P3W1

1. Susan is conducting a class to her student about coronary arteries, she told her student that Ischemia in the
coronary arteries is a frequent cause of:
a. angina pectoris.
b. hemorrhagic stroke.
c. aneurysm.
d. hypertension
Answer: A
Rationale: Atherosclerosis can affect almost any organ or tissue in the body and, accordingly, is a major cause
of disability or death. Obstructed blood flow in the coronary arteries can cause pain or discomfort in the chest
and surrounding regions (angina pectoris) or lead to a heart attack.

2. During the ward class, clinical instructor discussed that Dietary lipids with the strongest LDL cholesterol–
raising effects are:
a. monounsaturated fats.
b. polyunsaturated fats.
c. saturated fats.
d. plant sterols.
Answer: C
Rationale: Saturated fats which are solid at room temperature, increase the level of low density lipoprotein.

3.Nurse Ann, during health teaching informed that hypertensive patients can benefit from all of the following
dietary and lifestyle modifications except:
a. including fat-free or low-fat milk products in the diet.
b. reducing total fat intake.
c. consuming generous amounts of fruit, vegetables, legumes, and nuts.
d. reducing sodium intake.
Answer: B
Rationale: Not all fats are dangerous, and lowering the total fat intake can affect the absorption of the fat
soluble vitamins

4. Rosana,is giving Nutrition therapy for a patient with heart failure in her therapy it includes:
a. weight loss.
b. reducing total fat intake.
c. sodium restriction.
d. cholesterol restriction.
Answer: C
Rationale: The DASH Eating Plan is even more effective when accompanied by a low sodium intake. In a
research study that tested the blood pressure–lowering effects of the DASH dietary pattern in combination with
sodium restriction, the best results were achieved when sodium was reduced to 1500 milligrams daily.

5. 509

Which statement indicates the patient understands the instruction about a heart healthy diet?
A. “The most important thing about a heart healthy diet is to eat less cholesterol.No egg yolks for me.”
B.”I need to limit my intake of meat and make sure I make lean choices.”
C. “As long as I don’t add salt to my food while cooking or at the table, I will be able to achieve a low-sodium
diet.”
D. “Trans fats are found only in foods that come from animals.”

6. During ward class Ada informed her student that hypertensive patients can benefit from all of the following
dietary and lifestyle modifications except:
A. including fat-free or low-fat milk products in the diet.
B. reducing total fat intake.
C. consuming generous amounts of fruit, vegetables, legumes, and nuts.
D. reducing sodium intake.
Answer: B
Rationale: Not all fats are dangerous, and lowering the total fat intake can affect the absorption of the fat
soluble vitamins.

7. Ms. Smith asked the nurse which dietary adjustment may be helpful for women with gestational diabetes?
A. Consuming most of the day’s carbohydrate allotment in the morning
B. Restricting carbohydrate to about 30 grams at breakfast
C. Avoiding food intake after dinner
D. Reducing energy intake to about 50 percent of the calculated requirement
Answer: D
Rationale: Women with gestational diabetes may need to restrict energy and/or carbohydrate intakes to
maintain appropriate glucose levels

8. A client with heart failure has been told to maintain a low sodium diet. A nurse who is teaching this client
about foods that are allowed includes which food item in a list provided to the client?
A. Pretzels. C. Whole wheat bread.
B. Tomato juice canned. D. Dried apricot.
Answer: d
Foods that are lower in sodium includes fruits and vegetables like dried apricot.

9. A patient is diagnosed with Congestive Heart Failure and the nurse told him that he must follow a specific
diet. Which spices are okay for the patient to use daily?
A. Onion Salt & Garlic Powder C. Ginger & Bay Leaves
B. Sea Salt & Pepper D. Garlic Sodium & Nutmeg
Answer: c
Patients with CHF should avoid excessive sodium. All of the options expect one contain at least one sodium
spice, therefore, Ginger & Bay Leaves are okay to use.

10. Ms. Ann was recently admitted for a Deep Vein Thrombosis and was started on Coumadin. During
your education with her you would instruct the patient to avoid what food?
A. Bananas C. Lettuce
B. Spinach D. Processed meats
Answer: b
Coumadin prevents clotting of the blood. Due to the high amount of vitamin k (vitamin k plays a role in clotting)
in green leafy vegetable, these foods should be limited.

11. Edna has a patient who just had a stroke and has garbled speech. What type of diet do Edna expect the
patient to be prescribed after a speech evaluation?
A. Soft diet
B. Mechanically altered diet with thin liquids
C. Full liquid diet
D. Mechanically altered diet with nectar thick liquids
Answer: d
When a patient has a stroke they are at risk for aspiration due to the decrease ability to swallow. Many times a
stroke with affect speech as well the patient‘s ability to utilize the swallowing muscles. Generally, when
garbled speech is noted in a stroke victim this is a sign there is a problem with the patient’s ability to use their
swallowing muscles. A mechanically altered diet with nectar thick liquid will usually be prescribed. However, a
speech evaluation will determine what is needed.
12.A client with no history of cardiovascular disease comes into the ambulatory clinic with flu-like symptoms.
The client suddenly complains of chest pain. Which of the following questions would best help a nurse to
discriminate pain caused by a non-cardiac problem?

A. “Have you ever had this pain before?”

B. “Can you describe the pain to me?”
C. “Does the pain get worse when you breathe in?”
D. “Can you rate the pain on a scale of 1-10, with ten (10) being the worst?”
Incorrect
Correct Answer: C. “Does the pain get worse when you breathe in?”

Chest pain is assessed by using the standard pain assessment parameters. It is very important to find out what
makes the pain worse. Is there an exertional component, is it associated with eating or breathing? Is there a
positional component? Don’t forget to ask about new workout routines, sports, and lifting. Ask what
medications they have tried.

13. A nurse notes 2+ bilateral edema in the lower extremities of a client with myocardial infarction who was
admitted two (2) days ago. The nurse would plan to do which of the following next?

A. Review the intake and output records for the last two (2) days.
B. Change the time of diuretic administration from morning to evening.
C. Request a sodium restriction of one (1) g/day from the physician.
D. Order daily weight starting the following morning.

Correct Answer: A. Review the intake and output records for the last 2 days.

Edema, the accumulation of excess fluid in the interstitial spaces, can be measured by intake greater than
output and by a sudden increase in weight. Monitor intake and output. Note decreased urinary output and
positive fluid balance on 24-hour calculations. Decreased renal perfusion, cardiac insufficiency, and fluid shifts
may cause decreased urinary output and edema formation.

14.You are seeing a patient on hemodialysis for a monthly lab review. During the review, you notice that his
albumin level is 2.6 g/dL. He says he eats one meal per day and would like advice on what meats and meat
alternatives to prepare. Which proteins are among those you would advise your patient to eat?
A. Chicken, fish, beef, eggs, soybeans, quinoa
B. Legumes
C. Potatoes, rice, breads, and pasta
D. Sesame seeds, pumpkin seeds, almonds, walnuts

Answer: a
Chicken, fish, beef, eggs, soybeans, quinoa are known as high protein foods.

15. The nurse implements a teaching plan for a pregnant client who is newly
diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus. Which statement made by the
client indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I should stay on the diabetic diet.”
B. “I should perform glucose monitoring at home.”
C. “I should avoid exercise because of the negative effects on insulin
production.”
D. “I should be aware of any infections and report signs of infection
immediately to my obstetrician.”
Answer: C
Rationale: Exercise is safe for a client with gestational diabetes mellitus and is
helpful in lowering the blood glucose level. Dietary modifications are the mainstay
of treatment, and the client is placed on a standard diabetic diet. Many clients are
taught to perform blood glucose monitoring. If the client is not performing the blood
glucose monitoring at home, it is performed at the clinic or obstetrician’s office. Signs
infection needs to be reported to the obstetrician.

16. The nurse is assessing a pregnant client with type 1 diabetes mellitus about
her understanding regarding changing insulin needs during pregnancy. The
nurse determines that further teaching is needed if the client makes which
statement?
A. “I will need to increase my insulin dosage during the first 3
months of pregnancy.”
B. “My insulin dose will likely need to be increased during the
second and third trimesters.”
C. “Episodes of hypoglycemia are more likely to occur during the
first 3 months of pregnancy.”
D. “My insulin needs should return to pre-pregnant levels within 7 to
10 days after birth if I am bottle-feeding.”

Answer: A
Rationale: Insulin needs decrease in the first trimester of pregnancy because of
increased insulin production by the pancreas and increased peripheral sensitivity to
insulin. The statements in options 2, 3, and 4 are accurate and signify that the client
understands control of her diabetes during pregnancy.

17. The nurse is providing instructions to a pregnant client with a history of

cardiac disease regarding appropriate dietary measures. Which statement, if made by the client, indicates an
understanding of the information provided
by the nurse?
A. “I should increase my sodium intake during pregnancy.”
B. “I should lower my blood volume by limiting my fluids.”
C. “I should maintain a low-calorie diet to prevent any weight gain.”
D. “I should drink adequate fluids and increase my intake of high fiber foods.

Answer: D
Rationale: Constipation can cause the client to use the Valsalva maneuver. The
Valsalva maneuver should be avoided in clients with cardiac disease because it can
cause blood to rush to the heart and overload the cardiac system. Constipation can
be prevented by the addition of fluids and a high-fiber diet. A low-calorie diet is not
recommended during pregnancy and could be harmful to the fetus. Sodium should
be restricted as prescribed by the primary health care provider, because excess
sodium would cause an overload to the circulating blood volume and contribute to
cardiac complications. Diets low in fluid can cause a decrease in blood volume,
which could deprive the fetus of nutrients

18. A patient with stage 4 chronic kidney disease asks what type of diet they should follow. You explain to the patient she
should follow a:
A. Low protein, low sodium, low potassium, low phosphate diet
B. High protein, low sodium, low potassium, high phosphate diet
C. Low protein, high sodium, high potassium, high phosphate diet
D. Low protein, low sodium, low potassium, high phosphate diet
Answer: a
The patient should follow this type of diet because protein breaks down into urea (remember patients will have
increased urea levels), low sodium to prevent fluid retention, low potassium to prevent hyperkalemia (rem

19.If you have decreased kidney function, you should monitor which of these in your diet?
A. Protein
B. Food dyes
C. Sodium
D. a and c
Answer: d
According to the National Institute of Diabetes and Digestive and Kidney Disease, people who have decreased
function of their kidneys may need to monitor the protein in their diet. Sodium, found in salt, may raise your
blood pressure. High blood pressure can damage the kidneys. Talk with your healthcare provider to be sure
you’re getting the proper nutrition, as well as making the appropriate changes in your diet to help your kidneys
work well.

2o.You are seeing a patient on hemodialysis for a monthly lab review. During the review, you notice that his
albumin level is 2.6 g/dL. He says he eats one meal per day and would like advice on what meats and meat
alternatives to prepare. Which proteins are among those you would advise your patient to eat?
A. Chicken, fish, beef, eggs, soybeans, quinoa
B. Legumes
C. Potatoes, rice, breads, and pasta
D. Sesame seeds, pumpkin seeds, almonds, walnuts

Answer: a
Chicken, fish, beef, eggs, soybeans, quinoa are known as high protein foods.

21.When conducting a class the instructor asked the student. How do most kidney-damaging diseases affect
the kidneys?
A. They damage nephrons, the kidney's filtering mechanisms
B. They damage urethras
C. They damage the bladder
D. They damage all tissue
Answer: a
Each kidney contains about a million tiny filtering units called nephrons. A nephron is made up of small tubes
and blood vessels. Diseases that affect the kidneys can damage the nephrons. As a result, the kidneys have
problems getting rid of waste products.

22.In distinguishing acute from chronic renal failure, which of the following is the most reliable evidence of
CKD?
A. History of increased serum creatinine
B. History of increased BUN
C. Above-normal plasma sodium
D. Above-normal serum calcium

Answer: A: A history of increased serum creatinine. Urinalysis findings depend on the nature of the underlying
disorder, but broad (> 3 WBC diameters wide) or especially waxy (highly refractile) casts often are prominent in
advanced renal failure of any cause. Choice B may be present in acute or chronic renal failure. C: Plasma
sodium is typically normal. D: Serum calcium is abnormal but not reliable in distinguishing acute from chronic
renal failure.

23. In determining prognosis for a patient with CKD, progression of the disease is predicted in most cases by
A.Kidney size on an ultrasound
B.Abnormalities in sodium-water balance
C.Chronically elevated hemoglobin A1C levels
D.The degree of proteinuria
Answer: D: The degree of proteinuria. Patients with nephrotic-range proteinuria (> 3 g/24 h or urine
protein/creatinine > 3) usually have a poorer prognosis and progress to renal failure more rapidly. Progression
may occur even if the underlying disorder is not active. In patients with urine protein < 1.5 g/24 h, progression
usually occurs more slowly if at all. Choices A, B, and C are factors affecting renal function but do not directly
predict progression of the disease.
24. In prescribing nutritional therapy for patients with CKD, which of the following parameters should be used
to guide vitamin D dosage levels?
A.Serum vitamin D levels
B.Levels of dietary vitamin D
C.Parathyroid hormone concentrations
D.Serum calcium levels

Answer: C: Parathyroid hormone concentrations. Dose is determined by stage of CKD, parathyroid hormone
concentrations, and phosphate concentrations. Choices A, B, and D are not used to determine vitamin D
dosage.

25. Common non-specific symptoms of chronic kidney disease include:

A. Increased urination at night
B. Loss of appetite
C. Swelling of hands and feet
D. All of . the above

Answer D
Kidney disease can have many different signs and symptoms that are non-specific, meaning, these same
symptoms could also be signs of dysfunction in another body organ.

BSN2 P3W2 NUR102 LECTURE POST TEST

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GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
Shade only those that apply to each question on your answer sheet.
Read the question carefully and choose the best answer.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES.
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1.Which statement indicates the patient needs further instruction about diet for nephrotic syndrome?
A. “I know a high-protein diet to replace the protein lost in urine.”
B. “I need to limit my intake of saturated fat and cholesterol.”
C. “I should not use salt in cooking or at the table, and avoid foods high in sodium such as processed foods, fast
foods, convenience foods, condiments, and canned meat and vegetables.
D. “I am going to try substituting soy protein for animal sources of protein because it may be better for me.

2. Sandra, with chronic kidney disease who has been following a renal diet for several years begins hemodialysis
treatment. An appropriate dietary adjustment for her would be to:
A. reduce protein intake.
B. consume protein more liberally.
C. increase intakes of sodium and water.
D. consume potassium and phosphorus more
liberally

3. Sarah,with acute kidney injury, should

require a high protein intake, which
additional treatment may be necessary for her?
A. Frequent dialysis
B. Use of diuretics
C. Enteral nutrition support
D. Fluid restrictions

4. The client with stage 4 CKD asks if it is okay that she saves all her meat allowance for her evening meal. Which
of the following would be the nurse’s best response?

A. “You cannot have any meat on a stage 4 diet.”

B. “ It doesn’t matter when you eat your meal allowance, so if you prefer to save it all for dinner, that is fine.”
C. “ If you want to eat your meat allowance all at one time, it would be better to eat it for breakfast so that your
body has all day to metabolize it.”
D.“It is best if you spread your meat allowance out over the whole day.”

5. Juliet, discussed with her student the

function of the kidney according to her the
following stated below are functions of
the kidneys except?
A. Activation of vitamin K
B. Maintenance of acid-base balance
C. Elimination of metabolic waste products
D. Maintenance of fluid and electrolyte balances

6. When developing a teaching plan for a client who is on dialysis, which of the following protein sources would
the nurse suggest for a client who must also limit her intake of phosphorus?
A. Beef C. Tofu
B. Cheese D. Kidney beans

7. A client on hemodialysis asks if she can use popsicles to help relieve her thirst. Which of the following is the
nurses’ best response?
A. “That’s a great idea as long as you deduct the equivalent amount of fluid from your total daily fluid
allowance.”
B. “Popsicles are empty calories. You are better off drinking just plain water.”
C. ”Popsicles are great at relieving thirst, and because they are solid, they do not count as fluid so you can eat
them as desired.”
D. “Hot things are better at relieving thirst than cold things. Try small amounts of hot tea or coffee to relieve
your thirst.”

8. The nurse knows her instructions about healthy eating to reduce the risk of cancer have been understood
when the client states.
A.”If I follow those healthy eating guidelines I will
not get cancer.”

B. “If I follow those healthy eating guidelines I will not get cancer.”
C. “There is not enough known about diet
and cancer to make informed choices about
what to eat to reduce the risk of cancer.”
D. “ A mostly plant based diet may reduce the risk of cancer.

9. Which of the following strategies would the

nurse suggests to help the client increase
the protein density of his diet?
A. Top baked potatoes with sour cream
B. Mix cream cheese with butter and spread
on hot bread
C. Substitute milk for water in recipes
D. Add whipped cream to coffee

10. Which statement indicates the client with HIV needs further instruction about healthy eating?
A. “Eating fat increases my chances of getting
fat around my middle so I am trying to choose
all nonfat or low fat food.”
B. “Eating carbs makes insulin resistance worse so I am eating a very low carbohydrate diet.”
C.”Protein is the most important nutrient so I am eating a very low carbohydrate diet.”
D. Monosaturated fats in olive oil, canola oil, nuts and avocado are healthiest. I am eating more of them and
less of other types of fats.

11. A client asks if it is okay to drink nutrition

formulas in place of eating solid food because
it seems to be the only thing she tolerates.Which of the following is the nurse’s best response?
A. “Nutrition Formulas are okay to use as a supplement in your diet but they do not provide enough nutrition
to use it in place of a meal.”
B. “Nutrition formulas are rich in nutrients and can be used in place of meals if they are what you are able to
tolerate best.”
C. It is fine to rely on nutritional supplements but vary the brand to ensure you are getting adequate nutrition.”
D. “Nutrition formulas generally are too high in calories and protein to use in place of meals.”

12. During ward class nurse Claire told

her student that Nurses are in an ideal position to
A. screen patients for risk of malnutrition
B. conduct comprehensive nutrition
assessments
C. order therapeutic diets
D. calculate a patient's calorie and protein
needs

13.Which of the following criteria would most likely be a candidate on a nutritional screening in the hospital?
A. prealbumin value
B. serum potassium value
C. weight change
D. cultural food preferences

14. The ideal weight of a male who is 5ft 10 in is:

A. 150 pounds
B. 155 pounds
C. 160 pound
D.166 pound

15. Alma a patient in the female ward, has

a question about the cardiac diet the dietitian reviewed with her yesterday. What is the nurse's best response?
A. "ask your doctor when you go for your follow-up appointment"
B. "What is the question? If I can't answer it, I will get the dietitian to come back to answer it"
C. "Just do your best. The handout she gave you is simply a list of guidelines, not rigid instructions"
D. "If I see the dietitian around, I will tell her you need to see her."

16. As a nurse taking care of a patient with a renal disease. What snack choice would be the best suggestion for
a patient on a renal diet?
A. Peanut butter
B. Diet cola
C. Bananas
D. Carrot sticks

17.Which of the following is a systematic problem-solving method that dietitians use critical-thinking skills to
make evidence-based decisions addressing the nutrition-related problems of their patients?
A. nutritional assessment
B. the nutrition care process
C. nutritional screening
D. nutrition monitoring

18. Role of healthcare provider to assist people to learn about themselves, their environment, and the methods
of handling their roles and relationships.
A. Interview
B. Assessment
C. Counseling
D. Relationship

19.Analysis of nutrition science, psychology and physiology, and eventual negotiated treatment plan followed
by an evaluation; requires assessment and diagnosis prior to intervention is:
A. Nutrition counseling
B. Motivational Interview
C. Nutrition education
D. Assessment
20. Directive, client-centered counseling style for eliciting behavior change by helping clients to explore and
resolve ambivalence to change
A. Nutrition counseling c. Nutrition education
B. Motivational Interview
C. Nutrition education
D. Assessment

1 A 11 B

2 B 12 A

3 A 13 C

4 D 14 D

5 A 15 B

6 A 16 D

7 A 17 B

8 D 18 C

9 C 19 A

10 D 20 B

P3W3

1. During the return demonstration Sandra asked her student ,what are the basic steps of washing hands?
A. Wash thoroughly and dry well
B. Apply soap, wash well, rinse and dry with disposable paper towel
C.Apply soap, wash well, rinse and dry with tea towel
D. Rinse and dry with tea towel
Answer: b
STEP 1: Wet your hands using clean, running water when available. STEP 2: Lather the front and back of hands,
between fingers, and under fingernails with soap. STEP 3: Scrub hands together for at least 20 seconds. STEP 4: Rinse
hands under clean, running water. STEP 5: Dry hands completely with a clean towel, or air dry.

2. How can you tell if food has enough bacteria to cause food poisoning?
A. It smells bad
B. It tastes bad
C. It smells, tastes and looks bad
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
Answer: e
You can’t tell. It smells, tastes and looks normal.

3. Who is responsible for safe food handling in the food premises?

A. Head Chef C. Owner
B. Anyone handling food D. All of the above
Answer: d
Everyone is responsible to handle food safely.

4. How does the marketplace affect food choice?

A. . expense C. convenience
 B. types of food D. A and C
Answer: d
Generally, the smaller the selling venue is, the more expensive the food items are. Small stores buy their food items
from larger stores or wholesalers, and increase the selling price to cover their costs.

5.If you are a food handler and you have been vomiting and/or had diarrhoea when should you return to work?
A. When you feel better C. After 1 week
B. When your doctor advises you can D. The next day
Answer: b
Food handler who suffered from vomiting and/or diarrhea should present a medical certificate indicating that he/she
is already fit for work.

6. Which of the following steps food workers should wash their hands?
A.Coughing, sneezing, scratching, wiping nose, cleaning
B.Touching exposed body parts, handling raw animal food, handling money
C.Before putting on disposable gloves or after using the restroom
D. All of the above
Answer: d
Food workers must wash their hands after any activity that contaminates their hands. Such activities include, but are
not limited to: using the restroom, coughing, sneezing, scratching, wiping nose, cleaning, touching exposed body
parts, handling raw animal food, handling money and before putting on disposable gloves

7. Which of the following examples of how to rapidly cool food?

A.. Portioning large quantities of foods into smaller units by slicing and pouring
B. Using metal rather than plastic containers
C. Ensuring vigorous air circulation around food
D. All of the above
Answer: d
Potentially hazardous foods such as most soups, beef and poultry must be rapidly cooled to minimize growth
and reproduction of microorganisms. Rapid cooling means food is chilled from 135O F (57OC) to 41O F (5OC) in six hours
or less. However, if cooling food cannot be chilled from 135O F (57OC) to 70O F (21OC) within the first two hours of
the process, the food should be reheated to 165O F (74OC) and the cooling process should be re-started.

8.Which of the following are examples of cross-contamination?

a. Raw chicken is processed on cutting board then lettuce is sliced on same surface
b. Food worker handles raw meat then assembles sandwich without washing hands
c. Liquids from raw hamburger drip onto vegetables for salad
d. All of the above
Answer: d
Cross-contamination is one of the leading causes of food-borne illness outbreaks. It occurs when harmful organisms
are transferred
from one item to another item without further washing, cooking or reheating. The best ways to prevent cross contamination
are to
process raw animal foods on a separate surface from other foods and store raw animal foods below and away from
other foods.

9. Which of the following symptoms should workers not allowed to handle food,eating and drinking or
using utensils?
a. Vomiting, diarrhea, fever, sore throat with fever, jaundice, infected cuts
b. Runny nose, sneezing, cough, congestion, cold symptoms
c. A and B
d. None of the above
Answer: a
Food workers that have or recently had symptoms including vomiting, diarrhea, fever, sore throat with fever, jaundice
or infected cuts must not handle food being served to the public or handle any eating or drinking utensils. This restriction
is because of the high risk such workers pose to transmit disease-causing bacteria and viruses to others through food
or utensils.
Food workers that have other symptoms such as runny nose, sneezing, cough or congestion are allowed to handle food and
utensils provided they wash hands when required and are careful to not contaminate food or utensils. As implied above,
bacteria and viruses are the primary organisms of concern with regards to preventing food-borne illness. These organisms
cause thousands of documented and undocumented cases of food-borne illness each year around the world. The most
prevalent virus causing food-borne illness is Norovirus, while Salmonella is the most frequent bacteria implicated in
outbreaks

10. What is the minimum time food workers should wash their hands?
A. 5 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. 40 seconds
Answer: c
The minimum time food workers should wash their hands after contaminating them is 20 seconds in order to remove non
indigenous organisms from the skin’s surface.

11. When raw meat or seafood is required to wash thoroughly under running water?

A. before cutting
B. before removing from its packaging
C. before cooking
D. before combining with other ingredients
E. if food not presented honestly

Answer: A,C, D

12.How long will food stored constantly at 0° F remain safe?

A. 1 to 2 years
B. 5 years
C.Indefinitely
D. 3 years
Answer C. Indefinitely.
Food will be safe indefinitely at 0° F though the quality will decrease the longer it is in the freezer.

13, What temperature is recommended for your refrigerator?

.
A. 50° F
B. 45° F
C .30° F
D. 40° F

Answer D. 40° F.

Keep your refrigerator at 40° F or below. Buy an inexpensive appliance thermometer for both your fridge and your freezer;
check them often.

14. During food preparation when can contamination occur?

A. Food preparation

B. Cooking
C. Serving

D. All of the above

Answer D
Food contamination can occur during various stages of the food handling process. During food preparation, there is a risk
of cross-contamination if proper hygiene practices are not followed, such as using the same cutting board or knife for
different types of food. Cooking can also lead to contamination if the food is not cooked at the right temperature or for the
appropriate duration, allowing harmful bacteria to survive. Lastly, serving food can introduce contamination if utensils or
serving plates are not properly cleaned and sanitized. Therefore, all of the mentioned stages - food preparation, cooking,
and serving - can contribute to food contamination.

15. Pathogenic bacteria cause illness in all of the following ways, except:
A. Toxin mediated infection
B. Cross Contamination
C. Intoxication
D. Infection

Correct Answer
B. Cross Contamination
Explanation
Cross contamination is not a way in which pathogenic bacteria cause illness. Cross contamination refers to the transfer of
bacteria from one surface or food to another, which can lead to contamination and potential illness, but it is not a direct
mechanism by which pathogenic bacteria cause illness. Pathogenic bacteria can cause illness through toxin-mediated
infection, where they produce toxins that cause damage to the body; intoxication, where the bacteria produce toxins that
are ingested and cause illness; and infection, where the bacteria invade and multiply within the body, leading to illness.

16.How bacteria survive and multiply in food?

A. it needs proper temperature, and time
B. it needs moisture, proper pH
C.it needs moisture, proper pH, proper temperature, and time
D. it needs moisture, proper pH, proper temperature

Correct Answer
C. it needs moisture, proper pH, proper temperature, and time
Explanation
Bacteria require food as a source of nutrients to survive and multiply. They also need moisture to carry out their metabolic
processes. The proper pH level is necessary for maintaining the optimal environment for bacterial growth. Additionally,
bacteria require the right temperature for their metabolic activities to occur efficiently. Finally, time is needed for bacteria to
undergo the necessary processes for survival and reproduction.

17. How cross contamination can be reduced by food handler:

A. Personal cleanliness and hygiene
B. Reducing the time food is in the danger zone
C. Labeling all food items
D. Washing hands

Correct Answer
A. Personal cleanliness and hygiene
Explanation
Personal cleanliness and hygiene can help reduce cross contamination because it involves practices such as washing
hands properly and regularly, wearing clean and appropriate clothing, and maintaining good personal hygiene. These
practices help prevent the transfer of harmful bacteria and other microorganisms from the hands and body to the food,
reducing the risk of contamination. By following proper personal cleanliness and hygiene measures, individuals can
significantly minimize the chances of cross contamination in food preparation and handling.
Rate this question:

18.What is a measure of the energy you get from food?

A. Fiber
B. Calorie

C. Trans-Fat
D. Carbohydrate

Correct Answer
B. Calorie
Explanation
A calorie is a measure of the energy that is obtained from food. It represents the amount of energy required to raise the
temperature of one gram of water by one degree Celsius. Therefore, when we consume food, the calories in that food
provide us with the energy needed for various bodily functions, such as metabolism, physical activity, and growth.

19.What is the recommended daily serving for the fruit group?

A. 5.5 ounces
B. 6 ounces
C. 2 cups
D. 2.5 cups
E. 3 cups

Correct Answer
C. 2 cups
Explanation
The recommended daily serving for the fruit group is 2 cups. This means that individuals should aim to consume 2 cups of
fruits per day in order to meet their nutritional needs. Fruits are a valuable source of essential vitamins, minerals, and dietary
fiber, which are important for maintaining overall health. Consuming an adequate amount of fruits can help prevent chronic
diseases and promote a balanced diet.
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20.What eating disorder involves starvation and obsession with calorie intake?
A. Anorexia
B. Bulimia
C. Compulsive Eating
D. Binge Eating

Correct Answer
A. Anorexia
Explanation
Anorexia is an eating disorder that involves extreme restriction of food intake and an obsession with calorie intake. People
with anorexia have a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, leading them to severely limit their food
intake, often to the point of starvation. This disorder is characterized by a relentless pursuit of thinness, even when
individuals are significantly underweight.

21.Which of the following are needed to build, repair and maintain body tissue?
A. Fats
B. Vitamins
C. Proteins
D. Minerals

Correct Answer
C. Proteins
Explanation
Proteins are essential for building, repairing, and maintaining body tissue. They are made up of amino acids, which are the
building blocks of proteins. Proteins play a crucial role in the growth and development of tissues, such as muscles, organs,
and skin. They are also involved in repairing damaged tissues and maintaining their health. Additionally, proteins are
necessary for the production of enzymes, hormones, and antibodies, which are important for various bodily functions.
Therefore, proteins are needed to support the overall health and functioning of the body.

22.What color are meat and beans in my pyramid

A. Purple
B. Orange
C. Red
D. Green

Correct Answer
A. Purple
Explanation
The correct answer is purple because in the food pyramid, meat and beans are typically represented by the color purple.
Each color in the food pyramid represents a different food group, and purple is used to symbolize protein-rich foods such
as meat and beans.

23.What is a new ingredient that has been added to the food pyramid
A. Personalization
B. Gradual improvement,
C. Physical activity,
D. None of the above

Correct Answer
C. Physical activity,
Explanation
Physical activity is the correct answer because the food pyramid is a visual representation of the recommended daily intake
of different food groups for a healthy diet. It does not include any specific ingredients but focuses on the different food
groups and the importance of maintaining an active lifestyle. Therefore, physical activity is a new addition to the food pyramid
as it emphasizes the importance of exercise along with a balanced diet for overall health and well-being.

24.“Steps to a Healthier You” It represents any characteristic of the my pyramid

A. Physical activity
B. Gradual improvement
C. Personalization
D. All of the above

Correct Answer
B. Gradual improvement
Explanation
The phrase "Steps to a Healthier You" suggests a gradual improvement in health and well-being. This aligns with the concept
of making small, incremental changes over time to achieve better health. The other options, physical activity and
personalization, do not necessarily imply a gradual improvement but rather focus on specific actions or customization.
Therefore, gradual improvement is the characteristic that best fits the given statement.

25.TRUE OR FALSE:Pregnant women, infants, seniors and people with a weakened immune system are at greater risk of
developing foodborne illness.
TRUE: Pregnant women, infants, seniors and people with weakened immune systems are at greater risk for foodborne
illness. These groups of people should ensure that they are handling food safely. In particular meats, poultry, fish and
shellfish should be cooked to a safe internal temperature. Use a digital food thermometer to be sure.