INSIGHTSIAS

SIMPLIFYING IAS EXAM PREPARATION

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YO UR MISS ION OUR MOTT O

SUBJECT WISE
TEST – 8
General Studies: (Polity)
Sources
• Indian Constitution at Work (NCERT Class XI)
• LAXMIKANTH – Indian Polity
Note - For Syllabus Please Check Next Page

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• Constitutionalism • Central Government
• Historical Underpinnings ➢ President of India
➢ Vice President of India
• Evolution & Making of the Constitution
➢ Prime minister
• Features and Significant Provisions ➢ Central Council of Ministers, Parliament
• Political systems • State Government
➢ Governor
• Democratic & Non- Democratic ➢ Chief Minister
• Parliamentary & Presidential ➢ State Council of Ministers
• Unitary & Federal ➢ State Legislature
• Judiciary
• Direct and Representative ➢ Supreme Court
• Republic and Monarchy etc. ➢ High Courts
➢ Subordinate Courts
• The Preamble
• Indian Federalism
• The Union and its Territory ➢ Centre-State Relations
• Citizenship ➢ Inter-state Relations
• Local Government
• Fundamental Rights
➢ Panchayati Raj
• Directive Principles ➢ Local Urban Government
• Fundamental Duties
Current Affairs:
• Amendment of Constitution (1/1/2023-22/6/2023) from the below sources.
• Basic Structure of the Constitution • INSIGHTSIAS Current Affairs Quiz.
• INSIGHTSIAS Current Affairs.
• Emergency Provisions • PRIME Notes
• INSIGHTS REVISION THROUGH MCQs
 INSIGHTS IAS PREUMS TEST-08 QUESTIONS (SUBJECTWISE)
1. Which among the following Acts recognized the political functions of British East India Company and laid the
foundations of central administration in India?
A. Regulating Act of 1773 B. Amending Act of 1781 C. Pitt's India Act of 1784 D. Charter Act of 1793

2. Consider the following:

The Charter Act of 1813:
1. Allowed the Christian missionaries to come to India.
2. Authorised the local governments in India to impose taxes on persons.
3. Ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

3. With reference to the Government of India Act of 1858, consider the following statements:
1. It ended the system of double Government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors.
2. It made a beginning of the representative institutions by associating Indians with the lawmaking process.
3. It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances without the concurrence of the legislative council during an emergency.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

4. Consider the following:

1. Citizenship and Elections 2. Provisional Parliament 3. Co-operative Societies 4. Fundamental Rights
How many of the provisions of the Indian Constitution mentioned above came into force on November 26, 1949?
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four

5. Consider the following statements:

1. The entire structural part of Indian Constitution has been derived from the Government of India Act of 1935.
2. The entire philosophical part of Indian Constitution derives its inspiration from the American Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

6. Consider the following statements:

1. The term 'Federation' is nowhere used in the Constitution.
2. Indian Constitution has been described as bargaining federalism.
3. Indian Constitution contains federal features which includes single Constitution.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

7. With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. The Fundamental Rights are sacrosanct and cannot be repealed by the Parliament through a Constitutional
Amendment Act.
2. Unlike the Fundamental Rights, the Directives principles are non-justiciable and are not enforceable by the courts for
their violation.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

8. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. The original Indian constitution did not provide for the Fundamental Duties of the citizens.
2. The Part IV of the Constitution specifies the Fundamental Duties along with the Fundamental Rights.
3. Unlike the Directive Principles of State Policy, Fundamental Duties are justiciable in nature.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

9. Consider the following statements:

1. Indian concept of secularism connotes a complete separation between the religion and the State.
2. The Constitution of India does not uphold any particular religion as the official religion of the Indian State.
3. The term 'secular' was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of
1976.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D.None

10. Which one of the following gave constitutional status and protection to the Cooperative societies in India?
A. The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act of 1988 B. The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985
C. The 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 D. The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011

11. How many of the following features of the Indian Constitution have been derived from the Australian Constitution?
1. Joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament 2. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency
3. Republic and the ideals of liberty 4. Procedure for amendment of the Constitution
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four

12. Which one of the following Amendment Acts has replaced the original term 'internal disturbance' by the term
'armed rebellion in the Indian Constitution?
A. The 21st Amendment Act of 1967 B. The 42nd Amendment Act 1976
C. The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 D. The 92nd Amendment Act of 2003

13. How many of the following statements is/are correct about the Indian Preamble?
1. The Indian Constitution was the first nation to begin with a Preamble as an identity card of the Constitution.
2. The Preamble of Indian Constitution is based on the Objectives Resolution drafted by Jawaharlal Nehru.
3. It was amended by a Constitutional Amendment Act to particularly add the terms Socialist and Secular only in it.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

14. Which of the following components of the Preamble can best specify the Objectives of the Indian Constitution?
1. Justice 2. Liberty 3. Equality 4. Fraternity 5. Sovereignty
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 ard 4 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

15. How many of the following statements is/are not correct?

1. Communistic socialism upholds a mixed economy where both public and private sectors coexist equally.
2. Indian brand of socialism involves the nationalization of all means of production and distribution.
3. Indian socialism is a blend of Marxism and Gandhism but highly influenced by Gandhian socialism.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

16. How many of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Referendum, Initiative, Recall and Plebiscite are the devices of direct democracy.
2. The Indian Constitution provides for representative parliamentary democracy.
3. Independence of judiciary represents the democratic character of Indian polity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

17. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The term 'liberty' means the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals.
2. Unlike Fundamental Rights, the liberty conceived by Indian Preamble is absolute.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 oniy e. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

18. Consider the following statements:

1. The Preamble secures all citizens of India equality of status but embraces only the political equality.
2. There is only one provision in the Constitution of India that seek to achieve political equality among its citizens.
Which ot the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

19. Consider the following:

The Preamble of India:
1. Is not a source of power to the legislJtme but Jets JS J prohibition upon the pm,vers of the legislature.
7. Is non-j1istir.ir1hlP in nr1turP which mer1ns that its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct'?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

20. Consider the following:

Article 2 of the Indian Constitution:
1. Deals with the internal re-adjustment of the territories of the constituent states of the Union of India.
2. Grants two powers to the Parliament including the power to admit into the Union of India new states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

21. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Constitution:

1. The original Constitution had specific provisions with respect to an authoritative text of the Constitution in the Hindi
language.
2. The Constitution of India establishes the parliamentary system not only at the Centre but also in the states.
3. The Indian Constitution opted for the British System of Government rather than the American System.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

22. Consider the following statements:

1. Like Indian Constitution, the American Constitution also provides for 'Procedure established by law'.
2. The scope of judicial review of the Supreme Court in India is narrower than that of what exists in the United States of
America.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

23. How many of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution reveal the 'Secular character' of the Indian State?
1. Article 14 2. Article 15 3. Article 40 4. Article 44
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three , D. All four

24. Consider the following statements:

1. Part Ill of Indian Constitution along with Part IV is described as the Magna Carta of India.
2. The Fundamental Rights in Indian Constitution are more elaborate than those found in United States.
3. The Fundamental Rights aim at establishing a government of laws and not of the men.
How many of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

25. Consider the following statements regarding the Fundamental Rights in India:
1. All of them are available against the arbitrary action of private individuals.
2. All of them are positive in nature and place limitations on the authority of State.
3. All of them can be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D.None

26. Consider the following:

The term 'law' in Article 13 of the Indian Constitution has been given a wider connotation which includes:
1. Permanent laws enacted by the state legislatures 2. Non-legislative sources of law
3. Ordinances issued by the state governors
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

27. Which of the following statements uphold(s) the Principle of Article 16 of the Indian Constitution?
1. The Parliament can prescribe residence as a condition for certain employment or appointment in a state.
2. The State can provide for reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any poorly represented backward class.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

28. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Under Section 141 of the Indian Penal Code, an assembly of five or more persons becomes unlawful only if th2 object
resists the execution of any legal process.
2. Under Section 144 of the Criminal Procedure Code, a magistrate can restrain an assembly, if there is a risk of danger
to human life.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

29. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived of his personal liberty except according to procedure established
by law.
2. The Supreme Court of India has given the widest interpretation of Article 21 in the popular Gopalan case of 1950.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

30. Consider the following statements:

1. The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against private individuals.
2. The writ of mandamus cannot be issued against private individuals.
3. The writ of prohibition can be issued only against private individuals.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D.None

31. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India does not contain any classification of Directive Principles of State Policy.
2. The Directive Principles resemble the 'Instrument of Instructions' enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
3. The Directive Principles help the courts in determining the constitutional validity of a law.
How many of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

32. How many of the following Directive Principles were added to the original list through the 42nd Amendment Act
of1976?
1. Securing opportunities for healthy development of children
2. Organising animal husbandry on the scientific lines
3. Fostering respect for international law and treaty obligations
4. Minimising the inequalities in income and status of Indian citizens.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four

33. Consider the following statements:

1. All the democratic countries of the world contain a list of duties of citizens in their constitutions.
2. The socialist countries give equal importance to the fundamental rights and duties of their citizens.
3. The Fundamental Duties in Indian Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of Germany.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

34. Consider the following statements:

1. Unlike the Fundamental Rights, the Fundamental Duties are entirely confined to Indian citizens only and do not extend
to foreigners.
2. Like the Fundamental Rights, the Indian Constitution provides for the direct enforcement of the Fundamental Duties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

35. Consider the following statements regarding the Amendment procedure of the Indian Constitution:
1. The power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution lies with the Parliament.
2. The Constitution prescribes a specific time frame for the state legislatures to ratify an amendment.
3. The Lok Sabha initiates a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament over the deadlock of a constitutional amendment
bill.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

36. Consider the following statements:

1. The doctrine of the separation of powers is the basis of the American presidentic1I system.
2. In the Presidential system of government, the exerntivP is resrionsible to legisl;iture for its policies.
3. The principle of collective responsibility is the bedrock principle of a presidential government.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

37. With reference to the Parliamentary system of Government, consider the following statements:
1. It provides a stable government as there is a security of its tenure.
2. It is conducive for the implementation of long-term policies.
3. It is not conducive to administrative efficiency.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

38. Consider the following statements:

1. The 'Canadian model' of federalism is different from the American model.
2. The Indian Federation resembles the Canadian Federation only in its formation.
3. The Indian federation is not the result of an agreement among the states.
How many of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D.None

39. How many of the following features of the Indian Constitution violate the principle of Federalism?
1. Independent Judiciary 2. Flexibility of the Constitution
3. Emergency Provisions 4. All-India Services
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four

40. Consider the following statements:

1. Part XI of the Indian Constitution deals with the legislative relations between the Centre and the stc1tes.
2. The Indian Constitution does not place any restriction on the plenary territorial jurisdiction of the Parliament.
3. The governor is empowered to direct that an act of Parliament does not apply to a scheduled area in the state.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

41. Consider the following statements:

1. Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code denotes that sedition is a non-bailable offence in India.
2. The Supreme Court of India has upheld the constitutionality of Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code.
3. The National Crime Records Bureau maintains the da'[abase of the cases registered under sedition.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

42. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution has not fixed the term of members of the Rajya Sabha.
2. The term of the Lok Sabha can be extended during the national emergency.
3. The question of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by President.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

43. How many of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Virtual courts?
1. Such court can be administered by a Judge over a virtual electronic platform whose jurisdiction can extend to the
entire State.
2. A petty offence whose summon is under Section 206 of the Code of Criminal Procedure is not feasible under virtual
courts.
3. Neither the litigant nor the Judge has to physically visit the court for its effective adjudication.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D.None

44. Which of the following statements is/are correct about Public Interest Litigations (PIL) in India?
1. Like the class-action suit, none of the courts can go beyond the application of procedural law in a PIL.
2. The first PIL in India was filed in the Hussainara l<hatoon vs State of Bihar case highlighting the pitiable conditions of
prisoners.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

69. With reference to the Technology and Innovation Report 2023, consider the following statements:
1. This report was recently released by UNCTAD.
2. The report analyses the market size of 17 green and frontier technologies, such as artificial intelligence, the Internet
of Things, and electric vehicles, and their potential to create jobs.
3. As per the report, countries in the EU reach a Research & Development expenditure of 3% of GDP while only a few
developing countries reach 1% of GDP expenditure.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

70. With reference to the lightweight payment and settlements system, consider the following statements:
1. The infrastructure for this system will be independent of the technologies that underlie the existing systems of
payments such as UPI, NEFT and RTGS.
2. It prioritizes handling large transaction volumes and require a stable and robust infrastructure.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

71. According to a new UN Hunger Hotspots report, many countries are facing growing hunger crises. Consider the
followings regarding it:
1. Afghanistan 2. Burkina Faso 3. India 4. Pakistan 5. Myanmar
Which of the countries given above is/are the part of I lunger I lots pots?
A. 1, 3 and 4 only B. 2, 3 and 5 only C. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only D. All of the above

72. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Ultramafic rocks are a type of Sedimentary rock that have a high concentration of dark-coloured minerals
rich in iron and magnesium.
Statement-II : Ultramafic rocks are associated with deep-seated mantle processes and are often found in areas where
tectonic plates are converging.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

73. Recently, "Mission on Advanced and High-Impact Research (MAHIR)" has been launched in India. It is associated
with-
A. Defence Sector B. IT Sector C. Power Sector D. Semiconductor Sector

74. Consider the followings:

1. Heart Attack Rewind 2. Eat Right India Movement 3. Anemia Mukt Bharat 4. Eat Right Station Certification
Which of the above food safety initiatives of India are being run under FSSAI?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

75. Consider the following statements:

1. National Automated Fingerprint Identification System (NAFIS) is a web-based application that serves as a regional
repository of criminal fingerprint data collected from various states and Union territory's police records.
2. Its aim is to enhance the ability of these agencies to identify criminals and expedite investigations by leveraging the
comprehensive fingerprint data available in the database.
3. It assigns a unique 6-digit National Fingerprint Number (NFN) to each person arrested for a crime.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

76. Consider the following statements:

1. Both Articles 358 and 359 of Indian Constitution describP thP pffnt of a National FmPrgPnc:y on FunrlamPntc1I Rights.
2. The President of India can suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during a
National Emergency.
3. The right to protection in respect of conviction for offences remains enforceable even during the emergency.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

77. Consider the following statements:

1. The Suspensive Veto authorises President not to take any action on the bill.
2. The President possess the Suspensive veto in the case of money bills.
3. The President enjoys the veto power with respect to state legislation.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D.None

78. Consider the following statements regarding the Vice-President of India:

1. He can act as President only for a maximum period of six months within which a new President has to be elected.
2. The office of the Indian Vice-President is completely modelled on the lines of the American VicePresident.
3. While acting as President, he does not perform the duties of the office of chairman of Rajya Sabha.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

79. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India does not contain specific procedures for the appointment of the Prime Minister.
2. Article 75 says that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president and is free to appoint any one as the Prime
Minister.
3. The President exercises his personal discretion in the appointment of the Prime Minister when no party has a clear
majority in the Lok Sabha.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

80. Consider the following:

As the leader of the Lower House, the Prime Minister:
1. Advises the President with regard to summoning and proroguing of the sessions of the Parliament.
2. Recommends dissolution of Lok Sabha to President at any time and announces government policies on the floor of the
House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

81. Consider the following statements:

1. Article 75 of Indian Constitution clearly states that the council of ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
2. Article 75 does not contain the principle of individual responsibility but states that the ministers hold office during the
pleasure of the president
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

82. Consider the following statements regarding the Cabinet Committees:

1. They are extra-constitutional in emergence and not mentioned in the Constitution.
2. They can be set up by the Prime Minister according to requirements of situation.
3. The non-cabinet Ministers are essentially debarred from their membership.
How many of the statements given above is/are not correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

83. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation for both the houses of Parliament.
2. The system of proportional representation is essentially aimed at removing the defects of territorial representation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

84. Consider the following statements:

1. As per the Constitution, a person to be chosen a member of the Parliament must be registered as an elector for a
parliamentary constituency
2. As per the Constitution, a person shall be disqualified as a Member of Parliament if found guilty of corrupt practices
in the elections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

85. Consider the following statements regarding the Speaker of the Lok Sabha:
1. He is the final interpreter of the provisions of Constitution within the House.
2. He allows a secret sitting of the House at the request of the Leader of the House.
3. He decides if a bill is a money bill and his decision on this question is final.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D.None

86. Consider the following statements:

1. The Speaker of the last Lok Sabha vacates his office immediately after the first meeting of the newly-elected Lok Sabha.
2. The Vice-President can preside over a Rajya Sabha sitting as its Chairman when a resolution for his removal is under
consideration.
3. Unlike the Lok Sabha Speaker, the allowances of the Rajya Sabha Chairman are fixed by the President.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

87. Consider the following statements:

1. In each House of the Parliament, there is the 'Leader of the House'.
2. Unlike the Lok Sabha there is no Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha.
3. Indian political system has a unique institution called the 'Shadow Cabinet'.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D.None

88. Consider the following statements:

1. The office of 'whip' is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in the Rules of the House.
2. Every political party, whether ruling or Opposition has its own whip in the Parliament appointed by the Presiding
officer.
Which of the statements given abm·e is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

89. Consider the following statements:

1. Adjournment sine die terminates a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period.
2. The power of adjournment sine die lies with the presiding officer of the House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

90. Consider the following statements:

1. A Closure Motion is moved by a Member of Parliament to cut short the debate on a matter before the House.
2. In a Kangaroo Closure, the clauses of a bill are grouped into parts before the commencement of the debate.
3. Guillotine Closure takes place when the undiscussed clauses of a bill are put to vote along with the discussed ones.
How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

91. Consider the followings statements regarding the qualifications of a person to be appointed as district judge:
1. He should not already be in the service of the Central or the state government.
2. He should have been an advocate or a pleader for ten years.
3. He should be recommended by the district court for appointment.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D. None

92. Consider the followings:

1. Members of SC/ST/ODC 2. Disabled persons J. Women and children 4. Victims of drought
How many of the persons given above is/are eligible for getting free legal services in India?
A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All four

93. With reference to the Family Courts Act of 1984, consider the following statements:
1. It provides for the establishment of Family Courts by the High Courts in consultation with the Districts Courts.
2. According to this act, setting up a family court bv state government is not binding in nature.
3. It exclusively provides within the jurisdiction of the Family Courts the matters relating to the property of the spouses
or of either of them.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
A. Only one B. Only two C. All three D.None

94. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Gram Nyayalayas?

A. Its presiding officer (Nyayadhikari) shall be appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High Court.
B. Nyayadhikari can be an executive officer who shall hold office during the pleasure of Governor of respective state.
C. The Gram Nyayalaya shall try criminal cases, civil suits, claims or disputes.
D. The Gram Nyayalaya shall be a mobile court and shall exercise the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts.

95. Consider the following statements:

1. The district judge is the highest judicial authority in the district as he possesses original and appellate jurisdiction in
both civil as well as criminal matters.
2. When he deals with civil cases, he is known as the session judge and when he hears the criminal cases, he is called as
the district judge.
3. He cannot impose death sentence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 only C. 1 only D. 2 and 3 only

96. Which of the following free legal services are being provided by State Legal Services Authorities?
1. Payment of court fee, process fees and all other charges payable or incurred in connection with any legal proceedings.
2. Providing service of lawyers in legal proceedings.
3. Obtaining and supply of certified copies of orders and other documents in legal proceedings.
4. Preparation of appeal, paper book including printing and translation of documents in legal proceedings.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 3 only B. 1, 2 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

97. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I : Tribunals are the integral part of our judicial system that were conceived by our constitution makers.
Statement-II: Article 323A deals with administrative tribunals while article 3238 deals with tribunals for other matters.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
D. Statement-I is correct but Statement-I I is incorrect

98. Which one of the followings is not an Original Jurisdiction of High Court?
A. Cases ordered to be transferred from a subordinate court involving the interpretation of the Constitution to its own
file.
B. Inter-state water disputes.
C. Enforcement of fundamental rights of citizens.
D. Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures.

99. Consider the following statements regarding the Supreme Court of India:
1. The Constitution prohibits any discussion in Parliament or in a State Legislature with respect to the conduct of the
judges of the Supreme Court in the discharge of their duties.
2. The Parliament is not authorised to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court.
3. The retired judges of the Supreme Court are prohibited from pieading or acting in any Court or before any authority
within the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

100. Consider the following statements:

1. Only senior advocates of Supreme Court are entitled to file any matter or document before it.
2. The Court can designate any Advocate, with his consent, as Senior Advocate if in its opinion by virtue of his ability,
standing at the Bar or special knowledge or experience in law the said Advocate is deserving of such distinction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 oniy B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. ~Jeither 1 nor 2
 OMR SHEET
Student's Name (In Block Letters Only) Set Roll Number Subject

A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D B 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3

E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4

F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5

G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G C 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6

H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7

I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8

J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J D 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K

L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L

M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M

N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N
Mobile Number Test ID
O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O

P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P

Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3

U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4

V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6

X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7

Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8

Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

1 A B C D 21 A B C D 41 A B C D 61 A B C D 81 A B C D

2 A B C D 22 A B C D 42 A B C D 62 A B C D 82 A B C D

3 A B C D 23 A B C D 43 A B C D 63 A B C D 83 A B C D

4 A B C D 24 A B C D 44 A B C D 64 A B C D 84 A B C D

5 A B C D 25 A B C D 45 A B C D 65 A B C D 85 A B C D

6 A B C D 26 A B C D 46 A B C D 66 A B C D 86 A B C D

7 A B C D 27 A B C D 47 A B C D 67 A B C D 87 A B C D

8 A B C D 28 A B C D 48 A B C D 68 A B C D 88 A B C D

9 A B C D 29 A B C D 49 A B C D 69 A B C D 89 A B C D

10 A B C D 30 A B C D 50 A B C D 70 A B C D 90 A B C D

11 A B C D 31 A B C D 51 A B C D 71 A B C D 91 A B C D

12 A B C D 32 A B C D 52 A B C D 72 A B C D 92 A B C D

13 A B C D 33 A B C D 53 A B C D 73 A B C D 93 A B C D

14 A B C D 34 A B C D 54 A B C D 74 A B C D 94 A B C D

15 A B C D 35 A B C D 55 A B C D 75 A B C D 95 A B C D

16 A B C D 36 A B C D 56 A B C D 76 A B C D 96 A B C D

17 A B C D 37 A B C D 57 A B C D 77 A B C D 97 A B C D

18 A B C D 38 A B C D 58 A B C D 78 A B C D 98 A B C D

19 A B C D 39 A B C D 59 A B C D 79 A B C D 99 A B C D

20 A B C D 40 A B C D 60 A B C D 80 A B C D 100 A B C D

Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature

 INSIGHTS IAS PRELIMS TEST-08 ANSWERS (SUBJECTWISE}

1.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Option (a) is correct: Regulating Act of 1773 was of great constitutional importance as:
,. It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs ofthe East India Company in
India;
■ It recognised, for the first time, the political and administrative functions of the Company; and
■ It laid the foundations of central administration in India .
.. It designated the Governor of Bengal as the 'GovernorGeneral of Bengal' and created an Executive Council of four
members to assist him. The first such GovernorGeneral was Lord Warren Hastings

2.Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Option (b) is correct: The features of Charter Act of 1813 were as follows:
• It abolished the trade monopoly of the company in India i.e., the Indian trade was thrown open to all British merchants .
• It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Company's territories in India .
• It allowed the Christian missionaries to come to India for the purpose of enlightening the people.
■ It provided for the spread of western education among the inhabitants of the British territories in India.
■ It authorised the Local Governments in India to impose taxes on persons. They could also punish the persons for not
paying taxes.
■ Charter Act of 1833 ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely
administrative body.

3.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Option (a) is correct: Government of India Act of 1858 was enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857-also known as
the First War of Independence or the 'sepoy mutiny'. The act known as the Act for the Good Government of India,
abolished the East India Company, and transferred the powers of Government, territories and revenues to the British
Crown .
• It ended the system of double Government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors .
• It created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control over Indian
administration.
Indian Councils Act of 1861:
• It made a beginning of the representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process
• It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency.

4.Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Option (b) is correct: Some provisions of the Constitution pertaining to citizenship, elections, provisional parliament,
temporary and transitional provisions, and short title contained in Articles S, G, 7, 8, 9, GO, 324, 3GG, 3G7, 379,380,388,
391, 392 and 393 came into force on November 26, 1949, itself.
■ The remaining provisions (the major part) of the Constitution came into force on January 26, 1950. This day is referred
to in the Constitution as the 'date of its commencement', and celebrated as the Republic Day.
■ January 26 was specifically chosen as the 'date of commencement' of the Constitution because of its historical
importance .
• It was on this day in 1930 that Purna Swaraj day was celebrated, following the resolution of the Lahore Session
(December 1929) of the INC.

5.Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
The Constitution of India has borrowed most of its provisions from the Constitutions of various other countries as well
as from the Government of India Act of l':l35.
Statement 1 is not correct: The structural part of the Constitution is, to a large extent, derived from the Government of
India Act of 1935.
Statement 2 is not correct: The philosophical part of the Constitution (the Fundamental Rights and the Directive
Principles of State Policy) derive their inspiration from the American and Irish Constitutions, respectively.
The political part of the Constitution (the principle of Cabinet Government and the relations between the Executive and
the Legislature) have been drawn from the British Constitution.
6.Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is correct: Moreover, the term 'Federation' has nowhere been used in the Constitution. Article 1, on the
other hand, describes India as a 'Union of States' which implies two things: one, Indian Federation is not the result of an
agreement by the states; and two, no state has the right to secede from the federation.
Statement 2 is correct: Hence, the Indian Constitution has been variously described as 'federal in form but, unitary in
spirit', 'quasi-federal' by K.C. Wheare, 'bargaining federalism' by Morris Jones, 'co-operative federalism' by Granville
Austin,
Statement 3 is not correct: The Indian Constitution contains a large number of unitary or non-federal features, viz., a
strong Centre, single Constitution, single citizenship, flexibility of Constitution, integrated judiciary, appointment of state
governor by the Centre, all-India services, emergency provisions and so on.

7 .Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is not correct: The Fundamental Rights are not absolute and subject to reasonable restrictions. Further,
they are not sacrosanct and can be curtailed or repealed by the Parliament through a Constitutional Amendment Act.
The Directive Principles are meant for promoting the ideal of social and economic democracy.
They seek to establish a 'welfare state' in India.
Statement 2 is correct: However, unlike the Fundamental Rights, the directives are non-justiciable in nature, that is,
they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation.
Yet, the Constitution itself declares that 'these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall
be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws'.
Hence, they impose a moral obligation on the state authorities for their application. But, the real force (sanction) behind
them is political, that is, public opinion.

8.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is correct: The original constitution did not provide for the Fundamental Duties of the citizens.
Stat'.:!ment 2 is not correct: The Part IV-A of the Constitution (which consists of only one Article 51-A) specifies the eleven
Fundamental Duties viz., to respect the Constitution, national flag and national anthem; to protect the sovereignty, unity
and integrity of the country; to promote the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people; to preserve the rich
heritage of our composite culture and so on.
The fundamental duties serve as a reminder to citizens that while enjoying their rights, they have also to be quite
conscious of duties they owe to their country, their society and to their fellow citizens.
Statement 3 is not correct: However, like the Directive Principles, the duties are also non-justiciable in nature.

9.Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is not correct: The Western concept of secularism connotes a complete separation between the religion
(the church) and the state (the politics).
This negative concept of secularism is inapplicable in the Indian situation where the society is multireligious.
Hence, the Indian Constitution embodies the positive concept of secularism, i.e., giving equal respect to all religions or
protecting all religions equally.
Statement 2 is correct: The Constitution of India stands for a Secular State. Hence, it does not uphold any particular
religion as the official religion of the Indian State.
Statement 3 is correct: The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State:
■ The term 'secular' was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
of 1976.
,. The Preamble secures to aii citizens of India iiberty of belief, faith and worship.
■ The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or equal protection of the laws (Article 14).
e The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15) .

.. Equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of public employment (Article 16).

10.Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Option (d) is correct: The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 gave a constitutional status and protection to co-
operative societies.
In this context, it made the following three changes in the Constitution:
• it made the right to forrn co-operative societies a fundilmcnt;il right (Article 19) .
.. It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of co-operative societies (Article 43-8).
., It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled as "The Co-operative Societies" (Articles 243-ZH to 243-
ZT).

11.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Option (a) is correct: Borrowed Features of Indian Constitution:
Australian Concurrent List. freedom of trade,
Constitution cornmerce and inter~course, and
joint sitting of the two Houses of
Parliament,
Weimar Constituti<Jn Suspension of Fundamental Rights
of~(-}_'-~~~~}' ......................... durin~-~~~.~~~nc~: ......... _____ "' .. •-·-- _
SovicJt Constitution Fundi:1mental duties and the ideal of
(USSR. now Russia) justice (social. economlc and
political) in the Preiunbl<3.
,,;• ,,,,,,,,,,c¥U--~•nc-~¥ ,, _ _ ,, __ ,, _ _ , , . , _ , . ____ ,, __ ,_~_,,, ,~,,-,,,-,_,,,_,,_,, ....,,-~,•-•-'•' ~-~,uwmwn , . . , _ , _ , , ' • ' - ' • • • .,_,,,,,, ,._.,,___ ,umu, ;,;,;,;H ;,;,;-,-,,,-,,_,,,,,,_,,,,_,,,

Fn:mch Constitution Republic and th<'% ideals of liberty,

equamy and fraternity ln the
Prearnbie.
South African Procedure for amendment of the
Constitution Constitution and etecUon of
members of Rajya Sabha.

12.Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Option (c) is correct: The 44th Amendment Act (1978) has replaced the original term 'internal disturbance' by the new
term 'armed rebellion'.
"Originally, the Indian Constitution had 14 languages but presently there are 22 languages. "Sindhi was added by the
21st Amendment Act of 1967; Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by the 71st Amendm2nt Act of 1992; and Bodo,
Dongri, Maithili and Santhali were added by the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003. Oriya was renamed as 'Odia' by the 96th
Amendment Act of 2011.

13.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is not correct: The American Constitution was the first to begin with a Preamble. Many countries, including
India, followed this practice.
The term 'Preamble' refers to the introduction or preface to the Constitution. It contains the summary or essence of the
Constitution.
Statement 2 is correct: The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the 'Objectives Resolution', drafted and
moved by Pandit Nehru, and adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
Statement 3 is not correct: It has been amended by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), which added three
new words-Socialist, Secular and Integrity.

14.Correct Answer : D
/\nswer Justification :
Option (d) is correct: The Preamble reveals four ingredients or components:
■ Source of authority of the Constitution: The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from the people
of India .
., Nature of Indian State: It declares India to be of a sovereign, socialist, secular democratic and republican polity.
"Objectives of the Constitution: It specifies justice, liberty, equality and fraternity as the objectives.
■ Date of adoption of the Constitution: It stipulates November 26, 1949, as the date.

15.Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Option (b) is correct: The Indian brand of socialism is a 'democratic socialism' and not a 'communistic socialism' (also
known as 'state socialism') which involves the nationalisation of all means of production and distribution and the
abolition of private property.
■ Democratic socialism, on the other hand, holds faith in a 'mixed economy' where both public and private sectors co-
exist side by side .
• As the Supreme Court says, 'Democratic socialism aims to end poverty, ignorance, disease and inequality of opportunity.
.. Indian socialism is a blend of Marxism and Gandhism, leaning heavily towards the Gandhian socialism' .
.. The new Economic Policy (1991) of liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation has, however, diluted the socialist
credentials of the Indian State

16.Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Democracy is of two types-direct and indirect. In direct democracy, the people exercise their supreme power directly as
is the case in Switzerland.
Statement 1 is correct: There are four devices of direct democracy, namely, Referendum, Initiative, Recall and Plebiscite.
Statement 2 is correct: The Indian Constitution provides for representative parliamentary democracy under which the
executive is responsible to the legislature for all its policies and actions.
Statement 3 is correct: Universal adult franchise, periodic elections, rule of law, independence of judiciary, and absence
of discrimination on certain grounds are the manifestations of the democratic character of the Indian polity.
The term 'democratic' is used in the Preamble in the broader sense embracing not only political democracy but also social
and economic democracy.
This dimension was stressed by Dr. Ambedkar in his concluding speech in the Constituent Assembly on November 25,
1949.

17.Correct Answer: A
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is correct: The term 'liberty' means the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals, and at the same
time, providing opportunities for the development of individual personalities.
The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship, through their
Fundamental Rights, enforceable in court of law, in case of violation.
Liberty as elaborated in the Preamble is very essential for the successful functioning of the Indian democratic system.
Statement 2 is not correct: However, liberty does not mean 'license' to do what one likes, and has to be enjoyed within
the limitations mentioned in the Constitution itself. In brief, the liberty conceived by the Preamble or Fundamental Rights
is not absolute but qualified.

18.Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is not correct: The Preamble secures to all citizens of India equality of status and opportunity. This provision
embraces three dimensions of equality-civic, political and economic.
Statement 2 is not correct: There are two provisions in the Constitution that seek to achieve political equality. One, no
person is to be declared ineligible for inclusion in electoral rolls on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex (Article 325).
Two, elections to the Lok Sabha and the state assemblies to be on the basis of adult suffrage (Article 326).
The Directive Principles of State Policy (Article 39) secures to men and women equal right to an adequate means of
livelihood and equal pay for equal work.

19.Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Like any other part of the Constitution, the Preamble was also enacted by the Constituent Assembly; but, after the rest
of the Constitution was already enacted.
,. The reason for inserting the Preamble at the end was to ensure that it was in conformity with the Constitution as
adopted by the Constituent Assembly.
Statement 1 is not correct: The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers
of legislature.
Statement 2 is correct: It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.
m In the l<esavananda Bharati case17 (1973), the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion and held that Preamble is a

part of the Constitution.

s It observed that the Preamble is of extreme importance and the Constitution should be read and interpreted in the light

of the grand and noble vision expressed in the Preamble.

20.Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Option (b) is correct: Article 2 empowers the Parliament to 'admit into the Union of India, or establish, new states on
such terms and conditions as it thinks fit'.
Thus, Article 2 grants two powers to the Parliament:
a lhe power to admit into the Union of India new states; and

■ the power to establish new states.

The first refers to the admission of states which are already in existence, while the second refers to the establishment of
states which were not in existence before. Notably,
Article 2 relates to the admission or establishment of new states that are not part of the Union of India.
Article 3, on the other hand, relates to the formation of or changes in the existing states of the Union of India. In other
words, Article 3 deals with the internal re-adjustment inter se of the territories of the constituent states of the Union of
India.

21.Correct Answer: B
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is not correct: Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to an
authoritative text of the Constitution in the Hindi language.
Later, a provision in this regard was made by the 58th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1987.
This amendment inserted a new Article 394-A in the last part of the Constitution i.e., Part XXII.
Statement 2 is correct: The parliamentary system is also known as the 'Westminster' Model of Government, responsible
Government and Cabinet Government. The Constitution of India establishes the parliamentary system not only at the
Centre, but also in the states.
Statement 3 is correct: The Constitution of India has opted for the British Parliamentary System of Government rather
than American Presidential System of Government.

22.Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Option (b) is correct: Just as the Indian parliamentary system differs from the British system, the scope of judicial review
power of the Supreme Court in India is narrower than that of what exists in US .
• This is because the American Constitution provides for 'due process of law' against that of 'procedure established by
law' contained in the Indian Constitution (Article 21).
■ The doctrine of sovereignty of Parliament is associated with the British Parliament, while the principle of judicial
supremacy with that of the American Supreme Court.

23.Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Option (c) is correct: The Constitution of India stands for a Secular State. Hence, it does not uphold any particular religion
as the official religion of the Indian State. The following provisions of the Constitution reveal the secular character of the
Indian State:
., The term 'secular' was added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of
1976 .
• The Preamble secures to all citizens of India liberty of belief, faith and worship. (c) The State shall not deny to any person
equality before the law or equal protection of the laws (Article 14) .
• The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on the ground of religion (Article 15) .
• The State shall endeavour to secure for all the citizens a Uniform Civil Code (Article 44). ■ Article 40 aims to organise
village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers and authority to enable them to function as units of self-
government.

24.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is not correct: Part Ill of the Constitution is rightly described ;is the Mngn;i C;irt;i of lnrli;i. It cont;iins ;i very
long and comprehensive list of 'justiciable' Fundamental Rights.
Statement 2 is correct: In fact, the Fundamental Rights in Indian Constitution are more elaborate than those found in the
Constitution of any other country in the world, including the USA.
The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution to all persons without any discrimination. They uphold the
equality of all individuals, the dignity of the individual, the larger public interest and unity of the nation.
The Fundamental Rights are meant for promoting the ideal of political democracy. They prevent the establishment of an
authoritarian and despotic rule in the country, and protect the liberties and freedoms of the people against the invasion
by the State.
Statement 3 is correct: They operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the legislature.
In short, they aim at establishing 'a government of laws and not of men'.

25.Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
The Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution are characterised by the following:
,. Some of them are available only to the citizens while others are available to all persons whether citizens, foreigners or
legal persons like corporations or companies.
■ Statement 1 is not correct: All of them are available against the arbitrary action of the state. However, some of them
are also available against the action of private individuals.
■ Statement 2 is not correct: Some of them are negative in character, that is, place limitations on the authority of the
State, while others are positive in nature, conferring certain privileges on the persons.
■ They are not sacrosanct or permanent. The Parliament can curtail or repeal them but only by a constitutional
amendment act and not by an ordinary act.
,, Statement 3 is not correct: They can be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency except the rights
guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21.

26.Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Option (d) is correct: The term 'law' in Article 13 has been given a wide connotation so as to include the following:
,. Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament or the state legislatures;
., Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the president or the state governors;
■ Statutory instruments in the nature of delegated legislation (executive legislation) like order, bye-law, rule, regulation
or notification; and
■ Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law.
Thus, not only a legislation but any of the above can be challenged in the courts as violating a Fundamental Right and
hence, can be declared as void.

27.Correct Answer: D
Answer Justification :
Option (d) is correct: Article 16 provides for equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of employment or
appointment to any office under the State.
No citizen can be discriminated against or be ineligible for any employment or office under the State on grounds of only
religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or residence.
There are three exceptions to this general rule of equality of o;:iportunity in public employment:
,. Parliament can prescribe residence as a condition for certain employment or appointment in a state or union territory
or local authority or other authority .
.. As the Public Employment (Requirement as to Residence) Act of 1957 expired in 1974, there is no such provision for any
state except Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
■ The State can provide for reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class that is not adequately
represented in the state services.
■ A law can provide that the incumbent of an office related to religious or denominational institution or a member of its
governing body should belong to the particular religion or denomination.

28.Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
The State can impose reasonable restrictions on the exercise of right of assembly on two grounds, namely, sovereignty
and integrity of India and public order including the maintenance of traffic in the area concerned.
Statement 1 is not correct: Under Section 141 of the Indian Penal Code, as assembly of five or more persons becomes
unlawful if the object is
• to resist the execution of any law or legal process;
• to forcibly occupy the property of some person;
■ to commit any mischief or criminal trespass;
• to force some person to do an illegal act; and
• to threaten the government or its officials on exercising lawful powers.
Statement 2 is correct: Under Section 144 of Criminal Procedure Code (1973), a magistrate can restrain an assembly,
meeting or procession if there is a risk of obstruction, annoyance or danger to human life, health or safety or a
disturbance of the public tranquillity or a riot or any affray.

l~.Lorrect Answer: A
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is correct: Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according
to procedure established by law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens.
Statement 2 is not correct: In the famous Gopalan case {1950), the Supreme Court has taken a narrow interpretation of
the Article 21.
It held that the protection under Article 21 is available only against arbitrary executive action and not from arbitrary
legislative action. This means that the State can deprive the right to life and personal liberty of a person based on a law.
But, in Menaka case {1978), the Supreme Court overruled its judgement in the Gopalan case by taking a wider
interpretation of the Article 21.

30.Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Option (b) is correct: The writ of habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals.
The writ, on the other hand, is not issued where the
m detention is lawful,
■ the proceeding is for contempt of a legislature or a court,
• detention is by a competent court, and
■ detention is outside the jurisdiction of the court.
The writ of mandamus cannot be issued
■ against a private individual or body;
■ to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force;
■ when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory;
• to enforce a contractual obligation;
• against the president of India or the state governors; and
,. against the chief justice of a high court acting in judicial capacity.
The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities .
• It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.

31.Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However, on the basis
of their content and direction, they can be classified into three broad categories, viz, socialistic, Gandhian and liberal-
intellectual.
Statement 2 is correct: The Directive Principles resemble the 'Instrument of Instructions' enumerated in the Government
of India Act of 1935.
In the words of Dr B R Ambedkar, 'the Directive Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to
the Governor-General and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the Government of
India Act of 1935.
Statement 3 is correct: The Directive Principles, though non-justiciable in nature, help the courts in examining and
determining the constitutional validity of a law.

32.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Option (a) is correct: NEW DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES:
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:
To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article A).
To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life (Article 48 A).
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 added one more f1irective Princirle, which rerpiires the State to minimise inequalities
in income, status, facilities and opportunities (Article 38).

33.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Option (a) is correct: The Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of erstwhile
USSR .
• Notably, none of the Constitutions of major democratic countries like USA, Canada, France, Germany, Australia and so
on specifically contain a list of duties of citizens .
• Japanese Constitution is, perhaps, the only democratic Constitution in world which contains a list of duties of citizens .
• The socialist countries, on the contrary, give equal importance to the fundamental rights and duties of their citizens .
• Hence, the Constitution of erstwhile USSR declared that the citizen's exercise of their rights and freedoms was
inseparable from the performance of their duties and obligations.

34.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
The characteristics of the Fundamental Duties:
Some of them are moral duties while others are civic duties. For instance, cherishing noble ideals of freedom struggle is
a moral precept and respecting the Constitution, National Flag and National Anthem is a civic duty.
They refer to such values which have been a part of the Indian tradition, mythology, religions and practices. In other
words, they essentially contain just a codification of tasks integral to the Indian way of life.
Statement 1 is correct: Unlike some of the Fundamental Rights which extend to all persons whether citizens or foreigners,
the Fundamental Duties are confined to citizens only and do not extend to foreigners.
Statement 2 is not correct: Like the Directive Principles, the fundamental duties are also non-justiciable. The Constitution
does not provide for their direct enforcement.

35.Correct Answer: A
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is correct: The power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution lies with the Parliament. Hence, unlike
in USA, the state legislatures cannot initiate any bill or proposal for amending the Constitution except in one case, that
is, passing a resolution requesting the Parliament for the creation or abolition of legislative councils in the states.
Major part of the Constitution can be amended by the Parliament alone either by a special majority or by a simple
majority.
Only in few cases, the consent of the state legislatures is required and that too, only half of them, while in USA, it is three-
fourths of the states.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Constitution does not prescribe the time frame within which the state legislatures should
ratify or reject an amendment submitted to them.
Statement 3 is not correct: There is no provision for holding a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament if there is a
deadlock over the passage of a constitutional amendment bill. On the other hand, a provision for a joint sitting is made
in the case of an ordinary bill.

36.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is correct: The doctrine of separation of powers is the basis of the American presidential system. The
lecislative, executive and judicial powers of the government are separated and vested in the three independent organs
of the government.
Statement 2 is not correct: The presidential system of government is one in which the executive is not responsible to the
legislature for its policies and acts, and is constitutionally independent of the legislature in respect of its term of office.
Modern democratic governments are classified into parliamentary and presidential on the basis of nature of relations
between the executive and the legislative organs of the government.
The parliamentary system of government is the one in which the executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies
and acts.
Statement 3 is not correct: Collective Responsibility is the bedrock principle of parliamentary government. The ministers
are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular (Article 75). They act as a team,
and swim and sink together.

37.Correct Answer: B
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is not correct: The parliamentary system does not provide a stable government. There is no guarantee that
a government can survive its tenure.
The ministers depend on the mercy of the majority legislators for their continuity and survival in office. A no-confidence
motion or political defection or evils of multiparty coalition can make the government unstable.
Statement 2 is not correct: The parliamentary system is not conductive for the formulation and implementation of long-
term policies.
Statement 3 is correct: The parliamentary system is not conducive to administrative efficiency as the ministers are not
experts in their fields.
The Prime Minister has a limited choice in the selection of ministers; his choice is restricted to the members of Parliament
alone and does not extend to external talent.

38.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is correct: The 'Canadian model' differs fundamentally from the 'American model' in so far as it establishes
a very strong centre.
The Indian federal system is based on the 'Canadian model' and not on the 'American model'.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Indian federation resembles the Candian federation:
in its formation (i.e., by way of disintegration);
Statement 1 is not correct: Substantive Motion is a self-contained independent proposal dealing with a very important
matter like impeachment of the President or removal of Chief Election Commissioner.
Statement 2 is not correct: Substitute Motion is moved in substitution of an original motion and proposes an alternative
to it. If adopted by the House, it supersedes the original motion.
Statement 3 is not correct: Subsidiary Motion is a motion that, by itself, has no meaning and cannot state the decision
of the House without reference to the original motion or proceedings of the House.

53.Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is not correct: The Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) provides for remission of prison sentences, which
means the whole or a part of the sentence may be cancelled.
Statement 2 is correct: Both the President and the Governor have been vested with sovereign power of pardon by the
Constitution, commonly referred to as mercy or clemency power.
Statement 3 is correct: In the case of death sentences, the Central government may also concurrently exercise the same
power as the State governments to remit or suspend the sentence .
• Under Article 72, the President can grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remissions of punishment or suspend, remit or
commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence in all cases.
■ Under Article 72 and Article 161, the respective governments advise the President/Governor to suspend, remit or
commute sentences.

54.Correct Answer: B
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is incorrect: Delimitation is the act of redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and Assembly seats to represent
changes in population.
In this process, the number of seats allocated to a state may also change.
The objective is to provide equal representation for equal population segments, and a fair division of geographical areas,
so that no political party has an advantage.
Statement 2 is correct: The Delimitation Commission's orders cannot be questioned before any court.
The Central government reconstituted the Delimitation Commission for the four north-eastern States and the Union
Territory of Jam mu and Kashmir on March 6, 2020.

55.Correct Answer: A
Answer Justification :
Option (a) is correct: The "jus soli" principle is premised on the automatic grant of citizenship based on the place of birth
provided the person is domiciled in India, qualifying it with religious identity, was in fact a proposal to ingrain religion
into the bedrock of the Constitution.
■ Article 5 of the draft constitution proposed to replace the universally honoured "jus soli" principle by qualifying it with
a religious appendage that "every person who is a Hindu or a Sikh by religion and is not a citizen of any other State,
wherever he resides shall be entitled to be a citizen of India."
,. In the process, the additional "domicile requirement" as conceived by Article 5 along with the "jus soli" principle was
consigned to oblivion.

56.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
VSHORAD Missile System
• Meant to kill low altitude aerial threats at short ranges, VSHORADS is a man portable Air Defence System (MANPAD).
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect .
• It is designed and developed indigenously by DRDO's Research Centre lmarat (RCI), Hyderabad, in collaboration with
other DRDO laboratories and Indian Industry Partners .
• The missile is propelled by a dual thrust solid motor-incorporates many novel technologies including miniaturised
Reaction Control System (RCS) and integrated avionics, which were successfully proven during the tests conducted last
year.
Hence, statement 2 is correct .
• The DRDO has designed the missile and its launcher in a way to ensure easy portability.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
Unique features:
• Being man portable and lightweight compared to the other missile systems in the Army's armoury, it can be deployed
in the mountains close to the LAC at a short notice .
• Others like the Akash Short Range Surface to Air Missile System are heavier with a theatre air defence un-,brcllil.
m They are perceived to be the best option for mountain warfare since they can be deployed quickly in rugged terrain.
57.Correct Answer: A
Answer Justification :
Deepfakes
Deepfakes (Deep Learning+ Fake) are synthetic media in which a person in an existing image or video is replaced with
someone else's likeness.
Deepfakes leverage powerful techniques from machine learning (ML) and artificial intelligence (Al) to manipulate or
generate visual and audio content with a high potential to deceive.
Hence, option ia) is correct.
Uses:
., Many are entertaining and some are helpful.
., Voice-cloning deepfakes can restore people's voices when they lose them to disease .
• Deepfake videos can enliven galleries and museums.
■ For the entertainment industry, technology can be used to improve the dubbing on foreign-language films, and more
controversially, resurrect dead actors.

58.Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Kangla Nongpok Thong
The Eastern Gate of Kangla, also known as the Kangla Nongpok Thong, is a bridge located in Manipur, India. The bridge
holds great cultural significance for the people of Manipur and is considered to be a pathway to peace, prosperity, and
happiness. Recently, Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi expressed his hope that the bridge's opening will enhance the
spirit of peace, prosperity, and happiness across the state.

59.Correct Answer: A
Answer Justification :
India and Germany signed an agreement on a 'Comprehensive Migration and Mobility Partnership' to facilitate mobility
and employment opportunities between India and Germany.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Major Highlights of the agreement :-
" It has specific provisions to facilitate mobility and employment opportunities for fostering the exchange of skills and
talents.
■ These include Academic Evaluation Center in New Delhi, 18 months extended residence permits to students, 3,000 job
seeker visas annually, liberalised short stay multiple entry visas, and streamlined readmission procedures.
■ It aims to create a network of agreements with prospective labour market destination countries with the twin objectives
of creating a favourable visa regime for Indians towards accessing the labour market of these countries.
Significance
• It ensures an active people-to-people exchange including among students, academia, and the professional workforce.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect .
• It also ensures that Indian students can now get joint degrees and dual degrees. this will be ensured with collaboration
between Indian and German universities at the university level.
■ It also ensures a joint and collaborated effort in tackling future pandemics.
Hence, statement 3 is correct .
• It will also facilitate German business owners to travel to India and invest here.
■ This, in turn, will also create more employment opportunities for the country's skilled labourers.

60.Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Gelbots
111111 It is made out of gelatin and is a significant advance in the world of 'soft robotics,' or robots that are fashioned out
of organic and non-metallic materials.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
About the Gel bots:
1111!! A 3D-printed device

111111 Move without requiring an extra power source.

Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
II Feels like a Fruit gum rather than hard metallic surfaces of robots.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
II Extremely promising materials for soft robotics.
Ii They rely on the principle that gels that swell or shrink in response to temperature can be used to create smart
structures.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
■ Cheap and easy to mass produce .

61.Correct Answer: B
Answer Justification :
What is Virovore?
It is an organism which obtains energy and nutrients from the consumption of viruses.
■ Scientists were conducting research to find out whether any microbes actively eat viruses.
■ They found a species of Halteria. These are microscopic ciliates that populate freshwater throughout the world. These
can eat huge numbers of infectious chloroviruses. Both share an aquatic habitat.
Hence, option (b) is correct.

62.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
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Hence, pair 1 is incorrectly matched.
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Abyei is situated in Sudan.

Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched .
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Zaporizhzhia is situated in Ukraine.
Hence, pair 3 is incorrectly matched.

63.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Asian Pacific Postal Union {APPU)
Asian Pacific Postal Union {APPU) is an international Organization that aims to extend, facilitate and improve postal
relations between member countries and to promote cooperation in the field of postal services.
Asian Pacific Postal Union is the only Restricted Union of the Universal Postal Union (UPU) in the region.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
India has taken over the leadership of the Asian Pacific Postal Union (APPU) having its Headquarters in Bangkok, Thailand
from January 2023.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

64.Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved the proposal of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
re garding the Central Sector Scheme "Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development" {BIND) Scheme with an
outlay of Rs.2,539.61 crore up to 2025-26.
■ BIND Scheme is a scheme for providing financial support to Prasar Bharati for expenses related to expansion and
upgradation of its broadcasting infrastructure, content development and civil work related to the organization.
Hence, statement 1 is correct .
• Pras ar Bharati, as the public broadcaster of the country, is the most important vehicle of information, educ ation,
entert ainment and engag em ent for the people especially in th e remote areas of the country through Doordarshan (DD)
and All India Radio (AIR).
• Prasar Bharati played a stellar role in communicating public health messages and awareness to the public during the
covid pandemic.
,. It will widen Prasar Bharati's reach, including in the LWE (Left Wing Extremism), border and strategic areas and provide
high quality content to the viewers.
,. It will increase coverage of AIR FM {frequency modulation) transmitters in the country to 66% by geographical area
and 80% by population, up from 59% and 68% respectively.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
,. The Scheme also envisages free distribution of over 8 lakh DD Free Dish STBs (Set Top Box) to people living in remote,
tribal, LWE and border areas.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.

GS.Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
A recent study has shown that Taurine - a nutrient found in meat, and fish and sold as a supplement - extends life and
boosts health in a range of animal species.
Experiments on middle-aged animals showed boosting ta urine to youthful levels extended life by over 10% and improved
physical and brain health.
About Taurine:
• Taurine is an amino acid that has a few important roles in your body, including supporting immune health and nervous
system function.
,. The scientific report suggests ta urine plays a role in reducing cellular senescence-where cells in the body stop dividing
- a hallmark of ageing.
,. The nutrient also appeared to keep mitochondria -the power stations in the body's cells -functioning.
" Taurine is virtually non-existent in plants. So the nutrient either comes from the animal protein in the diet or is
manufactured by the body.
Hence, option (b} is correct.

66.Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Multilateral Development Banks
Under the aegis of India's G20 Presidency, an 11-member G20 Expert Group on "Strengthening Multilateral
Development Banks (MDBs) has been constituted.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
MDB is a financial institution established by multiple member countries and falls under international law. E.g.,
International Monetary Fund, World Bank, Asian Development Bank etc.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Focus area: How can World Bank and other bodies contribute towards climate finance, critical for developing and LDCs
to make a smooth transition to lower carbon emissions without compromising on growth.
Objectives of MDB: Stabilizing the global financial system during the time of crisis; Providing long-term financing;
Providing lower-cost financing.
www. ins ightso n ind ia. com/2023/03 /30/rn u ltilateral-develop_1J1ent-ba nks/

67 .Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Quasars
m According to a new study published in Monthly Notices of the Royal Astronomical Society, galaxy mergers likely ignite

quasars, the most powerful and brightest objects in the universe .

• Quasars (short for "quasi-stellar radio source") are very luminous objects in faraway galaxies that emit jets at radio
frequencies that first detected in the 1960s.
Hence, statement 1 is correct .
• It emits radio waves, visible light, ultraviolet rays, infrared waves, X-rays, and gamma-rays .
• Most of the quasars are larger than our solar system, approximately 1 kilo parsec in width.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect .
• They only found in galaxies with supermassive blacl< holes that power the bnght discs.
a They are formed when matter falls into the black hole, it emits a tremendous amount of energy, creating a very bright

and luminous disc around the black hole. Quasars are formed by the energy emitted by materials swirling around a
blackhole right before being sucked into it .
• There are two types of Quasars. Radio-loud Quasars form about 10% of the overall quasar population with powerful
jets that are strong sources of radio-wavelength emission while radio-quiet Quilst1rs forn1 the mJjority of quasars (about
90%) lack powerful jets, with relatively weaker radio emission than the radio-loud population.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect .

68 .Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
South Atlantic Anomaly
NASA is monitoring South Atlantic Anomaly in Earth's magnetic field between South America and southwest Africa.
South Atlantic Anomaly (SAA) is a region on the Earth's surface where the intensity of the magnetic field is particularly
low.

■ Earth's inner Van Allen radiation belt comes closest to the planet's surface, causing an increased flux of energetic
particles. This leads to the penetration of solar energetic particles deep into Earth's atmosphere.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
■ Poses severe problems for airplanes and Global positioning systems as well as spacecraft electronic systems.

69.Correct Answer: C
Answer Justification :
The Technology and Innovation Report 2023 was recently released by UNCTAD.
Hence, statement 1 is correct . .
It highlights the opportunities that green innovation - goods and services with smaller carbon footprints offer developing
countries to spur economic growth and enhance technological capacities.
Key Highlights from the report:
■ The report analyses the market size of 17 green and frontier technologies, such as artificial intelligence, the Internet
of Things, and electric vehicles, and their potential to create jobs.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
■ Widening North-South Divide: While countries in the EU reach a Research & Development expenditure of 3% of GDP,
only a few developing countries reach 1% of GDP expenditure.
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
■ Most countries have increased their climate-change-related, green official development assistance (ODA).
■ Within the UN system, Global Environmental Facility (GEF) is the largest public sector funding source for transferring
Environmentally Sound Technologies (ESTs).
India's ranking:
India remains the greatest overperformer ranking at 67 positions better than expected, followed by the Philippines (54
positions better) and Viet Nam (44 better).

70.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has conceptualised a lightweight payment and settlements system, which can be
operated from anywhere by a bare minimum staff in exigencies such as natural calamities or war.
The infrastructure for this system will be independent of the technologies that underlie the existing systems of
payments such as UPI, NEFT, and RTGS.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Difference between UPI and lightweight system:
■ The key difference lies in the resilience and availability of the two systems.
■ UPI and other conventional systems prioritize handling large transaction volumes and require a stable and robust
infrastructure.
■ On the other hand, the lightweight system is designed to operate even in volatile and extreme conditions when regular
payment systems may not be accessible
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
 71.Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Hunger Hotspots - FAO-WFP early warnings on acute food insecurity
According to a new UN report·-- Hunger Hotspots - FAO-WFP early warnings on acute food insecurity- India's neighbours
(Pakistan, Afghanistan and Myanmar) are among the hunger hotspots in the world.
Highlights of the report:
■ Many hotspots [Afghanistan, Nigeria, Somalia, Sudan, South Sudan, Yemen, Haiti, and the Sahel (Burkina Faso and
Mali)] are facing growing hunger crises.
■ Conflict, climate extremes and economic shocks continue to drive more and more communities into crisis.
,. The spill over from the crisis in Sudan is driving massive population displacement and hunger among people in search
of refuge.
Risks ahead:
,. Deepening economic shocks and a likely El Nino climatic phenomenon is raising fears of climate extremes in vulnerable
countries around the globe.
,. Acute food insecurity can potentially increase in magnitude and severity.
Hence, option (c) is correct.

72.Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Magnetite-bearing rocks
The Bihar government plans to collaborate with the Geological Survey of India (GSI) to gather valuable geological
information about magnetite-bearing rocks and ultramafic rocks in the region.
What are magnetite-bearing rocks?
Magnetite-bearing rocks are rocks that contain magnetite, a black, opaque, and magnetic mineral. These rocks often
exhibit magnetic anomalies and are known to host valuable minerals such as Chromite, Nickel, Platinum Group of
Elements (PGE), and gold. Magnetite is one of the most abundant metal oxides and has various industrial applications.
More often, magnetite occurs in its massive form, commonly called 'lodestone'
What are ultramafic rocks?
Ultramafic rocks are a type of igneous rock that have a high concentration of dark-coloured minerals rich in iron and
magnesium. These rocks typically contain very little silica and are composed mainly of minerals such as olivine and
pyroxene. Ultramafic rocks are associated with deep-seated mantle processes and are often found in areas where
tectonic plates are converging.
Hence, statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

73.Correct Answer: C
Answer Justification :
Recently, the Ministry of Power and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy have launched a National Mission called
"Mission on Advanced and High-Impact Research (MAHIR)" in the power sector.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Key findings:
• Mission Duration: 5 years (2023-24 to 2027-28)
,. Objective: Facilitate indigenous research, development, and demonstration of emerging technologies in the power
sector.
■ National Priorities: Achieving Net Zero emissions, promoting Make in India and Start-up India initiatives, contributing to
SDGs.
a l<ey Areas for Research: Alternatives to Lithium-Ion storage batteries, modifying electric cookers/pans, green hydrogen,

carbon capture, etc.

■ Approach: The Mission will follow the Technology Life Cycle approach, i.e. Idea to Product
a Structure: Two-tier structure: Technical Scoping Committee (headed by Chairperson ot Central Electricity Authority) and

Apex Committee (headed by Union Minister for Power & New and Renewable Energy).
= Collaboration Institutions: IITs, IIMs, NITs, IISERs, universities, public and private power sector start-ups, established
industries.
■ Mission's Scope: Indigenous technology development, pilot projects for Indian startups, international collaboration,
technology transfer.
a Secretarial Assistance: Central Power Research Institute (CPRI), Bengaluru.

74.Correct Answer: A
Answer Justification :
Recently, Union Ministry for Health and Family Welfare unveiled the .':ith State rood Safety index (SFSi) on World Food
Safety Day, highlighting India's commitment to food safety and innovation.
Status of Food safety:
., Approximately 600 million people, nearly 1 in 10 worldwide, fall ill each year due to consuming contaminated food,
resulting in 420,000 deaths annually
.. Unsafe food leads to more than 200 diseases, including diarrhoea and cancers
., Children under five account for 40% of the food borne disease burden
Initiatives taken by FSSAI:
" Food Safety and Standards Regulations 2011{contains Licensing and Registration, Packaging and Labelling, and
Advertising)
., Heart Attack Rewind (eliminating trans-fat)
., FSSAI-CHIFSS {to promote collaborations between Industry, Scientific Community, and Academia for food safety);
., Eat Right India Movement
., Eat Right Awards
Other initiatives:
"National Health Policy 2017
.. POSHAN Abhiyaan
., Anemia Mukt Bharat
,. Swachh Bharat Mission.
,. Eat Right Station Certification {by Railway Ministry)
.. Food Safety Magic Box {do-it-yourself food testing kit for school students)
"Codex Alimentarius, or "Food Code" is a collection of standards, guidelines and codes of practice adopted by the Codex
Alimentarius Commission.
Hence, option (a) is correct.

75.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Recently, the Ministry of Home Affairs in India has directed central law enforcement agencies, including the CBI, NIA and
the Narcotics Control Bureau {NCB), to access and share their records with the national fingerprints database, NAFIS
{National Automated Fingerprint Identification System).
NAFIS (National Automated Fingerprint Identification System)
"This database, known as NAFIS, is a web-based application that serves as a central repository of criminal fingerprint
data collected from various states and Union territories.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
■ Its aim is to enhance the ability of these agencies to identify criminals and expedite investigations by leveraging the
comprehensive fingerprint data available in the database.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
■ It has been conceptualized by National Crime Records Bureau {NCRB) in 2022 and managed by Central Fingerprint
Bureau (CFPB) at NCRB.
■ Unique Identifier: It assigns a unique 10-digit National Fingerprint Number (NFN) to each person arrested for a crime.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
,. The NFN is used for the person's lifetime, and different crimes registered under different FIRs are linked to the same
NFN in the Crime and Criminal Tracking Network & Systems {CCTNS) database.
■ Fingerprinting History: First began automating fingerprint database in 1992 with FACTS 1.0, recommended by the
National Police Commission. FACTS 5.0 was upgraded in 2007 and later replaced by NAFIS in 2022.

76.Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is correct: Articles 358 and 359 describe the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental Rights.
Article 358 deals with the suspension of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 19, while Article 359 deals with
the suspension of other Fundamental Rights {except those guaranteed by Articles 20 and 21).
Statement 2 is correct: Article 359 authorises the president to suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement
of Fundamental Rights during a National Emergency.
This means that under Article 359, the Fundamental Rights as such are not suspended, but only their enforcement. The
said rights are theoretically alive but the right to seek remedy is suspended.
The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted the scope of Article 359 in two ways. Firstly, the President cannot suspend
the right to move the Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights guaranteed by Articles 20 to 21.
Statement 3 is correct: In other words, the right to protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20) and the
right to life and personal liberty (Article 21) remain enforceable even during emergency.

77.Correct Answer: A
Answer Justification :
., He decides the questions of disqualification of a member of the Lok Sabha, arising on the ground of defection under the
provisions of the Tenth Schedule .
.. In 1992, the Supreme Court ruled that the decision of the Speaker in this regard is subject to judicial review.

86.Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is not correct: As provided by the Constitution, the Speaker of the last Lok Sabha vacates his office
immediately before the first meeting of the newly-elected Lok Sabha. Therefore, the President appoints a member of the
Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro Tern.
Statement 2 is not correct: The Vice-President cannot preside over a sitting of the Rajya Sabha as its Chairman when a
resolution for his removal is under consideration.
However, he can be present and speak in the House and can take part in its proceedings, without voting, even at such a
time (while the Speaker can vote in the first instance when a resolution for his removal is under consideration of the Lok
Sabha).
Statement 3 is not correct: As in case of the Speaker, the salaries and allowances of the Chairman are also fixed by the
Parliament. They are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and thus are not subject to the annual vote of Parliament.

87.Correct Answer: A
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is correct: Under the Rules of Lok Sabha, the 'Leader of the House' means the prime minister, if he is a
member of the Lok Sabha, or a minister who is a member of the Lok Sabha and is nominated by the prime minister to
function as the Leader of the House. There is also a 'Leader of the House' in the Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2 is not correct: In each House of Parliament, there is the 'Leader of the Opposition'. The leader of the largest
Opposition party having not less than one-tenth seats of the total strength of the House is recognised as the leader of
the Opposition in that House.
Statement 3 is not correct: The British political system has a unique institution called the 'Shadow Cabinet'. It is formed
by the Opposition party to balance the ruling cabinet and to prepare its members for future ministerial offices.

88.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
Though the offices of the leader of the House and the leader of the Opposition are not mentioned in the Constitution of
India, they are mentioned in the Rules of the House and Parliamentary Statute respectively.
Statement 1 is correct: The office of 'whip', on the other hand, is mentioned neither in the Constitution of India nor in
the Rules of the House nor in a Parliamentary Statute. It is based on the conventions of the parliamentary government.
Statement 2 is not correct: Every political party, whether ruiing or Opposition has its own whip in the Parliament. He is
appointed by the political party to serve as an assistant floor leader.
He is charged with the responsibility of ensuring the attendance of his party members in large numbers and securing
their support in favour of or against a particular issue.

89.Correct Answer: C
Answer Justification :
Option (c) is correct: Adjournment sine die means terminating a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period .
., In other words, when the House is adjourned without naming a day for reassembly, it is called adjournment sine die .
.. The power of adjournment as well as adjournment sine die lies with the presiding officer of the House .
• He can also call a sitting of the House before the date or time to which it has been adjourned or at any time after the
House has been adjourned sine die.

90.Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Statement 1 is correct: Closure Motion is a motion moved by a member to cut short the debate on a matter before the
House. If the motion is approved by the House, debate is stopped forthwith and the matter is put to vote. There are four
kinds of closure motions:
• Simple Closure: It is one when a member moves that the 'matter having been sufficiently discussed be now put to vote' .
• Closure by Compartments: In this case, the clauses ot a blii or a lengthy resoiut1on are grouped into parts before the
commencement of the debate. The debate covers the part as a whole and the entire part is put to vote .
• Statement 2 is not correct: l<angaroo Closure: Under this type, only important clauses are taken up for debate and
voting and the intervening clauses are skipped over and taken as passed .
• Statement 3 is correct: Guillotine Closure: It is one when the undiscussed clauses of a bill or a resolut-ion are also put
to vote along with the discussed ones due to want of time (as the time allotted for the discussion is over).
91.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
The appointment, posting and promotion of district judges in a state are made by the governor of the state in consultation
with the high court.
A person to be appointed as district judge should have the following qualifications:
(a) He should not already be in the service of the Central or the state government.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
(b) He should have been an advocate or a pleader for seven years.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
(c) He should be recommended by the high court for appointment.
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

92.Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
The persons eligible for getting free legal services include:
Women and children
Members of SC/ST (Not OBS). Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Industrial workmen
Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake, industrial disaster.
Disabled persons
Persons in custody
Persons whose annual income does not exceed ,1 lakh (in t Supreme Court Legal Services Committee the limit
,1,25,000/-)
Victims of trafficking in human beings or begar.

93.Correct Answer : A
Answer Justification :
The salient features of the Family Courts Act, 1984 are as follows:
It provides for the establishment of Family Courts by the State Governments in consultation with the High Courts.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
It makes it obligatory on the State Governments to set up a Family Court in every city or town with a population
exceeding one million.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
It enables the State Governments to set up Family Courts in other areas also, if they deem it necessary.
It exclusively provides within the jurisdiction of the Famiiy Courts the matters relating to:
matrimonial relief, including nullity of marriage, judicial separation, divorce, restitution of conjugal rights, or declaration
as to validity of marriage or as to the matrimonial status of any person.
the property of the spouses or of either of them; Hence, statement 3 is correct.
declaration as to the legitimacy of any person;
guardianship of a person or the custody of any minor; and
maintenance of wife, children and parents.
It makes it obligatory on the part of the Family Court to endeavour, in the first instance to effect a reconciliation or a
settlement between the parties to a family dispute. During this stage, the proceedings will be informal and rigid rules of
procedure shall not apply.
It provides for the association of social welfare agencies, counsellors, etc., during conciliation stage and also to secure
the service of medical and welfare experts.
It provides that the parties to a dispute before a Family Court shall not be entitled, as of right, to be represented by legal
practitioner. However, the Court may, in the interest of justice, seek assistance of a legal expert as amicus curiae.
It simplifies the rules of evidence and procedure so as to enable a Family Court to deal effectively with a dispute.
It provides for only one right of appeal which shall lie to the High Court.

94.Correct Answer : B
An'iWPr .Ju.-;tifir.;:itinn :
The salient features of the Gram Nyayalayas Act are as follows:
The Gram Nyayalaya shall be court of Judicial Magistrate of the first class and its presiding officer (Nyayadhikari) shall
be appointed by the State Government in consultation with the High Court.
The Gram Nyayalaya shall be established for every Panchayat at intermediate level or a group of contiguous Panchayats
at intermediate level in a district or where there is no Panchayat at intermediate level in any State, for a group of
contiguous Panchayats.
The Nyayadhikaris who will preside over these Gram Nyayalayas are strictly judicial officers and will be drawing the
same salary, deriving the same powers as First Class Magistrates working under High Courts.
Hence, statement (b) is incorrect.
The Gram Nyayalaya shall be a mobile court and shall exercise the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts.
The seat of the Gram Nyayalaya will be located at the headquarters of the intermediate Panchayat, they will go to villages,
work there and dispose of the cases.
The Gram Nyayalaya shall try criminal cases, civil suits, claims or disputes which are specified in the First Schedule and
the Second Schedule to the Act.
The Central as well as the State Governments have been given power to amend the First Schedule and the Second
Schedule of the Act, as per their respective legislative competence.
The Gram Nyayalaya shall follow summary procedure in criminal trial.
The Gram Nyayalaya shall exercise the powers of a Civil Court with certain modifications and shall follow the special
procedure as provided in the Act.
The Gram Nyayalaya shall try to settle the disputes as far as possible by bringing about conciliation between the parties
and for this purpose, it shall make use of the conciliators to be appointed for this purpose.
The judgment and order passed by the Gram Nyayalaya shall be deemed to be a decree and to avoid delay in its execution,
the Gram Nyayalaya shall follow summary procedure for its execution.
The Gram Nyayalaya shall not be bound by the rules of evidence provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 but shall be
guided by the principles of natural justice and subject to any rule made by the High Court.
Appeal in criminal cases shall lie to the Court of Session, which shall be heard and disposed of within a period of six
months from the date of filing of such appeal.
Appeal in civil cases shall lie to the District Court, which shall be heard and disposed of within a period of six months from
the date offiling of the appeal.
A person accused of an offence may file an application for plea bargaining.

95.Correct Answer : C
Answer Justification :
The district judge is the highest judicial authority in the district. He possesses original and appellate jurisdiction in both
civil as well as criminal matters.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.
In other words, the district judge is also the sessions judge. When he deals with civil cases, he is known as the district
judge and when he hears the criminal cases, he is called as the sessions judge.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
The district judge exercises both judicial and administrative powers. He also has supervisory powers over all the
subordinate courts in the district. Appeals against his orders and judgements lie to the High Court. The sessions judge
has the power to impose any sentence including life imprisonment and capital punishment (death sentence).
Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
However, a capital punishment passed by him is subject to confirmation by the High Court, whether there is an appeal
or not.

96.Correct Answer : D
Answer Justification :
Primarily, the State Legal Services Authorities, District Legal Services Authorities, Taluk Legal Services Committees, etc.
have been asked to discharge the following main functions on regular basis:
1. To provide free and competent legal services to the eligible persons.
To organise Lok Ada lats for amicable settlement of disputes.
To organise legal awareness camps in the rural areas.
The free legal services include:
Payment of court fee, process fees and all other charges payable or incurred in connection with any iegal proceedings.
Providing service of lawyers in legal proceedings.
Obtaining and supply of certified copies of orders and other documents in legal proceedings.
Preparation of appeal, paper book including printing and translation of documents in legal proceedings.
Hence, option (d) is correct.

97.Correct Answer: D
Answer Justification :
The original Constitution did not contain provisions with respect to tribunals.
Hence, statement I is incorrect.
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added a new Part XIV-A to the Constitution. This part is entitled as 'Tribunals' and
consists of only two Articles-Article 323 A dealing with administrative tribunals and Article 323 B dealing with tribunals
for other matters.
Hence, statement II is correct.

98.Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Original Jurisdiction
It means the power of a high court to hear disputes in the first instance, not by way of appeal. It extends to the following:
Matters of admirality and contempt of court.
Disputes relating to the election of members of Parliament and state legislatures.
Regarding revenue matter or an act ordered or done in revenue collection.
Enforcement of fundamental rights of citizens.
(e) Cases ordered to be transferred from a subordinate court involving the interpretation of the Constitution to its own
file.
The four high courts (i.e., Calcutta, Bombay, Madras and Delhi High Courts) have original civil jurisdiction in cases of
higher value.
Before 1973, the Calcutta, Bombay and Madras High Courts also had original criminal jurisdiction. This was fully abolished
by the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973.
the Interstate River Water Disputes Act 1956 bars the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court or any other court over
interstate river water disputes.
Hence, option (b) is correct.

99.Correct Answer: D
Answer Justification :
INDEPENDENCE OF SUPREME COURT
1. Conduct of Judges cannot be Discussed
The Constitution prohibits any discussion in Parliament or in a State Legislature with respect to the conduct of the
judges of the Supreme Court in the discharge of their duties, except when an impeachment motion is under
consideration of the Parliament.
2. Its Jurisdiction cannot be Curtailed
The Parliament is not authorised to curtail the jurisdiction and powers of the Supreme Court. The Constitution has
guaranteed to the Supreme Court, jurisdiction of various kinds. However, the Parliament can extend the same.
3. Ban on Practice after Retirement
The retired judges of the Supreme Court are prohibited from pleading or acting in any Court or before any authority
within the territory of India. This ensures that they do not favour anyone in the hope of future favour.
Hence, all are correct statements.

100.Correct Answer : B
Answer Justification :
Senior Advocates
• These are Advocates who are designated as Senior Advocates by the Supreme Court of India or by any High Court .
• The Court can designate any Advocate, with his consent, as Senior Advocate if in its opinion by virtue of his ability,
standing at the Bar or special knowledge or experience in law the said Advocate is deserving of such distinction.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
A Senior Advocate is not entitled to appear without an Advocate-on-Record in the Supreme Court or without a junior
in any other court or tribunal in India.
Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
He is also not entitled to accept instructions to draw pleadings or affidavits, advise on evidence or do any drafting work
of an analogous kind in any court or tribunal in India or undertake conveyancing work of any kind whatsoever but this
prohibition shall not extend to settling any such matter as aforesaid in consultation with a junior.Advocates-on-Record
Only these advocates are entitled to file any matter or document before the Supreme Court. They can also file an
appearance or act for a party in the Supreme Court.