CLAT POINT NLSAT 2024 MOCK 20

Answer Key

1 (Eng) 2(Eng) 3(Eng) 4(Eng) 5(CR) 6(CR) 7(CR) 8(GK) 9(GK) 10(GK)
(d) (b) (c) (a) (a) (a) (b) (c) (b) (c)
11(Eng) 12(Eng) 13(Eng) 14(CR) 15(CR) 16(CR) 17(CR) 18(GK) 19(GK) 20(GK)
(c) (d) (c) (a) (a) (c) (c) (a) (c) (c)
21(Eng) 22(Eng) 23(Eng) 24(CR) 25(CR) 26(CR) 27(GK) 28(GK) 29(GK) 30(GK)
(c) (c) (c) (a) (d) (d) (c) (b) (d) (b)
31(Eng) 32(Eng) 33(Eng) 34(CR) 35(CR) 36(CR) 37(GK) 38(GK) 39(GK) 40(Eng)
(b) (d) (b) (b) (b) (b) (a) (a) (d) (c)
41(Eng) 42(Eng) 43(CR) 44(CR) 45(CR) 46(GK) 47(GK) 48(GK) 49(Eng) 50(Eng)
(d) (b) (a) (b) (a) (c) (a) (a) (c) (b)
51(Eng) 52(CR) 53(CR) 54(CR) 55(GK) 56(GK) 57(GK) 58(Eng) 59(Eng) 60(Eng)
(d) (c) (b) (d) (b) (d) (a) (b) (d) (d)
61(CR) 62(CR) 63(CR) 64(GK) 65(GK) 66(GK) 67(Eng) 68(Eng) 69(Eng) 70(CR)
(b) (b) (b) (a) (b) (c) (d) (b) (b) (c)
71(CR) 72(CR) 73(GK) 74(GK) 75(GK)
(c) (b) (c) (b) (a)

Solutions

1. Correct Answer: D. The Court has intervened when Speakers missed disqualification deadlines.
Reference Lines: "In Manipur, the Court went so far as to remove a Minister from office after the
Speaker failed to decide, even long after the expiry of a judicial deadline..."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option is misleading because it contradicts the passage, which implies the Court is not
patient with delays.
B. This option is incorrect as it contradicts the passage's assertion that Speakers are influenced
by political loyalties.
C. This option is false according to the passage, which suggests that the anti-defection law is not
always applied impartially.
D. This is the correct option and is consistent with the passage, which states that the Court has
had to intervene when Speakers did not meet deadlines.

2. Correct Answer: B. The obligation to impartially resolve disqualification petitions

expeditiously.
Reference Lines: "Despite being reminded from time to time of their duty to remain neutral and
demonstrate a sense of urgency in dealing with questions arising out of the Tenth Schedule of
the Constitution..."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option is incorrect as it subtly suggests a duty not explicitly mentioned in the passage,
which focuses on neutrality and urgency rather than legislative facilitation.
B. This is the correct option, paraphrased to match the passage's message without using the
exact language, emphasizing the Speaker's duty to be impartial and prompt.
C. This option is incorrect and serves as a plausible distractor, as the passage implies that the
Speaker should not show political allegiance, which is contrary to this duty.
D. This option is incorrect and is crafted to be a complex distractor, as the passage does not
suggest a duty for the Speaker to seek judicial advice on disqualification issues.

3. Correct Answer: C. The Court ostensibly finds the Speaker's dilatory tactics and partiality
objectionable.
Reference Lines: "None can dispute that the Speaker has had enough time to decide the
matter..." and "there is a growing trend of Speakers acting against the constitutional duty of
being neutral."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option is challenging because it uses the term "tacit acceptance," which might confuse
the reader into thinking the Court is subtly okay with the Speaker's delays, which is incorrect.
B. The term "sovereign conduct" is misleadingly positive, making this option challenging as it
suggests the Court approves of the Speaker's independence in these matters, which is not the
case.
C. This option correctly infers the Court's stance but uses less common terms like "ostensibly"
and "dilatory," which are not direct quotes from the passage, making it a challenging yet
accurate choice.
D. "Malleable schedule" is a nuanced way of suggesting flexibility, making this option challenging
as it could be mistakenly selected if the reader overlooks the Court's implied need for timeliness.

4. Correct Answer: A. Metaphor

Reference Lines: "So long as the Speaker is vested with the authority to adjudicate
disqualification issues, it will be difficult to free matters of defection from the thicket of politics."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This is the correct answer. The phrase "thicket of politics" is a metaphor as it compares the
complex and entangled nature of politics to a dense group of shrubs without using "like" or "as."
B. This option is incorrect because a simile would require a comparison using "like" or "as,"
which is not present in the phrase.
C. This option is incorrect because personification would involve giving human characteristics to
non-human entities, which is not the case here.
D. This option is incorrect because hyperbole is an exaggeration, and the phrase "thicket of
politics" is not exaggerating but metaphorically describing the complexity of politics.

5. Correct Answer: A. Judicially imposed deadlines are essential for upholding the integrity of the
anti-defection law.
Reference Line: "It is a welcome sign of judicial assertion that the Supreme Court of India has
fixed a deadline for the Maharashtra Assembly Speaker to adjudicate on petitions..."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. This option aligns with the author's view that the judiciary's involvement, particularly in
setting deadlines, is a positive step to ensure adherence to the anti-defection law. The author
supports the notion that such measures are necessary to counteract the potential for political
bias in the Speaker's decisions.
B. This option is contrary to the author's assertions. The passage indicates that the author
believes Speakers' political affiliations significantly impact their decisions on disqualification
petitions, which is problematic.
C. This option does not reflect the author's stance. The passage implies that the Speaker's role is
not merely ceremonial but involves crucial decision-making that should be subject to judicial
oversight to ensure neutrality.
D. This option does not accurately represent the author's position as stated in the excerpt. While
the author acknowledges the problem of political bias, there is no clear endorsement for
constitutional amendments as the solution within the passage.
Why the Correct Answer is the Answer:
Option A is correct because it encapsulates the author's perspective that the judiciary's action to
set deadlines is a necessary intervention to maintain the anti-defection law's effectiveness. The
author views the Supreme Court's deadline as a means to ensure that the Speaker fulfills their
constitutional duty without undue delay or influence from political loyalties, which is crucial for
the law's integrity.

6. Correct Answer: A. A judge must deliver verdicts promptly, respecting the law and court
procedures, regardless of external pressures.
Reference Line: "None can dispute that the Speaker has had enough time to decide the matter...
the Court had observed that it expected the Speaker to show deference to its directions,
especially when he is acting as a tribunal under the Tenth Schedule."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. This option is most similar to the author's statements as it emphasizes the need for
promptness and adherence to legal directives, mirroring the Court's expectation for the Speaker
to act without delay and with respect to judicial guidance. It captures the essence of the
Speaker's duty to act judiciously and impartially, akin to a judge.
B. This option is dissimilar to the author's statements, which imply that disqualification issues
should not be treated as routine or without urgency. The passage suggests that the Speaker's
role in adjudication is a serious responsibility, not a mundane administrative task.
C. This option contrasts with the author's viewpoint. The passage indicates that the Speaker
should not have the discretion to delay or act in a partisan manner, whereas this option suggests
a CEO has such discretion, which is not in line with the author's emphasis on the need for
urgency and impartiality.
D. This option is the antithesis of the author's statements. It suggests a referee is influenced by
preferences, while the author criticizes the Speaker for potential partiality and underscores the
expectation of neutrality, especially in a quasi-judicial role.
Why the Correct Answer is the Answer:
Option A is correct because it parallels the author's discussion of the Speaker's duties. Just as the
judge must remain impartial and timely, the author argues that the Speaker, when acting under
the Tenth Schedule, is expected to adjudicate on disqualification petitions promptly and with
deference to the Court's directions, free from external influences. This reflects the author's
underlying assertion that the Speaker's role, while legislative, requires a judicial-like adherence
to procedure and impartiality.

7. Correct Answer: B. The constitutional duty of Speakers to remain neutral is being

compromised by political influences.
Reference Line: "Recent political history is rife with instances of ruling parties casually recruiting
members of the Opposition... there is a growing trend of Speakers acting against the
constitutional duty of being neutral."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. This option is not necessarily true based on the passage. The passage indicates that the
recruitment of opposition members by ruling parties occurs, but it does not state that this
practice is officially sanctioned. It suggests an abuse of the system rather than a formal approval.
B. This option must be true as the passage explicitly states that there is a "growing trend of
Speakers acting against the constitutional duty of being neutral," indicating that the expected
impartiality of Speakers is not being upheld due to political influences.
C. This option is not necessarily true. The passage mentions that the Court removed a Minister
from office, which implies that the Supreme Court does have the authority to enforce
disqualification decisions when necessary.
D. This option is not necessarily true based on the passage. While it mentions that the Speaker
failed to decide on a disqualification case, it does not suggest that Speakers have the discretion
to delay indefinitely without consequence. In fact, the Court's action in removing a Minister
suggests that there can be consequences for such delays.
Why the Correct Answer is the Answer:
Option B must necessarily be true because the passage directly states that there is a trend of
Speakers not fulfilling their constitutional duty to remain neutral. This statement is presented as
a matter of fact within the passage, reflecting a clear deviation from what is constitutionally
required of Speakers, which is neutrality in the adjudication of disqualification issues. The
passage provides specific examples of this trend, reinforcing the necessity of the truth of this
statement.

8. Answer - c
[ Explanation: The Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act, 1985 popularly known as the
anti-defection law came into force on March 1, 1985. It amended articles 101, 102, 190 and 191
of the Constitution and added the Tenth Schedule, which laid down the grounds and procedure
for disqualification of members of Parliament and state legislatures on account of defection. ]

9. Answer: B
[ Explanation: Section 6A of the 1946 Delhi Special Police Establishment Act (DSPE Act) provided
that prior Central government sanction was mandatory before the Central Bureau of
Investigation (CBI) could conduct investigations in corruption cases against Union government
bureaucrats from the rank of Joint-Secretary onwards. However, in Subramanian Swamy vs
Director CBI, the apex court struck down Section 6A (1) on the ground that it was violative of
Article 14 (right to equality) of the Constitution of India. ]

10. Answer - c
[ Explanation: The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act added a new clause to Article 164, which
states that "the total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of
Ministers in a State should not exceed 15% of the total number of members of the Legislative
Assembly of that State," was added by the Constitution (91st Amendment) Act of 2003. ]

11. Correct Answer: C

Reference Lines: "India has explained its decision to abstain at last week’s vote at the UN General
Assembly (UNGA) for a ceasefire in the Israel-Palestine conflict as its way of protesting the
omission of any 'explicit condemnation' of the heinous October 7 terror attack by Hamas
militants on Israel."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option is a plausible distractor because it closely mirrors the correct answer but is not the
exact reasoning provided in the passage. The passage specifies the protest was against the
omission of "explicit condemnation," which is more specific than just a failure to denounce.
B. This option is incorrect because the passage does not describe India's abstention as a move to
maintain non-alignment. It focuses on the specific content of the resolution regarding the
condemnation of terrorism, not a general diplomatic strategy.
C. This is the correct answer as it encapsulates the passage's explanation for India's abstention,
emphasizing the specific aspect of the resolution that India was protesting—the absence of an
explicit condemnation of Hamas.
D. This option is incorrect and serves as a distractor. While it introduces the idea of geopolitical
and economic considerations, the passage does not support this as the reason for India's
abstention. It instead focuses on the response to the resolution's content regarding terrorism.

12. Correct Answer: D

Reference Lines: The entire passage
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option is plausible because the passage does mention India's principled stand on
terrorism, although it critiques the abstention. The passage implies that India's abstention was
due to the resolution's failure to explicitly condemn the terror attack by Hamas, not because
India lacks a consistent policy against terrorism.
B. This option is also plausible as the passage suggests that India lost an opportunity to make its
voice heard. The author argues that India, with its traditionally balanced position and recent G-
20 role, could have played a significant role in fostering global solidarity to stop the violence.
C. This option could be inferred from the passage as it suggests that India was seeking a 'safe'
position. The author notes that India's abstention is in line with its previous abstentions on other
critical resolutions, which could be seen as a way to avoid taking a controversial stand that might
attract backlash.
D. This is the least likely statement the author would support because the passage criticizes
India's abstention for not taking a clear stand and does not suggest that India supports Hamas.
The author's critique is focused on the perceived missed opportunity for India to lead on the
global stage and the lack of explicit condemnation of terrorism in the resolution, not on any
implicit support for Hamas.

13. Correct Answer: C

Reference Lines: entire passage
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. "Objective" would imply a neutral and unbiased presentation, which is not the case in the
passage. The author provides a critical analysis, not just a straightforward reporting of facts.
B. "Advocative" would suggest that the author is supporting a cause or advocating for a
particular viewpoint. This is not accurate as the author does not defend India's abstention but
rather critiques it.
C. "Analytical" is the correct answer because the author examines the reasons behind India's
abstention and its broader implications, providing a thoughtful critique rather than just
presenting information or advocating for a position.
D. "Judicious" would imply a wise or thoughtful judgment, which could be misleading. While the
author does evaluate India's decision, the term does not capture the critical nature of the
analysis.

14. Correct Answer: A

Reference Line: "However, the death toll is rising and the need for global solidarity to stop the
violence is imperative, a task that New Delhi, with its traditionally balanced position on the
issue, and its recent G-20 role in bridging global divides, would have been well suited to play."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation for Each Option:
A. The author would agree with this statement as it reflects the passage's sentiment that India's
abstention was a lost opportunity to demonstrate its commitment to global peace efforts,
especially given its role in the G-20 and its balanced approach to international issues.
B. This option is incorrect because the passage suggests that India's abstention was not due to
indifference but as a protest against the resolution's shortcomings. The author implies that India
is engaged and has a principled stance, contradicting the idea of non-engagement.
C. This option is incorrect because the author criticizes the abstention as a missed opportunity,
suggesting that a more proactive stance was expected from India. The passage does not support
the idea that maintaining neutrality was the strategic intent behind India's decision.
D. This option is incorrect because the passage clearly states that India's abstention was in
protest of the lack of explicit condemnation of terrorism, not an endorsement of any militant
actions. The author's perspective does not align with the suggestion of tacit approval.

15. Correct Answer: A

Reference Line: "Regardless of its reasoning, New Delhi had other options which it overlooked or
ignored."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation for Each Option:
A. If India had insisted on the inclusion of the paragraph condemning violence, it would indicate
that India played a role in shaping the resolution, contradicting the author's assertion that New
Delhi overlooked or ignored other options. This would weaken the author's argument that India
missed an opportunity to contribute to the resolution's content.
B. This option, if true, would suggest that India's decision to abstain was not due to a lack of
engagement but rather a calculated outcome of diplomatic efforts. However, it does not directly
weaken the author's argument about India overlooking other options since it does not address
India's influence on the resolution's content.
C. The voting patterns of other countries do not directly weaken the author's argument
regarding India's actions. While it provides context on international politics, it does not address
the specific critique of India's decision-making process.
D. The practical impact of the UNGA resolution is not directly related to the author's argument
about India's missed opportunities. While it might suggest that the abstention was
inconsequential, it does not weaken the claim that India had other options to influence the
resolution.

16. Correct Answer: C

Reference Line: "India’s leadership of such an amendment may have fared better than the
Canadian proposal that failed to secure two-thirds of the UNGA membership present."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation for Each Option:
A. This option, if true, would show a precedent for India's active role in condemning terrorism,
which would make its abstention in this instance more notably a missed opportunity. However, it
does not directly strengthen the argument about the specific abstention being a missed
opportunity to assert its stance on terrorism.
B. While this option might suggest a general regret among nations for not taking a firmer stance,
it does not directly strengthen the argument about India's specific role or the expectations
placed upon it.
C. This option directly strengthens the author's argument because it establishes that there was
an international expectation for India to take a leadership role. If India was expected to lead an
amendment condemning terrorism, its abstention would indeed represent a significant missed
opportunity to assert its stance.
D. Naming Hamas as a terror group in the Canadian proposal would contrast with India's
abstention and could imply a missed opportunity for India to align with a firm stance against
terrorism. However, this does not directly strengthen the argument regarding India's own actions
or potential leadership role.

17. Answer: C
Reference Line: "The government lost an opportunity to make India’s voice heard in the growing
geopolitical conflict."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation for Each Option:
A. This option posits that India's abstention is a conscious shift in its foreign policy, which could
be an assumption the author might consider. However, the passage does not explicitly state that
India's abstention is a strategic realignment. The author's focus is on the missed opportunity to
influence the geopolitical narrative, not necessarily on a broader foreign policy shift.
B. This option suggests that UNGA voting is a clear and direct reflection of a country's position
on international issues. The author implies that votes at the UNGA are important and can reflect
a country's stance, but the passage does not go as far as to say that it is an unequivocal mirror,
making this a less likely assumption by the author.
C. The author's critique of India's abstention implies that active participation in UNGA votes is
crucial for a country to maintain its influence in international affairs. The passage suggests that
by not voting, India missed a chance to assert its influence, which aligns with the assumption
that active engagement is necessary for sustaining diplomatic power.
D. This option extends the author's critique to suggest that a country must take clear stances in
UNGA resolutions to achieve a significant role in global governance. While the author does link
India's abstention to a missed opportunity for global leadership, they do not explicitly state that
a definitive stance in every UNGA decision is a requirement for such a role, making this a broader
assumption than what is directly supported by the passage.

18. Answer: A
[ Explanation: A total of 120 countries voted in favour of the resolution, 14 countries voted
against including Israel and the United States, while 45 others abstained. Among the abstentions
was Canada, which had introduced an amendment that would have more explicitly condemned
Hamas for its October 7 “terrorist” attack on Israel and demanded the immediate release of
hostages seized by the group. ]
https://www.aljazeera.com/news/2023/10/27/unga-calls-for-humanitarian-truce-in-israel-
hamas-war-how-countries-voted

19. Answer: C
[ Explanation: Operation Iron Swords is the name of the Israeli military operation that was
launched as a strategic response to the surprise offensive by Hamas. The operation began with
an intensive aerial bombardment campaign on Gazan targets, followed by a large-scale ground
invasion of northern Gaza, including Gaza City. The operation aimed to destroy Hamas’
infrastructure and capabilities, as well as rescue the hostages taken by the terrorists. ]

20. Answer: C
[ Explanation: Iron Dome has been developed by Israel-owned Rafael Advanced Defense Systems
with US backing. Unlike air defence systems designed to stop ballistic missiles, the Iron Dome
warhead targets unguided rockets that remain at low altitudes. These are reported to be the
type often fired by militant groups in Gaza. ]

21. Correct Answer: C. Internal disagreements within Congress over how to fairly distribute
electoral seats to coalition partners.
Reference Lines: "Rahul Gandhi and the central leadership of the party want to adopt a generous
approach toward partners, but State units in Madhya Pradesh and Telangana think otherwise."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option is subtly misleading; while the passage does not explicitly state Congress's
hesitation, it does mention issues with joint rallies, which could imply reluctance.
B. This option is a plausible distractor, as it references historical issues but does not directly
address the current discord.
C. This is the correct answer, with the reference line now providing a more nuanced connection
to the discord mentioned in the passage.
D. This option is a complex distractor, as it introduces an external factor (BJP) that could
indirectly cause discord within the coalition, but it is not the primary focus of the passage.

22. Correct Answer: C. Regional parties may soften their stance towards Congress for unity.
Reference Lines: "Most of the regional outfits were born out of antagonism to the Congress, and
despite a current common adversary, the trust deficit is huge."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option is a distractor; the passage suggests there is a lack of alignment between
Congress's central and state units.
B. This option is misleading; the passage indicates that AAP is proceeding with its own plans, not
in collaboration with Congress.
C. This is the correct answer; the passage implies that regional parties need to overcome
historical antagonism to work with Congress.
D. This option is a distractor; it misrepresents Pawar's view, which suggests a strategic focus on
future elections rather than devaluing state-level seat-sharing.

23. Correct Answer: C. Discontented

Reference Lines: "The problems of unity are structural and tactical... the trust deficit is huge."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. "Cautious" could be seen as a plausible answer because it suggests a tone of careful
consideration, which might be inferred from the discussion of the coalition's problems. However,
it lacks the critical element present in the passage.
B. "Detached" might be considered correct if one interprets the tone as lacking emotion or
personal interest, but the passage shows engagement with the issues, not detachment.
C. "Discontented" is the correct answer as it captures the tone of dissatisfaction and disapproval
that is implied by the discussion of the coalition's structural and tactical problems.
D. "Doubtful" suggests a tone of skepticism or lack of confidence, which could be inferred from
the passage, but it does not fully encompass the critical stance taken by the author.

24. Correct Answer: A. The Congress's strategy for seat allocation is primarily responsible for the
discontent among its allies.
Reference Line: "In Telangana, the Left, and in Madhya Pradesh, the Samajwadi Party (SP), feel
let down by the Congress."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. This option is likely the one the author agrees with. The passage explicitly mentions that the
Left in Telangana and the SP in Madhya Pradesh feel let down by the Congress, which indicates a
problem with how Congress is handling seat-sharing with its allies. This suggests that the
Congress's strategy for seat allocation is a point of contention.
B. This option is incorrect and is the opposite of what is presented in the passage. The passage
indicates a lack of unity and shared strategy, as evidenced by the absence of seat-sharing
announcements and the discontent expressed by the smaller parties.
C. This option is incorrect. The author provides specific examples of discontent within the
coalition, implying that these grievances are significant enough to be mentioned and thus affect
the coalition's unity.
D. This option is incorrect. While the passage mentions Akhilesh Yadav's criticism, it does not
provide any indication that this is a strategic move for the benefit of the coalition. Instead, it is
presented as a sign of discord.

25. Correct Answer: D. Regional parties in INDIA are open to seat-sharing compromises for
alliance solidarity.
Reference Line: "The problems of unity are structural and tactical... the trust deficit is huge."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. This option provides historical context but does not address the current unity challenges
within INDIA, making it a less direct counter to the author's argument.
B. This option implies AAP's independent approach is less effective, which could suggest their
strategy is not a significant factor in the coalition's unity, but it does not directly confront the
current internal challenges.
C. This option focuses on public perception rather than the actual internal dynamics the author
discusses, offering an indirect challenge to the argument.
D. This option most directly challenges the author's argument by suggesting that the coalition's
internal challenges are being actively addressed, which would weaken the claim of significant
unity problems.

26. Correct Answer: D. Congress should concentrate on building a long-term strategy for the
2024 national elections, as recommended by Sharad Pawar.
Reference Line: "Nationalist Congress Party veteran Sharad Pawar has suggested that INDIA
partners should focus on the 2024 contest as varied situations make seat sharing difficult in
regional elections."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. This option might seem viable, but the passage indicates that the central leadership's
generous approach is not in sync with the state units' perspectives. Enforcing a uniform strategy
could exacerbate tensions rather than mitigate them, especially if state units resist central
directives.
B. While prioritizing consensus on seat-sharing could address immediate issues, the passage
suggests that the varied situations in regional elections make this difficult. This option does not
consider the complexity of the regional dynamics that are at play.
C. This option might respect regional autonomy, but it does not address the overarching
challenge of unity within the coalition. The passage implies that differing strategies between the
central leadership and state units are part of the problem, not a solution.
D. This is the correct answer because it aligns with the advice given by Sharad Pawar in the
passage. Focusing on a long-term strategy for the 2024 national elections could provide a
common goal that transcends regional disagreements and helps to overcome the "bad blood"
mentioned in the passage.

27. Answer: c
[ Explanation: The first meeting for coordination and unity of the Indian National Developmental
Inclusive Alliance was held in Patna, Bihar, and was chaired by Chief Minister Nitish Kumar on
June 23, 2023. ]

28. Answer: b
[ Explanation: The first meeting in Patna, Bihar, for the coordination of the Indian National
Developmental Inclusive Alliance was attended by 16 Opposition parties. ]

29. Answer: d
[ Explanation: During the third meeting in Mumbai, Maharashtra, the alliance passed a three-
point resolution to fight the 2024 Indian general elections together 'as far as possible'. ]

30. Answer: b
[ Explanation: Mamata Banerjee, the Trinamool Congress (TMC) supremo and chief minister of
West Bengal, is credited with proposing the name "Indian National Developmental Inclusive
Alliance" during the meeting in Bengaluru. ]

31. Correct Answer: B. Skepticism about the abandonment of traditional state-centric

aspirations.
Reference Lines: "This concerns the continuing significance and attraction of the state in the life
of the common people at a time when, through multiple sources, we are told that we are in the
middle of a very significant transformation."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. The passage does not express outright optimism; it rather questions the shift from state to
private enterprise.
B. The author reflects on the enduring appeal of government jobs, indicating skepticism about
the shift away from them.
C. The passage is engaged with the issue, not indifferent; it questions the transformation's
implications.
D. While acknowledging the initiatives, the author's tone does not convey enthusiasm but rather
a critical perspective on the transition's effects.

32. Correct Answer: D. A review of the Delhi-Jaipur highway's infrastructural updates and their
economic implications.
Reference Lines: The entire passage discusses the socio-economic aspects of skill development
and the preference for government jobs, without any particular focus on infrastructure
development.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. This would deepen the discussion by shedding light on the cultural and historical reasons for
the preference for government jobs, which is pertinent to the passage.
B. This would add to the conversation by comparing the effectiveness of different educational
paths in the current economic scenario, aligning with the passage's themes.
C. This would enrich the discussion by illustrating the real-world successes of the government's
skill development efforts, which is a central topic in the passage.
D. This would be tangential to the passage's main points, as it shifts the focus away from the
socio-economic issues of skill development and job preferences to a topic not covered in the
passage.

33. Correct Answer: B. Perpetual magnetism

Reference Lines: "This concerns the continuing significance and attraction of the state in the life
of the common people..."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A. "Transient allure" suggests a temporary attraction, which is the opposite of "enduring appeal."
B. "Perpetual magnetism" captures the ongoing and lasting attraction, synonymous with
"enduring appeal."
C. "Inconsistent desirability" implies variability, which contradicts the steady nature of "enduring
appeal."
D. "Fleeting interest" denotes a short-lived interest, which is not in line with the sustained
connotation of "enduring appeal."

34. Correct Answer: B. Their strategy includes active engagement with political figures to gain
support.
Reference Lines: "Frequently, men of the community take out marches in the surrounding
villages, block traffic and hold 'interaction sessions' with visiting politicians who are exhorted to
support the cause beyond mere words."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult

Explanation:
A. This option is incorrect because the passage indicates that the community's actions extend
beyond visual displays, including marches and interaction sessions, which are active forms of
advocacy.
B. This is the correct answer. The passage provides evidence that the community actively
engages with politicians, indicating a multifaceted strategy that includes both demonstrations
and direct political engagement.
C. This option is incorrect because it ignores the active components of the community's
advocacy, such as marches and political interactions, which go beyond mere symbolic
representation.
D. This option is incorrect because the passage mentions "interaction sessions" with politicians,
suggesting that the community does engage in dialogue, which is not indicative of a purely
confrontational approach.

35. Correct Answer: B. Enhanced uniformity and integration in the implementation of skill
development programs.
Reference Lines: "In 2014, the government created the Ministry of Skill Development and
Entrepreneurship (MSDE), intended to provide a more coordinated focus on training activities
that have otherwise been spread across various individual ministries."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation:
A. This option is a plausible outcome, as the creation of a centralized ministry could indicate a
shift towards a more centralized approach. However, it is not the primary outcome described by
the author. The passage does not explicitly state that the creation of the MSDE will lead to a
more centralized approach but rather focuses on the coordination and integration of existing
efforts.
B. This is the correct answer because the passage directly states that the MSDE is intended to
provide a more coordinated focus on training activities. This implies that the ministry's
establishment is likely to lead to enhanced uniformity and integration, as it aims to consolidate
and streamline the efforts that were previously managed by various ministries.
C. This option, while possible, is not supported by the passage. There is no mention of
international practices or curricula in the passage, so suggesting an increase in the adoption of
international best practices is speculative and not a direct inference from the given information.
D. This option is not directly supported by the passage. While the MSDE might influence the role
of private entities, the passage does not discuss a recalibration of their role. The passage
mentions that private corporations have been contracted to establish Skill Development Centres,
but it does not imply that their role will be recalibrated due to the MSDE's creation.

36. Correct Answer: B. The societal value and recognition afforded to private sector employment
surpass those of government positions.
Reference Lines: “Why can’t private jobs be made into government jobs?”, he asked. “A
government job”, he added, “has personality and respect”.
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation for Each Option:
A. This option is incorrect because it is consistent with the passage's information that the Skill
India Programme's goal is to prepare the youth for the private sector's service industry.
B. This is the correct answer. The passage includes a quote that indicates a young man's
perception of government jobs as having "personality and respect," which would likely
contradict the author's view on the statement that private jobs are more valued.
C. This option is incorrect as it aligns with the passage's mention of a substantial budget
allocation for skill development, which indicates a focus on vocational training.
D. This option is incorrect because it conflicts with the sentiment expressed in the passage,
where the young man's question implies a preference for the security and esteem of
government jobs, not private sector roles.
The correct answer (B) is subtly opposed to the sentiment expressed in the passage, making it a
statement the author would likely disagree with. The passage suggests that at least some youth,
including the young man mentioned, hold government jobs in higher regard than private sector
positions, contrary to the idea that private employment is more valued.

37. Answer - A
[ Explanation: A five-judge Constitution bench of Justices Ashok Bhushan, L Nageswara Rao, S
Abdul Nazeer, Hemant Gupta and S Ravindra Bhat were unanimous on unconstitutionality of
Maratha law and said that Maratha community cannot be declared as socially and educationally
backward community to grant them reservation. ]

38. Answer - A

[ Explanation: Kunbis, an agricultural community, are categorised under the OBC group in
Maharashtra, which grants them reservation benefits in education and government
employment. The Maratha community has been demanding to be included in the OBC category
as well. ]

39. Answer: d

[ Explanation: Article 342A gives power to the President of India. The power is to specify socially
and educationally backward classes in each State and Union Territory. ]

40. Correct Answer: C

Reference Lines: "Air Defence against rocket attacks, extensive aerial surveillance, and precision
air attacks became standard practice."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation for each option:
A) This option is incorrect because the passage does not suggest that the Israeli Air Force
expanded ground offensive capabilities as a primary evolution in tactics. While ground incursions
were mentioned as part of past operations, the focus has been on air power and not on
expanding terrestrial operations.
B) This option is misleading because it suggests an exclusive focus on retaliatory bombardments,
which is not supported by the passage. The text indicates that while retaliatory strikes are a part
of the strategy, the evolution in tactics also includes defensive measures and precision strikes,
not just offensive bombardments.
C) This option is correct as it aligns with the passage's description of the Israeli Air Force's
tactical evolution. It encapsulates the broadening of the air defense systems to intercept rocket
attacks and the refinement of aerial surveillance and precision strike capabilities, which are key
elements of the strategy described.
D) This option is incorrect because the passage does not indicate a pivot towards diplomacy as a
primary tactic. The focus remains on military and technological advancements to counter
threats, with no mention of suspending aerial maneuvers in favor of diplomatic solutions.

41. Correct Answer: D) Israel excels in precision strikes, whereas Russia faces challenges in air
dominance and SEAD.
Reference Lines: "The Israeli Air Force re-adapted its concept of air operations... precision air
attacks became standard practice," and "Control of adversarial airspace is not a part of the VKS’s
doctrine..."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A) Incorrect because it suggests both forces have similar goals with different executions, which
doesn't fully capture the essence of the strategic differences outlined in the passage.
B) Incorrect as it simplifies the Israeli strategy and does not fully address the operational role of
the Russian Aerospace Forces as indicated in the passage.
C) Incorrect because it implies a purely defensive role for the Israeli Air Force, which doesn't
align with the proactive and offensive nature of their precision strikes.
D) Correct because it succinctly contrasts the Israeli Air Force's successful precision strike
strategy with the Russian Aerospace Forces' difficulties in establishing air control and conducting
SEAD operations, as detailed in the passage.

42. Correct Answer: B) Mandated by prevailing customs or trends.

Reference Lines: "The incorporation of air defense, surveillance, and precision strikes into their
operations had become a standard."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
A) In a period of waning effectiveness.
This option is incorrect because "de rigueur" does not suggest a decline in effectiveness or
relevance. The term typically refers to something that is fashionable or required by etiquette,
which implies a level of acceptance and standardization rather than a decrease in utility or
success. In the context of the Israeli Air Force, the term is used to describe the adoption of
strategies that are considered essential and effective, not outdated or diminishing in value.
B) Mandated by prevailing customs or trends.
This option is correct because "de rigueur" refers to practices that are considered necessary or
obligatory in a certain context, often due to social norms, customs, or trends. In the passage, this
term is applied to the Israeli Air Force's strategic practices, suggesting that their air defense,
surveillance, and precision strikes are not just routine, but also represent the current standard of
military operations. This reflects a broader trend in modern warfare towards precision and high-
tech surveillance.
C) A methodology that is under trial.
This option is incorrect because "de rigueur" does not imply that a methodology is being tested
or is experimental. Instead, it indicates that a certain practice has gained widespread acceptance
and is considered standard procedure. The passage indicates that the Israeli Air Force's strategies
are well-established and have been integrated into their routine operations, signifying a level of
maturity and refinement in their tactics rather than a trial phase.
D) Undertaken as a last resort.
This option is incorrect as "de rigueur" does not convey a sense of desperation or a fallback
position. It is associated with what is currently in vogue or expected, suggesting a proactive
adoption of certain practices due to their perceived necessity or effectiveness. The Israeli Air
Force's use of air defense, surveillance, and precision strikes as "de rigueur" implies these are
the chosen, primary strategies rather than tactics employed only when other options have failed.

43. Answer: A) Reports indicate a sustained decrease in Hamas' rocket attacks post-air strikes.
Reference Line:
"With the total air superiority that the Israeli Air Force enjoys, it carried out punitive air strikes
against more than 1,500 targets in Gaza, comprising military assets and the infrastructure of
Hamas."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A) This option strengthens the author's argument by suggesting that the air strikes have a direct
and lasting effect on reducing Hamas' ability to launch rocket attacks, which is a key measure of
their military effectiveness.
B) This option does not necessarily strengthen the argument about the air strikes' effectiveness;
a ceasefire could be due to various factors and does not indicate a reduction in Hamas'
capabilities.
C) This option would weaken the author's argument by implying that the air strikes are not
achieving their intended military effect and are instead exacerbating humanitarian issues.
D) While this option might suggest an improvement in operational efficiency, it does not directly
strengthen the argument about the historical effectiveness of the air strikes, which is the focus
of the author's argument.

44. Answer: B) Analysis shows that Hamas' rocket attacks have increased in frequency and range
despite the air and ground campaigns.
Reference Line: "With improvements in Israel’s regional relationships and Hamas remaining the
primary threat, the Israeli Air Force re-adapted its concept of air operations. Air Defence against
rocket attacks, extensive aerial surveillance, and precision air attacks became de rigueur."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A) This option could potentially weaken the argument by suggesting that the ground incursions
were ineffective. However, it does not directly address the air strike strategy, which is the focus
of the author's argument.
B) This option directly undermines the author's argument by indicating that despite the air and
ground strategies employed, Hamas' capabilities in terms of rocket attacks have not only
persisted but have grown. This directly challenges the effectiveness of the air operations and
ground incursions, suggesting that they have failed to achieve their intended deterrent effect.
C) While this option might suggest a broader strategic challenge, it does not directly weaken the
argument concerning the air operation strategy's effectiveness against Hamas. The argument is
about military effectiveness, not diplomatic relations.
D) This option could weaken the argument by challenging the claim of precision in air attacks.
However, it does not directly address the outcome of the air strikes in terms of reducing Hamas'
capabilities, which is the central point of the author's argument.
45. Answer: A) The VKS's operational doctrine should be revised to include control of adversarial
airspace to enhance campaign effectiveness.
Reference Line: "Control of adversarial airspace is not a part of the VKS’s doctrine, and this
shortcoming was compounded by an incomplete Suppression of Air Defence (SEAD) campaign
against Ukraine."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A) This option aligns with the author's critique of the VKS's doctrine. The author implies that the
lack of control over adversarial airspace is a doctrinal shortcoming, suggesting that a revision to
include such control could potentially rectify the highlighted challenges.
B) This option does not align with the author's argument. The author suggests that the reliance
on rockets and missiles was due to the inability to control airspace, not a strategic choice that fits
within the VKS's doctrine.
C) This option is contrary to the author's argument. The author clearly points out the
shortcomings of the VKS's doctrine in the context of the Ukraine war, indicating that it is not
sufficient for achieving strategic objectives.
D) This option contradicts the author's argument. The author describes the incomplete SEAD
campaign as a compounding factor to the VKS's shortcomings, implying it is a significant issue
rather than a minor setback.

46. Answer: C
[ Explanation: According to the WDMMA review of 2023, the Israeli Air Force ranks 9th in the
world, with a total of 581 active aircraft, including 251 fighters, 128 helicopters, 15 transports,
154 trainers, 10 tankers, and 23 special mission aircraft. The WDMMA also gives the Israeli Air
Force a TrueValue Rating of 58.0, which assesses its strengths and weaknesses compared to the
top performer, the US Air Force (242.9). ]
https://www.wdmma.org/ranking.php#google_vignette

47. Answer: A

[ Explanation: The IAI Harop loitering munition was primarily designed for SEAD/DEAD missions.
The Harop can autonomously detect and attack enemy radars and air defense systems. The
Harpy is a similar weapon, but it is not a loitering munition, rather a fire-and-forget missile. The
Delilah and the Spike are also Israeli weapons, but they are not designed for SEAD/DEAD
missions. ]

48. Answer: A
[ Explanation: JDAM stands for Joint Direct Attack Munition, which is a US-made guidance kit
that converts unguided, “dumb” bombs into precision-guided, “smart” munitions. ]

49. Correct Answer: C. India is proactively engaging in multilateral diplomacy to shape a new
global order.
Reference Lines: "As India’s bilateral challenges with China multiply, regional and global
multilateralism has emerged at the core of India’s national security and international relations."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. This option is incorrect because the passage explicitly states that India is heavily investing in
multilateral diplomacy, which contradicts the idea of reluctance.
B. The term "opportunistically" could mislead to think India is acting with self-interest without
regard for broader implications, which the passage does not support.
C. [Correct Answer] This option is supported by the passage's description of India's active role in
the Quad and G-20, indicating a proactive approach to shaping global dynamics.
D. Indifference is not suggested anywhere in the passage; on the contrary, India's active
participation indicates its concern and engagement with global shifts.

50. Correct Answer: B. Adjective

Reference Lines: "The dying embers of old multilateralism are marked less by the absence of
Russian President Vladimir Putin and Chinese President Xi Jinping at both summits than by their
deepening conflicts with the rest of the world."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. "Dying" is not functioning as a verb here because it is not describing an action being
performed by the subject.
B. [Correct Answer] In this metaphor, "dying" is an adjective describing the state of the "embers"
of multilateralism, indicating they are fading or coming to an end.
C. "Dying" cannot be an adverb in this context as it does not modify a verb, adjective, or other
adverb.
D. "Dying" is not a gerund here because it is not used as a noun; it is not the thing that is
happening but describes the embers.

51. Correct Answer: D. To contrast the past vibrancy of multilateralism with its present state of
decline.
Reference Lines: "The end of the Cold War at the turn of the 1990s created favourable conditions
for an intensive phase of multilateralism. Europe moved towards rapid regional economic
integration and expansion under the banner of the European Union. In Asia, the Association of
Southeast Asian Nations provided the framework for intensifying regional economic and political
cooperation."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. This option is partially correct in that it reflects the positive aspects of the post-Cold War era.
However, it does not capture the full intent of the analogy, which is to draw a contrast with the
current state.
B. The passage does not provide a critical view of the EU or ASEAN specifically, so this option
does not align with the author's purpose in using the analogy.
C. The passage does not comment on the effectiveness of these organizations in current times,
so this option is not supported by the analogy within the context of the passage.
D. [Correct Answer] The analogy serves to highlight the difference between the successful
integration and cooperation of the past and the challenges faced by multilateralism today, as
described in the rest of the passage. This option best captures the comparative and temporal
shift that the author is illustrating.

52. Answer: C. The discord between prominent nations and their regional counterparts reflects a
systemic disintegration rather than mere bilateral tensions.
Reference Line: "The dying embers of old multilateralism are marked less by the absence of
Russian President Vladimir Putin and Chinese President Xi Jinping at both summits than by their
deepening conflicts with the rest of the world."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. This option is crafted to imply a nuanced relationship between the success of multilateralism
and the engagement of influential international entities. It avoids explicitly stating the necessity
of major powers, instead suggesting a more general need for active participation by important
actors, which is a concept present but not explicitly detailed in the passage. This makes the
option plausible but not the primary assumption of the author.
B. The option presents the idea that the presence of leaders at summits is emblematic and
indicative of their countries' engagement in diplomacy. It requires the reader to interpret the
symbolic value of such presences, which the passage hints at but does not fully develop as a
central theme. This option is a sophisticated distractor because it aligns with a detail in the
passage but does not capture the core assumption.
C. [Correct Answer] This choice reflects the passage's underlying message by suggesting that the
issues at hand are not isolated disputes but symptoms of a larger, systemic problem. The terms
"discord" and "systemic disintegration" are aligned with the passage's description of the "deep
and arguably irreversible crises" in the multilateral order, making it the assumption that most
closely matches the author's perspective.
D. This option posits that the principles of post-Cold War multilateralism are inherently capable
of adapting to geopolitical challenges. It is a compelling distractor because it directly opposes
the passage's suggestion of a deep and possibly irreversible crisis in the multilateral system. The
reader must critically evaluate the passage to understand that this adaptability is not what the
author is suggesting, thus making it a sophisticated incorrect choice.

53. Answer: B. Waning Multilateralism in the Post-Cold War Era

Reference Line: The entire passage
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. "Bilateral Tensions in a Multipolar World" might appear relevant since the passage discusses
tensions between countries. However, the passage's primary focus is on the broader theme of
multilateralism's decline rather than on bilateral tensions alone, making this option not entirely
representative of the passage's main message.
B. [Correct Answer] "Waning Multilateralism in the Post-Cold War Era" succinctly captures the
passage's central discussion about the challenges and decline of multilateralism since the end of
the Cold War. It also encompasses the passage's broader implications regarding the changing
dynamics of international relations, without limiting the scope to any single aspect or region.
C. "The Steadfast Pillars of Global Cooperation" is misleading in the context of the passage. The
passage suggests that the traditional pillars of post-Cold War multilateralism are, in fact, not
steadfast but are facing significant challenges, which contradicts this option.
D. "India's Economic Ascent on the Global Stage" focuses too narrowly on India's economic
growth, which is not the central theme of the passage. While India's role is discussed, it is within
the context of its participation in multilateral forums and its impact on global order, not solely its
economic ascent.

54. Answer: D. Promoting a new model of balanced globalization that prioritizes equitable
growth and addresses the economic disparities between nations.
Reference Line: "The gloomy prospect for multilateralism is in contrast with India’s brightening
opportunities to shape regional and global orders... in the promotion of balanced globalisation
that will help all countries."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Each Option:
A. While strengthening India's capabilities might be a strategic move, it does not directly address
the broader challenges of multilateralism mentioned in the passage. This option is more of a
direct response to China's military and economic expansion rather than a solution to the
systemic issues in multilateralism.
B. Expanding the scope of the Indo-Pacific Quadrilateral Forum could be a strategic move, but
the passage does not provide enough detail to suggest that this would be the most plausible
solution. It is a specific action that might strengthen alliances but does not necessarily solve the
broader problems of multilateralism or address the concerns of the Global South.
C. India's leadership in reforming the G20 could contribute to addressing some of the challenges
of multilateralism. However, the passage suggests that the problems are more extensive than
what the G20 alone can resolve, especially since the issues are not limited to the economic
sphere but also involve military power and geopolitical alliances.
D. [Correct Answer] This option aligns closely with the passage's mention of India's role in
promoting "balanced globalization that will help all countries." It addresses the underlying issues
of economic disparities and the need for a more equitable global system, which is at the heart of
the challenges to multilateralism. By focusing on equitable growth, this solution tackles both the
economic and political dimensions of the problem, making it the most comprehensive and
plausible solution mentioned in the passage.

55. Answer: B
[ Explanation: The Cold War was a period of geopolitical tension between the US and its allies
and the Soviet Union and its allies, lasting from 1947 to 1991. The Cold War ended with the
dissolution of the Soviet Union in December 1991, which resulted in the emergence of 15
independent republics and the collapse of the communist bloc. This event paved the way for
greater cooperation and integration among nations, especially in Europe and Asia. ]

56. Answer - D
[ Explanation: The 15th BRICS summit was an international relations conference attended by the
heads of state or heads of government of the five member states: Brazil, Russia, India, China,
and South Africa. South African President Cyril Ramaphosa also invited the leaders of 67
countries to the summit. ]

57. Answer: A

[ Explanation: Indonesia will chair the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) in 2023,
succeeding Brunei in 2022 and Cambodia in 2021. The theme of Indonesia’s chairmanship is
"ASEAN Matters: Epicentrum of Growth". ]

58. Correct Answer: B

Reference Lines: "The problem could become acute in the country’s southwest, where aquifers
of hard rock already impose limits on recharging. Hotter temperatures could leave less moisture
to soak in the soil and replenish groundwater sources."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation:
A: This option is incorrect because the passage explicitly connects groundwater extraction with
the climate crisis.
B: This is the correct option as it aligns with the passage's discussion on how the climate crisis,
through hotter temperatures, could impact groundwater recharging.
C: This option is incorrect and does not complement the passage's findings, as it suggests a
positive impact of groundwater extraction on the climate, which the passage does not support.
D: This option is incorrect because the passage clearly indicates that groundwater extraction and
the climate crisis are interconnected issues.

59. Correct Answer: D

Reference Lines: "Conversations in the wake of these studies pushed the Union Jal Shakti
Ministry to initiate the Atal Bhujal Yojana in 78 water-stressed districts."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of the Options:
A. This option is incorrect because it inaccurately suggests a complete reversal of groundwater
depletion, which the passage does not confirm.
B. This option is incorrect as it overstates the impact of the Jal Shakti Ministry's policies without
evidence from the passage to support such widespread behavioral change.
C. This option is incorrect because it implies a definitive solution to Punjab's groundwater issues,
which is not supported by the passage.
D. This option is correct as it concisely captures the essence of the Atal Bhujal Yojana's approach
to groundwater issues without overstating its success, reflecting the passage's content
accurately.

60. Correct Answer: D

Reference Lines: "These could be the catalyst for bringing about behavioural changes."
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of the Options:
A. This option is incorrect because it describes a catalyst in a literal chemical sense, which is not
the context used in the passage.
B. This option is incorrect as it suggests a physical device, which is not applicable to the
metaphorical use of 'catalyst' in the passage.
C. This option is incorrect because it personifies 'catalyst,' whereas the passage refers to a non-
personal agent of change.
D. This option is correct because it captures the metaphorical use of 'catalyst' in the passage,
which is about inciting or accelerating behavioral change in the context of groundwater
management.

61. Correct Answer: B

Reference Line: "In 2016, the Mihir Shah Committee argued that there is little 'understanding of
river systems or their interconnections with the health of catchment areas or groundwater'."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation of the Options:
A. This option is incorrect because it suggests a presumption of understanding that the passage
indicates is lacking.
B. This option is correct as it implies that a lack of comprehensive hydrological insights could
undermine groundwater conservation efforts, which aligns with the concerns raised in the
passage.
C. This option is incorrect because it presents a viewpoint that the passage suggests is overly
simplistic and not reflective of the broader environmental and policy factors at play.
D. This option is incorrect because it implies an expectation of sustainability that the passage
questions, given the severe and ongoing problem of groundwater depletion.
Why the Correct Answer is B:
The correct answer is B because it succinctly reflects the passage's critical stance on the
effectiveness of groundwater conservation initiatives without a deeper understanding of
hydrological systems. It captures the nuance that the author believes is necessary for such
initiatives to be successful, which is a deeper hydrological insight, as highlighted by the Mihir
Shah Committee's findings.

62. Correct Answer: B

Reference Line: "But as the Shah Committee pointed out, there has been little emphasis on
institutional innovations in the water sector."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation of the Options:
A. This option is a plausible distractor, suggesting a general improvement in groundwater levels
due to better irrigation, but it does not directly address the issue of institutional innovation.
B. This option is the most damaging to the author's argument as it implies that there have been
significant advancements across the relevant sectors, which would contradict the author's claim
of little emphasis on institutional innovations.
C. This option suggests a change in agricultural practices leading to reduced groundwater
extraction, which could weaken the argument but does not directly challenge the lack of
institutional innovation.
D. This option presents a broad challenge to the link between energy pricing and groundwater
use, which is a secondary point in the author's argument and does not directly refute the main
claim about institutional innovation.

63. Correct Answer: B

Reference Line: "The use of technologies that allow people to monitor the water available in
their borewells could be the first step to nudge them to manage aquifers responsibly."
Difficulty Level: Very Difficult
Explanation of the Options:
A. This option is less directly analogous because traffic lights control behavior at a specific
moment, rather than providing ongoing monitoring that leads to self-managed behavior change.
B. This option is the most analogous as it suggests a technology (public health dashboards) that
provides feedback (health data) influencing collective behavior (community health initiatives),
similar to how groundwater monitoring could lead to community-managed aquifer use.
C. This option is about preparedness and response to emergencies, which is less about ongoing
resource management and more about immediate safety measures.
D. This option involves community response to environmental data, which is similar but less
directly related to the individual and community management of a resource like groundwater.
Why the Correct Answer is B:
The correct answer is B because it closely mirrors the author's discussion of using technology to
provide feedback that can lead to responsible management of a shared resource. Public health
dashboards offer data that communities can use to initiate health-related behavior changes,
which is a similar process to using technology to monitor and manage groundwater levels
responsibly. This analogy captures the collective and proactive aspects of the technology
discussed in the passage.
64. Answer: A
[ Explanation: The theme of the United Nations World Water Development Report 2023 is
Partnerships and cooperation for water, which explores how building partnerships and
enhancing cooperation across all dimensions of sustainable development are essential to
accelerating progress towards the Sustainable Development Goal for water and sanitation (SDG
6). ]

65. Answer - b
[ Explanation: The CGWB was established in 1970 by renaming the Exploratory Tubewells
Organization under the Ministry of Agriculture. This historical context helps pinpoint the correct
answer as 1970. ]

66. Answer - c
[ Explanation: NAQUIM, as part of the Ground Water Management and Regulation Scheme,
primarily focuses on mapping aquifers, which are water-bearing formations. Therefore, the
correct answer is "Aquifers." ]

67. Correct Answer: D. The rapid progression towards finalizing the Bills may neglect the depth
of analysis necessary for such extensive legal reforms.
Reference Lines: The government seems to be keen on getting the Bills introduced in Parliament
and passed during the winter session. There is no reason for such haste.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Option:
Option A: This option is a sophisticated distractor. It frames the government's quick action in a
positive light, which could be a common misconception, but it contrasts with the author's
concern about the haste in the process.
Option B: This option is subtly misleading. It acknowledges the postponement but implies a
thoroughness that the author questions, given the overall speed of the process and the limited
number of sittings.
Option C: This option introduces a nuanced half-truth. There is indeed unanimity on one Bill, but
this does not address the author's broader concern about the process as a whole, making it a
tricky distractor.
Option D (Correct Answer): This option directly captures the author's concern. It suggests that
the speed of the legislative process could compromise the necessary depth of analysis, which is
the main point the author is making.

68. Correct Answer: B. Unanimous approval of the Bharatiya Sakshya Bill replacing the Evidence
Act.
Reference Lines: There appears to be unanimity on the third Bill, the Bharatiya Sakshya Bill, the
one in lieu of the Indian Evidence Act.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Options:
Option A: This option is misleading because it suggests a broad acceptance of the Bharatiya
Nyaya Sanhita, which contradicts the passage's mention of dissent.
Option B (Correct Answer): This option is accurate and reflects the passage's information
succinctly. It is the only option that is entirely correct based on the passage.
Option C: This option is incorrect but plausible, as it suggests a unanimous decision on the
postponement, which the passage does not confirm.
Option D: This option is a plausible distractor, implying agreement on consultations, which the
passage suggests but does not confirm as unanimous.

69. Correct Answer: B. The rapid progression of the Bills may compromise the legislative
integrity.
Reference Lines: There is no reason for such haste. It might be argued that considerable sections
of the new laws are mere reproductions of the old Codes.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Options:
Option A: This option is a red herring, introducing an idea of prioritization that the author does
not imply with the phrase "no reason for such haste."
Option B (Correct Answer): This option directly reflects the author's implication that the
government's rush to pass the Bills could negatively affect the legislative process's thoroughness
and quality.
Option C: This option is a distractor that misrepresents the author's implication, suggesting that
the opposition's request for more time is baseless, which the passage does not support.
Option D: This option incorrectly suggests that the committee's postponement is a deliberate
obstruction, an implication not present in the author's use of the phrase.

70. Answer: C
Reference Line: Having begun its deliberations only on August 24, and having held only 12
sittings, there may be questions about the adequacy of the scrutiny.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation for Options:
Option A: This option suggests a disconnect between the committee's work and the legal
community's understanding, which could imply a need for more time. However, it doesn't
directly support the need for the committee's extended review.
Option B: This option points to potential negative consequences of a rushed process but doesn't
directly argue for the current committee's need for more time, rather the general principle of
thorough legislative scrutiny.
Option C (Correct Answer): This option directly supports the author's argument by providing a
benchmark of international practices, implying that the committee's current pace is not aligned
with global norms, which suggests the need for a more extended review period.
Option D: This option presents a counterpoint by highlighting the committee's past efficiency,
which could be seen as a reason to continue the current pace. However, it doesn't address the
unique challenges and scope of the current legislative overhaul.

71. Answer: C
Reference Line: Any meaningful study of these Bills ought to have involved wide consultations
among stakeholders across the country.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Options:
Option A: This option is a subtle distractor. It acknowledges the benefit of involving the legal
community but downplays its necessity, which contradicts the author's stance that meaningful
study requires wide consultations. The author would likely disagree with the notion that such
involvement is merely beneficial and not essential.
Option B: This option directly opposes the author's argument. It suggests that speed is of the
essence, which is the opposite of the author's call for a thorough and unhurried process. The
author would likely disagree with the idea of expediting the process without the due diligence of
extensive scrutiny.
Option C (Correct Answer): This option is in line with the author's argument. It emphasizes the
critical role of stakeholder engagement in developing criminal codes that are not only legally
sound but also practical and enforceable. The author's statement that a meaningful study
involves wide consultations implies that such engagement is indeed imperative, making this the
option the author would most likely agree with.
Option D: This option presents a common misconception that quantity can be equated with
quality. It suggests that the number of meetings is enough to ensure a comprehensive review,
which the author would likely dispute. The author's argument is that the process requires not
just a certain number of meetings, but meaningful and wide-ranging consultations, which cannot
be guaranteed solely by the frequency of committee sittings.

72. Answer: B
Reference Line: However, there are areas that may require deeper scrutiny: for instance, the
scope for misuse, if any, in the new definitions, the desirability of introducing new offences such
as ‘hate speech’ and whether there is further scope for procedural reform in the criminal justice
system.
Difficulty Level: Difficult
Explanation of Option:
Option A: This option is subtly misleading. While the passage does indicate that the committee
has begun deliberations, it also suggests that the scrutiny may not be adequate, which implies
that the study is not yet comprehensive. This option is a plausible distractor because it
acknowledges progress without asserting completeness.
Option B (Correct Answer): This option is directly supported by the passage, which expresses
concern about the government's urgency and the potential for overlooking detailed
examination. The passage specifically mentions the need for deeper scrutiny, especially
regarding new definitions and offences, making this option necessarily true.
Option C: This option presents a half-truth. The passage states that considerable sections of the
new laws are reproductions of the old Codes, which means not all sections are different. This
option is a challenging distractor because it acknowledges changes while also recognizing that
some sections have not been altered, which is a nuanced position.
Option D: This option is a complex distractor. It does not claim unanimous agreement but
suggests some level of consensus, which the passage does not confirm. The passage calls for
further scrutiny of new offences like 'hate speech,' implying that consensus may not yet exist,
making this option not necessarily true.

73. Answer: c
[ Explanation: The Bill omits the provision that empowered the District Magistrate to prohibit the
carrying of arms in public places during processions, mass drills, or mass training. ]

74. Answer: b
[ Explanation: The Bill mandates forensic investigation for offences with a minimum seven-year
imprisonment, requiring forensic experts to collect evidence at crime scenes and record the
process. ]

75. Answer - a
[ Explanation: The correct answer is a) Section 65B. This section specifically addresses the
admissibility of electronic records as evidence in court. It outlines the conditions under which
electronic records can be admitted and the procedure for proving them. ]