06 - 11 - 2022 Batch: FT.

23 ONLINE
STUDY CENTRE REPEATERS NEET EXAMINATION
Puliyannoor P.O., PALA
Ph - 04822 206416, 206516, 206459 PHYSICS + CHEMISTRY + BIOLOGY
www.brilliantpala.org

PHYSICS - Mechanical Properties of Solids & fluids

1. A breaking stress of a material is 106 N/m2. If the density of the material is 3 × 103 kg/m3. What should be
the length of the material so that it breaks by its own weight? (g = 10 m/s2)
1) 0.33 m 2) 3.33 m 3) 33.3 m 4) 333.3 m

2. The figure shows a graph of the extension    of a wire of length 1m suspended from the top of a roof
at one end and with a load W connected the other end. If the cross sectional area of the wire is 10-6 m2, the
Young’s modulus of the material of the wire is

1) 2  1011 N / m 2 2) 2  1011 N / m 2 3) 3  1012 N / m 2 4) 3  1012 N / m 2

3. Two wires of equal cross section but one made of steel and other of copper, are joined end to end when
the combination is kept under tension, the elongations in the two wires are found to be equal. Find the ratio
of the lengths of the two wires. (Young’s modulus of steel 2  1011 N / m 2 and that of copper =
1.1  1011 N / m 2 )
1) 10 :11 2) 10 : 21 3) 20 : 11 4) 11 : 18
4. The stress - strain graph for two wires A and B are given in figure. If YA and YB represents the youngs
modulus of the materials of these wires, then

1) YA = 2YB 2) YB = 2YA 3) YB = 3YA 4) YA = 3YB

5. Two wires of equal length and cross-section area suspended as shown in figure. Their Young’s modulus
are Y1 and Y2 respectively. The equivalent Young’s modulus will be:

Y1  Y2 Y1Y2
1) Y1  Y2 2) 3) Y  Y 4) Y1Y2
2 1 2
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6. The poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.4. If a force is applied to a wire of this material, there is a decrease of
cross - sectional area by 2%. The percentage increase in its length is :
1) 3% 2) 2.5% 3) 1% 4) 0.5%
7. Two wires of same material and length but diameter in the ratio 1 : 2 are stretched by the same force. The
potential energy per unit volume for the two wires when stretched will be in the ratio
1) 16 : 1 2) 4 : 1 3) 2 : 1 4) 1 : 1
8. In a hydraulic lift, the radius of the large and small pistons are in the ratio 20 : 1. What weight placed on the
small piston will be sufficient to lift a car of mass 1500 kg.
1) 3.75 kg 2) 37.5 kg 3) 7.5 kg 4) 75 kg
9. A vessel contains oil (density 0.8 g/cm3) over mercury (density 13.6 g/cm3). A homogenous sphere
floats with half volume immersed in mercury and the other half in oil. The density of the material of
the sphere in g/cm3 is
1) 3.3 2) 6.4 3) 7.2 4) 12.8
10. Two wires of same material and radius but having lengths in the ratio of 1 : 2 are stretched with same force.
Then ratio of work done in two cases is
1) 1 : 4 2) 1 : 2 3) 1 : 3 4) 1 : 1
11. A metal cube of side 10cm is subjected to a shearing stress of 104 Nm–2. Calculate the modulus of rigidity
if the top of the cube is displaced by 0.05 cm with respect to its bottom
1) 2  106 Nm 2 2) 5 106 Nm 2 3) 8  106 Nm 2 4) 9  106 Nm 2
12. A U tube contains water and methylated spirit separated by mercury. The mercury columns in the two
arms are in level with 10cm of water in one arm and 12.5 cm of spirit in the other. What is the relative
density of spirit ?
1) 1.6 2) 3.2 3) 0.4 4) 0.8
13. A body floats with 1/3 of its volume outside water and 3/4 of its volume inside another liquid, the density
of another liquid
1) 999 Kg/m3 2) 888 Kg/m3 3) 777 kg/m3 4) 666 Kg/m3
14. A raft of wood of density 600K g m–3 of mass 120Kg floats in water. How much weight can be put on the
raft to make it just sink?
1) 200Kg 2) 120Kg 3) 40Kg 4) 80Kg
th
4
15. A block of wood floats in water with   of its volume submerged. If the same block just floats in a
5
liquid, the density of the liquid (in kg m–3) is
1) 1250 2) 600 3) 400 4) 800
16. A sample of metal weighs 210 g in air, 140 g in water and 120g in an unknown liquid. Then
1) the density of the metal is 3g/cm3
2) the density of the metal is 7g/cm3
3) density of the metal is 4 times the density of unknown liquid
4) the metal still float in water
FT23R/NEET/TP/PCB 3 STUDY CENTRE

17. Bulk modulus of water is 2  109N/m2 . The pressure required to increase the density of water by 0.1% in
N/m2 is
1) 2  109 2) 2  108 3) 2  106 4) 2  104
18. When a weight W is hung from one end of the wire. Other end being fixed, the elongation produced in it be
 . If this wire goes over a pulley and two weights W each are hung at the two ends, the elongation of the
wire will be
1) 4  2) 2  3)  4)  /2
19. Load -extension graph for five wires A, B, C, D and E of the same material are shown in figure. The
thinnest wire is represented by the line

1) OA 2) OB 3) OE 4) OC
20. A ball falling in a lake of depth 200m shows decrease 0.1% in its volume at the bottom. What is the bulk
modulus of the material of the ball ?
1) 19.6 108 N / m 2 2) 19.6 10 10 N / m 2 3) 19.6  1010 N / m 2 4) 19.6  10 8 N / m 2

21. When a force is applied on a wire of uniform cross-sectional area 3 106 m 2 and length 4m, the increase
in length is 1mm. Energy stored in it will be (Y = 2 1011 N / m2 )
1) 6250 J 2) 0.177 J 3) 0.075 J 4) 0.150 J
22. A boat having length of 3m and breadth 2m is floating on a lake. The boat sinks by 1cm when a man gets
on it. The mass of the man is:
1) 65 kg 2) 60 kg 3) 70 kg 4) 78 kg
23. The liquids shown in the U - tube of uniform cross-section are water and mercury. If the difference of the
heights of the mercury columns is 2cm, then the height h of the water column is

1) 6.8 cm 2) 13.6 cm 3) 27.2 cm 4) 54 cm

24. Bernoullis theorem gives conservation of
1) Mass 2) Momentum 3) Energy 4) Volume
25. A force F is required to break a wire of length l and radius r. What force is required to break a wire of the
same material having twice the length and 6 times the radius.
1) F 2) 3F 3) 9F 4) 36F
26. A polyster fibre rope of diameter 3cm has a breaking strength of 150 KN. If it is required to have 600 KN
breaking strength. The diameter of similar rope should be
1) 12 cm 2) 6 cm 3) 3 cm 4) 1.5 cm
FT23R/NEET/TP/PCB 4 STUDY CENTRE

27. Two rain drops reach the earth with different terminal velocities having ratio 9 : 4. Then the ratio of their
volume is:
1) 3 : 2 2) 3 : 4 3) 4 : 9 4) 27 : 8
28. A small sphere of volume V falling in a viscous fluid acquires a terminal velocity Vt. The terminal velocity of
a sphere of volume 8V of the same material and falling in the same fluid will be

Vt
1) 2) Vt 3) 2Vt 4) 4 Vt
2
29. Air is pushed into a soap bubble of radius R to triple its radius. If the surface tension of the soap solution
is S, the work done in the process is

1) 72 SR 2 2) 64 SR 2 3) 36 SR 2 4) 32 SR 2

30. A soap bubble of diameter 8 mm is formed in air. The surface tension of liquid is 30 dyne/cm. The excess
pressure inside the soap bubble is:
1) 150 dyne/cm2 2) 300 dyne/cm2 3) 3 x 10–3 dyne/cm2 4) 12 dyne/cm2
CHEMISTRY :-s-block elements
31. Which of the following statement about the sulphate of alkali metal is correct?
1) Except Li2SO4 all sulphate of other alkali metals are soluble in water
2) All sulphate salts of alkali metals except lithium sulphate forms alum
3) All sulphate salts of alkali metal except lithium sulphate do not decomposes at high temperature
4) All of these
32. Which of the following is correct
1) Solubility : BeSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4 2) Reducing character : Li < Na < K < Rb < Cs
3) Thermal stability : BeCO3 > MgCO3 > CaCO3 4) M.P. : LiF > NaF > KF > RbF

33. Li  N 2   A 
H 2O
 B  (C) gas . Then the correctly matched pair for A, B, C are :
1) A - LiN3, B - LiOH, C - NH3 2) A - LiN3, B - LiH, C - NO2
3) A - Li3N, B - LiOH, C - NO2 4) A - Li3N, B - LiOH, C - NH3
34. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below
List I List II
i. NaNO3 a. Baking soda
ii. Na2B4O7.10H2O b. Chile salt peter
iii. NaHCO3 c. Borax
iv. Na2CO3. 10H2O d. Washing soda
1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d 2) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d 3) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d 4) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c
35. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
List I List II
a. [Be(OH)4]2– p. Amphoteric
b. BeF2 q. Tetrahedral
c. Be(OH)2 r. Polymeric
d. MgO s. NaCl type structure
1) a-q, b-r, c-p, d-s 2) a-r, b-p, c-q, d-s 3) a-p,, b-q, c-r, d-s 4) a-s, b-r, c-p, d-q
FT23R/NEET/TP/PCB 5 STUDY CENTRE

36. Which is not true for alkali metals ?

1) ns1 electronic configuration with Low IE & most electropositive
2) silvery white metals due to free oscillation of electrons
3) Hydration enthalpy: Li+> Na+ > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+
4)Ionic mobility: Li+>Na+>K+>Rb+>Cs+
37. The correct order of density is
1) Li > Na 2) K > Na 3) Mg > Ca 4) Cs < Rb
38. Which is incorrect with regard to chemical properties of group 1 metals?
1) They react with water; least reactive is Li
2) They also react with proton donors like alcohol & alkynes
3) Don’t form ionic hydrides of high M. P.
4) react vigorously to form ionic halides except Li
39. Match suitably the alkali metal halides (List I) with their properties (in List II)
List I List II
1) LiF, CsI a) Soluble in pyridine
2) LiCl b) Insoluble in H2O
3) LiI + KF  LiF + KI c) Maximum yield of KI

4) H of of fluorides of group I d) becomes less negative

5) H of for Cl-, Br- and I- of group I e) reverse to that of fluorides

6) MF > MCl > MBr > MI f) Colour of crystalline solid with high H of
g) M. P. and B. P.
Code
1 2 3 4 5 6
1) a b c d e g
2) e d c b f g
3) b a c d e g
4) f a b d e g
40. 1. Lithium burns in air to produce Li2O and Li3N
2. LiCl is hydrated; other alkali metal chlorides are n’t
3. LiHCO3 can’t exist as solid whereas other bicarbonates are solids
4. Both LiNO3 and LiOH decompose on heating
5. Li2CO3 decomposes on heating, other carbonates don’t
6. The extraction of lithium is by coke reduction with hydrated condition
Code
1) 1 - 3 are correct 2) 3 - 5 are correct
3) all correct 4) only 6 is incorrect
FT23R/NEET/TP/PCB 6 STUDY CENTRE

41. The following statements is not related to NaHCO3 (Baking soda).

1) It is prepared by heating sodium metal on Al trays in air free from CO2
2) It decomposes to give bubbles of CO2
3) can be prepared by passing CO2 through Aq. Na2CO3
4) mild antiseptic called siedlitz powder
42. Which is/are incorrect?
a) K2CO3 canot be prepared by solvay process because the solubility of KHCO3 is fairly large as compared
to NaHCO3
b) Engel Salt is used in hard glass & Soft soap preparation and Manufactured by Leblanc process

c) Soda ash with water gives OH- and HCO 3 which can’t exist together in aq. medium
d) CsBr exists as Cs+ and Br- in aq. medium
e) Glauber’s salt and salt cake are same
f) Monovalent Na and K ions & Divalent Ca & Mg ions are present in large proportions in biological fluids
with manifold functions
1) only d, e 2) c, d 3) a to d 4) a to f
43. Which is incorrect pair?
1) Na2CO3 + K2CO3 - Fusion mixture
2) NaCl + NaClO - Bleaching mixture
3) Sand + NaHCO3 - Drypowder fire extinguisher
4) NaHCO3 + Dil. H2SO4 - Foamite oil fire extinguisher
44. The correct statement for the molecule CsI3 is

1) It is a covalent molecule 2) It contains Cs+ and I3 ions in aq. medium

3) It contails Cs3+ and I– ions 4) It contains Cs+, I– and lattice I2 molecules
45. Match correctly
List I List II
1) 14% Li with Mg a) Oxone
2) Na2O2 b) Aromour Plate & Aerospace components
3) Et4Pb c) Liq. Na or its alloy with K
4) Nuclear coolant d) is used by Astronauts
5) LiOH e) Sodium - lead alloy
6) KO2 f) Electrodes in photoelectric cells
7) Cs and K g) rebreathing gas mask & submarines, yellow & p - magnetic
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
1) b f e c d g a
2) b a e c d g f
3) b a e c f g d
4) b a c e d g f
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46. Matrix Match:
List I List II
A) Be and Mg P) Deep blue black solutions
B) Best route for the preparation of BeF2 Q) Kinetically inert to O2 and water
C) BeCl2(s) R) Burns brilliantly to give oxide & nitride
D) Group 2 in Liq. NH3 S) Conveniently made from BeO and has dimeric or
polymeric forms
E) BeH2 T) Prepared from BeCl2 with LiAlH4 & polymeric
U) Thermal Decomposition of (NH4)2BeF4
A B C D E
1) P Q R S T
2) Q R P S T
3) Q, R U S P T
4) Q, R S U P T
47. A compound X occurs in nature in several forms, on heating gives a colourless gas. The residue with water
gives Y which reacts with chlorine. Excess CO2 when passed through Aq. soln of Y gives Z; Z on gentle
heating gives back X. It is used in quality paper, chewing gum & filler in cosmetics X is:
1) Ca(HCO3)2 2) CaCO3 3) CaCl2 4) Ca(OH)2
48. Hybridisation of BeCl2 in vapour state at 1000°C and in solid state respectively are
1) sp2, sp3 2) sp, sp2 3) sp, sp3 4) sp, sp
49. The correct sequence of increasing covalent character is represented by
1) BeCl2 < NaCl < LiCl 2) NaCl < LiCl < BeCl2
3) BeCl2 < LiCl < NaCl 4) LiCl < NaCl < BeCl2
50. Alkali metals have high oxidation potential and hence they behave as
1) Oxidising agents 2) Lewis bases 3) Reducing agents 4) Electrolytes
51. Which is paramagnetic :
1) Na2O2 2) O3 3) Na2O 4) KO2
52. A metal M readily forms water soluble sulphate MSO4, water insoluble hydroxide M (OH)2 and oxide
MO which becomes inert on heating. The hydroxide is soluble in NaOH. The M is
1) Be 2) Mg 3) Ca 4) Sr
53. A sodium salt of unknown anion when treated with aqueous solution of MgCl2 gives white ppt only on
boiling. The unknown anion is :

1) SO 24 2) HCO3 3) CO32 4) NO 3

54. A piece of Magnesium ribbon was heated to redness in an atmosphere of nitrogen and then cooled with
water. The gas evolved is :
1) Ammonia 2) Hydrogen 3) Nitrogen 4) Oxygen
55. When washing soda is heated :
1) CO is released 2) CO + CO2 is released
3) CO2 is released 4) Water vapour is released
FT23R/NEET/TP/PCB 8 STUDY CENTRE
56. The increasing order of the density of alkali metals is
1) Li  K  Na  Rb  Cs 2) Li  Na  K  Rb  Cs
3) Cs  Rb  Na  K  Li 4) Cs  Rb  K  Na  Li
57. The products obtained on heating LiNO3 will be

1) LiNO2  O 2 2) Li 2 O  NO 2  O2 3) Li3 N  O 2 4) Li 2 O  NO  O 2
58. When K2O is added to water, the solution is basic because it contains a significant concentration of

1) O 22  2) O 3 3) OH– 4) K+
59. Which of the following gives propyne on hydrolysis ?
1) Al4C3 3) Mg2C3 3) B4C 4) La4C3
60. Alkaline earth metal nitrates on heating decompose to give
1) M(NO2)2 and O2 only 2) MO, N2 and O2
3) MO, NO2 and O2 4) MO and NO2 only
BIOLOGY :- Cell the unit of life, Living world
61. The outermost layer of the cell envelope in a bacterium is called
1) Cell wall 2) Cell membrane 3) Glycocalyx 4) Genophore
62. The site of light reactions is :
1) Grana 2) Stroma 3) Matrix 4) Lumen
63. Cell theory as understood today is:
1) all living organisms are composed of cells and products of cells
2) all cells arise from pre-existing cells
3) cells are joined together to form tissues
4) Both 1 and 2
64. Nucleus was discovered by
1) Robert Brown 2) Robert Hooke 3) Flemming 4) Alfonso Corti
65. Smallest living cells known:
1) Viroids 2) Viruses 3) Prions 4) Mycoplasma
66. Match the following
a) Coccus 1. Comma shaped
b) Bacillus 2. Rod like
c) Vibrio 3. Spiral
d) spirillum 4. spherical

a bcd a bcd a bcd a bcd

1) 2) 3) 4)
4213 1234 4321 2143
67. Prokaryotic ribosomes are made of two subunits:
1) 50 s and 30 s 2) 40 s and 30 s 3) 60 s and 40 s 4) 50 s and 40 s
68. In plants peroxisomes are associated with
1) Phototropism 2) Photosynthesis 3) Photoperiodism 4) Photorespiration
FT23R/NEET/TP/PCB 9 STUDY CENTRE

69. Fluid mosaic model is :

1) A proposed structure of cell membrane 2) A hypothetical model for cell wall
3) A model of centriole structure 4) A structure of nucleus
70. Bacterial flagellum is composed of
1) filament 2) hook 3) basal body 4) all
71. Which of the following is not a function of cell wall:
1) Given shape to the cell 2) Protein synthesis
3) Helps in cell to cell interaction 4) Protection
72. Sites of aerobic respiration ?
1) Lysosome 2) Glyoxisomes 3) Peroxisomes 4) Mitochondria
73. Match the following
Column I Column II
a. Cristae 1. Flat membraneous sacs in stroma
b. Cisternae 2. Infoldings in mitochondria
c. Thylakoids 3. Disc shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
a bc a bc a bc a bc
1) 2) 3) 4)
123 321 231 213
74. Which among the following is a eukaryotic cells
1) Bacteria 2) Blue green algae 3) Mycoplasma 4) Fungus
75. Cytoplasm of one plant cell is continuous with that of adjacent one through :
1) Pits 2) Plasmodesmata
3) Endoplasmic reticulum 4) Middle lamella
76. Arrange the following cells in ascending order of their size and select the correct option.
I. Mycoplasma II. Bacteria III. Human RBCs IV. Ostrich eggs
1) I  II  III  IV 2) I  IV  III  II
3) II  I  IV  III 4) I  II  IV  III
77. ‘Cart wheel’ structure is shown by
1) Centrioles 2) Axoneme
3) Prokaryotic basalbody 4) Both 2 and 3
78. Kinetochores are used for the :
1) attachment of spindle fibres on chromosomes 2) Cell wall formation
3) Synthesis of proteins 4) Transport of molecules in cell
79. Semi-autonomous organelle in the cell is
1) Peroxisomes 2) Chloroplast 3) Golgi bodies 4) Ribosomes
80. Which of the following is true regarding plasma membrane in eukaryotes :
I) selectively permeable II) Proteins are integral or peripheral
III) Allow solvent and certain solutes IV) Quasifluid nature
V) Semipermeable
1) II, IV, V 2) Only IV & V 3) Only I, II and IV 4) All except V
FT23R/NEET/TP/PCB 10 STUDY CENTRE

81. Which of the following groups consists of organisms which multiply by fragmentation
1) Amoeba, Earthworm, Fungi 2) Earthworm, Amoeba, Bacteria
3) Fungi, Filamentous algae, protonema of moss 4) Amoeba, Hydra, Bacteria
82. Total number of Microtubules in a centrosome:
1) 9 2) 27 3) 13 4) 54
83. Which of the following a non- membranous cell organelles:
1) Ribosome 2) Endoplasmic Reticulum
3) Golgi bodies 4) Peroxisome
84. Largest cell organell in animal cell:
1) Endoplasmic Reticulum 2) Golgi complex
3) Mitochondria 4) Peroxisome
85. Regarding plant cell wall, which layer provide mechanical strength to the cell:
1) Primary wall 2) Secondary wall 3) Tertiary wall 4) Both 1 & 2
86. Middle lamella deposited in:
1) Between primary wall and plasma membrane 2) Between primary wall and secondary wall
3) Between primary wall and Tertiary wall 4) Between primary wall of adjacent cells
87. Diameter of golgi bodies:
1) 0.5m to 1m 2) 0.2m  1m 3) 1.0  4.1m 4) 0.02  0.2m
88. How many of the following organelles possess only a single membrane:
I) Golgi bodies II) Peroxisome III) Mitochondria IV) Ribosome
V) Lysosome VI) Endoplasmic reticulum
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
89. Important site for the formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids is:
1) Lysosomes 2) Golgi apparatus 3) Plastids 4) ER
90. The main arena of various type of activities of a cell is:
1) Nucleus 2) Cytoplasm 3) Mitochondria 4) Chromosome
91. Which among the following sentence is wrong about the feature of a mesosome :
1) These are extensions of plasma membrane and are in the form of vesicles tubules and lamellae
2) Mesosomes help in cell wall formation
3) They help in DNA replication and their distribution to daughter cell
4) They contain photosynthetic pigment in the case of autotrophic forms
92. Which among the following description is wrong about ribosome :
1) Palade granule 2) RNP particle
3) Smallest organelle 4) Autonomous organelle
93. Read the following options and identify the location where ribosome is absent :
1) Freely in cytoplasm 2) Prokaryotic protoplasm
3) Matrix of Mitochondria 4) Matrix of Golgi bodies
94. The arrangement of microtubule in the filament of cilia and flagella is :
1) 9 + 2 2) 9 + 0 3) 9 + 1 4) 2 + 0
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95. I. It is a membrane bound space found in the cytoplasm

II. It is bound by a single membrane called tonoplast
III. It contains water, sap, excretory products and other materials not useful to the cell
The above statements apply to
1) Golgi apparatus 2) Lysosome 3) ER 4) Vacuoles
96. Which among the following type of chromosome contain two slightly unequal arms :
1) Metacentric 2) Sub-metacentric 3) Acrocentric 4) Telocentric
97. Read the following sentences and identify the wrong one :
1) Prokaryote contains only 70s ribosomes
2) Eukaryote contains only 80s ribosome
3) Eukaryote contain 80s and 70s ribosome
4) 70s ribosome is present both in prokaryote and eukaryote
98. The sum total of all the chemical reactions occuring in our body is
1) Metabolism 2) Reproduction 3) Fragmentation 4) Both 1 and 2
99. Which of the following is seen only in prokaryotic cells ?
1) Dictyosome 2) Ribosome 3) Mesosome 4) Endoplasmic reticulum
100. Bristle like structure which help the bacteria to attach to various surfaces
1) Basal body 2) Hook 3) Filament 4) Fimbriae
101. Endomembrane system does not include:
1) ER 2) Golgi complex 3) Lysosome 4) Mitochondria
102. RER differs from SER in the presence of
1) DNA 2) Nucleus 3) Ribosomes 4) Ergastic substances
103. Match the following with correct combination
a) Amyloplast 1) Colourless plastids
b) Elaioplast 2) Store starch
c) Aleuroplast 3) Store protein granules
d) Leucoplast 4) Store oils and fats
5) Contain coloured pigment other than chlorophyll

abcd abcd abcd abcd

1) 2) 3) 4)
5421 2431 4312 3124
104. The proteinaceous central part of the centriole is called
1) Spokes 2) Axoneme 3) Hub 4) Hook
105. The term ‘Chromatin’ was given by
1) Robert Brown 2) Robert Hook 3) Schleiden 4) Flemming
106. _________ is directly connected to the outer nuclear membrane
1) Mitochondria 2) Golgibody 3) ER 4) Chloroplast
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Assertion and Reason

1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
107. Assertion : Metacentric chromosomes are V-shaped.
Reason : In these chromosomes the centromere occurs in the center forming two equal arms.
108. Choose the correct sequence in the hierarchy of taxonomic categories in descending order.
1) Species - Genus - Family - Order - Class - Division
2) Division - Class - Family - Order - Genus - Species
3) Species - Genus - Family - Class - Order - Division
4) Division - Class - Order - Family - Genus - Species
109. Complete the table

Mango a Anacardiaceae b Dicotyledonae Angiospermae

c Triticum aestivum d e Monocotyledonae Angiospermae

1) a - Musca domestica, b - Polymoniales, c - Rice, d - Poaceae, e - Poales

2) a - Mangifera indica, b - Sapindales, c - Wheat, d - Poaceae, e - Poales
3) a - Manihot esculentus, b - Diptera, c - Brinjal, d - Muscidae, e - Poales
4) a - Mangifera indica, b - Poales, c - Rice, d - Poaceae, e - Sapindales
110. Aggregation of closely related species is known as:-
1) Family 2) Genus 3) Order 4) Class
111. Datura comes under the family:-
1) Solanaceae 2) Fabaceae 3) Anacardiaceae 4) Poaceae
112. In case of plants, classes with a few similar characters are assigned to a higher category called:-
1) Order 2) Phylum 3) Kingdom 4) Division
113. The biological name of wheat is :-
1) Panthera tigris 2) Solanum melongena
3) Cocos nucifera 4) Triticum aestivum
114. Place of ex-situ protected area of wild animals:-
1) Herbarium 2) Botanical garden 3) Museum 4) Zoological park
115. Which of the following names is correctly written in Binomial nomenclature?
1) APIS INDICA 2) Mangifera Indica 3) Panthera Leo 4) Solanum tuberosum
116. Herbarium means
1) Collection of living plants for reference
2) Collection of preserved plants and animals for study
3) Place where wild animals are kept in protected environments under human care
4) A store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets.
FT23R/NEET/TP/PCB 13 STUDY CENTRE

117. Which is not a rule in nomenclature?

1) Biological names are generally in Latin
2) The first name represents in the species and second name represents genus
3) Both the names are sparately underlined
4) The first name starts with capital letter
118. Which is useful in providing information for identification of names of species found in an area?
1) Flora 2) Monograph 3) Manuals 4) Catalogues
119. Which of the following is wrongly matched pair about organisms and its common reproductive mechanism:
1) Bacteria - Binary fission 2) Fungi - Asexual spores
3) Yeast - Fragmentation 4) Hydra - Budding
120. Mangifera indica Linn,here Linn indicates.
1) The species was first described by Linnaeus 2) Linn is a sub spcies of spices mangifera indica
3) Linn is origin of centre 4) Both 1 and 2
FT23R/NEET/TP/PCB 14 STUDY CENTRE
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PHYSICS - Mechanical Properties of Solids & fluids

weight mg Vdg ALdg breaking stresss

1. 3 Stress      Ldg ; L 
area A A A dg

W
stress A W  4  10 4 m
2. 1 Y = strain    A ; Slope of the graph is
 
N
 W 80

 Stress
  stress Ls 2
3. 3 Ls 2  1011 N ;  2 ;
  20 :11
m 2 Lc 1.1  10 N / m Lc 1.1
11

4. 4
5. 2
A 2D D 1 A 1
6. 2 A  D2 / 4 ; A  D ; D  2 A  2  2  1% ;

D / D l D / D 1
 ;    2.5%
l / l l  0.4
7. 1
8. 1
9. 3 Weight of sphere = weight of mercury displaced + weight of oil displaced

V v 13.6  0.8
Vg  13.6  g   0.8  g ;   7.2g / cm3
2 2 2
1
 F  l1
w1 2 l l 1
  1  1 
10. 2 w 2 1  F  l l2 l2 2
2
2

shearing stress 104 104

   2 106 Nm2
11. 1 Modulus of rigidity = shearing strain 0.05 0.005
10
12. 4 For water column in one arm of U tube; h1 = 10cm, 1 = 1 gcm-3
For spirit column in other arm of tube; h2 = 12.5cm; 2 = ?

h11 
h11g = h22g or 2 =  0.8gcm 1 ; Relative density = 2   0.8
12.5 1

2 3
13. 2 v  1000  g  v  d  g
3 4
FT23R/NEET/TP/PCB 2 STUDY CENTRE

14. 4
15. 4
weight of body in air 210 210
16. 1 Specific gravity = =  3
weight of water displaced 210  140 70
Density of body = sp. gravity × density of water = 3 × 1 g/cm3 = 3g/cm3

stress P PV BV
17. 3 B  ; B P
vol.strain v / V V V

W L WL
18. 3 Y=  or   ; When wire goes over a pulley and W is attached then tension in the wire
A  YA
L
2W.
is doubled but on same length of wire is reduced to half;   2 
YA
19. 1

P hg
K   200 103  9.8 1000  19.6 108 N / m2
20. 1 V 0.1
V 100

1  YA 2 
21. 3 U = 2 L 
 
22. 2
2 2  13.6
23. 3 h  1000  g   13600  g ; h   27.2cm
100 100
24. 3
25. 4
F2 A 2 D 22 600
26. 2   ; D2  3  6cm
F1 A1 D12 150
27. 4
2/3
4 3  3V 
2/ 3
 3V 
2/ 3
 3 
 8V 
2/ 3
28. 4 Vt = Kr2; V = r ; r2    ; Vt = K   V2/3; Vt  K  4   4Vt
3  4   4 
29. 2 Initial energy E1 = 8  R 2s ; Final energy E2 = S  4(3R)2  2  72  R 2S

Workdone = 72  R 2S  8R S  64  R 2S

4  30
30. 2 Excess pressure = 4S/R = = 300 dyne/cm2
4  101
CHEMISTRY :-s-block elements
31. 4. I, II, III statement are correct
32. 1 Solubility of sulphate decrease down group 2 with decrease in hydration energy

33. 4 Li  N 2 
 Li3 N 
H2O
 LiOH  NH 3
A  Lithium Nitride B C
FT23R/NEET/TP/PCB 3 STUDY CENTRE

34. 2 (i) NaNO3 (Chile salt peter) (ii) Na2B4O7. 10H2O (Borax)
(iii) NaHCO3 (Baking soda (iv) Na2CO3.10H2O (Washing soda)
35. 1 (a) [Be(OH)4]2– (Tetrahedral) (b) BeF2 (Polymeric)
(c) Be(OH)2 (Amphoteric) (d) MgO
(NaCl type structure)
36. 4
37. 3
38. 3
39. 3
40. 4
41. 1
42. 1
O
43. 4 NaClO  H 2 O  HOCl  HCl 
nascent oxygen

Nascent oxygen acts as bleaching agent

44. 2 CSI insoluble in water but CSI3 soluble in H2O
45. 2
46. 3
47. 2
48. 3
49. 2
50. 3 Since they have high oxidation potential hence will undergo oxidation readily hence can act as
good reducing agents.
51. 4 O2– is paramagnetic due to the presence of unpaired electrons
52. 1 M is Be, which forms water soluble BeSO4, water insoluble Be(OH)2 and BeO. Be (OH)2 is
soluble in NaOH giving sodium beryllate Na2BeO2
53. 2 The anion is HCO3 which gives the reaction as follows

 Mg  HCO3 2  2NaCl
2NaHCO3  MgCl 2 

Mg  HCO3 2 

 MgCO3  CO 2  H 2O
white ppt


54. 1 3Mg  N 2   Mg 3 N 3 (Magnesium nitride)

Mg 3 N 2  6H 2O  3Mg(OH) 2  2NH 3

Na 2 CO3 .10H 2 O   Na 2 CO3 .H 2 O  9H 2 O
55. 4 (washing soda)


Na 2 CO3 .H 2 O   Na 2 CO 3  H 2 O 

56. 1
57. 2
58. 3 K2O + H2O  2KOH
FT23R/NEET/TP/PCB 4 STUDY CENTRE
59. 2

60. 3

BIOLOGY :- Cell the unit of life, Living world

61. 3
62. 1
63. 4

64. 1 74. 4 84. 3 94. 1 104. 3 114. 4

65. 4 75. 2 85. 2 95. 4 105. 4 115. 4
66. 1 76. 1 86. 4 96. 2 106. 3 116. 4
67. 1 77. 1 87. 1 97. 2 107. 1 117. 2
68. 4 78. 1 88. 4 98. 1 108. 4 118. 3
69. 1 79. 2 89. 2 99. 3 109. 2 119. 3
70. 4 80. 4 90. 2 100. 4 110. 2 120. 1
71. 2 81. 3 91. 4 101. 4 111. 1
72. 4 82. 4 92. 4 102. 3 112. 4
73. 3 83. 1 93. 4 103. 2 113. 4