Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MODEL TEST - 25

REASONING AND COMPUTER APTITUDE

Directions: (1-5) Study the following information carefully and answer the

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questions given below.
Nine persons - A, B, C, P, Q, R, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table.
Four persons are facing towards the center and remaining persons are facing
away from the center. Facing same direction means, if one person is facing the
center then the other person also facing the center and vice-versa. Facing opposite
direction means, if one person is facing the center then other one is facing away
from the center.
ha
A is sitting second to the left of B but both are not facing the same direction.

E
C is sitting second to the right of B and both are facing the same direction.
Immediate neighbours of C are not facing the same direction (If one person is
facing the center then other facing away from the center). Z is an immediate
d
neighbour of C but not to B and sitting third to the right of R. Z and C are facing
as B but not R. Q and Y are immediate neighbours but not facing same direction.
Immediate neighbours of Y are facing the same direction. Neither R is an
ee

immediate neighbour of Q nor A is an immediate neighbour of P. R is facing away

from the center.
C
1. Who are facing towards the center?
1) BYZP 2) YZCA 3) ZCYB 4) YCXQ 5) RZXQ
2. Who is sitting third to the right of P?
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1) Q 2) A 3) X 4) Z 5) R
3. Who are sitting each-other on the circle?
1) CQ 2) RX 3) XP 4) AX 5) PZ
4. How many of them are sitting between R and B?
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five 5) Either two or five
5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group.
C
Which one doesn’t belong to this group?
1) CZ 2) AR 3) PX 4) QP 5) XB
Directions: (6-8) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
help in deer pride is written as “xe fe pv ac”
mark towards pride farming is written as “xe rx wl jd”
deer Mark in price is written as “wl pv ac dy”
under help in farming is written as “fe lg pv rx”
(Note: All the codes are two letter codes only)
6. What is the code for the word “towards”?
1) wl 2) xe 3) jd 4) rx 5) Either jd or wl
7. What is the code for the word of “under”?
1) lg 2) pv 3) fe 4) rx 5) Either fe or pv
8. What is the code for the word of “price”?
1) wl 2) dy 3) ac 4) pv 5) Either dy or wl

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

Directions: (9-13) study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Eleven boxes - B, F, G, H, J, N, P, Q, S, T and W are arranged one above the
other in an order. Box S is kept at one of the box below R. As many boxes kept
below S is as above R. Not more than four boxes are kept between R and B. Only
two boxes are kept between W and J. Either W or J is kept immediately below R.
Box T is kept at one of the boxes above N and only three boxes are kept between
them. Either T or N is kept at top or bottom. Only five boxes are kept between B
and P. P is kept immediate to box R and W. Box G is kept between box H and F.
Box B is kept either immediately above or below the box S. The number of boxes
kept between box H and G is more than between the box G and the box F; none of

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the boxes placed immediate to each other.
9. If all the boxes are arranged in an alphabetical order from top to bottom, then how
many boxes does not change their position?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) None
10. How many boxes are there between box G and box P according to the alphabetical

2) Two
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order between the alphabets of G and P?
1) One 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five
11. Which box is placed at the top-most position?

12.
1) W 2) F

E 3) H
What is the position of box G from the bottom?
1) Sixth 2) Fifth 3) Seventh
4) N

4) Fourth
5) T

5) Eighth
d
13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group which
one doesn’t follow this group?
1) FW 2) JT 3) RS 4) PN 5) HN
ee

14. Read the given information and answer the question:

It was recently noticed by the college authorities that although the attendance
muster suggests that students have been present in class these students are
C
found loitering around in the campus or the college canteen. “Because students
sign the muster themselves this problem had not been noticed earlier.” a statement
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by a college official. Which of the following can be a course of action to deal with
this problem?
1)The college should make 100% attendance compulsory for students and any
student failing to comply with this rule should be failed for a year.
2) Rather than allowing students to sign the muster on their teachers should be
asked to call out the names of students and mark their attendance.
3) Any student seen on the college campus should be asked to give an explanation.
C
4) College authorities should suspend all the students, who are seen in the
college canteen when the lectures are taking place.
5) Parents of all students should be called to the college and should be informed
about the problem.
Directions: (15-17) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
K is the only daughter of B. G is the mother-in-law of A. A is the brother-in-
law of D. M is the grand-son of H. D and J are siblings of K.
15. How is H related to K?
1) Father-in-law 2) Mother-in-law
3) Brother-in-law 4) Sister-in-law
5) Either 1 or 2
16. How is D related to M?
1) Uncle 2) Aunt 3) Nephew 4) Niece 5) Either 1 or 2
17. How many brothers does K have?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four
5) Can’t be determined
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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

Directions: (18-22) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Six persons - A, B, C, D, E and F are living on six different floors of a building
but not necessarily in the same order. Ground floor is the first floor and immediately
above to it is the second floor and so on… top-most floor is numbered as six. Each
one likes different colours of BLUE, ORANGE, PINK, WHITE, GREEN and RED.
A is living in an odd numbered floor of the building. Only two persons are
living between A and the one who likes Pink. E likes blue and only one floor is
between E and the one who likes Pink. Person who likes Pink is living one of the
floors above E. Only three floors are between the one who likes White and C. F is
living immediately below the one who likes Orange. The one who likes Green is

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living immediately below D. A doesn’t like Orange.
18. A likes which colour?
1) Green 2) Pink 3) Red 4) White 5) Blue
19. How many floors are between D and the one who likes White color?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) None
20. Who is living in fifth floor of the building?

21.
1) A 2) B
ha 3) C 4) D
How many floors are above the one who likes Orange?
5) F

1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five

22.

1) A – Green 2) F – Red

E
Four of the following five are alike in a certain way hence form a group which one
doesn’t follow the group?
3) D – Blue 4) B – Red 5) E - Pink
d
23. Read the given information to answer the given question :
The duration of the power cut in Area K of City X has increased two folds in the
past two months.Which of the following cannot be a reason for the increased
ee

duration of power cuts in Area K?

(A) The local electricity board received less supply of electricity from the
neighboring state during the past two months than what it received earlier.
(B) The transformer in Area K was replaced with a heavy-load transformer three
C
months ago.
(C) An optical fiber cable has been laid in Area K for better internet connectivity
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for the past two months.

(D) The number of functions being held in the “Grand Aura” wedding hall has
increased significantly in the past 45 days.
1) Only B & D 2) Only A & C 3) Only A, B & C 4) Only B, C & D 5) Only C & D
Directions: (24-28) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Six persons - A, B, C, D, E and F were born on three different months of
C
MARCH, APRIL and MAY on the dates of 7th and 18th of each month but not
necessarily in the same order. Each one belong to different cities viz., Chennai,
Banglore, Mumbai, Lucknow, Indore, Kolkata but not necessarily in the same
order.
C was born in the month which has 30 days and he did not belong to Mumbai
and Chennai. Only two persons were born between C and the one who belongs to
Indore. B belongs to Kolkata and born before C but he is not the eldest. A was
born immediately before the one who belongs to Chennai and he did not born in
the month of May. Only two persons were born between F and the one who
belongs to Banglore . D was born on 7th of the one of the months but not in April.
F is elder than the one who belongs to Banglore. E did not belong to Mumbai.
24. E belongs to which city?
1) Lucknow 2) Mumbai 3) Chennai 4) Kolkata 5) Indore
25. How many persons were born between A and E?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five
26. How many persons were born before A?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Four

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

27. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group which
one doesn’t follow the group?
1) F – Lucknow 2) E – Banglore 3) A – Indore
4) C – Mumbai 5) D - Kolkata
28. On which month and date did B born?
1) April – 7 2) April – 18 3) March – 18 4) March – 7 5) May – 18
Direction: (29-32) In the question below contains three statements followed by
two conclusions I and II. You have to take the three given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three statements

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disregarding commonly known facts.
29. Statements: Only a few Books are Pens Some Pens are not Chairs
All Chairs are Tables
Conclusions: I. Some Books are not Tables II. Some Tables are not Chairs
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

30.
ha
5) Both conclusions I and II follow
Statements: All Tables are Chairs Only a few Chairs are Pencils
All Pencils are Pens

E
Conclusions: I. Some Tables are not Pencils II. All Tables are Pencils
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
d
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
5) Both conclusions I and II follow
31. Statements: Only a few Blues are Black Some Blacks are Brown
ee

All Blacks are Yellow

Conclusions: I. Some Yellows are Black II. Some Blues can be Brown
1) Only conclusion I follows 2) Only conclusion II follows
C
3) Either conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
5) Both conclusions I and II follow
Directions: (32-36) Study the following information carefully and answer the
Sr

questions given below.

Ten persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, J and K are studying three different
courses of B.A, B.SC and B.COM but not necessarily in the same order. Minimum
three persons and not more than four persons are studying in each group. (Note:
A is studying with B means both are studying in the same course).
F is studying with D but not with H. H is studying with E but not with A. K is
C
studying with B in the same department with only one person. G is studying with
J but not to with C. G is not studying with E. C, K and D are studying in three
different courses. E is not to studying in B.SC course and B is not studying in
B.COM course. H is not studying in B.COM course.
32. In which course four persons are studying?
1) B.A 2) B.COM 3) B.SC 4) Either B.A or B.SC
5) Either B.SC or B.Com
33. Who is studying in B.A course?
1) KBC 2) CEA 3) HCE 4) FEA 5) FDJ
34. Who among the following are studying in the same course?
1) AG 2) KE 3) FH 4) BE 5) KA
35. Who among the following persons are studying with G?
1) FDJ 2) HE 3) KBA 4) AK 5) FDA
36. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way hence form a group which one
doesn’t follow the group?
1) K-E 2) F-C 3) A-H 4) H-E 5) G-H

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

37. Read the following information carefully to answer the given question:
“If I get my children admitted to a school with a small student population,
only then I can expect a versatile development in them.” - Said Mr. Chopra.
Which of the following can be inferred from Mr. Chopra’s statement ?
1) A child studying in a low-populated school has a better IQ than any other child
of his age.
2) A smaller student population at school gives the children a wider scope of
development.
3) The student population is the one and only factor on which the all-round
development of a student depends.

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4) The teachers at overpopulated schools are not as qualified as the ones at low
populated schools.
5) Versatile development completely depends on the school curriculum and not
on the home-environment.
Directions: (38-40) Study the following information carefully and answer the
ha
questions given below. In the following questions, assuming the given conclusion
to be true, find which of the statements given them is/are definitely true.
38. Conclusions: I. S > C II. Y  T

E
Statement I: S>B=P>T  X=Q : Q  Z<R  N=Y  C
Statement II: S<B  P=T  X>Q: Q  Z=R>N  Y>C
Statement III: S=B  P>T  X=Q: Q  Z  R=N  Y>C
d
Statement IV: S  B=P>T  X=Q: Q<Z  R<N  Y=C
Statement V: S  B  P=T>X  Q: Q  Z>R  N  Y=C
ee

39. Conclusions: I. X > K II. X  F

Statement I: B  V  R=O  Y>K: S=F  P>G  X=B
Statement II: S  F  P=G>X  B: B  V>R  O  Y=K
C
Statement III: B  V<R  O=Y  K: S>F=P>G  X=B
Statement IV: B<V  R<O  Y=K: S  F=P>G  X=B
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Statement V: S<F  P=G  X>B: B  V=R>O  Y>K

40. Conclusions: I. H > G II. B  D
Statement I: H  K  O=D>W  A: A  G>M  E  B=L
Statement II: H  K=O>D  W=A: A>G  M<E  B=L
Statement III: H>K=O>D  W=A: A  G<M  E=B  L
Statement IV: H<K  O=D  W>A: A  G=M>E  B>L
C
Statement V: H=K  O>D  W=A: A  G  M=E  B>L
Direction: (41-44) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Seven different books - A, B, C, D, E, F and G are there, each book has
different number of papers. Book A has more number of papers than book B but
not to book C. Only book C has more number of papers than book E. Book G has
more number of papers than book D but not to book A. Book D doesn’t have least
number of papers. Book D has less number of papers than book B. The book having
the second highest number of papers have 125 papers and the book, which has
third least number of papers have 75 papers.
41. How many number of papers the book C has?
1) 130 2) 150 3) 175 4) 200
5) Can’t be determined
42. Which book may have 90 papers?
1) G 2) B 3) A 4) D 5) Either G, B or A

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

43. Which book has least number of papers?

1) E 2) C 3) F 4) D 5) G
44. How many books have more number of papers than book G (If Book B has 75
papers)?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) Either 3 or 4
45. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question :
As soon as ‘Ravens’ biscuits were banned for sale in the market, ‘Britbite’
biscuits revived its top position in the market.
Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the given statement ?
(An assumption is something that you consider likely to be true based on the
given premises)

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1) Some years ago ‘Ravens’ gave a tough competition to ‘Britbite’ and overtook its
leading position in the market.
2) Both ‘Ravens’ and ‘Britbite’ launched digestive biscuits at the same time, but
‘Ravens’ failed miserably.
3) ‘Ravens’ was banned due to its poor quality biscuits and its unaffordable high
price.
ha
4) Some of the flavors of biscuits sold by ‘Britbite’ were not sold by ‘Ravens’.
5) Before ‘Ravens’ was banned, its chocolate flavored biscuits had the highest
selling among all other flavors.

46.

E
GENERAL/ECONOMY/BANKING AWARENESS
When were the Swachh Bharat Mission and Swachh Bharat Mission 2.0 launched
respectively?
d
1) August 15, 2014 and August 15, 2022
2) January 1, 2015 and January 5, 2020
3) October 2, 2015 and October 2, 2024
ee

4) October 2, 2014 and October 1, 2021

5) January 15, 2015 and October 25, 2021
47. According to Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT)
C
report, the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) restriction raised to what percentage
under the automated route for enterprises seeking new industrial licenses?
Sr

1) 49% 2) 51% 3) 84% 4) 75% 5) 74%

48. Which Union Minister recently inaugurated the Computer Security Incident
Response Team for Power Sector (CSIRT-Power) in New Delhi?
1) Manohar Lal Khattar 2) Amit Shah 3) Piyush Goyal
4) S. Jaishankar 5) Jitan Ram Manjhi
49. Which of the following has completed certification from NPCI to facilitate UPI-
based payment solutions to Banks, Financial Institutions, and Fintech which is
C
also approved for UPI Unified Dispute and Issue Resolution (UDIR)?
1) Apple 2) Techfull Entity 3) TechFini
4) Techno Gems 5) Xiomi
50. August 2024, Tata Power Solar Systems Limited (TPSSL) announces its strategic
collaboration with which bank to provide loans to finance the purchase of solar
panels/ units for residential and corporate customers?
1) Indian Overseas Bank 2) Bank of Baroda 3) Canara Bank
4) ICICI Bank 5) Punjab National Bank
51. Which of the following Institution runs a program called ‘self-help group bank
linkage program’ to encourage Indian banks to lend to SHGs?
1) NABARD 2) NPCI 3) RBI 4) SEBI 5) SIDBI
52. In which of the following scenarios, the Insurer may charge an Extra Premium to
the Insured?
1) Insured is Able to Afford the Extra Charge.
2) Insured is a Standard Risk.
3) Insured is a Sub Standard Risk.
4) Insured has purchased Other Insurance. 5) All of the above

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

53. Kho Kho Federation of India (KKFI) and the International Kho Kho Federation
have announced that the inaugural Kho Kho World Cup will take place in India in
2025. Who is the kho-kho president of India?
1) Sudhanshu Mittal 2) Sanjay Singh 3) V.N. Prasood
4) Dilip Tirkey 5) Ajay Singh
54. In the case of __________an Insurance Company expresses the Bonus as a
Percentage of basic benefits and already attached bonuses.
1) Reversionary Bonus 2) Compound Bonus 3) Terminal Bonus
4) Persistency Bonus 5) Cash Bonus
55. DigiLocker has integrated with the UMANG (Unified Mobile Application for New-
age Governance) app to simplify access to various government services. When did

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DigiLocker launched?
1) 2014 2) 2016 3) 2018 4) 2020 5) 2015
56. Recently, government has planned to launch two Artificial Intelligence anchors
named AI Krish and AI Bhoomi on which TV channel?
1) DD News 2) DD Bharti 3) DD National 4) DD Kisan 5) DD Saptagiri
57.
ha
The 76th Emmy Awards ceremony took place at the Peacock Theater in Los Angeles.
Which of the following bagged the Outstanding Drama Series award?
1) Shogun 2) Baby Reindeer 3) Christopher Storer

58.
4) Hacks

E 5) Palm Royale
As announced by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman in the Union Budget
2024-25, what is the amount allocated for the venture capital fund aimed at
d
boosting India's space economy?
1) Rs.2,000 crore 2) Rs.3,000 crore 3) Rs.1,000 crore
4) Rs.5,000 crore 5) Rs.4,000 crore
ee

59. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) has revised India's GDP growth forecast
for FY2024-25 to 7%, an increase from the previous estimate of 6.8%. Who is the
Managing Director of IMF?
C
1) Christine Lagarde 2) Dr Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
3) Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala
4) Kristalina Georgieva 5) Ursula von der Leyen
Sr

60. Which company has been awarded in the gold category for the prestigious ‘The
GEEF Global Environment Award 2024’ in the power industry?
1) THDC India Limited 2) Adani Enterprises 3) JSW Energy
4) NTPC Limited 5) ReNew Power
61. Consider the following with reference to the 'Core Sector’ in the Indian economy.
Which of the given below is/are the core sectors of India?
C
I) Crude Oil
II) Coal
III) Pharmaceuticals
IV) Cement
V) Electricity
1) Only (I) and (II) 2) Only (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
3) Only (I), (II), (IV) and (V)
4) All (I), (II), (III), (IV) and (V) 5) Only (III) and (IV)
62. The Request For Quote (RFQ) Platform is associated with which one of the
following?
1) Foreign direct investment 2) Infrastructure leasing agreement
3) Monetary policy operations
4) Stock exchanges 5) External commercial borrowings
63. Which Indian state has become the first to launch a Gross Environment Product
(GEP) Index?
1) Himachal Pradesh 2) Uttarakhand 3) Kerala .
4) Maharashtra 5) Goa

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

64. Which country collaborated with India and the UK to develop a superhydrophobic
activated carbon catalyst for cheaper biodiesel production?
1) Japan 2) Germany 3) United States .
4) Russia 5) China
65. In Insurance Sector, what is the full form of NSP?
1) New System of Premium 2) Net Service Premium
3) Net Single Premium
4) National System of Pension 5) New Single Plan
66. The Indian government announced the Varishtha Pension Bima Yojana (VPBY)
which provides income security with a guaranteed rate of return to seniors over
the age of 60. What is the lock-in period of VPBY?
1) 10 days 2) 15 days 3) 20 days 4) 30 days 5) 45 days

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67. Which of the following defines "assets under management" (AUM)?
1) The total value of all the investments a financial institution has made.
2) The total market value of the assets managed by a financial institution or
investment firm on behalf of its clients.
3) The total amount of capital a company has raised through its stock offerings.
4) The annual revenue generated by a financial institution from its investment
activities.
5) Both (1) and (3)
ha
68. In which year was the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB

2) 2015

E
PM-JAY), the world's largest health assurance scheme offering a health cover of
Rs.5,00,000 per family per year, launched?
1) 2014 3) 2016 4) 2017 5) 2018
d
69. Recently, India's first round-the-clock grain ATM was opened at Mancheswar in
Bhubaneswar, Odisha. Consider the following statements regarding the Grain
ATM.
ee

I. It is known as Annapurti Grain ATM which is designed and developed by the

World Food Programme India.
II. It is an automated multi-commodity dispensing solution that provides fast and
C
precise access to commodities.
III. It can dispense grain up to 50 kilograms in five minutes 24 hours a day,
reducing waiting time by 70 percent.
Sr

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1) Both (I) and (II) 2) Both (II) and (III) 3) Both (I) and (III)
4) Only (I) 5) All (I), (II) and (III)
70. Which national park in India has been declared an Eco-Sensitive Zone (ESZ) to
conserve Asiatic lions and promote sustainable development?
1) Gir National Park 2) Jim Corbett National Park
3) Kanha National Park
C
4) Bandhavgarh National Park 5) Periyar National Park
71. The International Shooting Sport Federation (ISSF) has recognized India's growing
influence and infrastructure in shooting sports by awarding the country the hosting
rights for the _________ Junior World Cup.
1) 2024 2) 2025 3) 2027 4) 2028 5) 2030
72. Invest India's new office was inaugurated in which city by Union Minister Piyush
Goyal, highlighting India's commitment to enhancing investment partnerships.
1) Singapore 2) Japan 3) Malaysia 4) Ukraine 5) France
73. Consider the following statements regarding the Modified Interest Subvention
Scheme.
I) It is a Central Sector Scheme.
II) It provides short term Agri-loans to farmers which can be availed through
Kisan Credit Card (KCC).
III) Farmers engaged in Agriculture and other allied activities can acquire Kisan
Credit Card loans up to Rs 3 lakh at a benchmark rate of 9%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) Both (I) and (II) 2) Both (II) and (III) 3) Both (I) and (III)
4) Only (I) 5) All (I), (II) and (III)

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

74. Which of the following BRICS countries is NOT a part of the newly adopted
comprehensive framework for climate and sustainable development cooperation?
1) China 2) Japan 3) Brizal 4) Russia 5) India
75. Which corporate giant is set to manufacture 150 DRDO-developed WhAP armoured
vehicles for Morocco?
1) Tata Group 2) Hindustan Aeronautics
3) Adani Group 4) Mahindra & Mahindra 5) BEL
76. In July 2024, Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) Chairman Madhabi
Puri Buch launched India’s first website for passive funds at ____________.
1) BSE Limited 2) National Stock Exchange
3) Indian Energy Exchange Limited
4) Receivables Exchange of India Limited

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5) India International Bullion Exchange IFSC Limited
77. Consider the following statements regarding the 'Inflation Expectations Survey of
Households' and 'Consumer Confidence Survey'. Which of the following statements
given below is incorrect?
1) Inflation Expectations Survey of Households' and 'Consumer Confidence Survey
are conducted by Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
ha
2) The results of the surveys provide useful inputs for the bi-monthly monetary
policy.
3) Consumer Confidence Survey aims to gather qualitative responses from

E
households regarding their views on the general economic situation, employment
scenario, price levels, household income, and spending.
4) Inflation Expectations Survey of Households aims at capturing subjective
d
assessments on price movements and inflation, based on their individual
consumption baskets.
5) Both surveys are conducted in all of Tier 1 and Tier 2 cities in India.
ee

78. Which organisation/bank has launched a “Scheme for Trading and Settlement of
Sovereign Green Bonds (SGrBs) in the International Financial Services Centre
(IFSC) in India?
1) State Bank of India (SBI)
C
2) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
3) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
4) National Stock Exchange of India Limited (NSEIL)
Sr

5) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)

79. Recently, RBI has incorporated the auto replenishment of Fastags and national
common mobility cards (NCMCs) into the e-mandate framework. For e-mandate-
based recurring transactions, the limit without Additional Factor Authentication
(AFA) is __________transaction
1) Rs.2000 2) Rs.20000 3) Rs.1000 4) Rs.6000 5) Rs.5000
80. The Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises launched the Incubation
C
Scheme under MSME Innovative Scheme to promote and support untapped creativity
and the adoption of latest technologies in MSMEs. The scheme aims to provide
financial support up to _______ per idea for developing and nurturing ideas.
1) Rs. 15 lakh 2) Rs. 10 lakh 3) Rs. 5 lakh 4) Rs. 25 lakh 5) Rs. 20 lakh
81. With reference to Treasury Bills, consider the following statements. Which of the
statements given below are incorrect?
1) These are zero coupon securities and pay no interest.
2) These are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India.
3) These are purchased only by the nationalized banks.
4) At present, treasury bills are issued in three maturities — 91-day, 182-day
and 364-day.
5) Treasury bills are issued at a discount to original value and the buyer gets the
original value upon maturity.
82. According to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), overseas Indians have deposited
nearly ________ into Non-Resident India (NRI) deposit schemes in the 1st Quarter
(Q1) of the Financial Year 2024–25 (FY25).
1) USD 3 billion 2) USD 6 billion 3) USD 8 billion
4) USD 4 billion 5) USD 2 billion

9
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

83. Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor raised concerns over
unauthorised forex trading platforms and asked banks to maintain vigil against
such illegal activities. Consider the following statements regarding Electronic
Trading Platform (ETP):
I) It is where eligible instruments like securities and money market instruments
are contracted.
II) ETPs authorised by the Reserve Bank shall host transactions only in instruments
approved by the Reserve Bank.
III) In India no entity shall operate an ETP without obtaining prior authorisation of
RBI under The Electronic Trading Platforms (Reserve Bank) Directions, 2018.

r’s
IV) An entity seeking authorisation as an ETP operator shall maintain a minimum
net-worth of Rs.50 crore and shall continue to maintain the minimum net-worth
prescribed herein at all times.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1) (I), (II) and (III) 2) (I) and (II) 3) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)

84.
4) (II) and (III)
ha 5) (I), (II) and (IV)
MPCI protects against crop yield losses. It is an acronym for __
1) Multi peril Crop Insurance 2) Maximum Paid crop Investment

85.
3) Multi Peril crop Investment
4) Metro peril Crop insurance

E 5) Minimum Peril Crop Investment

NITI Aayog launched the first State Chapter of the Women Entrepreneurship
d
Platform (WEP) in which state. It focuses on digital skills, financial services, and
market connections. Over 30,000 women entrepreneurs and 400 mentors are
part of the platform.
ee

1) Tamil Nadu 2) Telangana 3) Kerala 4) Maharashtra 5) Odisha

DATA ANALYSIS AND INTERPRETATION
C
Direction(86-90) : Refer to the pie chart and table to answer the given question :
Distribution of total number of gold coins
(both 25 gm and 50 gm) sold by 8 stores in the year 2014 :
Sr

Total number: 56,000

A STORES Respective ratio of

H number of 25 gm
7% B
19% gold coins sold and
12%
number of 50 gm
C
gold coins sold
G C A 11 : 9
10% 9% B 5:3
C 4:3
F D 3:7
D E 5:1
8%
14% F 9:5
E G 3:4
21% H 17 : 11

86. Number of gold coins (both 25 gm and 50 gm) sold by store D is by what percent
more than the number of gold coins (both 25 gm and 50 gm) sold by store B ?
1 1 3 1 2
1) 17 2) 17 3) 15 4) 14 5) 16
3 4 4 3 3
10
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

87. What is the average number of 50 gm gold coins sold by stores A, B, D and H
together ?
1) 3488 2) 3542 3) 3346 4) 3396 5) 3412
88. Total number of 25 gm gold coins sold by stores F and G together is approximately
what percent less than the number of 25 gm gold coins sold by store E ?
1) 55 2) 46 3) 42 4) 52 5) 39
89. Number of gold coins (both 25 gm and 50 gm) sold by store G increased by a
certain percent from 2014 to 2015 and by 20% from 2015 to 2016. If in 2016
number of gold coins (both 25 gm and 50 gm) sold by store G was 7056. how many

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gold coins (both 25 gm and 50 gm) were sold by it in 2005 ?
1) 6140 2) 5720 3) 5960 4) 5800 5) 5880
90. Number of 50 gm gold coins sold by store A constitutes what percent of the number
of 25 gm gold coins sold by store E ?

91.
1) 27 2) 24
ha 3) 18 4) 22 5) 15
A sales person in store H gets Rs.18 as commission for selling a 25 gm gold coin
and Rs. 26 as commission for selling a 50 gm gold coin. One such sales person in

E
store H sold 15% of the number of 25 gm gold coins sold by the store and 20% of
the number of 50 gm gold coins sold by the store. What was the difference between
d
the commission earned by her from selling 25 gm gold coins and the commission
earned by her for selling 50 gm gold coins ?
1) Rs.4768 2) Rs 4294 3) Rs.5124 4) Rs.4940 5) Rs.3982
ee

92. The average weight of boys in a class is 45 kg and the average weight of girls in
the same class is 36 kg. If the average weight of the whole class is 42.25 kg.,
C
number of girls constitutes what percent of the total number of students in the
class ?
Sr

5 1 6 2 4
1) 30 2) 33 3) 37 4) 29 5) 28
9 9 7 7 9
93. A rectangular plot, 36m long and 28m wide, has two concrete crossroads (of same
width) running in the middle of the plot (one parallel to length and the other
parallel to breadth). The rest of the plot is used as a lawn. If the area of the lawn
is 825 sq m. What is the width of the roads ?
C
1) 4m 2) 2m 3) 3m 4) 3.5m 5) 2.5m
94. Equal sum of money were invested in scheme A and scheme B for two years.
Scheme A offers simple interest and scheme B offers compound interest
(compounded annually) and the rate of interest (p.c.p.a.) for both the schemes
are same. The interest accrued from scheme A after two years is Rs. 1920 and
from scheme B is Rs. 2112. Had the rate of interest (p.c.p.a.) of scheme A been
4% more, what would have been the interest accrued from that scheme after 2
years ?
1) Rs. 2252 2) Rs. 2336 3) Rs. 2480 4) Rs. 2304 5) Rs. 2284
95. The respective ratio between present ages of P and Q is 8 : 5. The respective ratio
between P’s age 4 years ago and Q’s age 4 years hence is 4 : 3. What is the
respective ratio between P’s age 7 years hence and Q’s age 7 years ago ?
1) 18 : 11 2) 11 : 6 3) 11 : 7 4) 9 : 5 5) 9 : 4

11
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

Direction(96-100) : Study the table to answer the given question.

YEAR Annual Salary of an employee in

different department of Company
'X' (in lacs)

Finance HR Marketing Production Procurement

2016 2.96 2.58 2.40 2 1.82

r’s
2017 3.20 2.82 2.60 2.48 2
2018 3.44 3.34 2.92 2.55 2.20
2019 3.69 3.50 3.42 2.78 2.40
2020 4 3.80 3.64 3 2.64
2021 4.24
ha 4.50 4 3.42 2.80

96.

E
What is the respective ratio between the sum of the annual salary of an employee
who worked in Finance Department and an employee who worked in HR
d
department in the year 2020 and the sum of the annual salary of an employee
who worked in Marketing department and an employee who worked in Production
department in the year 2019 ?
ee

1) 38 : 35 2) 39 : 34 3) 38 : 31 4) 39 : 31 5) 39 : 28
97. What is the percentage increase in the annual salary of an employee who worked
C
in Finance Department from 2016 to 2021 ?
9 9 9 9 9
Sr

1) 46 2) 42 3) 45 4) 43 5) 44
37 37 37 37 37
98. If in the year 2017, there are 20 employees in HR Department. 24 employees in
Procurement Department and 30 employees in Marketing Department, what is
the total expenditure of Company X in the annual salaries of the employees for
these 3 departments together ? (in Rs. Lacs)
1) 182.4 2) 220 3) 194.6 4) 240.2 5) 176.2
C
99. If in the year 2022, the annual salary of an employee who worked in Marketing
Department is 28% more than the annual salary of an employee who worked in
the same department in the year 2021. The annual salary of an employee who
worked in Procurement Department is 17% more than the annual salary of an
employee who worked in the same department in the year 2021 and the annual
salary of an employee who worked in Finance Department is 32% more than the
annual salary of an employee who worked in the same department in the year
2021. what is the difference between the annual salary of the employees who
worked in these three departments in 2022 together and the annual salary of the
employees who worked in these three departments in 2021 together ?
1) Rs. 2,65,780 2) Rs. 2,85,430 3) Rs. 2,45,340 4) Rs. 2,95,280 5) Rs. 2,75,980
100. What is the average annual salary of an employee who worked in Production
department for all the given years together ? (inRs.)
1) 2,60,800 2) 2,30,600 3) 2,50,400 4) 2,70,500 5) 2,40,200

12
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

Direction(101-105) : What approximate value will come in place of the question

mark (?) in the given question ? (You are not expected to calculate exact value)
101. 589.64 + 4800.02  (20.02 x 59.99) = ?
1) 580 2) 549 3) 531 4) 593 5) 567
102. 25.052 + 14.992 - (3005.25 - 43.32)  ? = 701.9
1) 35 2) 20 3) 25 4) 15 5) 55
103. (19.899% of 4220.222) + (20.002% of 4960.322) = ?
1) 1856 2) 1844 3) 1828 4) 1810 5) 1836
104. 495.006  16.05 + 65.01 x 9.992 = ?
1) 6533 2) 6503 3) 6585 4) 6545 5) 6553

r’s
5 8 13
105. of of of 985  ?
9 11 36
1) 152 2) 124 3) 136 4) 144 5) 115
Direction(106-110) : In this question two equations numbered I & II are given.
You have to solve both the equations and select the appropriate answer:
106. I. 24x2 + 11x + 1 = 0
II. 6y2 + 19y + 15 = 0
ha
1) X  Y 2) X < Y

4) X > Y

E
3) Relationship between x and y cannot be established.
5) X  Y
d
107. I. x2 – 5x – 84 = 0
II. y2 – 9y – 52 = 0
1) Relationship between x and y cannot be established.
ee

2) X < Y 3) X  Y 4) X > Y 5) X  Y
2
108. I. 24x – 29 x – 4 = 0
II. 16y2 + 26y + 3 = 0
C
1) X > Y 2) X  Y 3) X < Y
4) Relationship between x and y cannot be established 5) X  Y
Sr

2
109. I. 14x + 29x +12 = 0
II. 14y2 + 15y + 4 = 0
1) Relationship between x and y cannot be established.
2) X  Y 3) X < Y 4) X  Y 5) X > Y
2
110. I. 12x – 7x + 1 = 0
II. 4y2 – 8y + 3 = 0
C
1) Relationship between x and Y cannot be established.
2) X  Y 3) X < Y 4) X>Y 5) X  Y
Direction(111-115) : Study the following information carefully to answer the
question.
The findings of a survey of private hospitals are as follows :
1. A total of 1200 patients admitted were considered for the survey.
2. Out of which 45% were suffering from cardiac diseases. 30% were suffering
from kidney problems and remaining were admitted due to various common issues.
3. Out of those suffering from cardiac diseases, 20% had no issues in meeting
the expenditure out of which one - third were rich and remaining had an Insurance
policy.
4. Of the remaining 80%, suffering from cardiac diseases three - fourth could
manage half the expenditure on their own and remaining was met through the
monetary help received from some of the trusts. Rest of the patients suffering
from cardiac diseases required complete monetary help from the trusts.

13
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

5. Out of those suffering from kidney problems, 25% had no issues in meeting
the expenditure out of which one - third were rich and remaining had an Insurance
policy.
6. Of the remaining 75% suffering from kidney problems 40% could manage half
the expenditure on their own and remaining was met through the monetary help
received from some of the trusts. Rest of the patients suffering from kidney
problems required complete monetary help from the trusts.
7. Out of those suffering from various common issues. 44% could bear the
expenditure out of which two - third are insured and remaining are rich while
rest of the patients could manage by getting partial help from the hospitals’

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trusts by getting the treatment at concessional rates.
111. Out of the total number of patients who are able to meet the total expenses, what
percent are insured ?
2 1 2
1) 65 2) 62 3) 61 4) 63 5) 66
3 3 3
ha
112. What percent of total number of patients suffering from cardiac diseases need
help from trusts to meet half the expenditure ?
1) 48 2) 45 3) 56 4) 60 5) 54

1) 136 2) 148

E
113. Total how many patients are able to meet full expenses being rich ?
3) 124 4) 110 5) 132
114. How many patients suffering from kidney problems need full monetary help ?
d
1) 115 2) 108 3) 142 4) 162 5) 148
115. What is the ratio between patients suffering from cardiac diseases requiring
50% help and the patients suffering from kidney problems requiring either half
ee

or full help respectively ?

1) 7 : 5 2) 5 : 4 3) 6 : 5 4) 7 : 6 5) 5 : 3
Direction (116 – 117): The question consists of four statements numbered I, II, III
and IV given below it. You have to decide that data provided in which of the
C
following statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
116. There are two articles A and B. The ratio of cost prices of articles A and B is 5: 3
Sr

respectively. Article B is marked up by 20% above its cost price. Find the difference
between the selling price and cost price of article A?
Statement I: Marked price of article B is 50% more than its selling price. The
selling price of article B is 52% less than that of article A.
Statement II: The marked price of article A is 60% more than its selling price.
Article B is sold at a loss of 20% such that 10 times 33.33% of the selling price of
article B is equal to marked price of article A.
C
Statement III: If article A had been sold at profit of 20% then its selling price
would have been twice the cost price of article B.
Statement IV: The ratio of marked price of articles A and B is 10: 9 respectively
such that marked price of article B is 28% less than the selling price of article A.
1) All I, II, III and IV 2) Only I and III 3) Only II and IV
4) Either I or II or IV 5) Only I and IV
117. The speed of boat B in still water is equal to downstream speed of boat A. Find the
time taken by the boat A to travel 360 km in still water?
Statement I: Boat B can travel 600 km in upstream in 12.5 hours.
Statement II: The ratio of downstream speed of boats B and A is 4: 3 respectively.
The speed of the stream is 24 km/hr
Statement III: The downstream speed of boat B is 96 km/hr which is 24 km/hr
more than the downstream speed of boat A.
Statement IV: The downstream speed of boat A is 24 km/hr more than upstream
speed of boat B.
1) Either II and IV or III and IV 2) Only I and III
3) Only II and IV 4) Only I, II and IV
5) Either I and IV or II and IV

14
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

Direction (118–120): Answer the questions based on the information given below:
The bar chart represents the passing marks and the highest marks obtained in
five different subjects.
The table represents some information about the marks obtained by all the five
persons in different subjects.
Babur, Akbar, jahangir, Shajahan and Humayun has scored the highest marks in
Maths, Hindi, Science, English and Social Science respectively.
A mark obtained by all the five students in a particular subject is different.

Passing marks Highest marks

r’s
49 54 52 53
38 40 36 39
35 31

Maths
ha English Science Hindi Social
Science

E
Average marks Marks in maths Sum of marks Marks in
d
obtained in Social
English and Hindi Science
Babur 43.4 (a + 14) 87 (c – 5)
Akbar 42.4 (b + 18) (d + 74) 34
ee

Jahangir 41.2 (b + 10) 87 (e + 9)

Shajahan 44.2 (c+ 4) 92 36
Humayun 45.6 45 97 (d +9)
C
118. Find the difference between the marks obtained by Babur and Shajahan in
Science?
Sr

1) 3 2) 5 3) 9 4) 0 5) 1
119. How many more marks than passing marks were obtained by Jahangir in Social
Science if Akbar has failed in Science by 4 marks?
1) 8 2) 9 3) 6 4) 4 5) 12
120. If Babur has scored 4 marks more than the passing marks in Social Science then
the marks obtained by Shajahan in maths is approximately what percentage
more or less than the passing marks in maths?
1) 16% 2) 21% 3) 11% 4) 9% 5) 25%
C
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Direction(121-124): In this question two sentences have been given with two
blanks in each. The blanks suggest that something has been omitted. Choose the
option comprising a pair of words which will fit both the sentences and make the
sentences grammatically and meaningfully complete.
121. I. The newly implemented tax policies are likely to ________ the ________ of
economic reforms.
II. By increasing investment in research, the company aims to _______the _________
of its product development, bringing innovations to market more quickly.
1) initiate, impact 2) regulate, scope 3) accelerate, trajectory
4) begin, framework 5) None of these
122. I. His ________ to achieve excellence stems from his ________ towards perfection.
II. The ________ for the project was clear, but his ________ to meet deadlines was
unparalleled.
1) drive, commitment 2) effort, approach 3) ambition, diligence
4) passion, resolve 5) None of these

15
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

123. I. The chef’s apron was soiled with ________ of oil, and the stains were ________
across the counter.
II. My assignment had so many ________ of ink, making the errors ________ to the
reader.
1) patches, visible 2) spots, scattered 3) blotches, evident
4) streaks, dispersed 5) None of these
124. I. While you can ________ the past, it is wiser to ________ on building a better
future.
II. He tends to _______ every little error, but he needs to _________on the bigger
picture to succeed.
1) dwell on, focus 2)ponder, embark 3)reflect upon, concentrate

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4) reminisce about, stray 5) None of these
Direction (125): In the following questions, a sentence is given in bold. Determine
which of the following sentences given in the option is similar to the sentence
given in bold, is grammatically correct and conveys the same meaning.
125. In the corporate world, success is not measured by fleeting profits or evading
challenges. True success lies in fostering sustainable growth while upholding
ha
integrity, even when faced with adversity.
A. In the corporate world, success entails achieving sustainable growth and
maintaining integrity, even amidst challenges, rather than pursuing fleeting profits
or avoiding difficulties.

E
B. Corporate success is defined as facing challenges with integrity while achieving
long-term growth, not by gaining temporary profits or avoiding hardships.
d
C. The corporate world rewards those who foster collaboration and creativity,
ensuring a vibrant work culture for sustainable development.
1) A 2) B 3) B and C 4) A and B 5) none of the above
ee

Direction (126-127): In this question four sentences are given (A), (B), (C) and
(D) together which forms a paragraph. By interchanging two out of the given four
sentences the paragraph will follow a meaningful sequence. Identify the sentences
C
from the given options which need to be interchanged and mark it as that your
answer. If the sentences are in correct sequence as they are and do not need to
Sr

be interchanged, mark ‘No interchange required’ as the answer.

126. (A) A long-awaited fund designed to help lower-income countries respond to natural
disasters is finally taking shape at the U.N. climate conference in Baku.
(B) Last year, a group of nations, including the United States and the European
Union, made the first financial commitments.
(C) Wealthy nations agreed to create the fund at the 2022 climate summit in
Sharm el Sheikh, Egypt, after decades of resistance.
C
(D) Now, the fund has a leader and is looking to start distributing money within
the next year.
1) A-C 2) C-B 3) D-C 4) No interchange required 5) A-D
127. (A) As the economic crisis worsened, differences on a recovery also deepened,
leading to Chancellor Scholz sacking his Finance Minister, Christian Lindner of
the Free Democrats.
(B) The three-way coalition, involving Mr. Scholz’s Social Democrats, Greens and
pro-market Free Democratic Party, was struggling for the past year to put up a
united face amid public differences.
(C) The collapse of German Chancellor Olaf Scholz’s coalition in Germany last
week has plunged Europe’s largest and a recession-affected economy deeper into
crisis.
(D) While the Social Democrats and the Greens supported more borrowing and
public spending to modernise and support industry and a shift towards
environmental energy, Mr. Lindner advocated lower taxes and austerity measures.
(E) The Himalayan rivers have a perennial flow since these are fed by glaciers.
1) A-D 2) B-C 3) B-A 4) A-C 5)C-D

16
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

Direction (128-134):In this question a passage is given, in which all the sentences
of the passage are numbered as I, II, III, IV, V, VI and VII. Each of these sentences
is divided into four parts denoted by (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these parts may
have an error in terms of grammar or may be inappropriate in the context of the
passage. The part with error, if any, is your answer. If none of the given parts has
grammatical error and all the parts are appropriate in the context of the passage
then mark ‘No Error’ as the answer.
I. The pharmaceutical formulation (A)/ does not contains any synthetic (B) /
compounds, ensuring it (C)/ remains entirely organic. (D).
II. The outbreak of the pandemic (A)/ affected economies wherever(B)/ the world,
leading to (C)/ global financial crises. (D).

r’s
III. There was a growing sense(A)/ of dissatisfaction between the workers,(B)/
who felt that their contributions(C)/ were undervalued by the management.(D)
IV. Some people do not eat meat(A)/ because they believe it is unhealthy(B),/ as
some think it is (C)/ cruel and wrong to kill animals(D).
V. His reputation as a dedicated(A)/ mentor has the power to(B)/ lift up others,
inspiring them to pursue their (C)/own academic and professional dreams.(D)/
ha
VI. As a child, she dreamed at (A)becoming a renowned scientist, (B)/unraveling
the mysteries of the (C)/universe through groundbreaking research.(D)
VII. Economic analysts are forecasting (A)/a moderate recovery in global markets
by the (B)/ end of the year, driven by increased(C)/ consumer spending.(D)
128.

E
Which of the following parts has error in statement I?
1)A 2) No error 3) C 4) D 5) B
d
129. Which of the following parts has error in statement V?
1)A 2) B 3) No error 4) D 5) C
130. Which of the following parts has error in statement VI?
ee

1)A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
131. Which of the following parts has error in statement IV?
1)No error 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) A
132. Which of the following parts has error in statement VII?
C
1)A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
133. Which of the following parts has error in statement II?
Sr

1) A 2) No error 3) C 4) D 5) B
134. Which of the following parts has error in statement III?
1)No error 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) A
Directions (135-139): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
From around 200 million in 1990, the number of people with diabetes has
quadrupled globally to over 800 million in 2022 while the global diabetes pooling
C
(A) in adults rose from 7% to 14% between 1990 and 2022, as in data released in
The Lancet on November 13. At 212 million, India has the highest number of
people with diabetes as against China’s prevalence of 148 million. India also
topped(B) the list of countries with 133 million people over the age of 30 years
with untreated diabetes as against 78 million in China. One reason for the steep
increase in the number of those with diabetes was the methodology used for
prevalence (C) and analysing the data — being on medication for diabetes, or
having a fasting plasma glucose of 7.0 mmol/L or more, or an HbA1c of 6.5% or
more. Unlike earlier studies that mostly relied on elevated fasting plasma glucose
or other single-biomarker data, the analysis by the NCD Risk Factor Collaboration
with support from the World Health Organization (WHO) included people whose
fasting plasma glucose or glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) was elevated. Taking into
account elevated fasting plasma glucose alone without including those with
elevated glycated haemoglobin, the study notes, misses out many people with
diabetes, particularly in south Asia. That diabetes prevalence in India has
increased in the last three decades is beyond doubt even if the (D)________ numbers
are contested.

17
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

While consumption of unhealthy food, particularly high-calorie foods rich in

carbohydrates and saturated fat, and a (E)__________ lifestyle are two major
controllable risk factors for diabetes, the role of tobacco in causing diabetes has
not been highlighted sufficiently. According to a November 2023 WHO report,
there is (F)____________ evidence that cigarette smoking raises the risk of
developing diabetes by 30%-40% compared with those who do not smoke. Nicotine,
the addictive substance in tobacco, impairs the function and amount of insulin
producing beta cells, thereby affecting insulin production and regulation of glucose
production, which together play an important role in the onset of diabetes. Nicotine
also induces insulin resistance, another factor causing diabetes.
135. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A) The global diabetes prevalence in adults has remained constant from 1990 to 2022.

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B) India has the highest number of people with diabetes, followed by China.
C) The rise in diabetes prevalence is mainly attributed to unhealthy food
consumption and sedentary lifestyles.
D) Tobacco use is not linked to an increased risk of developing diabetes.
1) A, B 2) B, C 3) A, D 4) B, D 5) All the above are true
136. What is one key factor that contributed to the increase in the number of people
with diabetes globally?
ha
A) Increased sugar consumption
B) A change in methodology for analyzing data
C) Rise in exercise habits

E
D) Decrease in medication use
1) Only C 2) Both A and B 3) Both C, D 4) Only B 5) None of these
137. Pick out the appropriate options according to the narrator’s point of view.
d
A) The rise in diabetes cases can largely be attributed to an increase in physical
activity.
B) The WHO report highlighted the role of nicotine in increasing diabetes risk.
ee

C) The methodology used in the study has led to a more accurate understanding
of diabetes prevalence.
1) A, B 2) B, C, D 3) A, C, D 4) B, C, 5) None of these
138. In the passage certain words are given in bold and referred as (A), (B)& (C).
C
Rearrange these words such that the sentence is meaningful. If the sentence is
already arranged properly then choose the appropriate option.
1) CBA 2) BAC 3) ABC 4) ACB 5) CAB
Sr

139. The passage contains few blanks and marked as (D), (E)& (F), fill them with the
most appropriate option. Choose the correct combination from the following options.
I. sedentary II. overwhelming III. absolute
1) D-III, E- II, F-I 2) D-I, E- II, F-II 3) D-III, E-I, F-II
4) D-II, E- III, F-I 5) None of these
Direction (140-144): In this question a word has been given and followed by five
options. In each option a pair of words have been given. You have to identify the
pair in which the first word of the pair is a synonym and the second word of the
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pair is an antonym of the word given. Choose that option as your answer. If none
of the given options fulfils the requirement then mark ‘None of these’ as the
answer.
140. Idiocy
1) brilliancy: mediocre 2) privilege: licence 3) dogma : belief
4) absurdity: wisdom 5) None of these
141. Apprehension
1) Gratitude: respectful 2) apology: thankless 3) dread: confidence
4) punishment : privilege 5) None of these
142. Amenable
1) Religious : theism 2) masculine: feminine 3) proud: humble
4) agreeable: discordant 5) None of these
143. Ludicrous
1) Profitable: disadvantageous 2) excessive: limited 3) disordered: aligned
4) ridiculous : normal 5) None of these
144. Beset
1) Plead: refuse 2) assail: protect 3) pertain to: ascertain
4) deny : accept 5) None of these

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

Directions (145-151): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given. Certain words have been given in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
The battle over climate change is putting an old maxim to the test: Where
there’s a will, there’s a way. The COP26 climate summit in Glasgow offers reasons
to hope it will be proven correct, particularly on a challenge at the heart of the
issue: financing the global transition to clean energy. There is no longer any
doubt about the will. Today, more than two-thirds of global gross domestic product
is covered by some form of commitment to reach net-zero emissions. Turning
these commitments into real action is the focus of COP26. And while much of the
attention during and after the conference will be focused on national governments,
the fact is: They can’t do it alone. Ramping up adoption of clean energy and other

r’s
sustainable infrastructure fast enough to avoid the worst impacts of climate change
will require trillions of dollars in new investment — likely in the ballpark of $100
trillion. Most of that will have to come from the private sector, especially after the
enormous toll that the pandemic has taken on governmental budgets. This is
particularly true in emerging markets and developing countries, where the need
for investment in clean energy is most acute. Growing economies mean growing
ha
energy demands, and if that demand is met with coal rather than clean energy,
we will all pay a tremendous cost: in physical damages from more severe weather
patterns, stresses to food and water supplies, and increases in deadly air
pollution. Private-sector leaders understand how dangerous and destructive those

E
costs could be. They want to help prevent them, and not just out of altruism.
Businesses and investors have significant exposure to risks from climate change
— and at the same time, the race toward clean energy and sustainable
d
infrastructure is a major opportunity for investment.
145. What is the primary focus of COP26, according to the passage?
1) To explore how to mitigate the effects of climate change
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2) To promote green technologies in emerging markets

3) To shift the focus from global warming to pollution control
4) To transform commitments into real actions for reducing emissions
5) None of these
C
146. Why is the author not skeptical about the will to clean energy?
I. The decisions made by nationalist governments recently
II. More than two-thirds of global gross domestic product is covered by some form
Sr

of commitment to reach net-zero emissions

III. Private players are reluctant to invest in COP26
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Both I and II 4) Only III 5) All the above
147. What is the major source of investment required to meet the clean energy
transition, as mentioned in the passage?
1) National governments 2) Global charity organizations
3) Private sector 4) International aid 5) Local communities
148. According to the passage, what could be a consequence of meeting growing energy
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demands with coal instead of clean energy?
A) Increase in global economic stability
B) Decrease in physical damages from severe weather patterns
C) A tremendous cost in physical damages and air pollution
1) Only B 2) Only C 3) Both A and B 4) Both A and C 5) All A,B and C
149. Why do private-sector leaders want to help prevent the risks of climate change?
1) To avoid the physical damages caused by climate change
2) Out of altruism and charity 3) To fulfill government mandates
4) To gain political power 5) All the above
150. Which of the following titles best reflects the central theme of the passage?
1) The Environmental Impact of Clean Energy
2) The Financial Challenge of Transitioning to Clean Energy
3) The Role of Governments in Clean Energy Transition
4)The Technological Advancements in Renewable Energy
5)None of these
151. Which of the following according to the passage is most similar in meaning to the
phrase “ramping up” as used in bold in the passage?
1) alleviating 2) increasing 3) abrasion 4) deviating 5) liaison

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Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 25

152. Which of the following words is most similar in meaning to "destructive" as used
in the passage?
1) Cataclysmic 2) Salutary 3) Beneficent 4) Inoffensive 5) Benign
Direction (153-155): In each of the following questions, one idiom has been given
and it has been followed by four sentences. You have to find out in which of these
sentences idiom has been used properly according to its meaning and mark your
answer from the options denoted by 1,2 ,3 ,4. Mark 5 as your answer if you find
that idiom has been applied properly in all the sentences.
153. Music to one's ears
I. After hearing the good news about the promotion, the words were like music to
my ears.
II. The sound of the waves crashing on the shore was music to her ears after a

r’s
long, stressful week.
III. When he heard that his proposal had been rejected, it was like music to his
ears.
IV. The praise from his mentor was like music to his ears as he had worked hard
for it.
1) All except IV 2) I,III 3) III,IV 4) I,II and IV
5) All are correct
154. Turns a blind eye
ha
I. The teacher turned a blind eye to the student's cheating during the exam, not
wanting to create a scene.

E
II. The government often turns a blind eye to environmental violations to avoid
upsetting powerful industries.
III. She always turns a blind eye to her friends' mistakes, even when they hurt
d
others.
IV. In the meeting, the manager turned a blind eye to the minor errors in the
report to keep the discussion moving smoothly.
ee

1) I,IV 2) II,IV 3) All except II

4) I,III 5) All are correct
155. Over one’s head
I. The complex scientific explanation went right over my head during the lecture.
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II. His kindness and generosity went over my head, and I didn't appreciate it at
the time.
III. The advanced mathematics was completely over her head, so she struggled
Sr

with the course.

IV. The terms and conditions of the contract were over my head, and I needed
help to interpret them.
1) All except II 2) I,III 3) II,III
4) II, IV 5) All are correct

KEY
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1.3 2.2 3.4 4.5 5.5 6.3 7.1 8.2 9.1 10.1
11.3 12.1 13.4 14.2 15.5 16.1 17.2 18.3 19.4 20.3
21.4 22.4 23.5 24.5 25.1 26.4 27.5 28.3 29.4 30.3
31.5 32.2 33.3 34.5 35.1 36.4 37.2 38.3 39.5 40.5
SCAN QR FOR
41.5 42.5 43.3 44.3 45.1 46.4 47.5 48.1 49.3 50.4
OUR RESULTS
51.1 52.3 53.1 54.2 55.5 56.4 57.1 58.3 59.4 60.1
61.3 62.4 63.2 64.5 65.3 66.2 67.2 68.5 69.5 70.1
71.2 72.1 73.5 74.2 75.1 76.2 77.5 78.2 79.1 80.1
81.3 82.4 83.1 84.1 85.2 86.5 87.1 88.2 89.5 90.3
91.2 92.1 93.3 94.4 95.5 96.4 97.4 98.1 99.4 100.4
101.4 102.2 103.2 104.1 105.4 106.4 107.1 108.5 109.1 110.3
111.5 112.4 113.4 114.4 115.3 116.4 117.1 118.1 119.3 120.1
121.3 122.1 123.3 124.1 125.4 126.2 127.4 128.5 129.5 130.1
131.3 132.5 133.5 134.2 135.3 136.4 137.4 138.1 139.3 140.4
141.3 142.4 143.4 144.2 145.4 146.2 147.3 148.2 149.1 150.2
151.2 152.1 153.4 154.5 155.1

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