MPHARMA (M PHARMA)

Q.1. In a very fine powder, all particles have to pass through sieve number
A). 80
B). 60
C). 100
D). 20

Q.2. Rate of settling in a suspension is determined by

A). Charles equation
B). Reynold’s equation
C). Stokes’ equation
D). Noyes Whitney equation

Q.3. Refractive index of a substance is defined as

A).

B).

C).

D).

Q.4. pH of a buffer solution can be calculated using

A). Stokes’ equation
B). Bragg’s equation
C). Van der Waals equation
D). Henderson-Hasselbalch equation

Q.5. The charge stabilization of a colloidal dispersion is described by

A). DLVO theory
B). Adsorption theory
C). Particulate matter theory
D). Solid interface theory

Q.6. Viscosity of non-Newtonian fluids can be determined using

A). Ostwald’s viscometer
B). Brookefield viscometer
C). Capillary viscometer
D). Falling ball viscometer

Q.7. Diseases and ailments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure is listed in
A). Schedule J
B). Schedule G
C). Schedule H
D). Schedule X

Q.8. Para-phenylenediamine is used in the formulation of

A). Shampoo
B). Hair bleach
C). Hair dye
D). Hair tonic

Q.9. An example of dimensionless equation is

A). rate of heat loss by conduction
B). rate of heat gain by convection
C). Reynold’s number
D). velocity

Q.10. The parameter not considered in ‘constant drying conditions’ is

A). viscosity
B). humidity
C). temperature
D). pressure

Q.11. According to pH-partition hypothesis, the process of drug absorption for molecules having molecular weight greater
than 100 is governed by
A). aqueous solubility of the drug in the stomach
B). octanol-water partition co-efficient of the drug
C). crystallinity of the drug
D). pKa of the drug, lipid solubility of unionized drug and pH at the absorption site

Q.12. Vd, apparent volume of distribution is given by the ratio

A).

B).

C).

D).

Q.13. The usual method approved by USP for preparing water for injection is
A). Reverse Osmosis
B). Osmosis
C). Distillation
D). Filtration

Q.14. The bloom usually ranges from

A). 900 to 1000 g
B). 500 to 1000 g
C). 50 to 100 g
D). 150 to 250 g

Q.15. As per ICH guidelines for stability testing, India falls under which climatic zone?
A). Zone I
B). Zone III
C). Zone IV
D). Zone II

Q.16. ISO 9002 is

A). quality assurance in final inspection and tests
B). guidelines for quality assurance in production and installation
C). guidelines for quality improvement
D). guidelines for quality plans

Q.17. Batch production records, after distribution has been completed, should be retained for a period of
A). 5 years
B). 4 years
C). 3 years
D). 1 year

Q.18. 21 CFR part 312 is

A). new drug application
B). institutional review board
C). orphan drugs
D). investigational new drug application

Q.19. Certificate of pharmaceutical product is issued by the regulatory authority of exporting country on the format
recommended by
A). ICH
B). WHO
C). CDSCO
D). USFDA

Q.20. SUPAC stands for

A). Scale Up and Pre Approval Changes
B). Scale Up and Post Accreditation Charges
C). Scale Up and Post Approval Changes
D). Scale Up and Pre Assessment Changes

Q.21. Permeation enhancers are used in transdermal drug delivery system to

A). alter the skin functions reversibly to favour drug absorption
B). cause imbalance in normal skin flora
C). increase the resistance of stratum corneum
D). increase the hydration of stratum corneum
Q.22. pH-triggered phase transition system is used in
A). oral drug delivery
B). ocular drug delivery
C). topical drug delivery
D). intra uterine drug delivery

Q.23. Corynebacteria are

A). gram negative non-acid fast
B). gram positive acid fast
C). gram positive non-acid fast
D). gram negative

Q.24. The oil immersion lens in combination with eyepiece lens magnifies the actual object size by
A). 10 times
B). 100 times
C). 10,000 times
D). 1000 times

Q.25. ‘Inscription’ in a prescription refers to

A). general body of the prescription
B). directions to the patient
C). directions to the dispenser
D). directions to the manufacturer

Q.26. Which one of the following is not used for moisture determination?
A). Loss on drying
B). Azeotropic distillation
C). Foreign material
D). Karl Fischer method

Q.27. Acicular crystals in medullary rays is one of the characters exhibited in the powder of
A). cinnamon
B). senna
C). coriander
D). ginger

Q.28. Volatile oils are extracted by which of the following methods?

A). Soxhlation
B). Clevenger apparatus
C). Refluxation
D). Maceration

Q.29. Which one of the following is the precursor for the synthesis of ornithine?
A). Phenylalanine
B). 3-phosphoglyceric acid
C). Asparatic acid
D). Glutamic acid

Q.30. Halphen’s test is one of the chemical tests meant for the detection of
A). volatile oils and fixed oils
B). fixed oils only
C). volatile oils only
D). clove oil

Q.31. Which of the following type of stomata is generally found in senna leaflets?
A). Paracytic
B). Cruciferous
C). Diacytic
D). Ranunculaceous

Q.32. Phenazone test identifies the presence of which class of compounds?

A). Carbohydrates
B). Resins
C). Tannins
D). Proteins

Q.33. Name the type of Resin present in Benzoin.

A). Oleoresin
B). Oleo-gum resin
C). Gum resins
D). Balsamic resin

Q.34. Which of the following plants belongs to the family-Apocynaceae?

A). Vinca
B). Opium
C). Belladonna
D). Cinchona

Q.35. Chemodemes are group of plants of a species which

A). are morphologically identical
B). are chemically identical
C). have identical morphology but differ in chemical nature
D). Both (a) and (b)

Q.36. The concept of Tridosha is referred to in

A). Homeopathy
B). Ayurveda
C). Unani
D). Naturopathy

Q.37. Pericarp is the outermost layer of

A). leaves
B). seeds
C). stems
D). fruits

Q.38. Warfarin is used as a

A). fungicide
B). rodenticide
C). herbicide
D). acaricide

Q.39. Which one of the following is the solid compact Ayurvedic preparation?
A). Gutika
B). Lehya
C). Asava
D). Bhasma

Q.40. A food with high fat and low protein and carbohydrate content is referred to as
A). phytoestrogens
B). processed dairy food
C). nutritional supplements
D). ketogenic diet

Q.41. Use of garlic during warfarin medication leads to

A). reduction of bleeding time
B). excessive drowsiness
C). increase the risk of bleeding
D). hepatotoxicity

Q.42. Which of the following substances is not a natural colourant?

A). Lawsone
B). Arbutin
C). Annatto
D). Betanin

Q.43. Which one of the following is as example of natural sweetener?

A). Aspartame
B). Sucralose
C). Osladin
D). Saccharin sodium

Q.44. The principle of partition is involved in which type of chromatographic methods?

A). Paper chromatography
B). Thin layer chromatography
C). High performance thin layer chromatography
D). Gel chromatography

Q.45. Medicago sativa is commonly referred to as

A). Chicory
B). Spirulina
C). Fenugreek
D). Alfalfa

Q.46. Section 33E as per D and C Act 1940 states the regulations on
A). adulteration
B). spurious drugs
C). misbranded drugs
D). manufacture and sale of A and U drugs

Q.47. Which one of the following constituents is from plant origin?

A). Keratin
B). Chitin
C). Muscle fiber
D). Cutin

Q.48. The stages of development in plants refers to

A).
 Ontogeny
B). Phylogeny
C). Progeny
D). Autogeny

Q.49. Trigonella foenum-graecum contains

A). tropane derivatives
B). purine derivatives
C). glyoxaline derivatives
D). pyridine derivatives

Q.50. Quantitative determination of sample components applied on the plates in HPTLC is by

A). fluorometry
B). scanning densitometry
C). colorimetry
D). turbidimetry

Q.51. Number of tarsal bones of foot is

A). 8
B). 6
C). 5
D). 7

Q.52. Nucleotides are made up of

A). Base+Sugar+P
B). Base+Sugar
C). Base+Phosphate+2 Sugar
D). Base+P

Q.53. Which of the following is called capacitance vessels?

A). Arteries
B). Veins
C). Capillaries
D). Arterioles

Q.54. Megaloblastic anaemia occurrs due to the deficiency of

A). vitamin D
B).

C).

D). vitamin C

Q.55. Gonadrotopin releasing hormone stimulates the release of

A). FSH
B). LSH
C). TSH
D). ACTH

Q.56. Lactogenic hormone is secreted from which lobe of pituitary gland?

A). Anterior lobe
B). Posterior lobe
C). Anterior and posterior lobes
D). Intermediate lobe

Q.57. Hormones that influence selective reabsorption are

A). TH+ADH
B). TH+ Erythropoietin
C). Parathyroid hormone+ADH
D). prolactin+ADH

Q.58. Bile juice passes into gall bladder through

A). pancreatic duct
B). cystic duct
C). hepatic duct
D). bile duct

Q.59. The maximum volume of air that can move into and out of the lungs is called
A). Total lung capacity
B). Alveolar ventilation
C). Vital capacity
D). Inspiratory reserve volume

Q.60. Hammer shaped auditory ossicle present in tympanic cavity is

A). malleus
B). incus
C). stapes
D). None of the above

Q.61. Receptors which show fastest pharmacological effect are called

A). kinase-linked receptors
B). ion channel receptors
C). nuclear receptors
D). G protein coupled receptors

Q.62. Therapeutic exploration is determined in which phase of clinical trial?

A). Phase I
B). Phase II
C). Phase III
D). Phase IV

Q.63. Surgical procedures are carried out at which stage of general anaesthesia?
A). Stage I
B). Stage II
C). Stage-III
D). Stage-IV

Q.64. Adrenaline is synthesized from which amino acid?

A). Tryptophan
B). Alanine
C). Glutamine
D). Phenylalanine

Q.65. Picking up of catecholamines from extra cellular space by the axoplasm of adrenergic nerves is called
A). uptake 1
B). uptake 2
C). uptake 3
D). uptake 4

Q.66. Phosphorylated enzyme complex of cholinesterase is formed by

A). Acetylcholine
B). Neostigmine
C). Parathion
D). Pyridostigmine

Q.67.

A). Isoprenaline
B). Orciprenaline
C). Salmeterol
D). Terbutaline

Q.68. Biphasic response of adrenaline was discoverd by

A). Paul Ehrlich
B). Alfred Gilman
C). Louie Gilman
D). Henry Dale

Q.69. An Example of NSAID-prodrug is

A). Indomethacin
B). Fenbufen
C). Naproxen
D). Ibuprofen

Q.70. The Cysteinyl leukotriene receptor antagonist drug used in allergic asthma is
A). Montelukast
B). Oxitropium
C). Aminophylline
D). Enprofylline

Q.71. Ischemia due to fixed atheromatous stenosis of one or more coronary arteries is called
A). Stable angina
B). M1
C). Arrhythmia
D). Heart failure

Q.72. Bruton’s X-linked agammaglobulinemia is caused due to

A). Defective B cells
B). Defective T cells
C). Both Defective B and T cells
D). Deficiency of Igs

Q.73. How many pairs of true ribs are present in thoracic cage?
A). 8
B). 10
C). 11
D). 12
Q.74. _______ is an increase in the number of parenchymal cells resulting in enlargement of organs or tissue.
A). Hypertrophy
B). Dysplasia
C). Hyperplasia
D). Metaplasia

Q.75. Site of synthesis of chylomicrons is/are

A). Liver
B). Liver and macrophage
C). Liver and intestine
D). Liver, intestine and macrophage

Q.76.

A). first order

B). second order
C). pseudo order
D). zero order

Q.77. Stability of carbocations of the alkyl groups follows the order

A).

B).

C).

D). None of the above

Q.78. 1,2- elimination reactions are characterized by which of the following?

A). Substrate containing a leaving group
B). Substrate containing atom group near hydrogen
C). Reaction is brought about by action at a base
D). All of the above

Q.79. Which of the following groups are electronic withdrawing in nature in aromatic electrophilic substitution reaction?
A).

B).

C).

D).

Q.80. Conversion of arenes to non-conjugated cyclohexadienes follows

A). Clemmensen reduction
B). Beckmann rearrangement
C). Birch reduction
D). Claisen-Schmidt condensation

Q.81. Feist – Benary synthesis of furan derivatives involves the condensation of

A). Beta-Chloro-ketone with Alpha-ketoester in presence of pyrimidine
B). Alpha-Chloro-ketone with Beta-ketoester in presence of pyrimidine
C). Beta-Chloro-ketone with Alpha-ketoester in presence of pyridine
D). Alpha-Chloro-ketone with Beta-ketoester in presence of pyridine

Q.82. The role of nitrobenzene in skraup synthesis of Quinoline is

A). halogenation
B). oxidation
C). reduction
D). nitration

Q.83. Which of the following is the sulfonamide containing diuretic?

A). isosorbide
B). benzamide
C). ethacrynic acid
D). acetazolamide

Q.84. Which of the following heterocycles is present in Doxylamine succinate?

A). Pyridine
B). Pyrimidine
C). Pyrrole
D). Piperidine

Q.85. Pralidoxime chloride is used as an antidote for

A). organophosphate poisoning
B). aspirin poisoning
C). tetracycline poisoning
D). paracetamol poisoning

Q.86. Codeine is chemically a

A). diacetylmorphine
B). methoxy morphine
C). dimethoxy morphine
D). methyl dihydromorphinone

Q.87. 6-Aminopenicillanic acid is biosynthetically derived from which of the amino acids?
A). L-Alanine and L-Glycine
B). L-Histidine and L-Valine
C). L-methionine and L-Valine
D). L-Cysteine and L-Valine

Q.88. Streptomycin on hydrolysis gives

A). N-methyl-L-Glucosamine + Streptidine + L-ribose
B). N-methyl-L-Glucosamine + Streptidine + L-streptose
C). N-Ethyl-L-Glucosamine + Streptidine + L-ribose
D). N-Ethyl-L-Glucosamine + Streptidine + L-streptose

Q.89. The hydrocarbon system, an octahydro-naphthacene is present in

A). tetracyclines
B). penicillins
C). steroids
D). aminoglycolides

Q.90. The solvents used in NMR are

A). deuterochloroform
B). hexadeuterodimethyl sulfoxide
C). deuterium oxide
D). All of the above

Q.91. The phenomenon of phosphorescence can be observed in

A). liquids
B). solids
C). fluids
D). solutions

Q.92. In IR, carbonyl group of COOH is absorbed at the wavenumber of

A).

B).

C).

D).

Q.93. The composition of Kieselguhr G is

A). polyamide
B). silica gel without binder
C). diatomaceous earth with calcium sulphate
D). aluminium oxide without binder

Q.94. The composition of yellow glass filters used in monochlomators is

A). cadmium sulphide + cadmium selemide
B). cobalt
C). copper
D). cadmium sulphide

Q.95. Mathematically, Ilkovic equation is

A).

B).

C).

D).

Q.96. The antidotes used in the treatement of cyanide poisoning are

A). charcoal + potassium permanganate
B). sodium tetrathionate + sodium nitrate
C). sodium sulphate + sodium thiosulphate
D). sodium thiosulphate + sodium nitrite

Q.97. Standard Iron Solution used in the limit test for Iron is
A). ferric ammonium sulphate
B). ferrous ammonium sulphate
C). ferric hydroxide
D). ferrous hydroxide

Q.98. The net ATP produced by the aerobic glycolysis of a glucose molecule is
A). 30
B). 38
C). 36
D). 34

Q.99. _____ is the source of the steroid hormones formed in the gonads and adrenal cortex.
A). Choline
B). Adrenaline
C). Dopamine
D). Cholesterol

Q.100. The sulfur atom at cysteine is obtained uniquely from which of the essential amino acids?
A). Methionine
B). Histidine
C). Phenylalanine
D). Tyrosine