BABA GANDHA SINGH PUBLIC SCHOOL

Subject : Biology Worksheet (Holiday Homework) CLASS- XII

Important Instructions
i. All questions are compulsory
ii. Students will write the questions and then write the answer of MCQs on note book.(no need
to write options)
iii. Diagram should be well labeled with neat and clean hand writing.
Ch 1 SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Choose the correct answer:
1. The root cell of a wheat plant has 42 chromosomes. What would be the number of chromosomes in
the synergid cell?
(a) 7 (b) 14 (c) 21 (d) 28.
2. In Banana edible part is:
(a) Fleshy epicarp (b) Rudimentary mesocarp and fleshy endocarp
(c) Pericarp (d) Rudimentary endocarp and fleshy mesocarp
3. Egg apparatus consists of
(a)Egg (b) Egg and polar nuclei (c) Egg and synergids (d) Egg and antipodal cells.
4. Endosperm of flowering plants develops from:
(a) Haploid nucleus (b) Diploid nucleus (c) Triploid nucleus (d) Tetraploid nucleus.
5. Persistent nucellus in black pepper is called
(a) Pericarp (b) Perisperm (c) Primary endospermic nucleus (d) Endosperm
6. In a monocot, endosperm cells have24 chromosomes. What shall be the chromosome
number in embryo:
(a) 24 (b) 16 (c) 12 (d) 8
7. Secondary nucleus present in the middle of embryo sac is:
(a) Tetraploid (b) Triploid (c) Diploid (d) Haploid.
8. In nature cleistogamous flowers are:
(a) Wind pollinated (b) Bird pollinated (c) Self-pollinated (d) Insect pollinated
9. Triploid tissue in angiosperms is:
(a) Nucellus (b) Endosperm (c) Endothecium (d) Tapetum.
10. The outermost layer of maize endosperm is known as:
(a) Perisperm (b) Aleurone (c) Tapetum (d)Endothecium
11. Through which cell of the embryo sac, does the pollen tube enter the embryo sac?
(a) Egg cell (b) Central cell (c) Persistent synergid (d) degenerated synergid.
12. Double fertilisation involves:
(a) Syngamy + triple fusion (b) Double fertilization
(c) Development of antipodal cell (d) None of the above.
ASSERTION TYPE QUESTIONS
These questions consist of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering
these questions, you are requested to choose any one of the following four responses.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C. If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
 D. If both Assertion and Reason are false.
13. Assertion: Megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to produce four megaspores.
Reason: Megaspore mother cell and megaspores both are haploid.
14. Assertion: Insects visit flowers to gather honey.
Reason: Attraction of flowers prevents the insects from damaging the parts.
15. Assertion: 7-celled 8- nucleate and monosporic embryo sac is called polygonum type of
embryo sac.
Reason: It was discovered by Hofmeister for the first time in Polygonum.
16. Assertion: Seed disposal by wind is called as anemochory.
Reason: The seeds are light, minute and may be winged.
17. Assertion: Ovule after fertilisation forms the fruit.
Reason: The fruit contains diploid endosperm.
18. Assertion: Continued self-pollination generation after generation results in pure line formation.
Reason: By continued self-pollination, plants become pure or homozygous for its characters.
19. Assertion: Cross pollination in true genetic sense within species is called xenogamy.
Reason: When there is cross pollination, resultant hybrid is a combination of characters of two
plants.
20. Assertion: The first part of the dicot embryo to appear above ground is the leaf.
Reason: Leaves increase the size of plants.
21. Assertion: If an endosperm cell of angiosperm contains 24 chromosomes, the number of
chromosomes in the cell of root will be 16.
Reason: As the endosperm is triploid and root cells are diploid, the chromosome number in
each of root cell will be 16.
22. Assertion: Some fruits are seedless or contain empty or non-viable seeds.
Reason: They are produced without fertilisation.
23. Assertion: Red colour of flowers attracts butterflies and wasps, but not bees.
Reason: Bees are colour-blind to red.
24. . Assertion: Seeds fail to germinate at very low and high temperatures.
Reason: Seed sown deep into the soil fails to germinate.
DIAGRAM BASED QUESTION
25. Read the following and answer any four questions from (1) to (v) given below:
Cross pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from one flower to the stigma of a genetically
different flower. It is performed with the help of an external agency which may be abiotic (Eg.,
wind, water) or biotic (eg.; insects, birds, bats, snails). The diagram shows the carpel of an

insect pollinated flower .

I. The given diagram shows the carpel of an insect pollinated flower. What is the most likely
reason for the non-germination of pollen grain Z?
(a) Pollen grains X and Y were brought to the stigma earlier, therefore, their germination
inhibited the germination of pollen grain Z.
(b) Pollen grain Z was brought to the flower by wind, while pollen grains X and Y were
 brought to the flower by insects.
(c) Pollen grain Z lacks protrusions that allow it to adhere properly onto the stigma surface.
II. Pollen grain Z comes from a flower of an incompatible species. Pollination by insect is called
a. entomophily
b. chiropterophily
c. anemophily
d. ornithophily
III. Out of the following characters which one is not applicable for wind pollination
a. Stamen hang out of the flowers exposing the anthers to the wind
b. the pollen grains are tiny and light
c. the flowers are nectar less
d. the petals are brightly coloured
IV. How many of the above characteristics are of insect pollinated flower
a. 1 b.2 c. 3 d. 4
V. Pollen kit is generally found in
a. anemophilous flowers b. Entomophilous flowers c. ornithophilous flowers d. malacophilous
26. The diagram of an angiosperm ovule is presented below

Answer the question based on the diagram:

(a) Give the technical term for ovule.
(b) Identify and name the part that
(i) attaches the ovule to the placenta
(ii) remains as perisperm in some seeds.
(iii) forms the testa of seed.
(iv) represents the basal part of the ovule.
(v) represents the female gametophyte.
Ch 2 Human reproduction MCQ
1. Ovulation in the human female normally takes place during the menstrual cycle
(a) at the mid secretory phase
(b) just before the end of the secretory phase
(c) at the beginning of the proliferative phase
(d) at the end of the proliferative phase.

2. After ovulation Graafian follicle regresses into

(a) corpus atresia
(b) corpus callosum
(c) corpus luteum
(d) corpus albicans
3. Immediately after ovulation, the mammalian egg is covered by a membrane known as
(a) chorion
(b) zona pellucida
(c) corona radiata
(d) vitelline membrane.
4. Which part of the sperm plays an important role in penetrating the egg membrane?
(a) Allosome
(b) Tail
(c) Autosome
(d) Acrosome
5. Which among the following has 23 chromosomes?
(a) Spermatogonia
(b) Zygote
(c) Secondary oocyte
(d) Oogonia
6. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta?
(a) hCG
(b) Estrogens
(c) Progesterone
(d) LH
7. The nutritive cells found in seminiferous tubules are
(a) Leydig’s cells
(b) atretic follicular cells
(c) Sertoli cells
(d) chromaffin cells.
8. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as
(a) LH
(b) FSH
(c) GH
(d) prolactin.
9. In human adult females oxytocin
(a) stimulates pituitary to secrete vasopressin
(b) causes strong uterine contractions during parturition
(c) is secreted by anterior pituitary
(d) stimulates growth of mammary glands.
10. At what stage of life is oogenesis initiated in a human female?
(a) At puberty
(b) During menarche
(c) During menopause
(d) During embryonic development
11. Delivery of developed foetus is scientifically called
(a) parturition
(b) oviposition
(c) abortion
(d) ovulation.

ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
In the following questions a statement of assertion and reason is correct explanation for assertion
correct answer out of the following choices.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
c. Assertion is true but reason is false
d. Both assertion and reason are false.
12. Assertion-The uterus is shaped like an inverted pear.
Reason- The inner glandular layer lining the uterine cavity is called as myometrium.
13. Assertion-The middle piece of the sperm is called is powerhouse.
Reason- Numerous mitochondria in the middle piece produce energy for the movement of the tail.
14. Assertion-All sperms released at a time do not fertilise the ovum.
Reason-Fertilisation occur only when ovum and sperm fuse at the ampullary-isthmic junction.
15. Assertion-The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called a morula.
Reason-The morula continuously divides to transform into trophoblast.
16. Assertion-The endometrium undergoes cyclic changes during the menstrual cycle.
Reason- Perimetrium contracts strongly during delivery of the baby.
17. Assertion- Signals for parturition originate from placenta and the developed foetus.
Reason- Relaxin is released by the placenta.
18. Assertion-the female gamete is produced at the time of puberty.
Reason- gonadotropin releasing hormone controls the process of oogenesis.
19. Assertion- the fertilized egg contains 23 pairs of chromosomes
Reason-zygote is formed by the fusion of egg and the sperm.
20. Assertion-Colostrum produced in first 2-3 days after parturition is rich in nutrients.
Reason-placenta induces the signals for expulsion of the fully developed.
Diagrams Based questions:
21. Draw the well labeled diagram of the following
i. human male and female reproductive organs
ii. Human sperm
iii. Oogenesis
iv. spermatogenesis
Ch 3 Reproductive Health MCQs
1. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which
(a) one fallopian tube is removed
(b) both fallopian tubes are removed
(c) small part of fallopian tube is removed
(d) small part of vas deferens is removed
2. Following statements are given regarding MTP.
(i) MTPs are generally advised during first trimester
(ii) MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
(iii) MTPs are always surgical
(iv) MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel
Choose the correct option.
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (ii)
3. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in Assisted Reproductive Technology is
called
(a) GIFT (b) ZIFT (c) ICSI (d) ET
4. Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will
(a) cause rapid increase in growth rate
(b) result in decline in growth rate
(c) not cause significant change in growth rate
(d) result in an explosive population
5. In-vitro fertilization involves transfer of ____ into the fallopian tube.
(a) embryo up to eight cell stage
(b) embryo of thirty-two cell stage
(c) zygote
(d) either zygote or embryo up to eight cell stage
6. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the
(a) suppression of gonadotropins
(b) hyper secretion of gonadotropins
(c) suppression of gametic transport
(d) suppression of fertilization
7. Sterilisation techniques are generally fool proof methods of contraception with least side effects.
Yet, this is the last option for the couples because
(i) it is almost irreversible
(ii) of the misconception that it will reduce sexual urge
(iii) it is a surgical procedure
(iv) of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the country
Choose the correct option.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
8. Which of the following STDs are caused by bacteria?
(a) AIDS and Genital Herpes
(b) Syphilis and gonorrhoea
(c) Trichomoniasis and scabies
(d) All of these
9. Which of the followings is example of hormone releasing IUDs?
(a) CuT and Multilobed 375
(b) LNG-20 and Progestasert
(c) Lippe’s loop
(d) Both (b) and (c)
10. A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our country
in
(a) 1950s
(b) 1960s
(c) 1980s
(d) 1990s
11. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within
(a) 72 hrs of coitus
(b) 72 hrs of ovulation
(c) 72 hrs of menstruation
(d) 72 hrs of implantation

12. Choose the right one among the statements given below.
(a) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
(b) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
(c) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
(d) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
13. IUDs release copper ions to
(a) prevent ovulation
(b) suppress mortality
(c) increase phagocytosis of sperm
(d) make the uterus unsuitable for implantation.
14. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not
specifically affect the sex organs.
(a) Syphilis
(b) AIDS
(c) Gonorrhoea
(d) Genital warts
15. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons.
(a) These are effective barriers for insemination
(b) They do not interfere with coital act
(c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs
(d) All of the above
16. Which of the following is/are barrier method of contraception?
(a) Rhythm method/Periodic abstinence
(b) Lactational amenorrhea
(c) Withdrawal method
(d) None of these
17. Which of the following is not a cause of population explosion in India?
(a) Better health care
(b) Increased IMR
(c) Decline MMR
(d) Increased population of reproductive age
18. Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT procedure.
(a) Ova collected from a female donor are transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote
formation.
(b) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the fallopian tube
(c) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus
(d) Ova collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus
19. The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is
(a) ovariectomy (b) hysterectomy (c) vasectomy (d) castration
20. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by females. Choose the correct option from the
statements given below:
(i) They are introduced into the uterus
(ii) They are placed to cover the cervical region
(iii) They act as physical barriers for sperm entry
(iv) They act as spermicidal agents
Choose the correct option:
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
21. Lactational amenorrhoea means
(a) absence of menstruation during pregnancy
(b) absence of menstruation during lactation
(c) excessive bleeding during menstruation
(d) no production and secretion of milk
22. Medical Termination of Pregnancy is safe up to
(a) 8 weeks of pregnancy
(b) 12 weeks of pregnancy
(c) 18 weeks of pregnancy
(d) 24 weeks of pregnancy
ASSERTION-REASON QUESTIONS
Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of
reason.
Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(d) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
23. Assertion: Amniocentesis is often misused
Reason: Amniocentesis is meant for determining the genetic disorders in the foetus, but it is being
used to determine the sex of the foetus, leading to the death of the normal female foetus.

24. Assertion: Cu-T and Cu-7 do not suppress sperm-motility.

Reason: Hormones released by them do not affect sperm motility.

25. Assertion: Pills are very effective contraceptive methods with lesser side effects.
Reason: Pills inhibit ovulation and implantation as well as retard entry of sperms.

26. Assertion: In zygote intra fallopian transfer the zygote is transferred to the fallopian tubes of the
female.
Reason: ZIFT is an in vivo fertilisation method.
27. Assertion: Artificial insemination is the method of introduction of semen inside the female.
Reason: This technique is used in those cases where males have low sperm count.

28. Assertion: IUT is the transfer of embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into the fallopian tubes.
 Reason: This is a very popular method of forming embryos in-vivo.

29. Assertion: Saheli, the new oral contraceptive for the females, contains a steroidal preparation.
Reason: It is “once in a day” pill with very few side effects.
DIAGRAM BASED QUESTION ANSWERS
30. Given diagram is the surgical methods of birth control. Answer the following related questions:

i. What does the above figure depict?

ii. Does vasectomy prevent spermatogenesis in male?
iii. Which structure is removed or tied up during vasectomy?
iv. What type of semen is ejaculated by vasectomy in male?
31. Examine the given figure and answer the related questions that follows:

i. What does the above figure depict?

ii. Does tubectomy prevent ovulation in females?
iii. Which structure of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up in tubectomy?
iv. How does tubectomy act as a contraceptive method in females?

Ch 4 PRINCIPLES OF INHERITANCE AND VARIATION : MCQs

1. If a F1 expresses a character, it is called _________
a. Incomplete dominance b. Dominant c. Co-dominant d. Recessive
2. Colour blindness is an _________ linked recessive trait
a. Z chromosome b. Y chromosome c. X chromosome d. None of the above
3. _________ is a type of trait whose phenotype is influenced by more than one gene
a.Oncogenic Trait b. Monogenic trait c. Polygenic trait d. None of the above
4. A man marries a woman and both do not show any apparent traits of inherited disease. Five sons
and two daughters are born, and three of their sons suffer from a disease. However, none of the
daughters is affected. The following modeof inheritance for the disease is
a.Sex-linked recessive b.Sex-linked dominant c. Autosomal dominant d None of the above
5. Two genes very close on a chromosome will show:
a. No crossing over b. High crossing over c. Hardly an crossing over d. Only double crossing over
6. A true hybrid condition is:
a. tt Rr b. Tt rr c. tt rr d.Tt Rr
7. A point mutation is:
a.Thalassemia b. Sickel-cell anaemia c. Down‟s syndrome d. Nightblindness
8. Mendel‟s laws were rediscovered by:
a. Correns b. TShermak c. De vries d. All of these.
9. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division Cycle result in the gain or loss of
a cromosome (s) is called :
a. Female heterogamety b. Male heterogamety c. Aneuploidy d. None of these
10. Down‟s syndrome is a:
a. Mendelian disorder b. Chromosomal disorder c. can be both d.None of these
ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTIONS
The following questions consist of two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is False but R is true
11. Assertion: Sickle cell anaemia occurs due to a point mutation.
Reason: The mRNA produced from HbS gene has GUG instead of GAG.
12. Assertion: The possibility a human male becoming haemophilic is extremely rare.
Reason: Mother of such a male should be normal and the fathers should be haemophilic.
13. Assertion: In dog flowers F1 plants produce pink flowers.
Reason: It is due to codominance of flower colour alleles with both genes expressing themselves
equally.
14. Assertion: XO type of sex determination is found in large number of insects.
Reason : 50 % of sperms contain X chromosome and the other 50% contain “O” chromosome.
15. Assertion: A test cross is used to determine the phenotype of an organism.
Reason: F2 generation of a monohybrid test cross produces one or two phenotypes depending upon
the genotype of the unknown organism.
16. Assertion: Mendel used true-breeding pea lines for artificial pollination experiments for his
genetic studies.
Reason: For several generations, a true-breeding line shows the stable trait inheritance and expression.
17. Assertion: Cross of F1 individual with recessive homozygous parent is test cross.
Reason: No recessive individual is obtained in the monohybrid test cross progeny.

18. Assertion: In monohybrid cross, at F2 stage, both parental traits are expressed in 3 : 1 proportion.
Reason: At F2 stage, the contrasting parental traits show blending.
19. Assertion: Gametes receives only one allele of a gene.
Reason: During gamete formation, mitosis takes place leads to formation of haploid cells.

20. Assertion: A good example of multiple alleles is ABO blood group system.
Reason: When I A and IB are present together in ABO blood group system, they both express their
own types.
21. Study the given figure and answer the following questions:

i. Name disorder that is shown in the figure.

ii. How is this disorder inherited?
iii. What is the cause of this disease?
iv. What are the possible phenotypes of children born to a couple of Carrier woman and hemophilic
man.