Here are the MCQs with explanations based on the first 20 important web

terminologies:

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1. What does HTML stand for?

A) HighText Markup Language

B) HyperText Markup Language

C) Hyper Transfer Markup Language

D) None of the above

Answer: B) HyperText Markup Language

Explanation: HTML is the standard markup language used to create the

structure of web pages. It consists of various tags to structure text, links,
images, and other elements on a webpage.
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2. Which language is used to style web pages?

A) HTML

B) CSS

C) JavaScript

D) SQL

Answer: B) CSS

Explanation: CSS (Cascading Style Sheets) is used to define the style and layout
of HTML elements, such as colors, fonts, and spacing.

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3. Which of the following is used to add interactivity to a web page?

A) JavaScript
B) CSS

C) HTML

D) XML

Answer: A) JavaScript

Explanation: JavaScript is a programming language that enables interactive

features like forms, buttons, and dynamic content updates on websites.

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4. What is the full form of URL?

A) Uniform Resource Locator

B) Universal Resource Locator

C) Uniform Resolved Locator

D) None of the above

Answer: A) Uniform Resource Locator

Explanation: URL is the address used to access resources on the internet. It

provides the location of a web resource and its protocol.

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5. Which protocol is used for transferring web pages over the internet?

A) FTP

B) HTTP

C) SMTP

D) SSH

Answer: B) HTTP

Explanation: HTTP (HyperText Transfer Protocol) is the protocol used for

transferring web pages and other resources over the internet.
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6. What does HTTPS stand for?

A) HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure

B) HyperTransfer Protocol Secure

C) HyperText Secure Transfer Protocol

D) None of the above

Answer: A) HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure

Explanation: HTTPS is the secure version of HTTP, using encryption (SSL/TLS) to

protect the data being transferred between the web server and the client.

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7. Which of the following is a web browser?

A) Chrome

B) Apache

C) Windows

D) Python

Answer: A) Chrome

Explanation: A web browser is an application that allows users to access,

retrieve, and view content on the web. Google Chrome is one of the most
popular web browsers.

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8. What is the role of a Web Server?

A) Store data
B) Serve web pages to users

C) Create websites

D) Design HTML pages

Answer: B) Serve web pages to users

Explanation: A web server hosts websites and serves them to users when
requested, typically by transmitting HTML files, images, and other resources.

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9. What is an IP Address used for?

A) Identifying a device on the internet

B) Encrypting data

C) Hosting a website
D) Styling a webpage

Answer: A) Identifying a device on the internet

Explanation: An IP address is a unique numerical label assigned to every device

connected to a network, identifying it and allowing communication over the
internet.

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10. What is a Domain Name?

A) A numeric identifier for a server

B) A name that maps to an IP address

C) A type of web hosting

D) None of the above

Answer: B) A name that maps to an IP address

Explanation: A domain name is a human-readable address used to access a
website, such as "www.example.com," which maps to an IP address.

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11. What is the function of DNS?

A) Converts IP addresses into domain names

B) Converts domain names into IP addresses

C) Handles encryption

D) None of the above

Answer: B) Converts domain names into IP addresses

Explanation: DNS (Domain Name System) translates human-readable domain

names into machine-readable IP addresses to route requests to the correct
server.
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12. What is Responsive Design?

A) A design that adjusts based on the device screen size

B) A design with static web pages

C) A design with server-side code

D) None of the above

Answer: A) A design that adjusts based on the device screen size

Explanation: Responsive design ensures that a website adapts its layout to fit
different screen sizes, such as on mobile phones, tablets, or desktops.

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13. What does SEO stand for?

A) Search Engine Optimization

B) Secure Encrypted Output

C) Search Engine Organization

D) None of the above

Answer: A) Search Engine Optimization

Explanation: SEO refers to the practice of optimizing a website to improve its

ranking in search engine results, making it easier for users to find the site.

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14. What is Web Hosting?

A) The service that provides storage and access to websites

B) The software used to create websites

C) The program that executes code

D) The technology used to secure websites

Answer: A) The service that provides storage and access to websites

Explanation: Web hosting is a service that stores website files and makes them
accessible on the internet, allowing users to visit a website.

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15. What is a Cookie in web development?

A) A small file stored on a user's device to store browsing data

B) A type of security protocol

C) A system used for database management

D) A web page layout design

Answer: A) A small file stored on a user's device to store browsing data

Explanation: A cookie is a small piece of data stored by a web browser that
helps remember a user’s preferences, login information, and other session
data.

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16. What does API stand for?

A) Application Program Interface

B) Application Package Interface

C) Automatic Programming Interface

D) None of the above

Answer: A) Application Program Interface

Explanation: An API is a set of functions and protocols that allow different

software systems to communicate with each other and share data.
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17. Which of the following protocols ensures secure communication over the
internet?

A) FTP

B) HTTP

C) SSL/TLS

D) SMTP

Answer: C) SSL/TLS

Explanation: SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) and TLS (Transport Layer Security) are
protocols used to secure data transfer on the internet, ensuring privacy and
data integrity.

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18. What is a Content Management System (CMS)?

A) A tool used for managing website content

B) A web server

C) A type of encryption algorithm

D) A method for improving search rankings

Answer: A) A tool used for managing website content

Explanation: A CMS is a software application that allows users to create, edit,

and manage digital content, typically for websites (e.g., WordPress, Joomla).

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19. What is the Frontend of a website?

A) The part of a website that handles server-side processing

B) The part of a website that users directly interact with

C) The part of a website that stores data

D) None of the above

Answer: B) The part of a website that users directly interact with

Explanation: The frontend refers to the user interface elements of a website,

including the layout, design, and interactive features built using HTML, CSS,
and JavaScript.

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20. What is the Backend of a website?

A) The part that handles client-side design

B) The server-side part that manages databases, authentication, and server

processes
C) The page layout visible to users

D) None of the above

Answer: B) The server-side part that manages databases, authentication, and

server processes

Explanation: The backend refers to the server-side of a website where data

processing, database management, and authentication happen. It's not directly
visible to users but essential for the website's functionality.

1. Introduction to Protocols

Q1. What is a protocol in networking?

Explanation: A protocol is a set of rules governing the communication between

devices in a network.

Options:

a) Hardware configuration standard

b) Set of rules for data communication

c) Internet service provider

d) A software component

Correct Answer: b) Set of rules for data communication

Q2. Why are protocols necessary in networking?

Explanation: Protocols ensure reliable, secure, and efficient communication.

Options:

a) To create a physical connection

b) To avoid interference
c) To define communication rules

d) To assign unique device IDs

Correct Answer: c) To define communication rules

2. OSI Model Protocols

Q3. Which protocol operates at the transport layer of the OSI model?

Explanation: Protocols like TCP and UDP handle transport-layer tasks such as
ensuring reliable data transfer.

Options:

a) HTTP

b) IP

c) TCP

d) ARP

Correct Answer: c) TCP

Q4. What is the main function of the network layer protocols?

Explanation: Network layer protocols, such as IP, handle routing and

forwarding of packets.

Options:

a) Error detection

b) Physical data transfer

c) Routing and addressing

d) Session management

Correct Answer: c) Routing and addressing

Q5. Which protocol ensures data integrity at the transport layer?

Explanation: TCP ensures reliable delivery and integrity of data at the transport
layer.

Options:

a) UDP

b) HTTP

c) TCP

d) FTP

Correct Answer: c) TCP

3. Application Layer Protocols

Q6. What is the purpose of the HTTP protocol?

Explanation: HTTP is used to fetch hypertext content like web pages from
servers.

Options:

a) Transfer files

b) Send emails

c) Access web pages

d) Connect to databases

Correct Answer: c) Access web pages

Q7. Which protocol is used to send emails?

Explanation: SMTP handles email sending between clients and servers.

Options:

a) SMTP

b) IMAP

c) POP3

d) SNMP

Correct Answer: a) SMTP

Q8. Which protocol is used to retrieve emails stored on a server?

Explanation: IMAP and POP3 are protocols for retrieving emails; IMAP allows
synchronization across devices.

Options:

a) SMTP

b) FTP

c) POP3

d) HTTP

Correct Answer: c) POP3

4. Internet Protocol Suite

Q9. What is the primary purpose of the IP protocol?

Explanation: The Internet Protocol (IP) is responsible for addressing and

routing data packets.

Options:

a) Data encryption

b) File transfer
c) Addressing and routing

d) Web browsing

Correct Answer: c) Addressing and routing

Q10. What is the difference between IPv4 and IPv6?

Explanation: IPv4 uses 32-bit addresses, while IPv6 uses 128-bit addresses to
handle more devices.

Options:

a) IPv4 is faster than IPv6

b) IPv4 uses fewer bits for addressing than IPv6

c) IPv4 supports encryption, IPv6 doesn’t

d) IPv4 is only for local networks

Correct Answer: b) IPv4 uses fewer bits for addressing than IPv6

5. Security Protocols

Q11. What is the function of SSL/TLS in networking?

Explanation: SSL/TLS provides encryption and secure communication between

devices.

Options:

a) Encrypt and secure data transmission

b) Control traffic flow

c) Resolve domain names

d) Authenticate users

Correct Answer: a) Encrypt and secure data transmission

Q12. Which protocol is used for secure file transfer?

Explanation: SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) ensures secure file transfers
over SSH.

Options:

a) FTP

b) SFTP

c) HTTP

d) SMTP

Correct Answer: b) SFTP

6. Advanced Topics

Q13. What is the primary function of the BGP protocol?

Explanation: Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) manages routing between

autonomous systems on the Internet.

Options:

a) Data encryption

b) Dynamic IP assignment

c) Routing between autonomous systems

d) Network troubleshooting

Correct Answer: c) Routing between autonomous systems

Q14. What is the difference between TCP and UDP?

Explanation: TCP provides reliable, connection-oriented communication, while
UDP is faster and connectionless.

Options:

a) TCP is faster than UDP

b) TCP is connection-oriented, UDP is connectionless

c) TCP is used for broadcasting, UDP is not

d) UDP is secure, TCP is not

Correct Answer: b) TCP is connection-oriented, UDP is connectionless

Q15. What is the purpose of the SNMP protocol?

Explanation: Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is used to manage

and monitor network devices.

Options:

a) Secure communication

b) Network monitoring and management

c) File sharing

d) Email delivery

Correct Answer: b) Network monitoring and management

1. Introduction to Web Browsers

Q1. What is a web browser?

Explanation: A web browser is a software application used to access and

display content from the World Wide Web.

Options:
a) A type of search engine

b) A software to browse the internet

c) A type of operating system

d) A database management system

Correct Answer: b) A software to browse the internet

Q2. Which of the following is NOT a web browser?

Explanation: Web browsers include software like Chrome, Firefox, etc., while
search engines like Google are different.

Options:

a) Google Chrome

b) Mozilla Firefox

c) Google Search

d) Microsoft Edge

Correct Answer: c) Google Search

Q3. What does the address bar in a browser do?

Explanation: The address bar is where users type a website URL or a search
query.

Options:

a) Displays browsing history

b) Executes commands

c) Navigates to web pages

d) Edits browser settings

Correct Answer: c) Navigates to web pages

2. Common Features of Web Browsers

Q4. What is "incognito mode" or "private browsing"?

Explanation: Incognito mode allows browsing without saving history, cookies,

or search records.

Options:

a) A mode to block advertisements

b) A mode for offline browsing

c) A mode to browse privately without storing data

d) A faster browsing mode

Correct Answer: c) A mode to browse privately without storing data

Q5. What is the purpose of browser cookies?

Explanation: Cookies store small pieces of data for websites, such as login
details and preferences.

Options:

a) Enhance graphics quality

b) Store user data for websites

c) Block pop-ups

d) Improve download speeds

Correct Answer: b) Store user data for websites

Q6. What is a browser cache?

Explanation: Browser cache stores files to load websites faster upon
subsequent visits.

Options:

a) A virus scanner in browsers

b) Temporary storage for website files

c) A feature for disabling pop-ups

d) A tool for managing tabs

Correct Answer: b) Temporary storage for website files

3. Advanced Browser Features

Q7. What is a browser extension?

Explanation: Extensions add functionality to browsers, such as ad blockers or

grammar checkers.

Options:

a) A software update

b) A tool to clean cookies

c) A small program to add browser features

d) A security protocol

Correct Answer: c) A small program to add browser features

Q8. Which protocol is used by web browsers to access websites?

Explanation: Web browsers use HTTP or HTTPS to request and display web
content.

Options:
a) FTP

b) SMTP

c) HTTP

d) DNS

Correct Answer: c) HTTP

Q9. What is the role of JavaScript in web browsers?

Explanation: JavaScript is used to create dynamic and interactive features in

websites.

Options:

a) Load images on a webpage

b) Provide dynamic functionality to websites

c) Encrypt web traffic

d) Manage user authentication

Correct Answer: b) Provide dynamic functionality to websites

4. Popular Web Browsers

Q10. Which company developed the Chrome browser?

Explanation: Chrome is one of the most widely used browsers, developed by

Google.

Options:

a) Microsoft

b) Apple

c) Google
d) Mozilla

Correct Answer: c) Google

Q11. What is the unique feature of Mozilla Firefox?

Explanation: Firefox emphasizes privacy and open-source development.

Options:

a) Built-in email service

b) Open-source and privacy-focused

c) Only available for Windows

d) Requires a subscription

Correct Answer: b) Open-source and privacy-focused

5. Security in Web Browsers

Q12. What does the padlock icon in a browser's address bar indicate?

Explanation: The padlock shows that the website uses HTTPS, meaning secure
communication.

Options:

a) Website is bookmarked

b) Website uses a secure connection

c) Website contains multimedia content

d) Website uses JavaScript

Correct Answer: b) Website uses a secure connection

Q13. How can you block pop-ups in a browser?

Explanation: Most browsers have built-in settings or extensions to block pop-
ups.

Options:

a) Clear cookies

b) Enable incognito mode

c) Enable pop-up blocker in settings

d) Restart the browser

Correct Answer: c) Enable pop-up blocker in settings

Q14. What is phishing in the context of web browsers?

Explanation: Phishing involves fraudulent attempts to obtain sensitive data via

fake websites or emails.

Options:

a) Collecting website cookies

b) Scamming users through fake websites

c) Encrypting sensitive data

d) Improving browser performance

Correct Answer: b) Scamming users through fake websites

6. Web Browser Troubleshooting

Q15. What should you do if a web page does not load?

Explanation: Reloading the page, checking the internet connection, or clearing

the cache often resolves issues.

Options:
a) Restart your device

b) Reload the page or clear the cache

c) Update your antivirus

d) Uninstall the browser

Correct Answer: b) Reload the page or clear the cache

Q16. How can you improve browser speed?

Explanation: Clearing cache, reducing extensions, and closing unused tabs can
speed up browsers.

Options:

a) Use incognito mode

b) Clear cache and limit extensions

c) Disable the address bar

d) Enable all cookies

Correct Answer: b) Clear cache and limit extensions

7. Advanced Browser Technologies

Q17. What is a Progressive Web App (PWA)?

Explanation: PWAs are web apps that behave like native apps on devices.

Options:

a) A browser extension

b) A type of web page

c) A web app with native app functionality

d) A browser update
Correct Answer: c) A web app with native app functionality

Q18. What is WebRTC in browsers?

Explanation: WebRTC (Web Real-Time Communication) allows real-time

communication like video or voice directly in browsers.

Options:

a) A tool for enhancing graphics

b) A protocol for online shopping

c) A feature for real-time communication

d) A browser optimization tool

Correct Answer: c) A feature for real-time communication

Q1. What is transmission media in networking?

Explanation: Transmission media is the physical path through which data is

transmitted from one device to another.

Options:

a) Network topology

b) Pathway for data communication

c) Data packets

d) Network configuration

Correct Answer: b) Pathway for data communication

Q2. Which of the following is NOT a type of transmission media?

Explanation: Transmission media can be categorized into wired (guided) or
wireless (unguided).

Options:

a) Twisted pair cable

b) Coaxial cable

c) Optical fiber

d) Operating system

Correct Answer: d) Operating system

Q3. What are the two main categories of transmission media?

Explanation: Transmission media is divided into guided (wired) and unguided

(wireless).

Options:

a) Guided and unguided

b) Physical and logical

c) Hardware and software

d) Internal and external

Correct Answer: a) Guided and unguided

2. Guided (Wired) Transmission Media

Q4. Which of the following is a characteristic of twisted pair cables?

Explanation: Twisted pair cables consist of two insulated copper wires twisted
together to reduce interference.

Options:
a) High resistance to interference

b) High bandwidth compared to optical fiber

c) Limited to short distances

d) Made of glass or plastic

Correct Answer: c) Limited to short distances

Q5. What is the primary use of coaxial cables?

Explanation: Coaxial cables are used for cable television, internet, and short-
range data transmission.

Options:

a) Long-distance telephone communication

b) High-speed internet access

c) Television and short-range data transmission

d) Secure data encryption

Correct Answer: c) Television and short-range data transmission

Q6. Why are optical fibers considered superior to other cables?

Explanation: Optical fibers offer higher bandwidth, faster speeds, and

immunity to electromagnetic interference.

Options:

a) Low cost and high speed

b) High speed, large bandwidth, and low interference

c) Easy installation and high resistance

d) Made of copper for better conductivity

Correct Answer: b) High speed, large bandwidth, and low interference

3. Unguided (Wireless) Transmission Media

Q7. What is an example of unguided transmission media?

Explanation: Unguided media includes wireless communication like radio

waves, microwaves, and infrared.

Options:

a) Coaxial cable

b) Twisted pair cable

c) Radio waves

d) Optical fiber

Correct Answer: c) Radio waves

Q8. What is the primary use of microwaves in transmission?

Explanation: Microwaves are used for point-to-point communication, such as

satellite and cellular systems.

Options:

a) Submarine communication

b) Satellite communication and cellular networks

c) Broadcast television

d) Infrared remote controls

Correct Answer: b) Satellite communication and cellular networks

Q9. What is the limitation of infrared transmission?

Explanation: Infrared requires a clear line of sight and has a short transmission
range.

Options:

a) It is expensive

b) It requires a clear line of sight

c) It can transmit data over long distances

d) It is highly affected by electromagnetic interference

Correct Answer: b) It requires a clear line of sight

4. Comparison Between Media Types

Q10. Which transmission media has the highest bandwidth?

Explanation: Optical fiber provides the highest bandwidth and fastest data
transmission rates.

Options:

a) Twisted pair cable

b) Coaxial cable

c) Optical fiber

d) Radio waves

Correct Answer: c) Optical fiber

Q11. What is the main disadvantage of wireless transmission media?

Explanation: Wireless media is susceptible to interference, security risks, and

weather conditions.

Options:
a) High cost of setup

b) High bandwidth

c) Susceptible to interference

d) Requires large physical infrastructure

Correct Answer: c) Susceptible to interference

Q12. Which transmission media is most affected by electromagnetic

interference?

Explanation: Twisted pair cables are the most vulnerable, although shielding
can reduce this effect.

Options:

a) Optical fiber

b) Coaxial cable

c) Twisted pair cable

d) Radio waves

Correct Answer: c) Twisted pair cable

5. Advanced Topics

Q13. What is multiplexing in the context of transmission media?

Explanation: Multiplexing allows multiple signals to share the same

transmission medium.

Options:

a) Data encryption

b) Combining multiple signals for transmission

c) Reducing network bandwidth

d) Increasing cable length

Correct Answer: b) Combining multiple signals for transmission

Q14. What is the role of a repeater in transmission media?

Explanation: A repeater amplifies signals to extend the transmission distance in

guided media.

Options:

a) Encrypts data for secure transmission

b) Extends the transmission distance

c) Converts analog signals to digital

d) Balances network traffic

Correct Answer: b) Extends the transmission distance

Q15. Which type of transmission media is most suitable for underwater

communication?

Explanation: Coaxial cables and optical fibers are commonly used for
underwater communication due to their reliability.

Options:

a) Twisted pair cable

b) Coaxial cable

c) Optical fiber

d) Infrared

Correct Answer: c) Optical fiber

6. Practical Applications and Limitations

Q16. Which transmission media is used in LAN setups?

Explanation: Twisted pair cables are most commonly used in local area
networks (LANs) for their cost-effectiveness.

Options:

a) Optical fiber

b) Twisted pair cable

c) Radio waves

d) Coaxial cable

Correct Answer: b) Twisted pair cable

Q17. What is the maximum distance optical fiber can transmit data without a
repeater?

Explanation: Optical fiber can transmit data over long distances, typically up to
60-80 km, without repeaters.

Options:

a) 1-5 km

b) 20-30 km

c) 60-80 km

d) 100-120 km

Correct Answer: c) 60-80 km

Q18. Why is satellite communication considered a type of unguided

transmission?
Explanation: Satellite communication relies on electromagnetic waves and
does not use physical cables.

Options:

a) It uses fiber optics

b) It requires no physical connection

c) It uses coaxial cables

d) It is slower than guided media

Correct Answer: Q19. What does attenuation mean in transmission media?

Explanation: Attenuation refers to the loss of signal strength as it travels

through the transmission medium.

Options:

a) Increase in signal speed

b) Loss of signal strength

c) Improvement in signal quality

d) Change in signal format

Correct Answer: b) Loss of signal strength

Q20. What is the main reason for using shielding in twisted pair cables?

Explanation: Shielding reduces electromagnetic interference and crosstalk

between adjacent cables.

Options:

a) Increase bandwidth

b) Reduce interference and crosstalk

c) Decrease cost of installation

d) Improve flexibility

Correct Answer: b) Reduce interference and crosstalk

Q21. What is the primary benefit of using single-mode optical fiber over multi-
mode optical fiber?

Explanation: Single-mode fiber supports longer distances and higher

bandwidth compared to multi-mode fiber.

Options:

a) Lower cost

b) Shorter transmission distance

c) Higher bandwidth and longer distance

d) Easy to install

Correct Answer: c) Higher bandwidth and longer distance

8. Specialized Topics

Q22. What is crosstalk in transmission media?

Explanation: Crosstalk is the interference caused by signals in adjacent cables.

Options:

a) Loss of bandwidth

b) Interference between signals in nearby cables

c) Amplification of signals

d) Delay in data transmission

Correct Answer: b) Interference between signals in nearby cables

Q23. What is free-space optical communication (FSO)?

Explanation: FSO uses light to transmit data wirelessly through the atmosphere.

Options:

a) A type of guided transmission

b) Data transmission using light in free space

c) Optical fiber-based communication

d) Radio wave-based communication

Correct Answer: b) Data transmission using light in free space

Q24. What is the maximum data transfer speed typically achievable by fiber
optic cables?

Explanation: Fiber optics can achieve speeds of terabits per second depending
on the technology used.

Options:

a) 1 Mbps

b) 1 Gbps

c) Up to 100 Gbps or more

d) 10 Mbps

Correct Answer: c) Up to 100 Gbps or more

9. Emerging Trends

Q25. How does 5G technology utilize transmission media?

Explanation: 5G technology relies on a combination of optical fibers and

wireless media for high-speed connectivity.
Options:

a) Only optical fiber

b) Only radio waves

c) Combination of optical fiber and wireless media

d) Satellite communication only

Correct Answer: c) Combination of optical fiber and wireless media

Q26. What is Li-Fi (Light Fidelity)?

Explanation: Li-Fi is a wireless communication technology that uses light to

transmit data.

Options:

a) Transmission using radio waves

b) Transmission using light waves

c) Transmission using microwaves

d) Transmission using infrared

Correct Answer: b) Transmission using light waves

Q27. What role do repeaters play in optical fiber networks?

Explanation: Repeaters amplify or regenerate optical signals to overcome

attenuation over long distances.

Options:

a) Reduce interference

b) Extend transmission distance

c) Encrypt the data

d) Increase bandwidth

Correct Answer: b) Extend transmission distance

10. Practical Considerations

Q28. Which transmission media is most suitable for high-security applications?

Explanation: Optical fiber is difficult to tap and is ideal for secure

communication.

Options:

a) Twisted pair cable

b) Coaxial cable

c) Optical fiber

d) Radio waves

Correct Answer: c) Optical fiber

Q29. What is latency, and how is it related to transmission media?

Explanation: Latency is the delay in data transmission, influenced by the type

and distance of transmission media.

Options:

a) Speed of data transfer

b) Amount of bandwidth used

c) Delay in data transmission

d) Error in transmitted data

Correct Answer: c) Delay in data transmission

Q30. What is the most cost-effective medium for small-scale local area
networks?

Explanation: Twisted pair cables (like Cat5e or Cat6) are affordable and widely
used for LANs.

Options:

a) Optical fiber

b) Coaxial cable

c) Twisted pair cable

d) Satellite communication

Correct Answer: c) Twisted pair cable

Basic Questions

Q1. What is the main function of a switch in a network?

Explanation: A switch connects multiple devices within a local network and

uses MAC addresses to forward data.

Options:

a) Provide internet access

b) Connect different networks

c) Connect devices within a network

d) Resolve IP addresses

Correct Answer: c) Connect devices within a network

Q2. Which device is used to connect two different networks?

Explanation: A router connects different networks and directs data between

them using IP addresses.
Options:

a) Hub

b) Switch

c) Router

d) Modem

Correct Answer: c) Router

Q3. What does a hub do in a network?

Explanation: A hub broadcasts data to all devices on the network, which can
cause unnecessary traffic.

Options:

a) Filters traffic based on MAC addresses

b) Broadcasts data to all devices

c) Routes data between networks

d) Encrypts network traffic

Correct Answer: b) Broadcasts data to all devices

Q4. Which device converts digital signals into analog for transmission over
telephone lines?

Explanation: A modem modulates and demodulates signals to enable internet

access over telephone lines.

Options:

a) Switch

b) Router
c) Modem

d) Access Point

Correct Answer: c) Modem

Q5. What is the primary purpose of an access point?

Explanation: An access point extends wireless coverage and allows wireless

devices to connect to a wired network.

Options:

a) Connect different networks

b) Provide wireless connectivity

c) Assign IP addresses

d) Filter traffic

Correct Answer: b) Provide wireless connectivity

Intermediate Questions

Q6. What is the difference between a hub and a switch?

Explanation: A hub broadcasts data to all devices, while a switch forwards data
only to the intended device using MAC addresses.

Options:

a) Hubs are faster than switches

b) Hubs operate at the transport layer

c) Switches forward data intelligently; hubs do not

d) Switches broadcast data to all devices

Correct Answer: c) Switches forward data intelligently; hubs do not

Q7. Which device is used to strengthen weak signals in a network?

Explanation: A repeater amplifies or regenerates weak signals to extend the

distance they can travel.

Options:

a) Router

b) Switch

c) Repeater

d) Bridge

Correct Answer: c) Repeater

Q8. What is the function of a bridge in networking?

Explanation: A bridge connects two or more network segments at the data link
layer.

Options:

a) Connects two networks using IP addresses

b) Amplifies weak signals

c) Connects network segments and filters traffic

d) Encrypts data for security

Correct Answer: c) Connects network segments and filters traffic

Q9. Which networking device assigns IP addresses to devices automatically?

Explanation: A DHCP server or router assigns IP addresses to devices in a

network dynamically.
Options:

a) Switch

b) Router

c) DHCP server

d) Modem

Correct Answer: c) DHCP server

Q10. What is the function of a network interface card (NIC)?

Explanation: A NIC allows a device to connect to a network, either wired or

wireless.

Options:

a) Amplifies network signals

b) Assigns IP addresses

c) Connects devices to a network

d) Encrypts network traffic

Correct Answer: c) Connects devices to a network

Advanced Questions

Q11. What is a multilayer switch, and how is it different from a traditional

switch?

Explanation: A multilayer switch can operate at both the data link and network
layers, performing routing functions as well.

Options:

a) It only broadcasts data

b) It combines switching and routing functionalities

c) It only connects devices in a LAN

d) It converts analog signals to digital

Correct Answer: b) It combines switching and routing functionalities

Q12. What is the purpose of a gateway in a network?

Explanation: A gateway connects two different networks that use different

communication protocols.

Options:

a) Assigns IP addresses

b) Filters MAC addresses

c) Connects networks with different protocols

d) Broadcasts data

Correct Answer: c) Connects networks with different protocols

Q13. What does a firewall do in a network?

Explanation: A firewall monitors and controls incoming and outgoing traffic

based on security rules.

Options:

a) Amplifies weak signals

b) Filters traffic to enhance security

c) Assigns IP addresses

d) Provides wireless connectivity

Correct Answer: b) Filters traffic to enhance security

Q14. What is the role of a load balancer in a network?

Explanation: A load balancer distributes incoming traffic across multiple

servers to optimize resource use and prevent overload.

Options:

a) Encrypts data

b) Distributes network traffic evenly

c) Connects two different networks

d) Amplifies weak signals

Correct Answer: b) Distributes network traffic evenly

Q15. Which device can provide network segmentation in a large network?

Explanation: A VLAN-capable switch can segment a large network into smaller

virtual LANs to improve performance and security.

Options:

a) Hub

b) Switch

c) Router

d) VLAN-capable switch

Correct Answer: d) VLAN-capable switch

Emerging Technologies and Trends

Q16. What is a Wi-Fi extender used for?

Explanation: A Wi-Fi extender increases the range of a wireless network by
repeating the signal.

Options:

a) Encrypts wireless traffic

b) Extends the range of a Wi-Fi signal

c) Routes data between networks

d) Amplifies wired signals

Correct Answer: b) Extends the range of a Wi-Fi signal

Q17. What is the role of a proxy server?

Explanation: A proxy server acts as an intermediary between clients and

servers to improve security and performance.

Options:

a) Assigns IP addresses

b) Filters traffic for security

c) Acts as an intermediary between client and server

d) Converts digital to analog signals

Correct Answer: c) Acts as an intermediary between client and server

Q18. What is the significance of PoE (Power over Ethernet) switches?

Explanation: PoE switches deliver electrical power and data over Ethernet
cables to power devices like IP cameras and phones.

Options:

a) Encrypt data for security

b) Provide wireless connectivity

c) Deliver power and data over Ethernet

d) Connect two different networks

Correct Answer: c) Deliver power and data over Ethernet

Q19. What is the primary function of a content delivery network (CDN)?

Explanation: A CDN reduces latency by delivering content through servers

closer to the user.

Options:

a) Encrypts data

b) Caches and delivers content closer to users

c) Connects different networks

d) Balances load across servers

Correct Answer: b) Caches and delivers content closer to users

Q20. What is a software-defined networking (SDN) controller?

Explanation: An SDN controller centralizes network management and allows

programmability of network behavior.

Options:

a) Assigns IP addresses dynamically

b) Centralizes network management and control

c) Encrypts network traffic

d) Extends wireless network range

Correct Answer: b) Centralizes network management and control

Q21. What does a router use to forward data packets to their destination?

Explanation: A router uses IP addresses and routing tables to determine the

best path for data.

Options:

a) MAC addresses

b) IP addresses

c) Hostnames

d) Physical ports

Correct Answer: b) IP addresses

Q22. Which networking device operates at the OSI model's Data Link layer?

Explanation: Devices like switches and bridges operate at the Data Link layer
(Layer 2).

Options:

a) Router

b) Switch

c) Hub

d) Modem

Correct Answer: b) Switch

Q23. What is the primary difference between a modem and a router?

Explanation: A modem connects to the internet service provider, while a router

connects multiple devices to the network.

Options:
a) A modem connects devices; a router connects networks

b) A modem provides internet access; a router connects devices

c) A router assigns IP addresses; a modem amplifies signals

d) Both perform the same function

Correct Answer: b) A modem provides internet access; a router connects

devices

Q24. Which device connects multiple computers in a network and forwards all
data to every connected device?

Explanation: A hub does not filter traffic and forwards data to all connected
devices.

Options:

a) Router

b) Hub

c) Switch

d) Repeater

Correct Answer: b) Hub

Q25. Which device is responsible for connecting devices in a wireless network?

Explanation: An access point enables wireless devices to connect to a wired

network.

Options:

a) Hub

b) Switch

c) Access Point
d) Modem

Correct Answer: c) Access Point

Q26. What is the main disadvantage of using a hub in a network?

Explanation: Hubs broadcast data to all devices, causing collisions and

inefficiencies.

Options:

a) It is expensive

b) It does not use IP addresses

c) It causes data collisions and unnecessary traffic

d) It is difficult to configure

Correct Answer: c) It causes data collisions and unnecessary traffic

Q27. What type of cable is typically used to connect a computer to a switch or

router?

Explanation: Ethernet cables (e.g., Cat5, Cat6) are commonly used for wired
connections.

Options:

a) Coaxial cable

b) Fiber optic cable

c) Ethernet cable

d) USB cable

Correct Answer: c) Ethernet cable

Q28. Which device allows you to extend the range of a network by
regenerating signals?

Explanation: A repeater amplifies weak signals to extend the network's range.

Options:

a) Router

b) Switch

c) Repeater

d) Access Point

Correct Answer: c) Repeater

Q29. What does a switch use to identify devices on the network?

Explanation: A switch uses MAC addresses to forward data to the correct

device.

Options:

a) IP addresses

b) MAC addresses

c) Hostnames

d) Subnet masks

Correct Answer: b) MAC addresses

Q30. Which device can prioritize network traffic based on predefined rules?

Explanation: A router can prioritize traffic using Quality of Service (QoS)

settings.

Options:
a) Switch

b) Router

c) Hub

d) Access Point

Correct Answer: b) Router

Q31. Which type of device uses CSMA/CD to avoid collisions in a network?

Explanation: Hubs operate on the principle of CSMA/CD to manage collisions in

Ethernet networks.

Options:

a) Hub

b) Router

c) Switch

d) Bridge

Correct Answer: a) Hub

Q32. What type of networking device is often used in homes to combine the
functions of a router and access point?

Explanation: Many home routers include both routing and wireless access
point functionalities.

Options:

a) Modem

b) Switch

c) Wireless router
d) Repeater

Correct Answer: c) Wireless router

Q33. What is the primary purpose of an unmanaged switch?

Explanation: An unmanaged switch is plug-and-play and does not require

configuration.

Options:

a) It manages IP addressing

b) It connects devices without requiring configuration

c) It encrypts data packets

d) It prioritizes network traffic

Correct Answer: b) It connects devices without requiring configuration

Q34. What is the maximum number of devices a single hub can typically
support?

Explanation: Hubs are limited by the number of physical ports, usually 4, 8, 12,
or 24.

Options:

a) Unlimited

b) 4-24, depending on the model

c) 2 devices

d) 256 devices

Correct Answer: b) 4-24, depending on the model

Q35. Which device acts as a boundary between two network segments and
reduces broadcast traffic?

Explanation: A bridge connects two segments and limits broadcast domains.

Options:

a) Hub

b) Router

c) Bridge

d) Switch

Correct Answer: c) Bridge

Q36. Which device is used in a star topology to connect devices?

Explanation: In a star topology, switches or hubs are typically at the center of

the network.

Options:

a) Repeater

b) Hub

c) Modem

d) Router

Correct Answer: b) Hub

Q37. Which network device uses NAT (Network Address Translation)?

Explanation: Routers use NAT to translate private IP addresses to a public IP

address for internet communication.

Options:
a) Switch

b) Router

c) Access Point

d) Bridge

Correct Answer: b) Router

Q38. What does the term "dual-band router" mean?

Explanation: A dual-band router supports two frequency bands, typically 2.4

GHz and 5 GHz.

Options:

a) It has two antennas

b) It operates on two different frequency bands

c) It supports wired and wireless connections

d) It connects two separate networks

Correct Answer: b) It operates on two different frequency bands

Q39. What is the role of a DSL modem in a network?

Explanation: A DSL modem connects a home network to the internet via

telephone lines.

Options:

a) It connects devices within a local network

b) It provides wireless connectivity

c) It connects to the ISP using telephone lines

d) It amplifies weak signals

Correct Answer: c) It connects to the ISP using telephone lines

Q40. Which type of networking device would be used to interconnect LANs

and WANs?

Explanation: Routers are designed to connect local area networks (LANs) to

wide area networks (WANs).

Options:

a) Hub

b) Switch

c) Router

d) Access Point

Correct Answer: c) Router