The shading alternates between the large, middle and small circle, in that order, and
then repeats.
 Federal Inland Revenue Service (FIR) charges tax rate of 5% on the annual
profit of all business in Nigeria. If you missed V.A.T for a year and you are caught
you would pay a V.A.T of 7% for the missed year(s) and the present year. Using the
table below answer the questions that follow.

Business Organisation Annual Income 2012 (N) Annual Expense 2012(N)

Kings Business Centre 500,000 45,000

Shakespeare e-Centre 780,000 70,000

Wisdom Cyber Cafe 550,000 50,000

Q31 How much V.A.T must Wisdom Cyber Café pay to FIRS for the year 2012(In Naira)?

A. 22,000 B. 23,000 C. 24,000 D. 25,000 E. 26,000

Annual Profit = Annual Income – Annual Expense

550,000 – 50,000
500,000

V.A.T on Annual Profit = 5% of 500,000

= 25,000

Q32 Shakespeare e-centre avoided V.A.T for 2012 but was caught and penalized.
How much V.A.T would she pay for 2013, If the Income and Expenses remained
the same for both years (in Naira)?

A. 95,200 B. 95,400 C. 95, 600 D. 96, 700 E. 99,400

Annual Profit = Annual Expense – Annual Income
= 780,000 – 70,000
= 710,000

Since V.A.T was avoided the V.A.T percentage = 7% of 710,000

= 49,000
For both year it will be = 49,700 + 49,700
= 99,400 (E)

Q33 The Annual Expenses for Kings Computer reduced by 10% for the year 2013 but the
income remained the same. How much V.A.T would King Computer pay 2013(in Naira)?

A. 22,975 B. 23,500 C. 27,750 D. 28,450 E. 28,750

Annual Expense reduced by 10% = 0.90 x 45,000

= 40,500

Annual Profit = Annual Income – Annual Expense

= 500,000 – 40,500
= 459,500

V.A.T = 5% of 459,000
= 22,975 (A)
Q34 Kings Computer mistakenly paid a V.A.T of N32,000 for 2012. How much does this value
deviate from the accurate V.A.T amount to be paid?

A. 8,620 B. 9,000 C. 9,250 D. 10,150 E. 10,250

Annual Profit = Annual Income – Annual Expense

= 500,000 – 45,000
= 455,000

V.A.T = 5% of 455,000
= 22,750

Deviation = 32,000 – 22,750

= 9,250(C)

Q35 The Annual Income and Experts increases by 10% and 5% respectively for 2 years.
What is the V.A.T to be paid for 2014 (In Naira)?

A. 30,493.75 B. 33,534.87 C. 35,675.66 D. 38,778.77 E. 39, 927.45

Income increase by 10% in 2013 = 1.10 x 550,000 = 605,000

Income increase by 10% in 2014 = 1.10 x 605,000 = 665,500
Expense increase by 5% in 2013 = 1.05 x 50,000 = 52,500
Expense increase by 5% in 2014 = 1.05 x 50,000 = 55,125

Profit = Annual Income (2014) – Annual Expense (2014)

= 665,500 - 55,125
= 609,875

V.A.T in 2014 = 5% of 609,875

= 30,493.75
Q36 Which of the products shown had the lowest value of sales per non-
European store and which had the highest value of sales per European
store?

A. PU10 (non-European); AE25 (European)

B. FD24 (non-European); DE45 (European)
C. FD24 (non-European); AE25 (European)
D. AE25 (non-European); PU10 (European)
E. AE25 (non-European; FD24 (European)

Step 1 – Calculate each product’s average sales per European store

DE45 = 21,000/26 = 808
PU20 = 30,000/19 = 1,579
 AE25 = 24,500/11 = 2,227
PU10 = 18,700/9 = 2,078
FD24 = 14,700/13 = 1,131

Step 2 – Calculate each product’s average sales per non-European store

DE45 = 35,000/14 = 2,500
PU20 = 20,000/9 = 2,222
AE25 = 13,000/6 = 2,167
PU10 = 24,000/5 = 4,800
FD24 = 9,000/7 = 1,286

Thus the correct answer is (C) FD24 (non-European); AE25 (European)

Q37 What is the discrepancy (in $) between the AE25 price per product
unit in non-European stores compared to European stores. Use an
exchange rate of 0.80 to the $.

A. $30
B. $120
C. $130
D. $200
E. $230

The information that you need is shown in both tables. Note from the possible answers it
doesn’t matter which is the greater, we just need the difference.
F.
Tip: If you struggle with the term “ X to the $” and you sometimes multiply when you should
divide by the conversion, think of an extreme example. So think of a two currencies that have
very
different strengths, for example Zimbabwean Dollar to the British Pound. It doesn’t
matter what the values are but you know there are lots of ZWDs to the BGP and you
also know that the same product will cost a lot more ZWDs than GBP. Hopefully that
will help you decide if currency A should be a higher number than currency B, or vise
versa.
G.

Step 1 – Read from the table the AE25 price per product unit (non-European stores)
= $130
H.
Step 2 – Calculate the AE25 price per product unit (European stores) =
200 /0.80 = $250
I.
Step 3 – Calculate the difference between the two $250 - $130 = $120
J.
Thus the correct answer is (B) $120

Q38 This month’s combined target for non-European and European sales of AE25
is 40,000. Using an exchange rate of 0.75 to the $, what is the difference between
the sales values shown and this target?

A. 575
B. 750
C. 5,100
D. 5,750
E. 7500

The information that you need is shown in both tables

Step 1 – Calculate AE25’s non-European sales in Euros
$13,000 x 0.75 = 9,750
 Step 2 – Calculate AE25’s combined European and non-European sales
9,750 + 24,500 = 34,250

Step 3 – Calculate the discrepancy against target sales 40,000 - 34,250 = 5,750

Thus the correct answer is (D) 5,750

Q39 Combining European and non-European sales, which products generated

the highest number of product units sold? Use the non-promotional sales prices
shown.

A. DE45
B. PU20
C. AE25
D. PU10
E. FD24

The information that you need is shown in both tables.

Step 1 – Calculate the number of sales per product (non-European stores)

Product unit sales

DE45 35,000/175 = 200
PU20 20,000/200 = 100
AE25 13,000/130 = 100
PU10 24,000/150= 160
FD24 9,000/180 = 50
 Step 2 – Calculate the number of sales per product (European stores)

DE45 145 21,000/150 = 140

PU20 185 30,000/160 = 187.5
AE25 240 24,500/200 = 122.5
PU10 110 18,700/110 = 170

Q40 Given that a customer uses the promotional offers shown, put the 5 products sold in
non-European stores into order of increasing promotional price per unit (starting
with the cheapest).

A. AE25, PU10, DE45, FD24, PU20

B. PU10, DE45, PU20, AE25, FD24
C. PU10, DE45, AE25, PU20, FD24
D. DE45, PU10, PU20, AE25, FD24
E. PU10, DE45, PU20, FD24, AE25
The information that we need is shown in the first table
(non-European stores)

Step 1 – Calculate the 3 for the price of 2 promotional offers DE45 promotional price
per unit = 2/3 x $175 = $116.67 PU20 promotional price per unit = 2/3 x
$200 = $133.33

Step 2 – Calculate the 4 for the price of 3 promotional offers PU10 promotional price
per unit = 3/4 x $150 = $112.50 FD24 promotional price per unit = 3/4 x
$180 = $135.00

Step 3 – Put these promotional prices into order alongside the fifth product (AE25)
priced at $130 and not on promotion
Thus the correct answer is (C) PU10, DE45, AE25, PU20, FD24
Q41 Between which three years was there an average of 1,553 employees for one
of the Subsidiary Companies?

A. 2005-2007 Subsidiary 1
B. 2006-2008 Subsidiary 1
C. 2007-2009 Subsidiary 4
D. 2007-2009 Subsidiary 1
E. None of these

Step 1 – Looking at the employee totals there are only two Subsidiary Companies
that could have an average of 1,553 employees across three years: Subsidiary
Companies 1 and 4. The answer options include Subsidiary Companies 1 and 4, as
well as (E) None of these.

Step 2 - Calculate the average number of employees for answer options (A) – (D)
 2005-2007 Subsidiary 1 = 1,565
2006-2008 Subsidiary 1 = 1,581
2007-2009 Subsidiary 4 = 1,553
2007-2009 Subsidiary 1 = 1,591

Q42. In 2008 subsidiary company 4 comprised 2 regions with double the number
of employees in one region compared to the other. If the ratio of male:female
employees in the smaller region was 1:1.15, what was this region’s number
of male employees?

A. 240
B. 828
C. 414
D. 394
E. 360

Step 1 – Calculate the number of employees in the smaller region

1,548/3= 516 employees

Step 2 – Apply the 1:1.15 Male:Female ratio 516/2.15 = 240 male employees
Thus the correct answer is (A) 240

Q43. 1 in 15 of the parent company’s part-time employees were managers in

2005 and 1 in 13 part-time employees were managers in 2007. What was
the difference in the number of part-time managers in 2005 compared to
2007?

A. 14 less
B. 12 more
C. 12 less
D. 13 more
E. Cannot Say
2005 2007
1,538 1,573
1,107 1,060
1,340 1,393
1,505 1,528
1,010 946
Step 1 Total employees for each year = 6,500 6,500
Step 2 Part-time employees = 6,500 x 12% = 6,500 x 8% = 520
780
Step 3 Managers = 520 / 13 = 40
780 / 15 = 52
Step 4 Difference = 52 – 40 = 12
Thus the correct answer is (B) 12 more

Q44. What % of the Parent Company’s total employees worked for

Subsidiary 5
in 2006 (to the nearest whole %)?

A. 12%
B. 10%
C. 18%
D. 15%
E. 9%

Step 1 - Calculate the total number of employees across all 5 Subsidiaries

i.e. the Parent Company’s number of employees = 6,527

Step 2 – Calculate the % of Subsidiary 5 employees 980/6527 = 15.01%

Thus the correct answer is (D) 15%

Q45. In 2009 what was the absolute difference between the Parent
Company’s
full-time employees and part-time employees (if Number of employees =
Full-time employees + part-time employees)?

A. 6,270
B. 90
C. 4,733
D. 6,600
E. 5,940

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Step 1 – Calculate the total employees in 2009 1,614 + 962 + 1,412
+ 1,583 + 1,029 = 6,600

Step 2 – Calculate the number of full-time employees

Number of employees = Full-time employees + part-time employees 6,600 =
100% = x% + 5%
Full-time employees = 95%

Step 3 – Calculate the difference in the % of part-time employees to full-time

employees 95% - 5% = 90%

Step 4 – Calculate the difference

6,600 x 90% = 5,940

Thus the correct answer is (E) 5,940

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Q46. What was the approximate fraction of Fixed Assets to Loans Made at
the end of the financial year 2009?

A. 1/40
B. 1/45
C. 1/20
D. 1/60
E. 1/48

Step 1 - The fraction is 614/24,600 = 1/40.

Tip - You should be able to recognise that your calculator answer of

0.02496 is approximately ten times smaller than 0.25 and thus from the
available answers select 1/40.
Thus the correct answer is (A) 1/40

40
Q47. Which asset or assets have changed in value by more than 12% from
2007 to
2009?

A. Liquid Assets, Loans Made

B. Loans made, Fixed assets
C. Loans Made
D. Fixed Assets
E. Can’t tell from data
Step 1 - Calculate the % change in asset values, as shown below. Work out
the figures for only the options given, to save time.

Assets at end of 2009 2007

financial year
(£million) (£million) Difference % change
Liquid Assets 10214 10735 521 - 4.85
Loans Made 24600 21973.5 2626.5 11.95
Fixed Assets 614 541.5 72.5 13.39

F.

Thus the correct answer is (D) Fixed Assets

Q48. In 2010, Loans made are projected to decrease by an eighth and both
Derivatives and Fixed Assets are projected to increase by 5%. What will be
the impact on the 2010 Total Assets value (in £million)?

A. 3,075.70 increase
B. 3,018.70 decrease
C. 3,000.00 decrease
D. 3,095.70 decrease
E. Can’t tell from data

Step 1 - Calculate the changes in 2009 figures for Loans Made; and both
Derivatives and Fixed Assets

41
Loans made; 24,600 / 8 = - 3,075
Derivatives; 512 x 5% = + 25.6
Fixed Assets; 614 x 5% = + 30.7

Step 2 - Calculate the overall impact

3075 (Loans Made) + 25.6 (Derivatives) + 30.7 (Fixed Assets) = - 3,018.7

Thus the correct answer is (B) 3,018.70 decrease

Q49. Which liability or liabilities have experienced a 10% change in value

between 2008 and 2009?

A. Reserve Liabilities
B. Borrowings, Reserve Liabilities
C. Borrowings
D. Other Liabilities, Borrowings
E. Other liabilities, Share liabilities

Step 1 - Calculate the % change in value between 2008-2009, as follows;

2009 2008 % change

Reserve Liabilities 111.6 124 -10%
Borrowings 1389.6 1544 -10%
Share Liabilities 1958 1628 20%
Other Liabilities 41.8 35 19%

Thus the correct answer is (B) Borrowings, Reserve Liabilities

Q50. What is the ratio of Reserve Liabilities (2008); Reserve Liabilities

(2007)?

A. 132:124
B. 13:12

42
C. 12:13
D. 31:33
E. 31:32

Step 1 - Put the figures into a ratio:

124:132 = 31:33

Thus the correct answer is (D) 31:33

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