SLR-CD-1

Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - I) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Principles of Management (20407101)
Day & Date: Monday,01-01-2024 Max. Marks:80
Time: 03:00 AM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) All questions carry equal marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice questions. 16

1) In the context of decision-making, what is a programmed decision?
a) A routine and repetitive decision b) A strategic decision
c) A crisis decision d) A one-time decision
2) According to Likert's Four Systems of Management, which system
emphasizes teamwork and mutual trust?
a) Exploitative-authoritative b) Benevolent-authoritative
c) Consultative d) Participative
3) What is the purpose of a time study in management?
a) Analyzing employee motivation
b) Studying the movements of workers
c) Evaluating performance
d) Studying the time required for tasks
4) What does the term "Bottom of the Pyramid" refer to in modern management?
a) Serving the needs of the wealthiest population
b) Exploiting the lower-level employees
c) Targeting the poorest populations as a market
d) Focusing on middle-income consumers
5) What is the primary focus of management by objectives (MBO)?
a) Centralized decision-making
b) Employee satisfaction
c) Jointly setting goals with feedback and evaluation
d) Hierarchical control
6) According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which needs are considered
basic and essential?
a) Safety Needs b) Social Needs
c) Physiological Needs d) Esteem Needs
7) What is the main characteristic of a decentralized organizational structure?
a) Centralized decision-making
b) Limited autonomy for lower-level employees
c) Delegation of authority
d) Strict hierarchy

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8) According to F.W. Taylor, what is the primary focus of scientific management?
a) Employee satisfaction
b) Efficient work methods and productivity
c) Autocratic leadership
d) Human relations
9) What is the primary characteristic of a functional organizational structure?
a) Dual reporting relationships
b) Limited communication channels
c) Grouping by common tasks or functions
d) Decentralized authority
10) Who is known for the contribution to the Evolution of Management Thought
through Scientific Management?
a) Frederick Taylor b) Henry Mintzberg
c) C.K. Prahalad d) Peter Drucker
11) What does the business environment concept encompass?
a) Internal factors only
b) External factors only
c) Both internal and external factors
d) Financial factors only
12) What are the different types of organizational plans?
a) Strategic, Tactical, Operational
b) Short-term, Medium-term, Long-term
c) Immediate, Intermediate, Ultimate
d) Macro, Micro, Mega
13) In McGregor's Theory Y, what is the assumption about employees?
a) Employees dislike work and need to be controlled
b) Employees are inherently lazy
c) Employees are capable of self-direction and self-motivation
d) Employees are only motivated by financial rewards
14) What is the primary focus of Likert's Four Systems of Management?
a) Leadership styles b) Employee satisfaction
c) Task structure d) Decision-making conditions
15) According to the Hersey-Blanchard Situational Leadership Model, what
does "telling" represent?
a) High task focus, low relationship focus
b) Low task focus, high relationship focus
c) High task focus, high relationship focus
d) Low task focus, low relationship focus
16) What is the concept of control in management?
a) Influencing and energizing behavior
b) Monitoring and regulating activities
c) Project management
d) Organizational planning

Q.2 Answer the following (short answers / Short problem) 16

a) Planning Levels.
b) Likert’s management systems.

Q.3 Answer the following (short answers/ Short problem) 16

a) William Ouchi- Theory Z.
b) Levels of Management.
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Q.4 Choose one of the following sets of questions to answer 16
Define staffing as a function of management. What are the key elements
involved in the staffing process?
OR
Explain the concept of management and discuss the functions of management.

Q.5 Case Study 16

Mr. Alok Banerjee is the chief executive of a medium sized pharmaceutical firm
in Kolkata. He holds a Ph.D. in pharmacy. However, he has not been involved in
research and development of new products for two decades. Though turnover is
not problem for the company, he and his senior colleagues noticed that the
workers employed on hourly basis are not working up to their full potential. It is a
well-known fact that their filled their days with unnecessary and unproductive
activities and worked only for the sake of pay cheque. In the recent past, the
situation has become quite alarming as the organization began to crumble under
the weight of uneconomical effort. The situation demanded immediate
managerial attention and taking rectification measures. He knew very well that
only way to progress and prosper is to motivate workers to peak performance
through various incentive plans.
One fine morning, Mr. Banerjee contacted the personnel manager and enquired,
what is the problem with workers on hourly basis? The wage bill shows that we
pay them the highest in the industry. Our working conditions are fine. Our fringe
benefits are excellent. Still these workers are motivated. What do they require
really? The personnel manager gave the following reply: I have already informed
you a number of times that money, working conditions and benefits are not
enough. Other things are equally important. One of the workers in that group
recently gave me a clue as to why more and more workers are joining the
bandwagon of “non-performers”. He felt bad that hard work and efficiency go
unnoticed and unrewarded in our organization. Our promotions and benefit plans
are tied to length of service. Even the lazy workers, accordingly, enjoy all the
benefits in the organization which, in fact, according to the worker, should go to
only those who work hard. Mr. Banerjee then wanted the Personnel Manager
look into the problem more closely and find out a solution to the problem of
workers hired on an hourly basis.

1) Analysis of the case.

2) Identification of the problem.
3) Suggest alternative solution.
4) Select best solution.

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Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - I) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Financial Accounting (20407102)
Day & Date: Tuesday, 16-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat labeled diagrams wherever necessary.

Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives and rewrite the sentences again. 16
1) ________ does not deal with the accumulation, classification, analysis,
allocation summarization, interpretation, reporting and control of current and
perspective costs.
a) Cost Accounting b) Financial Accounting
c) Cost Accountancy d) None of these
2) _____ covers accounts of whole business relating to all commercial
transactions.
a) Cost Accounting b) Financial Accounting
c) Environmental Accounting d) None of these
3) The main objective of depreciation is _____.
a) To show the previous profit b) To calculate net profit
c) To reduce tax d) To satisfy the tax department
4) Depreciation is generated due to _____.
a) Increase in the value of liability b) Decrease in capital
c) Wear and tear d) Decrease in the value of assets
5) What is the purpose of making a provision for depreciation in the accounts?
a) To charge the cost of fixed assets against profits
b) To show the current market value of fixed asset
c) To make cash available to replace fixed assets
d) To make a provision for repairs
6) Business is said to be in a profit when ____.
a) Expenditure exceeds income b) Income exceeds expenditure
c) Income exceeds liability d) Assets exceed expenditure
7) What does the term “credit” mean in business?
a) agreement between a lender and a borrower
b) revenue a business earns from selling its goods.
c) cost of operations that a company incurs to generate revenue.
d) own with the expectation to provide a future benefit.
8) When a Liability is decreased or reduced, it is registered on the _______.
a) Debit side or left side of the account
b) Credit side or right side of the account
c) Debit side or right side of the account
d) Credit side or left side of the account

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9) When there is an increase in capital by an amount, it is registered on the _____.
a) Credit or right side of the account
b) Debit or left side of the account
c) Credit or left side of the account
d) Debit or right side of the account
10) What kind of expenses are paid from Gross Profit?
a) Selling Expenses b) Financial Expenses
c) General Expenses d) All of the above
11) Which of the options is an example of business liability?
a) Creditors b) Cash
c) Building d) Land
12) The unfavourable balance of Profit and Loss account should be _____.
a) Subtracted from liabilities b) Subtracted from capital
c) Subtracted from current assets d) Added in liabilities
13) Which of the following statements is not correct about materiality?
a) Materiality is a relative concept’
b) Materiality judgments involve both quantitative ‘and qualitative
judgments
c) Auditor’s consideration of materiality is influenced by the auditor’s
perception of the needs of an informed decision maker who will rely on
the financial statements.
d) None of these
14) Stock should be valued at ________.
a) Cost
b) Market Price
c) Cost or Market price whichever is lower
d) Cost less depreciation
15) Which option gives a review report on the firm’s financial status at a
specified date?
a) Income & Expenditure Account b) Balance Sheet
c) Cash Flow Statement d) Profit & Loss Account
16) Which of the options is not an intangible asset?
a) Land b) Patents
c) Goodwill d) Franchise right

Q.2 Answer the following. 16

a) Objectives of Book Keeping.
b) Journal

Q.3 Answer the following. 16

a) Classification of Accounts.
b) Distinction between Capital Expenditure and Revenue Expenditure.

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Q.4 Answer the following. 16
a) Explain Accounting Concept, Conventions & Principles
OR
b) Journalize the following transactions in the books of Chikky & Bros.

10th. June: Paid wages 12,000

11th June: paid rent by cheque 10,000
13th June: Paid salary to Mr. Charan 12,000
14th June: Purchased stationery from Kagaz & Co. and paid by cheque 5,000
15th June: Received interest 14,000
17th June: Received commission by cheque 6,000
18th June: Rent received from Mr. Mody 8,000
19th June: Interest received from Mr. Bijju by cheque 10.000.
20th June: Carriage paid on purchase of goods 3,000
22nd June: Carriage paid on sale of goods 2,000

Q.5 Attempt the following. 16

From the following particulars; prepare the balance sheet of Madhu, for the year
ended 31st March, 2018.

Particulars ₹ Particulars ₹
Capital 2,00,000 Sundry Creditors 40,000
Drawings 40,000 Bills payable 20,000
Cash in hand 15,000 Goodwill . 60,000
Loan from bank 40,000 Sundry debtors 80,000
Bank overdraft 20,000 Land and building 50,000
Investments 20,000 Vehicles 80,000
Bills receivable 10,000 Cash at Bank 25,000

The following adjustments were made at the time of preparing final accounts.
1) Outstanding liabilities: Salaries Rs. 10,000, Wages Rs. 20,000, Interest on Bank
overdraft Rs. 3,000 and Interest on bank loan Rs. 6,000
2) Provide interest on capital @ 10% p.a.
3) Bad debts amounted to Rs. 10,000 and make a provision for bad debts @ 10% on
sundry debtors.
4) Closing stock amounted to Rs. 1,20,000.
5) Depreciate vehicles @ 10% p.a.
6) Net profit for the year amounted to Rs. 96,000 after considering all the above
adjustments.

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Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - I) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Managerial Economics (20407103)
Day & Date: Wednesday, 17-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 AM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) All questions carry equal marks

Q.1 Multiple choice question. 16

1) Economics word derived from _____ language.
a) Japan b) Greek
c) Rashiya d) Portuguese
2) _____ deals with the economic behavior of households and firm.
a) Micro Economics b) Entity Economics
c) Macro Economics d) Major Economics
3) For which of the following products has highly elastic demand?
a) Salt b) Water
c) Jewelry d) Imported Sofa Set
4) Which of the following represents a long-term increase in the variable?
a) Trends b) Seasonal variations
c) Cyclical variation d) None of these
5) LPG started in year _____.
a) 1989 b) 1991
c) 1992 d) 1995
6) RBI was initially located at _____.
a) Mumbai b) Delhi
c) Hyderabad d) Kolkata
7) Industrial Sickness means _____.
a) Industry Suffering from Loss
b) Industry Suffering from profit
c) Industry Suffering from Loss and Profit
d) None of above
8) When price of the product increses then Demand will be _____.
a) Decrease b) Increase
c) Remain Constant d) None of the above
9) When Price of the Product Increases then Supply will be _____.
a) Increase b) Decrease
c) Remain Constant, d) None of the above
10) The supply relationship shows an _____ slope.
a) Upward b) Downside
c) Cross d) None of above.

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11) Managerial Economics is _____.
a) Dealing only micro aspects b) Only a normative science
c) Deals with practical aspects d) All the above
12) In economics, desire backed by purchasing power is known as _____.
a) Utility b) Demand
c) Consumption d) Scarcity
13) Basic assumptions of law of demand include _____.
a) Prices of other goods should change.
b) There should be substitute for the commodity.
c) The commodity should not confer any distinction.
d) The demand for the commodity should not be continuous
14) In the case of perfect elasticity, the demand curve is _____.
a) Vertical b) Horizontal
c) Flat d) Steep
15) _____ demand forecasting is related to the business conditions prevailing
in the economy as a whole
a) Macro level b) Industry level
c) Firm level d) None of these
16) Perfect, competition is characterized by _____.
a) large number of buyers and sellers
b) homogeneous product
c) free entry and exit of firms
d) all the above

Q.2 Write short notes on. 16

a) Importance of Managerial Economics
b) Types of budgets.

Q.3 Write short notes on. 16

a) Features Of Managerial Economics
b) Fiscal Policy

Q.4 Answer the following questions. 16

a) Define Managerial Economics. Explain its scope in details.
OR
b) Explain Price Elasticity of demand with Diagrams.

Q.5 Attempt the following case study. 16

Maruti Udyog Ltd (MUL) enjoys monopoly in spare parts. Along with dealers,
MUL is exploiting Maruti vehicle users. Often the vehicle user has to change the
clutch plate twice in six months and has to pay Rs.3,567/-. MUL chargers the
price of clutch at imported cost while clutch plate is actually made by clutch auto
private Ltd at Faridabad. The replacement of a silencer costs Rs.800/-. The cost
of spare parts and repairs by any reckoning is three to four times compared to
Ambassador or Fiat. A random sample indicates that every eighth car has faulty
clutch. In the context of defective parts and exorbitant cost of repairs, saving in
fuel in Maruti as compared to other auto makers is of little consequence. Maruti
vehicle users in dilemma they cannot get spare parts or get their cars repaired
except through Maruti Udyog or its authorized dealers. But both charge huge
amounts, not giving guarantee for a single day. MUL is thus, indifferent to the
genuine grievances of its customers.

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Questions:
a) Define a monopoly and stage its main features.
b) Why MUL is called a monopoly? Does it enjoy monopoly in car manufacture?
c) In what way do customers surfer from monopoly practices of MUL.
d) What do you suggest to remedy the situation

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Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - I) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Organizational Behaviour (20407104)
Day & Date: Thursday, 18-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Multiple Choice Questions 16

1) Small group of people with complementary skills who are committed to a
common purpose _____.
a) group b) organization
c) company d) team
2) _____ refers to a stimulus which strangthans the probability of particular
response.
a) Learning b) Reinforcement
c) Punishment d) Performance
3) When people draw general impression about individuals based on single
characteristics is called _____.
a) stereotyping b) attribution
c) figure ground d) halo effect
4) _____ is a strategy to improve group decision making?
a) Group think b) Encouraging conformity
c) Promoting diversity of opinions d) Avoiding discussion
5) _____ is NOT a level of Organisational Behaviour?
a) Individual level b) Group level
c) Organisational level d) Economic level
6) _____ refers to the shared values, beliefs, and practices that shape an
organization’s identity.
a) Teamwork b) Culture
c) Group think d) Diversity
7) _____ is an external force for organizational change.
a) Employee turnover b) Technological advancements
c) Internal conflicts d) Resistance to change
8) _____ stress be managed in organizations
a) By increasing workload.
b) By providing employee autonomy.
c) By ignoring the sources of stress
d) By creating a stressful work environment
9) Organisational behaviour is _____.
a) A science b) An art
c) A science as well as an art d) None of the above

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10) The term ‘psychology’ is derived from the word ‘psyche’, which means ‘Soul’ or
‘Spirit’.
a) Latin b) French
c) Greek d) None of these
11) _____ is a potential source of stress.
a) Adequate sleep b) Healthy eating
c) Financial problems d) Regular exercise
12) Burntout is a consequence of _____.
a) stress b) perception
c) attitude d) learning
13) Organisational behaviour is a discipline that deals with study and application
about _____ within organisation.
a) Only individual b) Only group
c) Individual and group d) Entire population
14) In the context of conflicts, what does the term “interpersonal conflicts” refer
to _____.
a) Conflicts between individuals within the same team.
b) Conflicts between different departments in an organization.
c) Conflicts between managers and subordinates.
d) Conflicts between teams working on different projects.
15) _____ the first stage in the change process according to Lewin’s model.
a) Refreezing b) Changing
c) Unfreezing d) Stabilizing
16) _____ level of change involves modifications in an organization's overall
mission, strategy, and structure.
a) Individual change b) Team change
c) Organizational change d) Departmental change

Q.2 Answer the following short answers. 16

a) Write difference between formal and informal groups.
b) Decision making process.

Q.3 Answer the following short answers. 16

a) Explain types of teams.
b) Write note on Resistance to change.

Q.4 Answer the following Long answers. (Any one) 16

a) Define organization behavior? Explain factors affecting individual behaviour.
OR
b) What is stress management? Explain in detail various tools and strategies
used to manage stress.

Q.5 Case Study.

Bombay Printers is a large printing firm located in Bombay. It has specialised in
printing calendars and greeting cards. Right from inception, this concentration
brought rich dividends and over the year’s sales have increased considerably,
much to the envy of competitors. Slowly but steadily, it has captured a major share
of the market. Since Bombay Printers is a family held company, exact figures are
not readily available. Despite this statistical deficiency, competitors knew very well
that amakant Patil and his children who own the company are extremely wealthy.
The fact that the Patil Foundation grants several lakhs of rupees every year to
Charitable Institutions speaks volumes.
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Over the years the company has been investing its surplus funds in real estate
and equity capital in a calculated manner. Supported by a vast reservoir of funds,
it is small wonder, the company has achieved a stupendous growth rate leaving
everyone behind in the race. Currently, Bombay Printers is the dominant employer
in the printing industry. Though there is no union, employees are well-paid. The
demand for calendars and greetings has increased considerably, in the recent
past, and most of the employees receive a fat overtime allowance. In an interview,
given to a local magazine, Ramakant Patil proudly declared, “Workers in Bombay
Printers are highly motivated.
They’re currently the highest-paid employees in the country. The future is rosy.
Within a few days we are going to introduce a new productivity incentive plan
under which employees are likely to get annual bonus based on a novel
productivity formula devised by our Accounting staff. We always want our
employees to grow along with us.
To his surprise and dismay, Ramakant Patil received a nasty letter, containing a
long list of demands, from a group of anonymous employees — after the
publication of the interview in the magazine. Among their complaints were the
following:
“We’re sick of all this overtime. You and other officers in the company may like
working day and night. We prefer the company of our families and friends to
machines and tools during holidays.” “The new bonus plan is a hoax. None of us
can understand how it operates. As usual, it will be those people who lick the
boots of management that’ll benefit. Stop playing these dirty tricks. We hate
working harder for something we don’t have any chance of getting.” “You are-
talking as if we’re one big happy family, and yet trying to throw us all on the roads
at the same time. Stop manipulating us. We know pretty well that the company
has bought land in Delhi and you’re going to settle there only throwing us all out of
work. Why should we care for a company that is abandoning us on streets?"
Questions:
a) From the standpoint of employee perceptions, what is going on here? 08
b) How can the company avoid these negative reactions? 08

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Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - I) (CBCS) Examination Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Business Statistics (20407105)
Day & Date: Friday, 05-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) All questions carry equal marks.
3) Use of calculators is allowed.

Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives from the options. 16

1) A class in which one of the limits is not specified is called _____ class.
a) Open-Ended b) Closed
c) Exclusive d) Inclusive
2) The mean of 85, 70, 10, 75, 500, 8, 42, 250, 40, 36 is _____.
a) 111.6 b) 130
c) 100 d) 99
3) The mode of 11,10,12,13,11,10,13,16,13,13,11 is _____.
a) 13 b) 10
c) 11 d) 12
4) Continuous frequency distribution can be better presented on _____.
a) Bar graph b) Pie Chart
c) Histogram d) None of the above.
5) Which of the following is not the measure of dispersion?
a) Range b) Quartile Deviation
c) Median d) Standard Deviation
6) The modal class is the class with _____.
a) Average frequency b) Lowest frequency
c) Highest frequency d) Middle frequency
7) Find the variance of the numbers 36, 28,45 and 51 _____.
a) 63.5 b) 76.5
c) 68.5 d) 71.5
8) If AM of a, a+3, a+6, a+9 and a+12 is 10, then a is equal to _____.
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
9) While calculating the standard deviation, the deviations are only taken
from _____.
a) The mode value of a series
b) The median value of a series
c) The quartile value of a series
d) The mean value of a series
10) Which of the following is the use of Index Numbers?
a) Forecasting b) Fixed prices
c) Different prices d) Constant prices

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11) The formula for the quartile deviation is _____.
a) Q3-Q2/2 b) Q3-Q2/4
c) Q3-Q2/Q3+Q2 d) Q3-Q1/2
12) If the first quartile is 104 and third quartile is 120 deviation is _____.
a) 7 b) 8.5
c) 8 d) 9
13) If relation between X and Y is positive which means _____.
a) When X increases Y decreases
b) When X decreases Y increases
c) When X increases Y increases
d) None of the above.
14) The _____ of a class is the frequency obtained by adding the frequencies
of all the classes preceding the given class.
a) Class interval b) Class height
c) Cumulative frequency d) Average frequency
15) Which of the following is a branch of statistics?
a) Descriptive statistics b) Inferential statistics
c) Industry statistics d) Both A and B
16) Correlation coefficient always lies between _____.
a) 0 to 1 b) -1 to +1
c) -1 to o d) None of the above.

Q.2 Answer the following. (Short Notes) 16

a) Uses of Index Numbers
b) Importance of statistics

Q.3 Answer the following questions. 16

a) Draw histogram for the following frequency distribution and also determine
mode.
Marks 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70

No. of 15 20 25 35 20 10 5
students.

b) Calculate median for the vacations availed in a year by the employees and
the number of employees who availed the vacation.

Vacations 0-10 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60 60-70 70-80

availed
No. of 2 18 30 45 35 20 6 3
employees

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Q.4 Attempt any one of the following. 16
a) Construct index numbers of price for the year 2000 from the following data
by applying –
1) Laspeyres Method
2) Paasche’s Method
Commodities Quantity Price Per Unit (Rs.)
1999 2000 1999 2000
A 3 5 20 25
B 4 6 25 30
C 2 3 30 25
D 1 2 10 7.50

OR
b) Calculate standard deviation for the following frequency distribution.

Classes 10-20 20-30 30-40 40-50 50-60

Frequencies 5 8 16 8 3

Q.5 Attempt the following. 16

Find the rank correlation coefficient from the following marks awarded by the
examiners in statistics.

Roll No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11

Examiner A 24 29 19 14 30 19 27 30 20 28 11

Examiner B 37 35 16 26 23 27 19 20 16 11 21

Examiner C 30 28 20 25 25 30 20 24 22 29 15

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Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - I) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Computer Operations and Management (20407107)
Day & Date: Saturday, 06-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions carry equal marks.
2) All questions are compulsory.

Q.1 Multiple choice question. 16

1) The basic operations performed by a computer are.
a) Arithmetic operation b) Logical operation
c) Storage and relative d) All the above
2) Which of the following is not an input device?
a) OCR b) Optical scanners
c) Voice recognition device d) COM (Computer Output to Microfilm)
3) Software in computer.
a) Enhances the capabilities of the hardware machine.
b) Increase the speed of central processing unit.
c) Both of above
d) None of above
4) Which is the most Common type of Audio-Output Device.
a) Monitor b) Speaker
c) Keyboard d) Printer
5) The software tool that enable a user to interact with computer for a specific
purpose are known as?
a) Application b) Hardware
c) Networked software d) None of these
6) Which of the following is a general-purpose network?
a) Storage Area Network (SAN) b) Local Area Network (LAN)
c) Enterprise Area Network (EAN) d) Virtual Area Network (VAN)
7) In MS excel the intersection of a row and column is called?
a) Cell b) Sheet
c) Table d) Theme
8) Each component of computer either.
a) Application software b) Software or CPU/RAM
c) Input devices or output devices d) Hardware or software
9) What part of the computer provides only temporary storage of files?
a) Processor b) Hard drive
c) ROM memory d) RAM memory
10) _____ software helps the user to do his/her work.
a) Computer b) Utility
c) System d) Application

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11) A computer system is the integration of physical entities called _____ and
non-physical entities called _____.
a) Network, Hub b) Free wave, Share wave
c) Hardware, Software d) None of these
12) The _____ comes under the System Software category.
a) Utility System b) Working System
c) Operating System d) None
13) To open a new file in MS Word, the shortcut key is
a) Ctrl + N b) Ctrl + V
c) Ctrl + Y d) Ctrl + X
14) Which of the following is not a disadvantage of wireless LAN?
a) Slower data transmission
b) Higher error rate
c) Interference of transmissions from different computers
d) All of the above
15) The basic goal of computer process is to convert data into
a) Graphs b) Files
c) Tables d) Information
16) Effects provided to an object in a power point presentation is called
a) Transition b) Animation
c) Theme d) None of above

Q.2 Write short notes on 16

a) Web Technology and Cloud Computing.
b) Concept of Word Processing using MS Word.

Q.3 Write short notes on 16

a) Major roles of Information System.
b) Concept of Presentation using MS PowerPoint.

Q.4 a) Explain meaning and functions of Windows Operating System and enlist 16
elements of Windows OS interface.
OR
b) Define Information Technology, write concept of IT and Discuss IT
applications in Management.

Q.5 Case Study. 16

14 Green Car Ltd., is a new entrant in the automotive sector, manufacturing
electric car. The organization has collaborated with a Japanese company. The
CEO Mr. L. Prasad, of Green Car Ltd., is convinced to go ahead for the
‘Management Information System’. Green Car Ltd. has grown steadily in size and
stature and evolved into a group that occupies a premier position in the automotive
industry. The group’s history is studded with milestones-each one taking the group
forward. In fact, today, its total turnover is about 1 billion dollars. Mr. Prasad has
appointed a junior software person, Mr. Raju, to take care of the automation of the
business processes. Raju enthusiastically has accepted the responsibility to
deploy the necessary hardware and software. He made a budget for Rs. 25 Lacs
and has gone ahead to purchase the IT infrastructure. While preparing the budget
he could not meet the CFO, Mr. Shah because he was very busy with expansion
program. When the Computer Servers were installed, Raju gave common
password to all the users with a common login id. Raju felt that users were not IT

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savvy and therefore the planned training schedule to make sure users use the
MIS. He asked each department to depute two persons for training. Since the
training was announced suddenly, no senior person came forward for the training.
Only juniors were sent for training. During the training they were allowed to use
mobile. While deploying the information system, it was observed that production
manager, Mr. Murthy, was not able to use computers at all. He continued using the
legacy method of keeping the information about the daily production. There was no
time for the parallel run and the entire system was deployed without testing. After
going live, it was found that some changes were required in the software. Raju
frantically asked for additional budget to carry out modification in the system. Mr.
Shah did not sanction additional budget. Users could not use the system. Head of
Departments were happy using traditional method to manage day-to-day activity.
They did not cooperate with Mr. Raju. This was brought to notice of the President.
Mr. L. Prasad was busy with foreign tours and could not even open the email sent
by Mr. Raju.
Questions:
a) Analyse the following case.
b) Identify the problem
c) Provide alternate
d) Best solution for the same.

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 SLR-CD-8
Set
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - I) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Business Law (20407108)
Day & Date: Monday, 08-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Multiple Choice Questions. 16

1) A proposal, when accepted becomes a _____.
a) Agreement b) Promise
c) Void Contract d) Quasi Contract
2) Offer is one which is made to a definite person or particular group of person
and that can be accepted by a definite person _____.
a) Implied Offer b) Specific Offer
c) Standing offer d) Counter offer
3) The mistake of foreign law is to be treated as _____.
a) Mistake of offer b) Mistake of Promise
c) Mistake of Acceptance d) Mistake of Fact
4) Consideration is ______.
a) Positive b) Negative
c) Both A & B d) None of the above
5) Remedies for breach of contract are as follows _____.
a) Rescission of contract b) Suit for injunction
c) Suit upon quantum merit d) All of the above
6) Goods identified and agreed upon at the time of the making of the contract of
sale are called _____.
a) Specific goods b) Ascertained goods
c) Unascertained goods d) General goods
7) _____ is a stipulation collateral to the main purpose of the contract.
a) Condition b) Acceptance
c) Warranty d) Rejection
8) Company which is an association not for profit with limited liability with object
to promote commerce & art is called as _____.
a) Charted company b) Non trading company
c) Holding company d) Statutory companies
9) _____ is not a public document.
a) AOA b) MOA
c) Both A & B d) None of the above
10) Company incorporated under a special act passed either by the parliament
of state legislature is called as _____.
a) Charted company b) Foreign company
c) Holding company d) Statutory companies

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 SLR-CD-8
11) A _____ is the information and data that identifies an individual in the digital
world.
a) Digital Identity b) Franchise Identity
c) Tenet Identity d) Human Index
12) In case of death of a consumer a Complaint can be filed by _____.
a) Seller b) A consumer
c) Legal Heir d) None of the above
13) The Orders of National Commission can only be challenged in the _____.
a) Supreme Court b) State
c) District d) None of the above
14) A _____ is a symbol that is used to distinguish the goods of one enterprise
from its competitors.
a) Copyright b) Trademark
c) Patent d) None of the above
15) Objectives of Consumer Protection includes _____.
a) To provide a venue for grievances
b) Protecting the consumer against immoral and unfair activities of the
traders
c) Both A & B
d) None of the above
16) Following is true about Electronic signature _____.
a) Used to signing a document digitally
b) Protect the document from falsification
c) A license Certifying Authority issues the digital signature
d) All of the above

Q.2 Answer the following short answers. 16

a) Define the term ‘Contract’ under Indian Contract Act. Enlist the essential
elements of valid contract.
b) Explain the formation of ‘Contract of Sales’. Mention the rights of an Unpaid
Seller.

Q.3 Answer the following. 16

a) Write the definition of ‘Consumer’. Describe the “Consumer dispute redressal
agency”.
b) Explain the concept of “Security risk of E-Commerce”. Write down the types
and sources of threats.

Q.4 Attempt any one. 16

a) Describe “The Copyright Act 1957”.
OR
b) Discuss the terms associated with Company Law “Types of Meeting” and
“Appointment and removal of Directors”.

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 SLR-CD-8
Q.5 Attempt the following cases. 16
a) APPEX Chemicals entered into an agreement with MoonledPharma ltd. to
supply them with 16units calcium and 8 units of magnesium powder for its
medicine unit. By the time APPEX Chemicals supplied 12 units of calcium
and 4 units of magnesium the government restricted free sale of chemicals
for life saving drugs. Every dealer was supposed to get his supply sanctioned
from the government to a maximum of 10 units of each chemical. APPEX
chemicals found it difficult to complete the order of MoonledPharma Ltd.,
i) Can Moonled Pharma Ltd. take action against APPEX Chemicals. Will it
succeed?
ii) Analyse the situation by referring to relevant provisions.
b) Atlantic tours’ is a tourist agency. It also has a group of hotels. The company
offers new types of schemes to the potential customers. Amit was offered a
scheme of staying in a hotel for 6 days and 5 nights for free. However when
he reached the destination he was told that every room of the hotel was
booked. He told them that he was told earlier that his room was booked. He
even showed them the confirmation he received on his mail.
i) Can Amit file a complaint against the tourist agency? Which consumer
right has been violated in this case?
ii) Will he get a relief in this case? Name the relief he will get.

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Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A (Semester - I) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Banking Operations & Services (20407110)
Day & Date: Tuesday, 09-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 AM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) All questions carry equal marks.

Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives given below. 16

1) The Key/Core function(s) of a Bank is (are) _____
a) Safe custody through lockers
b) Accepting Deposits and Lending money
c) Maintaining Accounts of Customers
d) Collecting and clearing Cheque
2) What is the full form of NBFC? _____
a) Non-Bank Financial Competition
b) Non-Bank Foreign Company
c) Non-Banking Financial Company
d) Non-Banking Finance Corporation
3) Which of the following categories under priority sector?
a) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
b) Education
c) Housing
d) All of these
4) RTGS stands for _____
a) Real Time Gross Settlement b) Real Term Gross Settlement
c) Real Time Goal Settlement d) None of these
5) A ____ asset is one which has remained NPA for a period exceeding 12 months.
a) Standard b) Sub-standard
c) Doubtful d) Loss
6) The type(s) of Bank Advances accounts is (are) _____.
a) Cash Credit b) Overdraft
c) Both a and b d) None of these
7) Regional Rural Banks work at _____
a) State-level b) Taluka level
c) District level d) All level
8) What is mortgage?
a) A security created on immovable property for a deposit received by the bank
b) A security created on immovable property for a loan given by the bank
c) A security created on movable property for a deposit received by the bank
d) A security created on movable property for a loan given by the bank
9) The State Government has _____ of stake in a Regional Rural Bank.
a) 50% b) 25%
c) 15% d) 35%

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 SLR-CD-9
10) NEFT and RTGS are forms of _____ transactions with unique features Providing
interbank fund transfer facility electronically between the customers of banks
a) ECS b) EFT
c) IMPS d) None of the above
11) Which of the following is a type of bank account that can be operated jointly
by two or more individuals?
a) Savings account b) Current account
c) Fixed deposit account d) Joint account
12) Which of the following banks is not a foreign bank operating in India?
a) Citibank b) Standard Chartered Bank
c) DBS Bank d) HDFC Bank
13) Which of the following banks is not a private sector bank in India?
a) HDFC Bank b) Axis Bank
c) ICICI Bank d) State Bank of India
14) Current account deposits are
a) Non repayable b) Non repayable on demand
c) Repayable on demand d) None of these
15) Which agency regulates the money supply in India?
a) The Government of India b) Commercial banks
c) Reserve Bank of India d) None of the above
16) Which of the following statements is true about the central bank?
a) It regulates the entire banking system in the country
b) It is under the ownership of the central government of a country
c) It is the apex bank of a country
d) All of the above

Q.2 Answer the following 16

a) Explain the difference between Bank and NBFC
b) Explain types of ECS Payment system.

Q.3 Answer the following 16

a) Concept NPA, causes and remedies
b) Explain marginal standing facility rates

Q.4 Answer the following 16

a) Discuss structure of Indian Banking System
OR
b) Write a detail note on E-Banking.
Q.5 Analyze the following case study and answer the questions given below - 16
Mr. Umesh completed graduation in Computer Engineering and pursued MBA from a
reputed management institution. He joined Multinational Company after MBA and
worked for 10 years in the field of software development. He decided to start his own
private limited company. His total project cost will be Rs.20 crore, out of that Rs. 15
crore for investment in fixed assets and Rs.5 crore for working capital.
As a consultant, you are expected to guide Umesh on following points.
a) You are expected to explain he important terms in lending of loan and 05
advance.
b) How much margin money will be necessary? Whether margin money 05
percentage can be reduced?
c) On what parameters the loan proposal will be evaluated by Banks? 06

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Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - I) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Enhancing Business Communication Skills (20407106)
Day & Date: Wednesday, 10-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) All questions carry equal marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice question. 16

1) Communication cannot occur in _____
a) Social media b) Meetings
c) Isolation d) Sales Conferences
2) _____ is not the type of communication
a) verbal b) nonverbal
c) signs and symbols d) Cycling
3) Verbal communication is also known as _____
a) Internal communication b) External communication
c) Oral communication d) Outward communication
4) Unintentionally portraying through moment of hands is observed as _____
a) Audio visual communication b) Visual communication
c) Body language d) symbols communication
5) Communication starts with _____
a) Encoding b) Sender
c) Channel d) Feedback
6) Receiving a sales order is an example of _____
a) Horizontal communication b) Vertical communication
c) Internal communication d) External communication
7) ______ is / are barriers to listening
a) Sluggishness b) Premature evaluation
c) External distractions d) All of these
8) Downward communication and upward communication is _____
a) Vertical communication b) Horizontal communication
c) Internal communication d) External communication
9) A summary of an educational and academic background, research experience,
publications, presentations, awards, honors and affiliations is _____
a) Curriculum Vitae b) Application Letter
c) Hands Out d) Business Letter
10) _____ is not a compulsory part of a business letter
a) Salutation b) Close
c) Attention Line d) Body
11) Transactional analysis was developed by _____
a) Elton Mayo b) Weber
c) Maslow d) Eric Berne

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12) _____ is NOT one of the purposes for giving oral presentations
a) To persuade b) To Debate
c) To Build Goodwill d) To inform
13) Wrong decoding means _____
a) Badly worded message
b) Message sent to wrong receiver
c) Interpreted meaning is different from intended message
d) Message sent by wrong sender
14) Evaluation parameters of group discussion includes _____
a) Personality b) Communication
c) Leadership d) All of the above
15) The purpose of a _____ is to help the management identify the reasons
underlying a situation.
a) Report b) Memos
c) Letters d) Circulars
16) _____ is NOT the type of business letter
a) Quotation b) Reference Letter
c) Sales letter d) Business enquiry

Q.2 Write short notes on.

a) Effective Listening 08
b) Teleconference and Videoconferencing 08

Q.3 Write short notes on.

a) Process of making business presentation 08
b) Participation in a Group Discussion 08

Q.4 Answer the following question. 16

What are principles of effective writing, describe parts and styles of business
letters
OR
Write in detail about the barriers to communication and how to overcome these
communication barriers

Q.5 Read the given case study and answer the questions given below
The role of communication is primordial, which is why the presence in any of the
two sectors is mandatory. In both private and public companies, all four models of
communication are present, namely: top-down communication, upward
communication, horizontal communication and informal communication. The lack
of constant communication in public companies negatively affects the activity of
the company, causing chaos both inside and outside, in the relations with the
public as per study done by an organization in Europe.
In private companies, relaxed communication is encouraged even in the case of
the upward communication approach, while in the public sector, communication is
not as friendly. The private sector encourages employees to freely express ideas,
suggestions, even dissatisfaction, which is absent in the public sector. Regarding
the relationship of the members of the private companies, these are naturally
carried out, the informal communication being fundamental.

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The formal environment that characterizes the public sector imposes on
employees a cold climate, in which the relationship and communication are not as
important as in the case of private companies. Although the private sector is
focused on generating profit, the importance given to employees is not neglected.
Within the private companies, activities such as team building and corporate
events are organized, which aim to communicate between employees.
At the same time, in private companies there is a term brainstorming, which
involves meetings in groups, which encourage communication, the ultimate goal
being to find the right solutions for existing problems or for development. The
operating system within public companies is quite different, so that the activity of
the employees is carried out in a climate in which communication is at the level of
the strictly necessary.
A relatively new concept that has emerged in the private companies in Europe is
the specialization of the employees. Specialization programs are carried out in
different cities, even countries, if it is a multinational company, which has branches
in several countries. Within these programs the employees receive information
regarding the activity of the company, the objectives set, the new implementations
and changes. Often, teams of several people are sent to specializations, thus, the
relationships between team members are strengthened.
Regarding the motivation of the employees, in the private companies they practice
encouragements and the recognition of the merits both by the superiors and by
colleagues. Financial rewards are not always enough. The corporate events come
in support of the employees, giving them the possibility to relax with the work
colleagues, activities that also contribute to the motivation of the employees.
A relaxed management style, open to communication, gives employees the
confidence to express their ideas and opinions. The organization works properly if
there is an efficient management, which gives importance to the professional
training, motivation and reward of the employees.

Answer the following questions

1) What according to you is going wrong in the European public sector 08
companies compared to private companies with reference to its
communication
2) Judging from the Case, What are the benefits of informal communication in 08
companies over formal communication for employees and their productivity

Page 3 of 3
 SLR-CD-11
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - II) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Marketing Management (20407201)
Day & Date: Monday, 11-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives from the options. 16
1) Marketing channel that, involves no intermediaries to made their products
available to final buyers is classified as _____.
a) Direct channel b) Indirect channel
c) Static channel d) Flexible channel
2) Segmentation is the process of _____.
a) Dividing the market into homogenous groups
b) Selecting one group of consumers among several other groups
c) Creating a unique space in the minds of the target consumer
d) None of these
3) _____ is the concept under which a company carefully integrates and
coordinates its many communications channels to deliver a clear,
consistent, and compelling message about the organization and its
products.
a) The promotion mix
b) Integrated international affairs
c) Integrated marketing communications
d) Integrated demand characteristics
4) The stage is the product life cycle that focuses on expanding market and
creating product awareness and trial is the _____.
a) Decline stage b) Introduction stage
c) Growth stage d) Maturity stage
5) Logistics management is a part of _____.
a) Production b) Marketing channel
c) Supply chain management d) Consumption
6) In _____ segmentation, buyers are divided into different groups on the
basis of life style or personality and values.
a) Geographic b) Demographic
c) Psychographic d) Behavioral
7) Green marketing is defined as developing eco- friendly products and their
packages to Control the negative effects on _____.
a) Environment b) Organization
c) Products d) None of these
8) The first step in the marketing research process is to _____.
a) make the decision
b) collect the information
c) develop the research plan
d) define the problem, the decision alternatives, and research objective

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9) The _____ function of marketing makes the products available in different
geographic regions.
a) Production b) Selling
c) Distribution d) Promotion
10) _____ pricing is the approach of setting a low initial price in order to attract
a large Number of buyers quickly and win a large market share.
a) Market – skimming b) Value – based
c) Market – penetration d) Leader
11) _____ is the last stage of the consumer decision process.
a) Problem recognition b) Post purchase behavior
c) Alternative evaluation d) Purchase
12) All activities involved in selling goods and services directly to final
consumer for them personal non-business use is called _____.
a) Retailing b) Wholesaling
c) Category killer d) Super market
13) Newsletters, catalogues, and invitations to organization-sponsored events
are most closely associated with the marketing mix activity of _____.
a) Pricing b) Distribution
c) Product development d) Promotion
14) _____ is the process of creating an image for a product in the minds of
targeted customers.
a) Segmentation b) Target marketing
c) Positioning d) None of these
15) Which one of the following is not a sales promotion tool?
a) Advertisement b) Discount
c) Dealer contest d) Consumer contest
16) _____ helps to understand how consumers are influenced by their
environment.
a) Consumer behavior b) Motives
c) Perception d) Learning

Q.2 Answer the following. (Short Answers) 16

a) Holistic Marketing
b) New product development

Q.3 Answer the following. (Short Answers) 16

a) Retailing
b) Positioning strategies

Q.4 Answer any one of the following. (Long Answers) 16

a) What do you mean by Consumer Behaviour and Explain in detail Consumer
decision making process.
OR
b) What is Promotion Mix and Describe in detail different promotion tools.

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Q.5 Analyse the Case. 16
Launching a New Smartphone in a Competitive Market
ABC Electronics is a leading technology company known for its innovative
products. The company has developed a new smartphone with advanced
features and aims to launch it in a highly competitive market. However, it faces
challenges in positioning the product effectively and gaining market share. To
address these challenges, ABC Electronics conducts market research to
understand customer preferences, needs, and buying behaviour. The research
reveals a demand for smartphones with superior camera capabilities and long
battery life. ABC Electronics decides to position its new smartphone as a high-
performance device with exceptional camera features and long-lasting battery
performance. The company develops a marketing strategy that focuses on
product differentiation. It highlights the smartphone's unique features through
targeted advertising campaigns, emphasizing its superior camera quality and
extended battery life. ABC Electronics also partners with popular social media
influencers and tech bloggers to create buzz and generate positive reviews. In
terms of pricing. ABC Electronics adopts a competitive pricing strategy. It
carefully analyses the pricing strategies of its key competitors and sets a price
that offers value for money while maintaining profitability. To attract early
adopters, the company offers limited-time promotional discounts and bundle
offers.
Distribution plays a crucial role in reaching the target market effectively.
ABC Electronics establishes partnerships with major retailers and online
platforms to ensure widespread availability of its new smartphone. It also offers
exclusive deals and incentives to retailers to encourage them to promote the
product prominently. To support its marketing efforts, ABC Electronics invests in
effective marketing communication. It utilizes a mix of traditional and digital
marketing channels, including television ads, online banners, social media
campaigns, and influencer collaborations. The company also creates engaging
content that highlights the smartphone's features and benefits, targeting tech-
savvy consumers. Furthermore, ABC Electronics emphasizes after-sales service
and customer support. It establishes a dedicated customer service team to
address any inquiries or issues promptly. The company also offers extended
warranties and easy replacement policies to enhance customer satisfaction and
loyalty.
Hence, ABC Electronics successfully launches its new smartphone in a
competitive market by implementing effective marketing management strategies.
Through market research, product differentiation, competitive pricing, strategic
distribution, and comprehensive marketing communication, the company gains
market share and establishes a strong presence. Additionally, the focus on after-
sales service and customer support helps build customer loyalty and contributes
to long-term success in the market.
a) How did ABC Electronics address the challenge of positioning its new
smartphone in a highly competitive market?
b) How did ABC Electronics determine the pricing strategy for its new
smartphone?
c) How did ABC Electronics ensure widespread availability of its new
smartphone?
d) What marketing communication channels did ABC Electronics utilize to
support its marketing efforts?

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Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester-Il) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Financial Management (20407202)
Day & Date: Tuesday, 12-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the sentences again. 16
1) What should be the criteria of selection when choosing among mutually
exclusive projects?
a) Selecting a project with a lower cost of capital
b) Selecting a project with the quickest payback
c) Selecting a project with the longest payback
d) Selecting a project with the highest net present value
2) Time value of money indicates that _____.
a) A unit of money obtained today is worth more than a unit of money obtained
in future
b) A unit of money obtained today is worth less than a unit of money obtained in
future
c) There is no difference in the value of money obtained today and tomorrow
d) None of the above
3) In which market the newly issued securities and share are bought or sold
during initial public Offerings (IPO)?
a) Primary market b) Secondary market
c) Insurance markets d) Investment Market
4) The method of converting the amount of future cash into an amount of cash
and cash equivalents value in present is known as:
a) Compounding b) Annuity
c) Discounting d) None of these
5) If rate of interest is 9%, calculate doubling period as per rule 72 _____.
a) 10 years b) 8 years
c) 9 years d) 7.5 years
6) _____ is the process of calculating present value from future value.
a) Discounting b) Compounding
c) Both a & b d) None of these
7) Opening stock+Purchases+Direct Expenses-Closing Stock=_____.
a) Gross Profit b) Net Profit
c) Cost of Goods Sold d) Sales
8) When current ratio is 2:1 and if there is equal increase in current assets &
current liabilities would result in _____.
a) No change in current ratio b) Decrease in current ratio
c) Increase in current ratio d) Current ratio will be double

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9) What is the primary goal of financial management?
a) To minimise the risk
b) To maximise the owner’s wealth
c) To maximise the return
d) To raise profit
10) CAPM stands for _____.
a) Capital asset pricing model. b) Capital amount printing model.
c) Capital amount pricing model. d) Capital asset printing model.
11) _____ is a disadvantage of using the payback period?
a) It does not take into account the cost of capital and timing of return
b) When compared to the accounting rate of return method, it is more
difficult to calculate and understand
c) It does not take the initial investment into account
d) All of the above
12) Total current assets of business are Rs. 600000 and current liabilities are 300000.
The current ratio is_____.
a) 1:2 b) 2:1
c) 1:1 d) 3:1
13) The decisions which are concerned with allocation of funds to the short term
investment proposals are known as:_____.
a) Capital investment b) Working capital decisions
c) Capital budgeting d) None of these
14) If NPV is negative then project should be_____.
a) Accepted b) Rejected
c) No decision d) None of these
15) Working capital is also known as_____ capital.
a) Current asset b) Operating
c) Projecting d) Operation capital
16) Basic Objectives of financial management is_____.
a) Profit maximization b) Wealth maximization
c) Profit planning d) Both a) & b)

Q.2 Answer the following. 16

a) Define Ratio and Classification of ratios
b) Explain operating cycle

Q.3 Attempt / Solve the following. 16

a) Define financial management? Explain Objectives & scope of financial
management?
b) Following is the information of Shri Aruna Industries Ltd. Latur for the year
30th June 2018. Their plan is to sell 30,000 units in the year 2018-2019. The
expected cost of goods sold is as under you are required to calculate the
working capital requirements.
Particulars Rs. (Per Unit)
Raw material 100
Manufacturing expenses 30
Selling, administration and financial expenses 20
Selling price 200

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The duration at various stages of the operating cycle is expected to be as
follows:
Raw material stage 2 months
Work-in-progress stage 1 month
Finished goods stage 1/2 month
Debtor’s stage 1 month
Assuming that the monthly sales level of 2,500 units, estimate the gross
working capital necessity. Expected cash balance is 5% of the gross working
capital necessity, and working progress in 25% complete with respect to
manufacturing expenses.

Q.4 Solve any one of the following. 16

a) Explain Sources of finance in financial management.
b) The following Trading and Profit and Loss Account of Fantasy Ltd. for the
year 31-3-2000 is given below:
Particular Rs. Particular Rs.
To Opening Stock 76,250 By Sales 5,00,000
To Purchases 3,15,250 By Closing stock 98,500
To Carriage and Freight 2,000
To Wages 5,000
To Gross Profit c/d 2,00,000
5,98,500 5,98,500
To Administration expenses 1,01,000 By Gross Profit b/d 2,00,000
To Selling and Dist. expenses 12,000 By Non-operating incomes:
To Non-operating expenses 2,000 By Interest on Securities 1,500
To Financial Expenses 7,000 By Dividend on shares 3,750
To Net Profit c/d 84,000 By Profit on sale of shares 750
2,06,000 2,06,000
Calculate:
1) Gross Profit Margin
2) Expenses Ratio
3) Operating Ratio
4) Net Profit Ratio
5) Operating (Net) Profit Ratio
6) Stock Turnover Ratio.

Q.5 Answer the following. 16

A company is considering whether to purchase a new machine. Machines A and B
are available for Rs. 80,000 each. Earnings after taxation are as follows:
Year Machine A Machine B
Rs. Rs.
1 24,000 8,000
2 32,000 24,000
3 40,000 32,000
4 24,000 48,000
5 16,000 32,000
Evaluate the two alternatives using the following:
a) Payback method,
b) Rate of return on investment method, and
c) Net present value method
You should use a discount rate of 10%
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Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester-Il) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Human Resource Management (20407203)
Day & Date: Wednesday, 13-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice question. 16

1) _____ can be derived from Job Analysis.
a) Job Specification b) Job Description
c) Job requirement d) Both A & B
2) Campus selection is a _____ source of recruitment.
a) external b) internal
c) macro d) none of the above
3) Identifying the source of potential candidates and _____ them to apply for
the job is called Recruitment.
a) Rejecting b) Training
c) Attracting d) All of the above
4) _____ is the Last stage in Career planning.
a) Resignation b) Resume building
c) Withdrawal d) Negotiation
\
5) When an employee is appraised by all the members in the organization
like superior, subordinate, peer, customer etc., is called as _____.
a) Employee Self-Assessment
b) The 360-Degree Appraisal
c) Ranking Appraisal
d) Performance Appraisal
6) When an employee is trained for a key position in the organization is called __.
a) talent management
b) replacement planning
c) leadership development
d) succession Planning
7) The employees appraised based on their reaction on critical situation is
_____ performance appraisal method.
a) Critical incident method
b) Critical appraisal method
c) Critical situation method
d) Critical performance method
8) Human resource management emphasis _____.
a) Development of people b) Punishment of people
c) Adoption of people d) None of these

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9) Operative functions of HRM includes _____.
a) Procurement, development, compensation & motivation
b) Maintenance
c) Integration and emerging trends
d) All of these
10) The process of familiarizing the new employees to the organisation rules
and regulations is known as _____.
a) Placement b) Induction
c) Recruitment d) Selection
11) In _____ training, a training centre is set-up and actual job conditions are
duplicated or simulated in it.
a) Classroom b) Apprenticeship
c) Vestibule d) Internship
12) Relative worth of a job is known by _____.
a) Job design b) Job analysis
c) Job evaluation d) Job change
13) _____ is a performance appraisal technique in which appraisers rate
critical employee behaviour.
a) MBO b) BARS
c) BOS d) BOSS
14) Process of studying and collecting information about a job is known as _____.
a) HRP b) Job design
c) Job analysis d) Job evaluation
15) In an organisation initiating career planning, the career path model would
essentially form the basis for _____.
a) Placement b) Transfer
c) Rotation d) All of the above
16) The unstructured interview is _____.
a) Infrequently conducted
b) Typically is unbiased
c) Typically is related to future
d) Typically biased job performance

Q.2 Write short notes on 16

a) Induction and placement
b) Human Resource Development objectives

Q.3 Write short notes on 16

a) Job Description and Job Specification
b) Use of career planning

Q.4 Answer the following 16

a) Define training. Explain various on the job and off the job training methods.
OR
b) Define human resource management. Explain the various functions of HRM.

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 SLR-CD-13
Q.5 Analyse the following case and answer the questions 16
Uptron Electronics Limited is a pioneering and internationally reputed firm in
the Electronics industry. It is one of the largest firms in the country. It attracted
employees from internationally reputed institutes and industries by offering high
salaries, perks, etc. It has advertised for the position of an Electronics Engineer
recently. Nearly 150 candidates applied for the job. Mr. Ramesh, an Electronics
Engineering Graduate from Indian Institute of Technology with 5 years working
experience in a medium-sized electronics firm, was selected from among the
130 candidates who took tests and interview. The interview board recommended
an enhancement in his salary by 5,000 more than his present salary at his
request. Mr. Ramesh was very happy to achieve this and he was congratulated
by a number of people including his previous employer for his brilliant interview
performance, and wished him good luck.
Mr. Ramesh joined Uptron Electronics Ltd., on 21st January, 2002, with great
enthusiasm. He also found his job to be quite comfortable and a challenging one
and he felt it was highly prestigious to work with this company during the
formative years of his career. He found his superiors as well as subordinates to
be friendly and cooperative. But this climate did not live long. After one year of
his service, he slowly learnt about a number of unpleasant stories about the
company, management, the superior-subordinate relations, rate of employee
turnover, especially at higher level. But he decided to stay on as he had
promised several things to the management in the interview. He wanted to
please and change the attitude of management through his diligent performance,
firm commitment and dedication. He started maximising his contributions and the
management got the impression that Mr. Ramesh had settled down and will
remain in the company.
After some time, the superiors started riding rough-shod over Mr. Ramesh.
He was overloaded with multifarious jobs. His freedom in deciding and executing
was cut down. He was ill-treated on a number of occasions before his
subordinates. His colleagues also started assigning their responsibilities to Mr.
Ramesh. Consequently, there were imbalances in his family life, social life and
organisational life. But he seemed to be calm and contented. Management felt
that Mr. Ramesh had the potential to bear with many more organisational
responsibilities. So the General Manager was quite surprised to see the
resignation letter of Mr. Shashidhar along with a cheque equivalent to a month’s
salary one fine morning on 18th January, 2004. The General Manager failed to
convince Mr. Ramesh to withdraw his resignation. The General Manager
relieved him on 25th January, 2004. The General Manager wanted to appoint a
committee to go into the matter immediately, but dropped the idea later.
a) What prevented the General Manager from appointing a committee?
b) What is wrong with the recruitment policy of the company?
c) Why did Mr Ramesh's resignation surprise the General Manager?

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 SLR-CD-14
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester-Il) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Production Management and Operational Research (20407204)
Day & Date: Thursday, 14-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Multiple Choice Questions. 16

1) Production planning and control-starts with _____.
a) routing b) estimating
c) scheduling d) expediting
2) Which of the following is defined as a set of activities which help to keep
plant, machinery and other facilities in good working condition?
a) Management b) Maintenance
c) Materials d) Mechanic
3) The 4Ms does not include _____.
a) men b) material
c) message d) machinery
4) function develops a physical relationship between inputs and outputs.
a) Production b) System
c) E-manufacturing d) Assembly line
5) Operations management is applicable_____.
a) mostly to the service sector
b) to services exclusively
c) mostly to manufacturing sector
d) to manufacturing and service sectors
6) _____ function of PPC relates to checking the quality of production and
evaluating efficiency.
a) Routing b) Inspection
c) Scheduling d) Testing
7) Greater _____is the benefit of process layout.
a) Effort b) Product
c) Process d) Efficiency
8) This innovative science of Operations Research was discovered
during_____.
a) Civil War b) World War II
c) World War I d) Industrial Revolution
9) A feasible solution is called a basic feasible solution if the number of non-
negative allocations is equal to _____.
a) m-n+1 b) m-n-1
c) m+n-1 d) None of the above

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 SLR-CD-14
10) Plant location is the function of determining location of a plant for _____.
a) investment b) Economy and Effectiveness
c) materials d) machinery
11) Preventive maintenance is undertaken _____ machine fails.
a) Before b) When
c) After d) As
12) _____ includes raw materials, work in progress, finished goods and
spares.
a) Store b) Supply
c) Inventory d) Research
13) ABC analysis aims for _____ .
a) All Better control b) Always best Cost
c) Always Better Control d) Always Bad Cost
14) _____ is a set of international function in maintenance management.
a) TQM b) ISO 14000
c) ISO 20000 d) ISO 9000
15) _____ is one of the secondary functions in maintenance management.
a) Assembly b) Waste Disposal
c) Manufacturing d) Training
16) _____ layout groups machines into cells which function somewhat like
product layout.
a) Cellular Manufacturing b) Process
c) Product d) Straight

Q.2 Answer the following 16

a) Explain concept of Plant Location and write factors affecting selection of
plant location.
b) In a textile sales emporium, 4 sales girls Arpitha (A1), Archana (A2),
Aradhana (A3) and Aakansha (A4) are available to 4 sales counters M, N,
O and P. Each sales girl can handle any counter. The service of each
sales counter [in hours] when carried out by each sales girl is given below:
A1 A2 A3 AT
Sales girls
Sales M 41 72 39 52
counters N 22 29 49 65
O 27 39 60 51
P 45 50 48 52
How to allocate the appropriate sales counters to sales girls so as to minimize
the service time?

Q.3 Answer the following. 16

a) Write short note on - Supply Chain Management
b) What is operations Research? Discuss its applications.

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 SLR-CD-14
Q.4 Answer the following Long answers 16
a) Maximise ‘𝑍’ = 8,000𝑥1 + 7,000𝑥2 (Subject to constraints)
3𝑥1 + 𝑥2 ≤ 66
𝑥1 ≤ 20
𝑥2 ≤ 40
𝑥1 + 𝑥2 ≤ 45
𝑥1 , 𝑥2 ≥ 0 (Non-negativity constraints)
OR
b) What is production planning and control? What are objectives and
functions?
Q.5 Answer the following. 16
Find the initial transportation cost for the transportation matrix given using North-
West Corner method. Least cost method and Vogel’s Approximation method.
Source Destination Supply
1 2 3 4
A 5 6 7 8 25
B 7 5 4 2 75
C 6 1 3 2 15
Demand 50 30 20 15

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 SLR-CD-15
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester-Il) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Research Methodology (20407205)
Day & Date: Friday, 15-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) All questions carry equal marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice question 16

1) An example of probability sampling is ______.
a) Quota Sampling b) Snow-ball sampling
c) Purposive sampling d) Lottery method
2) A literature review requires _____.
a) Planning b) Good and clear writing
c) Lot of rewriting d) All of the above
3) Independent variables that are not related to the purpose of study, but
may affect the dependent variables are called _____.
a) Extraneous variable b) Independent variable
c) Confounded variable d) All the above
4) ______ is a Non parametric test.
a) Z test b) F test
c) ANOVA d) Chi-square
5) Summarizing raw data and displaying them on compact statistical tables
for analysis is ______.
a) Tabulation b) Coding
c) Transcription d) Editing
6) ______ is unipolar rating scale developed by John Stapel
a) Stapel scale b) Likert scale
c) Scientific differential scale d) Graphic rating scale
7) _____ is test used when we want to test the significance of difference
among more than two samples at the same time.
a) Z-test b) F test
c) Chi-square test d) ANOVA
8) ______ includes survey & fact-finding enquiries of the different kinds.
a) Descriptive research b) Analytical research
c) Historical research d) None of these
9) After formulating the research problem the research will prepare _____.
a) Sample design b) Data collection method
c) research designs d) none of these
10) ______ is a set of elements taken from a larger population.
a) Sample b) Population
c) Statistic d) Element

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 SLR-CD-15
11) _____ is the procedure for gaining knowledge by conducting observation
under controlled techniques.
a) Exploratory design b) Descriptive design
c) Diagnostic design d) Experimental design
12) Obtaining information about an entire population by examine only a part of
it is ______.
a) Census b) Primary data collection
c) Secondary data collection d) Sampling
13) Every individual has a known & equal chance of being selected is known
as ______.
a) Probability sampling b) Non probability sampling
c) Research design d) None of above
14) Fundamental Research is otherwise called as _____.
a) Action Research b) Survey
c) Pilot study d) Pure Research
15) Survey is a ______ Study.
a) Descriptive b) Fact finding
c) Analytical d) Systematic
16) ______ may be simple random sampling & complex random sampling.
a) Probability sampling b) Non -probability sampling
c) Census method d) none of these

Q.2 Write short notes on. 16

a) Process of questionnaire design
b) Secondary Data collection

Q.3 Write short notes on 16

a) Census Vs Sampling
b) T-Test

Q.4 Answer the following questions. 16

a) What is report writing? What are various steps in report writing?
OR
b) What is research design. Explain its meaning, need and types?

Q.5 Analyses the following case. 16

Over the last few years, recycling of household waste has become an
extremely important behaviour across the nations. However, in India this
fluctuates from one state to the other. Though these are essentially policy driven
or community driven initiatives, there are a number of attitudinal and motivational
barriers to recycling at an individual level. Mr. Anand Bhutada a engineering
graduate and post graduate in management with a keen interest in
environmental issues, read about this in a special report in the newspaper. He
recognized a potential business opportunity in recycling of household waste. He
understood the scope of potentially lucrative business related to some aspect of
household recycling. Anand Bhutada decided that a door-to- door recycling
service may be a profitable way to get people to recycle.
He believed that households would be willing to pay a small fee to have their
waste collected on a day today basis, from outside their home. Anand discussed
this idea with a few friends, who were very receptive, reinforcing. Anand views
that this was indeed a good business opportunity. However, before he developed
Page 2 of 3
 SLR-CD-15
a detailed business plan, he decided it was necessary to confirm his thoughts
and suspicions regarding the consumer’s views about recycling. In particular, he
needed to check that his ideas, about convenience and recycling, were on the
right track. To do this, he decided to conduct some research into attitude towards
household recycling.
a) What is the kind of research design you would advocate here?
b) Give the statement of problem and objectives of the study.
c) Prepare Research Design.
d) Prepare Questionnaire for the research (Minimum 10 questions).

Page 3 of 3
 SLR-CD-16
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - II) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Event Management (20407207)
Day & Date: Saturday, 16-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.

Q.1 Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the sentences again. 16
1) ______ is early event development stage.
a) Practical event b) Site survey
c) Health and safety d) Evaluation
2) Following are categorized as leisure events ______.
a) Music b) Recreation
c) leisure sports d) All of above
3) ______ is the application of project management to the creation of festivals,
events and conferences.
a) Marketing management b) Event management
c) Project management d) Business management
4) IPRS stands for ______.
a) Indian performance right society
b) Institutional performance right society
c) Indian performance regulatory society
d) Industrial performance right society
5) The person responsible for providing information for event is ______.
a) Event manager b) Event manager
c) Information manager d) Event coordinator
6) ______ are used for uninterrupted power supply at the event venue.
a) Power generator b) Torch
c) Electric board d) Candle
7) ______ of important activities to be taken in specific order.
a) Checklist b) Event Venue
c) Evaluation d) Order
8) _______ refers to the activity of providing food service at the event venue.
a) Catering b) Transportation
c) Ambulance d) Water management
9) _______ is estimate of cost for a specialized period.
a) Event cost b) Event budget
c) Event revenue d) Event income
10) Creating a tagline can be effective tool for ______ an event.
a) Advertising b) Marketing
c) Branding d) Promotion

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 SLR-CD-16
11) _______ is the function of catering management.
a) Hospitality b) Tourism
c) Transportation d) Security
12) On a broader scale event are classified into _____ major categories.
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
13) _____ handles legal formalities in an event.
a) Boss b) Event manger
c) Owner d) Legal head
14) Following do not constitute an event _____.
a) Trade fare b) Zumba Dance
c) Conference d) Convention
15) Computer aided event management is associated with the use of _____.
a) Mobile b) Laptop
c) Information technology d) Internet
16) ______ are formal in nature.
a) Wedding b) Anniversary
c) Conference d) College get together

Q.2 Write short notes on. 16

a) Roles and Responsibilities of Event Manager
b) Phonographic Performance

Q.3 Write short notes on. 16

a) Types of media
b) Planning of Corporate Event

Q.4 Answer the following question. 16

Write an explanatory note on all factors responsible for successful conduct of an
event.
OR
Define event management. Explain its nature, scope and various decision makers
in event management.

Q.5 Attempt the following case study. 16

Mr. and Mrs. Joshi have two children. Suhani their elder daughter is 24
years old and son Suhas is 21 years. Mr. and Mrs Joshi have fixed their daughters
marriage in a well-known rich family in the same city. The in-laws have demanded
that they should organize a destination wedding which should be different from a
traditional marriage which take place in halls.
You are the event manage and Mr. Joshi has contacted you regarding the
same. Plan a wedding event for Joshi family.

Page 2 of 2
 SLR-CD-17
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - Il) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Hospitality & Tourism Management (20407208)
Day & Date: Monday, 18-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice question 16

1) Tourists who like to try new experiences are known as _____.
a) Adventurer b) Worriers
c) Dreamers d) Indulgers
2) _____ is the sum of the physical and psychological experience got by
tourist during their traveling of the destination.
a) Tourism b) Tourism product
c) Tourism culture d) Tourism audit
3) When a visitor travels in his country of residence, he is a _____ visitor.
a) Domestic b) International
c) Inbound d) Out bound
4) _____ refers to the observation and interaction with local animal and plant
life in their natural habitats.
a) Wildlife tourism b) Responsible tourism
c) Wellness tourism d) Mountain tourism
5) If you are staying in a five-star hotel, you are an _____.
a) Extra high budgeted tourist
b) Guest of the hotel
c) Middle budgeted tourist
d) Guest of the company that has invited you
6) A food service operation of a limited menu and self-service is _____.
a) Buffet aria b) Bar
c) Cafeteria d) None of these
7) A hotel room with all guest rooms occupied is called _____.
a) Green House b) Full House
c) Houseful d) None of these
8) Food or beverages served in guest room is known as _____.
a) Full service b) Room service
c) Service station d) None of these
9) Example of a floating hotel is _____.
a) Resort b) Motels
c) Houseboat d) None of these
10) _____ is the head of the housekeeping department.
a) Chef De Cuisine b) Executive Housekeeper
c) Engineer d) None of these

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 SLR-CD-17
11) Internal tourism includes_____.
a) Domestic & Inbound tourism b) Inbound tourism
c) Domestic tourism d) Outbound tourism
12) A person who is travelling a place for pleasure is known as_____.
a) Tourist b) Traveller
c) Inbound tourism d) None of these
13) Palace on wheels & royal orient trains journey started at _____ place.
a) Chennai b) Delhi
c) Mumbai d) Kolkata
14) TAAI stands for _____.
a) Travel Association of Agents of India
b) Trade Agents Association of India
c) Trade Association of Agents of India
d) Travel Agents Association of India
15) PATA stands for _____.
a) Pacific Asia Tourism Association
b) Private Asia of Tourism association
c) Pacific Asia Trade Association
d) Pacific Asia Travel Association
16) _____ travel is known as people who travelled on the basis of business.
a) Leisure travel b) Business travel
c) Corporate travel d) Commercial travel

Q.2 Write short notes on. 16

a) Eco tourism
b) TAAI

Q.3 Write short notes on 16

a) Palace on wheels and Deccan Odyssey
b) Service equipment in hotel industry

Q.4 Answer the following question 16

a) Define hospitality. Write in details about the evolution and growth of
hospitality industry.
OR
b) Explain the following forms of tourism in details- religious tourism,
adventure tourism, historical tourism.

Q.5 Answer the following question. 16

Define tourism. Explain its concept, significance and components of tourism.

Page 2 of 2
 SLR-CD-18
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - II) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Logistics and Supply Chain Management (20407209)
Day & Date: Tuesday, 19-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Choose correct alternatives from the following. 16

1) _____refers to the overall process of managing how resources are
acquired, stored, and transported to their final destination.
a) Logistics b) Supply
c) Demand d) None of these
2) _____ is/are the major drives of the Supply Chain Management.
a) Production b) Transportation
c) Inventory d) None of these
3) Effective Supply Chain Management (SCM) systems provide the _____
benefits to optimize the organization’s performance.
a) Improve customer service
b) to bring the products to the market
c) All of these
d) None of these
4) _____is suitable for medium-to-large businesses.
a) 3rd party Logistics b) 4th party Logistics
c) Both a) and b) d) Only a)
5) _____ the governance of supply chain management functions that helps
organizations plan, manage and implement processes to move and store
goods.
a) Purchasing Management
b) Operations Management
c) Logistics Management
d) Human Resource Management
6) An _____ is someone who completes the final purchase of a product.
a) End user b) Seller
c) Person d) women
7) _____ is a place where goods are stored.
a) End user home b) Seller house
c) Warehouse d) All of these
8) _____ means buyers and suppliers working together towards a common
goat.
a) Co-maker ship b) Seller
c) Personal contract ship d) Coordination

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 SLR-CD-18
9) Global supply chain management means providing the products and
services all over the_____.
a) Village b) City
c) Globe d) Metropolitan
10) When suppliers, distributors, and customers partner with each other to improve
the performance of the entire system, they are participating in a _____.
a) Channel of Distribution b) Value Delivery Network
c) Supply Chain d) Supply and Demand chain
11) _____ which is the direct sale of goods and services between businesses.
a) C2C b) B2C
c) B2B d) C2B
12) A _____ is a type of commerce where a consumer or end user provides a
product or service to an organization.
a) C2C b) B2B
c) C2B d) B2C
13) DTM stand for _____.
a) Domestics Transportation Management
b) Domestics Tentative Marketing
c) Departmental trading services
d) Department transport material
14) _____ is a business practice in which services or job functions are
farmed out to a third party.
a) Outsourcing b) Logistics
c) Demand d) supply
15) 4. Different phases of customer services are _____.
a) Pre-Transaction Phase b) Transaction Phase
c) Post-Transaction Phase d) All of these
16) The purpose of green supply chain management is_____.
a) increasing environmental efficiency
b) Earn profit
c) Global business
d) supplying farm products

Q.2 Attempt the following questions 16

a) Different phases of customer services
b) Concept of Logistics Information System (LIS)

Q.3 Attempt the following questions 16

a) Problems in SCM
b) Principles of designing LIS.

Q.4 Attempt any one of following 16

a) Explain the concept of Logistics and Logistics Management, Types of
Logistic Activities, and Importance of Logistics Management.
OR
b) Explain the concept of coordination in supply chain management, Effect of
lack of Coordination on performance and Obstacles to Coordination in supply
chain management.

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 SLR-CD-18
Q.5 Attempt the following question 16
Improving Supply Chain Responsiveness at a Leading European Grocery
Retailer.
How does a leading European Grocery Retailer with nearly 1000 stores and over
10 million SKU/Store combinations respond when the need to cater to rising
consumer incomes, expectations and individualism translates into higher supply
chain complexity and costs?
The answer: Improve visibility and enhance collaboration between retail stores
and central functions in order to replenish stores more efficiently while
simultaneously lowering logistics costs. Working with a leading edge supply
chain consulting form, the retailer realized that the increasingly unpredictable
nature of consumer behaviour makes planning more and more difficult. So, more
time is spent on planning but the results are less valuable because planning
involves making assumptions about what will happen rather than reacting to what
customers are actually doing. Consequently, the retailer determined that the only
way to be responsive to increasing consumer demands was to build processes
and define rules that required less day to day planning. According to the retailer’s
VP of Supply Chain, “Ten years ago, we made a fundamental choice to no longer
believe in the power of forecasting. We don’t believe in the predictability of
customer behaviour. As the offer in products, information and services keeps
growing forecasting is getting more difficult.” They quickly determined that this
required development of a highly automated replenishment process with a single
point of customer demand forecasting and centralized control management.
“Now the supply chain is designed as a pull chain with input from customer
behaviour and forecasting models. The base for logistics is what the customer
buys supported by other parameters around when do customers visit.” says the
retailer’s VP of Supply Chain. Decisions and store planning and forecasting
needed to be much more reactive which required the availability of continuous,
near real-time information. Traditional processes were typically built around
batch processing cycles, usually one per day. Moving from a batch to a flow
system (continuous operation and continuous decision making) facilitated
individualized delivery schedules based on geography, transport costs, type of
merchandise etc. Naturally, some batching still occurred in the process, such as
deliveries to the distribution Centre from suppliers or the start of a new promotion
but the emphasis is on continuous flow of information, with no artificial barriers to
impede the reaction time. To determine how much of a particular product to send
to a particular store requires knowledge of the present and historic service levels
as well as constraints of both the product and the store. Each item/store
combination has a unique set of parameters. For some products, such as dry
groceries, the parameter is simple- when one full case is sold, one new case is
ordered. But for items like fresh produce, factors like the desire for freshness, an
attractive presentation and the cost of shrinkage must all be taken into account
before deciding on an order schedule. Predictive forecasting is only used for
special situations such as promotions and events. Once the promotion is started,
however, ordering is quickly adjusted to reflect actual consumer behaviour in the
store (e.g. real time POS data).
According to the retailer’s VP of Supply Chain “The replenishment process is
now fully automated. We have a central control room where the switchboard is
operated. Here we monitor the assortment behaviour, the effect of the weather,
the differences in revenues compared to that type of local store etc. It is all in one
place and there is centrally integrated responsibility for all DCs, local stores, etc.
Local stores only have to focus on sales, their store (clean, products available)
and customer attention. The central department decides what products come in,

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 SLR-CD-18
in what amounts and prescribes how to fill the store. The store just has to
execute.” As a result of these enhancements to their planning and replenishment
processes, the retailer was able to realize some substantial benefits including a
50% reduction in out of stocks. The amount of time employees spend on store
processing has declined significantly and improved availability of goods, fewer
leftovers and less time spent on ordering has translated into more time for
employees to work directly with customers.
In addition, supplier investigation into product availability also proved that
availability increased 14% during promotions. Most importantly, however, the net
result of creating a collaborative, automated, real-time event driven system is
increased confidence that on Notes any given day a customer who walks in to
any one of the retailer’s stores will leave satisfied.
Question Analyze the case and write down the case facts.

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 SLR-CD-19
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A (Semester - II) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Employability Skills (20407206)
Day & Date: Wednesday, 20-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Select the appropriate alternative from the given alternatives: 16

1) Kaizen means continuous improvement _____.
a) Self-Discipline b) Preventive Maintenance
c) Sorting out d) Continuous improvement
2) Communication that involves exchanging information without use of words is
called_____.
a) Verbal communication b) Pictorial communication
c) Written Communication d) Non- Verbal Communication
3) Dedication to a particular work is called_____.
a) Confidence b) Commitment
c) Intelligence d) Integrity
4) Expansion of SMS is_____.
a) Simple Message Service b) Short Mail Service
c) Simple memo service d) Short Message Service
5) For SMART Goals S stands for_____.
a) Social b) Scientific
c) Specific d) Strength
6) Critical thinking is a form of _____ intelligence.
a) Spiritual b) Emotional
c) Mental d) Physical
7) Critical thinking allows problem solving and _____making.
a) Decision b) financial
c) productive d) queries
8) Critical thinking is different from_____ thinking.
a) Destructive b) Creative
c) Mental d) Spiritual
9) _____is the ability to think about your own thinking.
a) Metacognition b) Inference
c) Reference d) Interrogation
10) Hand protection is done in industries through_____.
a) Helmet b) Goggles
c) Gloves d) Mask
11) Software used for document is_____.
a) M.S Word. b) M.S. Excel
c) Media Player d) Paint and Brush

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 SLR-CD-19
12) Production work _____due to strike or lockout.
a) Cost Increases b) Panic Increases
c) Fatigue Increases d) Stops
13) The Process of formally introducing oneself is called_____.
a) Hiring b) Decision
c) Self introduction d) Seeking
14) Self introduction should show how _____ you are.
a) Dull b) Confident
c) Angry d) Weak
15) Official conversations are part of_____.
a) Informal Communication b) Formal Communication
c) Resumes d) Families
16) Types of skill Development includes_____.
a) Speaking b) Listening
c) Negotiating d) All of these

Q.2 Answer the following. (Short Answers) 16

a) Explain SWOT Analysis. Mention its benefits
b) Explain importance and requirement of 24/7 work environment.

Q.3 Answer the following. (Short Answers) 16

a) Driving Manners
b) Information Technology Help Desk.

Q.4 Answer Any One of the following. (Long answers) 16

a) Explain Modern Etiquettes and write down the benefits of etiquettes.
OR
b) Explain the different types of proposals.

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 SLR-CD-19
Q.5 Case Study. 16
Business etiquette's
Mrs. Lalita is an agent of LIC of India branch 915. She enjoys her profession
however fellow’s agents and branch officials have noticed some of her habits
including dressing sense last Saturday Mrs. Lalitha went to meet with prior
appointment a high network individual named Mr. Ramesh Shah wearing faded
jeans floral top and flip flops. With all the office staff of Mr. Shah in attendance
when Mrs. Lalita entered his cabin through the office staff who was seated in the
hall the office staff made a notice of Mrs. Lalitha’s attire and was not impressed
even though Mrs. Lalitha has arrived to miss meet Mr. Shah with a prior
appointment his secretary was not convinced that she represents a life insurance
company however Mrs. Lalita was given audience with Mr. Shah where she sat
across the table and placed her bag on it she had greeted Mr. Shah in his
language and sat only when he was told to do so Mrs. Lalitha began her
conversation by exchanging niceties and then enquiring with Mr. Shah about his
age qualification family details and annual income in the middle of the
conversation Mrs. Lalitha and set a call on her cell phone. By excusing herself
while Mr. Shah was responding to her queries the agent checked her mobile for
what's app and other messages in a casual manner. Mr. Shah got an important
call from his associate and had to leave for an urgent meeting hence he requested
Mrs. Lalitha to come again after an hour at 4 PM after having light snacks in the
neighbouring restaurant Mrs. Lalitha began to shop for groceries and clothes she
got all her normal duties done prior to the weekend as she was too busy shopping
she forgot to keep appointment and when to see Mr. Shah at around 4:30 PM. she
found that Mr. Shah Had left for the day, this left Mrs. Lalita very frustrated and
dejected
Case Questions:
1) Describe what Mrs. Lalita had did right in this scenario? 4
2) Describe what Mrs. Lalita did wrong and what she could do to correct it? 4
3) Discuss some topics of discussion Mr. Shah could have with Mrs. Lalita in 8
their Meeting.

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 SLR-CD-20
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Strategic Management (20407301)
Day & Date: Monday, 18-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions carry equal marks.
2) All questions are compulsory.

Q.1 Multiple choice question. 16

1) Competitive advantage can best be described as _____.
a) Perfect Competition in The Market
b) Advantages of Competition
c) Increased Efficiency of the organization
d) Stand out the organization
2) _____ is not one of the elements of strategic management.
a) Formulating strategy
b) Implementation of Strategy
c) Evaluation of Strategy
d) None of the above
3) The acquisition of a business that operates in the same industry is known
as _____.
a) Internal Integration b) Horizontal Integration
c) External Integration d) Vertical Integration
4) In BCG matrix Green symbolize _____.
a) Invest & Expand b) Select & Earn
c) Harvest & Divest d) Both a & b
5) The word “strategy” is derived from the Greek word “_____".
a) Strategos b) Stratum
c) Strategy d) All of these
6) The fundamental purpose for the existence of any organization is
described by its _____.
a) policies b) mission
c) procedures d) strategy
7) SWOT stands for _____.
a) Strategic Weakness Overcoming Tools
b) Services, Works, Operation and Tools
c) Strengths, weakness, Overcome and Threats
d) Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats
8) The GE 9 cell model is based on _____.
a) Industry attractiveness & Business Strength
b) Industry Growth rate & Business strength
c) Industry Attractiveness & Relative market share
d) Industry Growth & Relative market share

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 SLR-CD-20
9) _____ defines how each individual business unit will attempt to achieve its
mission.
a) Business strategy b) Corporate strategy
c) Functional strategy d) National strategy
10) _____ is NOT included in the Porter’s Five Forces model?
a) Potential development of substitute products
b) Bargaining power of suppliers
c) Rivalry among stockholders
d) Rivalry among competing firms
11) A vision statement answers ______ of the following.
a) What is our business? b) Who are our employees?
c) Why do we exist? d) What do we want to become?
12) Low cost, Differentiation and Focus are examples of _____.
a) Corporate strategies b) Operational Strategies
c) Business Strategies d) Functional Strategies
13) _____ strategy is often considered as an entrepreneurial strategy.
a) Expansion Strategy b) Retrenchment Strategy
c) Combination Strategy d) Stability Strategy
14) The competitive threat model or the five forces model was developed
by _____.
a) Gray Hamel b) Peter Drucker
c) Michael E. Porter d) C. K. Prahlad
15) A company’s competitive strategy should be _____.
a) Generic b) Specific
c) Board d) Narrow
16) _____ is concerned with tracking a strategy as it is being implemented.
a) Strategy Formulation b) Strategy control
c) Strategy design d) Strategy implementation

Q.2 Write short notes on. 16

a) Barriers in evaluation
b) 7 S Framework

Q.3 Write short notes on 16

a) Stability strategy
b) GE 9 cell model

Q.4 Answer any one of the following. 16

a) Define strategy. Discuss its objectives and strategic management process
in details.
OR
b) Write an explanatory note on project implementation and behavioral
implementation.

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 SLR-CD-20
Q.5 Case Study 16
DD is the India’s premier public service broadcaster with more than 1,000
transmitters covering 90% of the country’s population across an estimated 70
million homes. It has more than 20,000 employees managing its metro and
regional channels. Recent years have seen growing competition from many
private channels. numbering more than 65, and the cable and satellite operators
(C & S). The C & S network reaches nearly 30million homes and is growing at a
very fast rate.
DD’s business model is based on selling half -hour slots of commercial time
to the programme producers and charging them a minimum guarantee. For
instance, the present tariff for the first 20 episodes of a programme is Rs. 30
lakhs plus the cost of production of the programme. In exchange the producers
get 780 seconds of commercial time that he can sell to advertisers and can
generate revenue. Break-even point for producers, at the present rates, thus is
Rs. 75,000 for a 10 second advertising spot. Beyond 20 episodes, the minimum
guarantee is Rs. 65 lakhs for which the producer has to charge Rs. 1,15,000 for
a 10 second spot in order to break-even. It is at this point the advertisers face a
problem.
The competitive rates for a 10 second spot is Rs. 50,000. Producers are
possessive about buying commercial time on DD. As a result, the DD’s
projected growth of revenue is only 6-10%as against 50-60% for the private
sector channels. Software suppliers, advertisers and audiences are deserting
DD owing to its unrealistic pricing policy. DD has three options before it. First, it
should privatize, second, it should remain purely public service broadcaster and
third, a middle path. The challenge seems to be to exploit DD’s immense
potential and emerge as a formidable player in the mass media.
a) What is the best option, in your view, for DD?
b) Analyse the SWOT factors the DD has?
c) Why do you think that the proposed alternative is the best?

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 SLR-CD-21
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Management Accounting (20407302)
Day & Date: Tuesday, 19-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q.1 Choose the Correct alternative: 16
1) The term management accounting was first coined in _____.
a) 1960 b) 1950
c) 1945 d) 1955
2) Management accounting is ______.
i) Subjective
ii) Objective
a) Only i) b) Only ii)
c) Both i) & ii) d) None of the above
3) The use of management accounting is _____.
a) Optional
b) Compulsory
c) Legally obligatory
d) Compulsory to some and optional to others
4) The management accounting can be stated an extension of ______.
i) Cost Accounting
ii) Financial Accounting
iii) Responsibility Accounting
a) Both i) & ii) b) Both i) & iii)
c) Both ii) & iii) d) i), ii), iii)
5) Which of the following is true about management accounting?
i) Management accounting is associated with presentation of accounting
data.
ii) Management accounting is extremely sensitive to investors needs.
a) Only i) b) Only ii)
c) Both i) & ii) d) None of the above
6) A factory produces two types of articles Y and Z. Article Y takes 8 hours to
make and Z takes 16 hours. In a month (25 days * 8 hours) 600 units of X
and 400 units of Z are produced. Given budgeted hours 8000 per month
and men employed are 50. Determine Activity ratio, Capacity ratio and
efficiency ratio.
a) 112%, 140%, 140% b) 140%, 112%, 140%
c) 140%, 140%, 112% d) None of the above
7) Plant utilization budget and Manufacturing overhead budgets are types of ____.
a) Production budget b) Sales budget
c) Cost budget d) None of the above

Page 1 of 3
 SLR-CD-21
8) R&D budget and Capital expenditure budget are examples of ______.
a) Short-term budget b) Current budget
c) Long-term budget d) None of the above
9) When standard costs are used, the amount of detailed record keeping will
normally _____.
a) Reduce b) Increase
c) Stay the same d) None of the above
10) If labour time is based on the maximum efficiency, the unit cost will be ____.
a) Higher b) Lower
c) Equal d) None of the above
11) The labour engaged in the making of a product is known as ______.
a) Direct labour b) Indirect labour
c) Temporary labour d) None of the above
12) _____ is responsible for setting up of materials price standard.
a) Production department b) Engineering department
c) Purchase department d) None of the above
13) While determining material quantity standards, a proper consideration
should be assigned to ______.
a) Normal material wastage b) Abnormal material wastage
c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above
14) The term contribution refers to ______.
a) The difference between selling price and fixed cost
b) The difference between selling price and variable cost
c) Profit
d) None of these
15) The accountant’s concept of marginal cost differs from the Economist’s
concept of marginal cost in the matter of exclusion of _______.
a) Variable cost b) Semi-variable cost
c) Fixed cost d) None of these
16) Financial control report comes under _____.
a) Dynamic financial reports b) Static financial reports
c) Extensive Activity report d) None of the above

Q.2 Write short note on - 16

a) Management Audit
b) Limitations of Management Accounting

Q.3 Answer the following. 16

a) Explain Objectives of Auditing.
b) For a company, sales are Rs 8,000, variable costs are Rs 4,000, and fixed
costs are Rs 4,000. Calculate the following: '
i) PVR
ii) BEP (Sales)
iii) Margin of Safety and
iv) Profit

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 SLR-CD-21
Q.4 Answer the following. 16
a) Objectives of Standard Costing
OR
b) The standard cost card shows the following details relating to the materials
needed to produce 1 kg of groundnut oil:
Quantity of groundnut oil required: 3 kg
Price of groundnut oil: $2.5/kg
Actual production data are given as follows:
Production during the month: 1,000 kg
Quantity of material used: 3,500 kg
Price of groundnut oil: $3/kg
Required:
1) Calculate the material cost variance.
2) Calculate the material price variance
3) Material usage variance

Q.5 Answer the following. 16

From the information below, prepare a cash budget for a company for April, May,
and June 2019 in a columnar form.
Month Sales Purchase Wages Exp.
Jan. (actual) 80,000 45,000 20,000 5,000
Feb. (actual) 80,000 40,000 18,000 6,000
Mar. (actual) 75,000 42,000 22,000 6,000
Apr. Budget 90,000 50,000 24,000 6,000
May Budget 85,000 45,000 20,000 6,000
Jun. Budget 80,000 35,000 18,000 5,000
You are further informed that:
a) 10% of purchases and 20% of sales are for cash.
b) The average collection period of the company is half a month and credit
purchases are paid off regularly after one month.
c) Wages are paid half monthly and the rent of Rs.500, excluded in expense, is
paid monthly.
d) Cash and bank balance on April 1 was Rs. 15,000, and the company aims to
keep it below this figure at the end of every month. The excess cash is placed
in fixed deposits.

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 SLR-CD-22
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Marketing Management
Brand Management (20407305)
Day & Date: Thursday, 21-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives from the options. 16
1) If a company uses successful brand names to launch a new or modified
product in a new category, this strategy is called ____.
a) Brand extension b) Co-branding
c) Line extension d) Multi branding
2) When two brand names from different companies use the name of the same
product, this branding strategy is called _____.
a) Umbrella branding b) Store branding
c) Mega branding d) Co-branding
3) Trademarked devices that help to identify and differentiate a brand from its
competitors are called _____.
a) Brand dilution b) Brand Extension
c) Brand elements d) None of the above
4) _____ occurs when a customer feels that the company is delivering the
product as its brand had promised.
a) Brand dilution b) Brand extension
c) Brand bonding d) None of the above
5) A consumer’s ability to identify a brand, recall its performance and compare
it with other brands is called _____.
a) Brand portfolio b) Brand extension
c) Brand bonding d) Brand awareness
6) If a consumer does not wish to associate themselves with the brand or its
products, this phenomenon is called _____.
a) Brand portfolio b) Brand dilution
c) Brand bonding d) Brand awareness
7) A set of brands and brand lines in a particular category that a company
offers to its customers is called _____.
a) Brand portfolio b) Brand equity
c) Brand bonding d) Brand awareness
8) There are two aspects of a brand in a brand image - one is association and
the other one is _____.
a) Packaging b) Labelling
c) Personality d) Awareness
9) Both brand association and brand personality are a part of _____.
a) Brand-symbol b) Brand-image
c) Brand relationship d) None of the above

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 SLR-CD-22
10) A brand that can assure legal protection and restrict its use to a single seller
is called _____.
a) Trademark b) Brand image
c) Brand association d) None of the above
11) _____ensures repeat purchase and helps marketers overcome competition
from other firms.
a) Brand awareness b) Brand loyalty
c) Brand association d) None of the above
12) The strategy adopted by retailers and wholesalers for creating their private brand
is called _____.
a) Store brand b) Mega brand
c) Brand extension d) Co-brand
13) _____ defines what the brand thinks about the consumer, as per the consumer
a) Brand attitude b) Brand positioning
c) Brand relationship d) Brand manage
14) Brand feelings are customers _____.
a) Emotional responses b) Rational responses
c) Moral responses d) Direct responses
15) _____ is the structure of brands within an organisational entity.
a) brand recognition b) brand equity
c) brand architecture d) brand monitoring
16) A brand is defined as an _____ asset.
a) liquid b) fixed
c) current d) intangible

Q.2 Answer the following short questions. 16

a) Explain Different Elements of Brand.
b) Explain Kellers Brand Value chain model.

Q.3 Answer the following short questions. 16

a) Explain different Branding Strategies.
b) Explain the various methods of calculating brand equity.

Q.4 Answer the following questions. (Any One) 16

a) Define Brand Equity. Explain Kellers Customer based brand equity model with
diagram and example.
OR
b) Explain Strategic Brand Management process in detail.

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 SLR-CD-22
Q.5 Attempt the following case study. 16
Mountain Dew, the soft drink distributed and manufactured by PepsiCo was
invented in Knoxville, Tennessee in the 1940s.
Launched in Indian in early 2003, Mountain Dew was positioned as an ‘energy and
exhilaration’ drink - same as across the world. Pepsi started with two JWT India-
created television commercials that attempted to capture the brand’s spunk and
attitude. The first ad featured four ‘Dew Dudes’ being asked (by a voice over)
whether they’d visited some famous tourist attractions around the world. On being
asked ‘Big Ben dekha?’, the ads show shots of the boys bungee jumping off the
Big Ben. ‘Jump maara,’ one of them answers, ‘Baja diya baarah,’ says another,
‘Par boring thaa saara,’ a third shrugs. The ad continues in this vein till the voice
over asks ‘Sab kuchh toh kiya, but have you done the dew?’ The boys vouch for
the drink as soon as they taste it.
The second ad became a cult hit. It featured a Dew Dude on a bike chasing a
cheetah in a Savannah, catching up with it, leaping and wrestling it into submission
before pulling a can of Mountain Dew from its throat! ‘Cheetah bhi peeta hai’
remarked another Dew Dude.
Yet, Mountain Dew did not live up to all the hype. A survey by Synovate in late
2005 showed that people preferred Sprite and Limca. The ad campaigns itself
were found to be over the top and unrealistic.
This repositioning saw the introduction of the ‘Dar Ke Aage Jeet Hai’ campaign.
Designed by JWT India, these ads was set in a river rapid where some guys were
going to attempt river rafting. The ad starts with a nervous guy telling himself ‘Itna
mat dar, beta Joy. Sunny ko dekh, kaisa chilled out sa baitha hai’. Sunny is saying
a silent prayer ‘Bhagwaan, aaj apne Sunny ko bacha lena. Main Anshul ki tarah
stud nahin hoon’. Anshul, a well-built guy is thinking ‘Kya faayda teri body ka
Anshul? Sabse dara toh tu hi hai’. Suddenly, accompanying shots of the raft
overturning a voice over remarks ‘Boss, dar sabko lagta hai, gala sabka
sookhta hai. Toh aaney do dur ko, kyunki dar ke aagey jeet hai’. The next shot
show cheerleaders worrying for the overboard rafters when suddenly the raft
comes out of the water and wins the race.
Questions
a) Define Brand Repositioning. When does company consider about brand
repositioning?
b) ‘Elaborate how Mountain Dew has been repositioned from the above case.

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 SLR-CD-23
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Banking Management
Banking Operations Management (20407317)
Day & Date: Friday, 22-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice question. 16

1) RTGS is about _____.
a) Cheque truncation process
b) Electronic fund transfer from bank to bank
c) Electronic payment products within a bank
d) Various deposit products
2) ATM stands for _____.
a) Automated Teller Machine b) Automatic Telling Machine
c) Automatic Taking Machine d) None of These
3) Functions of Banks _____.
a) Acceptance of deposits from the public
b) Provide demand withdrawal facility
c) Lending facility
d) All of the above
4) RRB banks are under the ownership of ______.
a) Ministry of Finance b) RBI
c) Ministry of law d) Ministry of HDI
5) Foreign bank play a significant role in the Indian banking sector by _____.
a) Providing competition b) Improving services
c) Attracting foreign investment d) All of the above
6) ______ provides license to insurance intermediaries such as agents and
brokers after specifying the required qualifications and set norms/code of
conduct for them.
a) RBI b) IRDA
c) HSBC d) SBI
7) MSME Stands for _____.
a) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise
b) Medium, small and mega enterprise
c) Mediator, small and mega enterprise
d) Micro, saving and mega enterprises
8) _____ is defined as “the transfer of an interest in specific immovable
property for the purpose of securing payment of money advanced by way
of loan”.
a) Mortgage b) MSME
c) RBI d) IDBI

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 SLR-CD-23
9) ______ means bailment of goods as security against the loan.
a) Pledge b) Order
c) Acceptance d) Discharge
10) In hypothecation possession remains with ______.
a) Borrower b) Lender
c) Third party d) None of the above
11) _____ acknowledges human-created marks on a specially printed paper.
a) SDR b) QDR
c) OMR d) PQR
12) _____ can be seen as a “memorandum” of the liabilities of the company,
and it is used to authorize a payment.
a) Voucher b) Bond
c) Loan d) MSME
13) ______ relates to payments made regularly to repay an outstanding loan
within a certain time frame.
a) Equated monthly instalment b) Equity Monthly initiated
c) Earning month instalment d) Equity month instalment
14) There are ______ parties to cheque.
a) Four b) Three
c) Two d) One
15) When a bond trades at a ______; the interest rate is more than the
prevailing interest rates.
a) Discount b) Exchange
c) Low d) Premium
16) ______ is the penalty one has to pay because of delayed loan EMI.
a) Discount b) Exchange rate
c) Penal interest d) Price

Q.2 Answer the following short answers. 16

a) Discuss the Parties of Negotiable Instruments also write the concept of
promissory notes & bill of exchange.
b) Basic Concept of Banking and its types.

Q.3 Attempt the following short notes. 16

a) Wholesale and retail banking.
b) KYC & different documents to satisfy KYC.

Q.4 Attempt Any One 16

a) Define the “debt” and Discuss about ‘calculation of compound interest and
simple interest’
b) State the meaning of NPA. Write down its effect on bank’s profitability &
provisions for NPA.

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 SLR-CD-23
Q.5 Attempt the following. 16
From the following particulars, prepare the bank reconciliation statement of Shri
Krishan as on March 31,2014.
a) Balance as per passbook is Rs. 10,000.
b) Bank collected a cheque of Rs. 500 on behalf of Shri Krishan but wrongly
credited it to Shri Krishan’s account.
c) Bank recorded a cash book deposit of Rs. 1,589 as Rs. 1,598.
d) Withdrawal column of the passbook under cast by Rs. 100.
e) The credit balance of Rs. 1,500 as on the pass-book was recorded in the
debit balance.
f) The payment of a cheque of Rs. 350 was recorded twice in the passbook.
g) The pass-book showed a credit balance for a cheque of Rs. 1,000
deposited by Shri Kishan.

Page 3 of 3
 SLR-CD-24
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Financial Management
Corporate Tax Management (20407307)
Day & Date: Saturday 23-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q.1 Choose the correct alternative. 16
1) The Income Tax Act, was enacted in:
a) 1921 b) 1951
c) 1961 d) 1981
2) Mr. X has started his business from 2nd Sept, 2019 and does not have any
other source of Income, his first previous year will start from ______.
a) 1st April, 2011 b) 2nd September,2019
c) Any of the above d) None of the above
3) In Assessment year, the tax will be calculated at ______.
a) current year rate
b) previous year rate
c) previous to previous year rate
d) none of the above
4) Assesses means a person from whom ______.
a) Tax is to be collected b) TDS is to be deducted
c) Advance tax is collected d) all of the above
5) Agriculture income is exempt in India:
a) True b) False
c) Somewhat agree d) Neither of them
6) Agricultural income from foreign is tax _____.
a) True b) False
c) Somewhat agree d) Neither of them
7) Sale of land is a ______.
a) Capital Receipt b) Revenue Receipt
c) Both of the above d) Neither of the above
8) Sales of goods is a ______.
a) Revenue Receipt b) Capital Receipt
c) Both of the above d) Neither of the above
9) As the income goes up, the slab of income tax rate goes _______.
a) Up b) Down
c) Moderate d) Fluctuate
10) The financial year starts from _______.
a) 1st Jan to 31st Dec b) 1st April to 31st March
st th
c) 1 Oct to 30 September d) 1st July to 31st August

Page 1 of 3
 SLR-CD-24
11) Person includes _______.
a) AOP b) BOI
c) Company d) All of the above
12) Income tax is paid by every individual depending on his ______.
a) Citizenship b) residential status
c) both of the above d) neither of the above
13) Income tax is a ______.
a) Direct tax b) Indirect tax
c) Neither of the above d) Both of the above
14) Income tax is collected by ______.
a) state government b) central government
c) Semi-Government d) All of the above
15) Assessee includes any person in respect of whom:
a) who is liable to pay tax
b) any person in respect of whom proceedings under the Act have been started
c) any person who is deemed to be an asssessee
d) all of the above
16) The residential status of an Individual can be ______.
a) Resident and Ordinary Resident
b) Resident but not ordinary resident
c) Nonresident
d) All of the above

Q.2 Answer the following, 16

a) Difference between Direct Tax & Indirect Tax.
b) What is-the legal status of the following persons?
1. Nagpur Municipal corporation
2. The Ratnakar Bank Ltd.
3. Raghavendra Co-op. Housing Society
4. Infosys Technologies Ltd.
5. Bombay Education Societies
6. Sachin, a minor son of Ramesh Tendulkar
7. Khanapur Gram Panchayat
8. A Joint Venture of X, Y & Z, the share in profits not being determined.

Q.3 Answer the following, 16

a) Explain Concept of Income tax:
i) Person
ii) Residential Status of an Individual
b) Explain concept of GST & their Features.

Page 2 of 3
 SLR-CD-24
Q.4 Answer the following. (Any One) 16
a) Compute the tax payable by the Assessee below 60 years of age for the A.
Y. 2023-24 from the following Information.
Name of Assessee M N O P Q
Non-Agriculture NIL 1,80,000 3,20,000 8,00,000 4,00,000
Income (Rs.)
Agriculture 8,00,000 8,00,000 80,000 NIL 80,000(Loss)
Income (Rs.)

Ignore Sec. 115BAC Pertaining to Alternate Tax Regime.

OR

b) State whether the following are capital or revenue receipts/expenses and

give your reasons:
1) ABC & Co. received Rs. 5,00,000 as compensation from XYZ & Co. for
premature termination of contract of agency.
2) PQR Company Ltd. instead of receiving royalty year by year, received it
in advance in lump sum.
3) An amount of Rs. 1,50,000 was spent by a company for sending its
production manager abroad to study new methods of production.
4) Payment of Rs. 50,000 as compensation for cancellation of a contract
for the purchase of machinery with a view to avoid an unnecessary
expenditure.
5) An employee director of a company was paid Rs. 3,50,000 as a lump
sum consideration for not resigning from the directorship.

Q.5 Answer the following. 16

Mr. ‘A’ had income against the following heads: Amount (Rs.)
Taxable salary income 40,000
Income from house property 75,000
Income from other sources 20,000
Interest on securities of DCM Ltd (gross) 8,000
Total 1,43,000

He made following payments: Amount (Rs.)

Contribution to P.F. (recognized) 2,000
Donation to the prime Minister’s national Relief 2,500
fund
Donation to the Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust 4,000
Donation to an approved association for 4,000
promoting family planning
Donation to approved charitable trust 10,000

Compute Mr. A’s taxable income for assessment year 2023-24.

Page 3 of 3
 SLR-CD-25
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Tourism and Hospitality Management
Fundamentals of Hospitality Management (20407309)
Day & Date: Friday, 05 -01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions carry equal marks.
2) All questions are compulsory.

Q.1 Multiple choice question. 16

1) _____ department receives orders to deliver food and beverages to the
guests' rooms.
a) Housekeeping b) Front Office
c) Room Service d) Food and Beverage
2) If a hotel accepts more bookings than the hotel can accommodate for a
particular period, it is known as _____.
a) Occupation b) Upselling
c) Overbooking d) Reservation
3) The _____ Industry is comprised of those businesses which practice the act
of being hospitable.
a) Hospitality b) Travel
c) Tourism d) Commerce
4) A national policy of tourism was announced in _____.
a) 1980 b) 1982
c) 1985 d) 1990
5) National tourism includes ______.
a) Domestic tourism b) Outbound tourism
c) Domestic & Outbound tourism d) None of these
6) Tourism sector creates more _____ opportunities.
a) Job b) Fund raising
c) Profit making d) Attractive
7) When a visitor travels in his country of residence, he is a _____ visitor.
a) Domestic b) International
c) Inbound d) Out bound
8) WTTC means _____.
a) World Trade and Tourism Council
b) World Travel and Trade Council
c) World Travel and Tourism Commission
d) World Travel and Tourism Council
9) The main aim of the tourism industry in India is _____.
a) To spread word of mouth & create repeat visitors
b) To spread word of month
c) Create repeat visitors
d) None of these

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 SLR-CD-25
10) A person who moves from one location of another is known as _____.
a) Tourist b) Traveller
c) Inbound tourist d) Out bound tourist
11) The first hotel in India was established in the year ______.
a) 1903 b) 1803
c) 1947 d) 1957
12) The symbol of hospitality is associated with _____.
a) Apple b) Pineapple
c) Orange d) Grapes
13) _____ types of hotels would likely appeal most to pleasure/ leisure travellers.
a) Airport hotels b) Resort hotels
c) Residential hotel d) Convention hotel
14) Suite hotels usually feature ______.
a) several types of food and beverage services.
b) more public areas and guest services than other hotels.
c) guestrooms with separate bedrooms and living rooms.
d) leisure sports activities.
15) _____ is not a major component of tourism.
a) Transport b) Accommodation
c) Tour operators d) Shops
16) ITDC stands for _____.
a) International Tourism Development Corporation
b) India Tourism Development Corporation
c) India Tourism Destination Corporation
d) India Tourism Development Company

Q.2 Write short Notes on. 16

a) Types of Tourists
b) Factors Affecting Hospitality and Tourism Industry

Q.3 Write short notes on. 16

a) Ownership structure in hotel industry
b) Role of E- commerce in Hospitality sector

Q.4 Answer the following questions. 16

a) Explain briefly the various transport systems in tourism industry.
OR
b) What are the basic elements of resorts? What are the various types of resorts?

Q.5 What is the importance of hospitality industry in India? What are the issues and 16
challenges faced by the hospitality industry in India?

Page 2 of 2
 SLR-CD-26
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
PRODUCTION AND MATERIALS MANAGEMENT
Purchasing and Inventory Management (20407311)
Day & Date: Friday, 22-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions carry equal marks.
2) All questions are compulsory.

Q.1 Multiple choice question. 16

1) _____is the task of buying goods of the right quality, in the right quantities, at
the right time and at the right price.
a) Supplying b) Purchasing
c) Scrutinizing d) None of the above
2) _____is the time that elapses between issuing replenishment order and
receiving the material in stores.
a) Replenishment time b) Lead time
c) Idle-time d) None of the above
3) The first activity of Purchasing cycle is_____
a) Communicating requirement to the purchase
b) Source Selection and development
c) Recognizing the need for procurement
d) Inspection of goods
4) _____is the scientific technique for planning the ordering and usage of
materials at various levels of production and for monitoring the stocks during
these transactions.
a) MPS b) MRP
c) BOM d) None of the above
5) Which of the following is not an inventory?
a) Machines b) Raw material
c) Finished products d) Consumable tools
6) The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is calculated as
a) (2𝐷∗ 𝑆⁄ℎ)^1/2 b) 𝐷𝑆 ∗ /ℎ)^ 1⁄2
∗
c) (𝐷 𝑆⁄2ℎ)^ 1⁄2 d) All of the above
7) Which of the following is true for Inventory control?
a) Economic order quantity has minimum total cost per order
b) Inventory carrying costs increases with quantity per order
c) Ordering cost decreases with lo size
d) All of the above
8) The order cost per order of an inventory is Rs. 400 with an annual carrying
cost of Rs. 10 per unit. The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) for an annual
demand of 2000 units is
a) 400 b) 440
c) 480 d) 500

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 SLR-CD-26
9) Which among the following models is used to calculate the timing of the
inventory order?
a) Economic order quantity model
b) Fixed order quantity model
c) Reorder point model
d) Fixed order inventory model
10) In the ABC Analysis system the B category stands for_____
a) Outstanding importance in value
b) Comparatively unimportant in value
c) Comparatively important in value
d) Average importance in value
11) Financially, inventories are very important to manufacturing companies and
represent_____ of total assets on the balance sheet.
a) 20% to 60% b) 10% to 45%
c) 25% to 40% d) 50% to 80%
12) The information needed to develop an MPR includes:
a) The production plan
b) Forecasts for individual end items
c) Actual orders received from customers and for stock replenishments.
d) All of the above
13) A company that maintain a sufficient safety margin by having extra inventory
against certain situations are termed as_____
a) Inventory b) lot size
c) safety stock d) Lead
14) Reorder point =_____+_____
a) Lead time demand, safety stock
b) Forecasted daily unit sale, lead time
c) Reorder point, lead time demand
d) Safety level of stock, demand per day
15) Today the concepts of_____ manufacturing stress the need to supply
customers with what they want when they want it and to keep inventories at
a_____.
a) TQM, maximum b) Six Sigma, maximum
c) JIT, minimum d) ISO 9000, minimum
16) Materials management is also called_____
a) Distribution planning
b) Control and logistics management
c) Both of the above
d) Neither of the above

Q.2 Answer the following. 16

a) Discuss some key functions of materials management.
b) Explain Procedure for setting up an Efficient Inventory Control System.

Q.3 Answer the following. 16

a) Write short note on Stores layout
b) Discuss the process of negotiation

Page 2 of 4
 SLR-CD-26
Q.4 Answer the following Long answers. 16
a) Explain the concept of Purchase Management. Also explain objectives of
purchasing, Responsibilities of purchase department.
OR
b) What do you mean by “make or buy analysis”? Discuss the factors influencing
make or buy decisions

Q.5 Case study: 16

Professional cooling and Control Systems (PCACS) provide commercial
facility management services with high-performance building automation and
HVAC systems, for years, they used an informal approach to tracking inventory.
Employees would log incoming and outgoing items on spreadsheets but did not
manage the stationary items that were already in stock. Having such a relaxed
system ultimately resulted in several major issues that cost PCACS’s valuable time
and money. “We were continually missing items that we thought were in stock.
Often times when we would order a certain part for a particular job, it would be
used for a different job and we would have no idea,” explained Tommy Gugliotta,
Operations Manager of PCACS. “On numerous occasions, we had to have
inventory shipped overnight because our tracking system was so inefficient. We
wasted countless dollars and time searching for specific items to replace a part of
repair a machine.”
When Tommy Gugliotta joined the PCACS team, his first task was to repair the
inventory management system that had been in place for over 20 years. He
witnessed the ineffective nature of manually traking inventory and knew there must
be a better way to streamline the process and save his company money. Gugliotta
began researching inventory software programs and came across Wasp’s
inventory control solution. “I tested several software programs but was immediately
drawn to Wasp Inventory Control. I started out with a 30-day trial and was
impressed with how easy it was to use,” noted Gugliotta. “Inventory Control offered
all of the features that PCACS needed, like multiple PC licenses, and the option to
purchase barcode printers and mobile scanners to accompany the software.”
While testing Inventory Control, PCACS was starting several big projects that
required a trustworthy, easy-to-use inventory tracking system. “After just two and a
half weeks, I was convinced that Wasp Inventory control was the answer to our
inventory issues. It was a simple program that would be easy to teach to other
employees.” explained Gugliotta.
PCACS purchased Wasp Inventory Control Professional, which included five PC
licenses and one mobile license. PCACS also purchased a handheld WDT3200
mobile computer and WPL305 barcode printer.
PCACS has been using Wasp Inventory Control for approximately one year.
“Since deploying Wasp Inventory Control, we now have in-depth insight into our
entire inventory not just the incoming and outgoing items.” stated Gugliotta. One of
the greatest benefits of Wasp Inventory Control has been financial savings. “Once
we began using the software, the issue of overnighting items completely ceased.
We no longer had to spend excessive amounts on shipping items we thought we
had in stock. Ultimately, Wasp Inventory Control paid for itself within 6 months. We
no longer are subject to missing inventory and have significantly cut down the
amount of time spent looking for items. Now, it only tasks one or two seconds to
look up a certain part, versus scouring through pages and pages of spreadsheets,”
stated Gugliotta.
Page 3 of 4
 SLR-CD-26
a) Analyze the case. 05
b) Identify the problem. 03
c) Identifying Alternative solutions. 05
d) Giving the best solution. 03

Page 4 of 4
 SLR-CD-27
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
System Management
Management Information System (20407319)
Day & Date: Friday, 05-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice question. 16

1) _____ is a system in which defined data are collected, processed and
communicated to assist those responsible for the use of resources.
a) SIS b) MIS
c) TPS d) OASs
2) The Hotel room reservation system module used by the counter clerk to
book a ticket for tourists is ______.
a) Management Information System
b) Transaction Processing system
c) Executive support system
d) Decision Support System
3) ____ in GDSS refers to participants, a trained facilitator and often to a staff
that supports the hardware and software.
a) Policy b) Group dictionaries
c) People d) Hardware
4) _____ is/are major problem area/s in information system.
a) Design b) Data
c) Cost d) All of these
5) Top level managers use ESS to address _______ issues.
a) Strategic issues b) Very short term
c) Routine d) Operational
6) ____ store, process, and analyze financial data, enabling companies to track
income, expenses, assets, liabilities, and other financial details in real time.
a) Marketing Information systems
b) Financial Information Systems
c) HRIS
d) MIS
7) The ____ Information System helps companies track, organize, and report
on important data about their employees across manpower functions,
including, hiring, payroll benefits, performance etc.
a) Marketing b) Finance
c) Production d) Human Resource

Page 1 of 3
 SLR-CD-27
8) _____ knowledge is the knowledge that we procure from personal experience
and context.
a) Tacit b) Implicit
c) Explicit d) Procedural
9) ____ is a form of software theft.
a) Software Patent b) Software Copyright
c) Software Piracy d) Software Privacy
10) _____consists of data that have been retrieved, processed or otherwise
used for informative purpose in the organisation.
a) Skills b) Knowledge
c) Production d) Information
11) _____ helps the decision maker to retrieve, data and test alternative
solutions during the process of problem solving.
a) ESS b) HRIS
c) DSS d) TPS
12) _____ is a set of people, procedures and resources that collects, transforms
and disseminates information in an organisation.
a) Information System b) Computer System
c) Marketing System d) Production System
13) ____ is one of the Strategic roles of Information system.
a) Selecting proper staff b) Creating Competitive edge
c) Putting a Purchase order d) Proceeding Transactions
14) _____ in the GDSS refers to the conference facility itself, including the
room, the tables, and the chairs.
a) Processor b) Software
c) Policy d) Hardware
15) _____ in the system may be enormous or ambiguous, incomplete or may
not be organised properly.
a) Knowledge b) Information
c) Data d) Wisdom
16) ____ are intended to be used by the senior managers directly to provide
support to non-programmed decisions in strategic management.
a) ESS b) TPS
c) OAS d) GDSS

Q.2 Answer the following.

a) Principle causes of information system failure. 08
b) Role of Information System s in organisation. 08

Q.3 Answer the following.

a) Major types of Information System in the organisation. 08
b) Human Resource Information System. 08

Q.4 Answer the following. 16

a) What is GDSS? Explain elements and characteristics of GDSS to enhance
group decision.
OR
b) Differentiate between the terms Data, Information and Knowledge. Elaborate
the role of ICT in Knowledge Management.

Page 2 of 3
 SLR-CD-27
Q.5 Case study.
Vanguard’s decision support system software is used by thousands of
companies for enterprise decision analysis. The software makes it possible to
apply decision analysis techniques throughout an organization to problems
ranging from simple projects to enterprise-wide strategic plans. The Vanguard
System™ is a comprehensive business solution for improving the quality,
reliability, and speed of management decisions. It does this by helping collaborate
with colleagues on important plans, analyze alternatives using state-of-the-art
modelling and simulation techniques, automate routine decisions using expert
system technology, and improve overall management effectiveness by adding
structure to a normally chaotic process. Vanguard’s collaboration abilities go well
beyond simple communication strategies like Web conferencing. Rather,
Vanguard is based on principles of knowledge capture.
The Vanguard System can combine the knowledge captured by many
individuals to create a Collective Intelligence that is useful for testing business
plans and automating routine operations. Vanguard combines all of the most
powerful and essential quantitative methods in management with features of
spreadsheets, artificial intelligence tools, and math applications to produce an
advanced business modelling system. Vanguard improves the speed, reliability,
and quality of routine decisions by combining its business modelling capabilities
with Expert System technology. Vanguard has the potential to transform business
by improving management team decisions rather than simply analyzing
operational data. Vanguard supports a wide variety of methods for integrating
data and it can connect to virtually any business system, such as: Support for
Customizable Functions, Databases, Enterprise Systems, ODBC, WSDL/SOAP,
Excel integration, File read/write for XML, CSV, TXT, RTF, HTML, and others.
a) Identify the main capabilities of the DSS software from the narrative? 04
b) Why should DSS support data integration as mentioned? 04
c) The Vanguard System™ has been dubbed also as a KMS and an Expert 04
System. Why do you think a DSS should also be a KMS I Expert System?
d) Based on the information provided, write a brief as to how can the functional 04
areas of HR, Marketing and Finance leverage the capabilities and
functionalities of a DSS?

Page 3 of 3
 SLR-CD-28
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Human Resource Management
Strategic Human Resource Management (20407313)
Day & Date: Sunday, 07-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.

Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives from the options. 16

1) Systematic and detailed plan of action is termed as_______.
a) Remuneration b) Performance Appraisal
c) Training d) Strategy
2) SHRM is ____ in nature.
a) Proactive b) Reactive
c) Dominating d) Possessive
3) Difficulty in quantifying many HR outcomes is the_____ in SHRM.
a) Barrier b) Importance
c) Supports d) None of the above
4) Human assets as _____ risk investment.
a) Not at all b) Higher
c) Lower d) Both B & C
5) It is horizontal or lateral transfer, where employees are shifted to another
activity to meet the needs of work scheduling.
a) Job Rotation b) Job simplification
c) Job Enlargement d) Job Evaluation
6) ______ aims at scientifically establishing the time required for a qualified
worker to carry out a work element at a defined rate of working.
a) Performance b) Job Rotation
c) Work system design d) Compensation
7) Job design determines the ______.
a) Responsibility of an employee
b) The authority he enjoys over his work
c) Employee’s scope of decision-making
d) All of the above
8) Excessive specialization and mechanization have made many jobs.
a) Repetitive and boring b) Acceptable and boring
c) Accountable and boring d) Misleading and boring
9) In______ a significant number of employees can directly participate in the
design process.
a) Conference method b) Training method
c) Performance Appraisal d) None of the above

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 SLR-CD-28
10) _____ provide a short-list of candidates to proceed to the selection phase.
a) Selection b) Training
c) Investment d) Recruitment
11) Professional journal is a ____ source of recruitment.
a) External b) Internal
c) Professional d) Regular
12) ______ programs support the specific business objectives of the employer
in that incentives are aligned with business strategies.
a) Traditional Pay b) Strategic Pay
c) Wages d) None of the above
13) Executive compensation covers employees that include.
a) Presidents of company b) Chief Executive officers
c) Both A and B d) None of the above
14) Types of ESPO’s are/is _____.
a) Employees Stock Option Schemes
b) Employee Stock Purchase Plans
c) Restricted Stock Award (RSA)
d) All of the above
15) Retirement is a ______ type of separation.
a) Voluntary b) Compulsory
c) Both d) None of the above
16) An organization separates their employees for a short stretch of time is
termed as_____.
a) Lay-off b) Retrenchment
c) Retirement d) Dismissal

Q.2 Answer the following short answers. 16

a) Define “Job Design” and write down its approaches.
b) Explain the concept of SHRM and its barrier.

Q.3 Answer short note on the following. 16

a) Executive compensation?
b) Strategic dimensions of performance appraisal?

Q.4 Attempt any one. 16

a) Explain the concept of employee separation and it’s types. Also comment
on ‘employee turnover’.?
OR
b) Strategic recruitment and strategic staffing, explain staffing as a process.?

Q.5 Attempt the following case study. 16

A large business consultancy - Walker, Bird and Black (WBB) - recruits a group of
between 40 and 50 graduates each year onto its three-year graduate training
programme. Among graduate job-seekers, the scheme is considered to be among the
more prestigious and is known to be among the highest-paying. For this reason,
competition for the scheme among graduates is highly competitive and WBB chooses
to focus its recruitment activity on more prestigious universities.

Page 2 of 3
 SLR-CD-28
In 2008, for example, 70 per cent of its graduate intake came from just five
universities. While graduate recruits often take on managerial responsibilities
relatively early in their careers, the aim is to create a talent pool for more senior
managerial positions and, therefore, retention of graduate recruits is paramount. To
achieve this objective, the development programme is highly structured and whilst
there is limited scope for recruits to specialise in particular areas of the business or in
specific managerial roles, the programme seeks to develop generic managerial
competencies to enable graduate recruits to fulfil a range of future positions. The
programme includes personalised development programmes, mentoring,
secondments (including frequent international assignments in its overseas operations
and in partner or client organisations) and work shadowing. During the three years,
each graduate also has the opportunity to work across different departments and
operational areas of the company and to work in cross-functional project teams, often
in leadership roles. The ‘programme’ graduates are treated very much as separate to
other graduates working in the firm during their three years’ training.
A problem for many graduate recruiters is retention of graduates both during and
following the formal programme, especially given the investment already made in
recruiting and developing graduates. WBB experience a lower level of turnover of
employees during the programme than the industry average, which the company puts
down to the content of the programme and the range of benefits they offer their
recruits. In the two years following the programme, however, WBB experiences an
unacceptable level of turnover among its graduate recruits, many leaving to take up
opportunities at rival employers. In exit interviews, graduate recruits leaving the firm
rarely mention pay as a reason for leaving but they often complain about a lack of
opportunities for further advancement and development, particularly those recruited
following a restructuring of the firm to promote team-based working and to eliminate
unnecessary layers of bureaucracy. Senior managers also express disappointment
about the ability of those completing the programmes to act independently and
effectively in more senior managerial roles and to take the initiative in decision-making
and problem- solving. Subsequently, two of the rarely available senior managerial
roles have recently been filled by external recruits, rather than from inside the
company.
Questions
a) What is your opinion on the patterns of turnover among graduate recruits at
WBB?
b) In what ways do you think that the approach taken to graduate recruitment
and training has contributed to the problems being experienced at WBB?
Will it reduce the employee turnover?
c) How would you address the problems at WBB?
d) And offer suggestion to following concerns in particular for graduates who
might be thinking of leaving the firm & senior managers who the lack of
‘readiness’ of graduate recruits to take on more senior roles.

Page 3 of 3
 SLR-CD-29
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
International Business Management
International Business Environment (20407315)
Day & Date: Friday, 22-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice question 16

1) Balance of payment is an accounting statement that records the economic
transactions between
a) Residents of a country and non-resident individuals
b) Residents of a country and rest of the world
c) Non-residents and rest of the world
d) None of the above
2) Which of the following countries in not a member of SAARC.
a) India b) Thailand
c) Bhutan d) Maldives
3) _____ is the full name of World Bank.
a) Universal bank for Reconstruction and Development
b) international bank for Reconstruction and Development
c) World development Bank
d) World Bank for Development.
4) Which of the following is NOT a business opportunity generated by
globalization?
a) Access to low-cost labour.
b) Cheap International transport.
c) Currency crises.
d) Less stringent regulation of the business environment.
5) _____ is not an International Financial Institution.
a) ICICI b) IDA
c) IMF d) World Bank
6) The world trade organization was formed in the year_____.
a) 1993 b) 1995
c) 1994 d) 1996
7) Globalization can create problems for business because______.
a) It can result in more competition.
b) It reduced vulnerability to political risk and uncertainty when operating
abroad.
c) It means that they can increase prices.
d) All of the above
8) The balance of payments includes_______.
a) a country's balance of trade b) foreign aid
c) foreign investments d) All of the above

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 SLR-CD-29
9) The main promoter of international trade liberalization is ______.
a) IBRD b) GATT- WTO
c) NAFTA d) SAARC
10) The head-quarter of IMF is located at ______.
a) Washington DC b) India
c) London d) Paris
11) The value of SDR in international monetary fund is determined by currency
basket consisting ______ currencies.
a) 4 b) 6
c) 5 d) 7
12) When was SAARC established?
a) 1967 b) 1953
c) 1995 d) 1985
13) Economic transactions include, which of the following.
a) Visible items b) Unilateral transfers
c) Invisible items d) All of the above
14) _____ describes e - commerce.
a) Doing business electronically b) Sale of goods
c) Doing business d) All of the above
15) ____ type of e - commerce focuses on consumers dealing with each other.
a) B2B b) C2C
c) B2C d) C2B
16) Balance of payment accounting uses which standard of accounting?
a) Double entry system b) Accrual basis system
c) Single entry system d) Cash basis system

Q.2 Write shorts notes on 16

a) SAARC.
b) Asian Development Bank.

Q.3 Write short notes on 16

a) Advantages and disadvantages of e-commerce.
b) World Bank.

Q.4 Answer the following question.

a) Define balance of payment. What are the remedies to correct the 16
disequilibrium in balance of payment.
OR
b) Define international business. Discuss various environmental factors which
affect the international business.

Q.5 Solve the following Case study 16

For decades, Eastman Kodak thrived on a classic business model: Sell lots of
cameras at prices to chalk up outsize profits on the inks, chemicals and papers
used for making prints. That strategy collapsed as the digital revolution and
foreign competitors pretty much destroyed Kodak's longstanding control of the
photography business. But now, with the success of its easy-to-use digital
cameras, Kodak is showing signs of making the old model work again.
Kodak shares, which hovered around $60 at the decade's start, have moved
fitfully up and down-but mainly down-in the years since. Despite the stock's

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 SLR-CD-29
relatively low price, few analysts see much of a further rebound on the
horizon. Only 2 of the 11 analysts who follow Kodak, according to Thomson
Financial, rate it a buy. Six rate it a sell and Credit Suisse Boston just
terminated coverage
Many analysts are sceptical that Kodak will over be a healthy profit
machine again- after all, thermal printer ribbons, coated papers and inks do
not offer 60 per cent margins that film commanded. But Kodak's supporters
on Wall Street say that the consensus view is missing an important element
of turnaround: Profit margins for the supplies it is offering consumers and the
industrial market can hit, or even top, a comfortable 30 per cent.
Kodak cameras and software are selling well, encouraging consumers to
take another at the brand. Its EasyShare digital cameras are neck-and-neck
competitors with Sony's models at about 20 per cent of the market each.
As consumers turn to preserving digital images in familiar ways, Kodak
has 55,000 service kiosks doing brisk business in retail stores, far more than
rivals like Fuji and Sony. Kodak's printing docks and other devices for
simplifying the making of prints at home best sellers as well.
Indeed, Kodak commands nearly 57 per cent of the market for snapshot
printers-those make 4-by-6 prints-virtually guaranteeing a healthy share of
the market for the coated papers and thermal ribbons such printers use. And
even though Kodak does not even make a consumer inkjet printer yet, it is a
solid second to Hewlett-Packard in sales of inkjet papers.
Kodak, after trying to pursue just about every possible digital innovation, is
getting to point where it can be more selective in picking which digital bets to
raise and which to fold. Kodak spent $817 million to buy Sun Chemical's 50
per cent of Kodak Polychrome Graphics, which sells film-based and digital
products. It has taken over Heidelberger's share of NexPress Solutions,
which makes large digital printers. Those two operations, added to other
acquisitions, gives Kodak a full line of commercial printing products.
a) Is it true to say that Kodak adopted Porter's generic strategy?
b) Is Kodak's digital camera facing tough competition from other manufacturers?
In what way overcome this problem?

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 SLR-CD-30
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Agriculture & Co-operative Management
Fundamentals of Agriculture & Co-operative Management (20407321)
Day & Date: Friday, 22-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All Questions are compulsory
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice Questions 16

1) Water erosion is ______.
a) the removal of soil by water
b) the removal of soil by wind
c) the removal of soil by Construction work
d) All of these
2) SCARDBs stands for _____.
a) State Cooperative Agriculture and Rural Development Banks
b) State Credit and Rural Development Banks
c) State Cooperative and Rural Development Banks
d) State Credit and Rural Data Bank
3) SCBs stand for _____.
a) State Cooperative Banks
b) State Credit Banks
c) Social Cooperative Board
d) Society for Cooperative Business
4) The first marketing cooperative was organized at _____ In the former
Bombay province in 1915.
a) Hubli b) Thane
c) Pune d) Kalyan
5) In _____ each works for all and all work for each.
a) co-operation b) capitalism
c) socialism d) trade unionism
6) Fertilizers enhances _____.
a) natural fertility of the soil
b) Replace chemical elements taken from the soil by previous crops
c) improve growth and productiveness of plants
d) All of the above
7) Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are _____.
a) Government owned scheduled commercial banks of India that operate at
regional level in different states of India
b) State Bank of India
c) State cooperative banks at regional levels
d) Foreign Exchange banks

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 SLR-CD-30
8) Which of the following pollutants causes soil erosion?
a) Cow dung b) Skelton of Fish
c) Plastic d) Old paper
9) Which one of the following is the first stage of water erosion?
a) Rill erosion b) Sheet erosion
c) Splash Erosion d) Gully erosion
10) What are the current problems in Indian agriculture?
a) climate change b) increased demand for water
c) inadequate lighting d) all of these
11) Which of the following crops is an example of kharif Crops?
a) Gram b) Cotton
c) Pea d) Wheat
12) Which method of irrigation is useful for sandy Soils and Shallow lands
where lands levelling is not Possible?
a) Sub-surface irrigation b) Drip Irrigation
c) Sprinkler Irrigation d) Surface Irrigation
13) Certified Seed is the progeny of _____.
a) Nucleus seed b) Foundation Seed
c) Breeder Seed d) Registered Seed
14) Who is the largest shareholder of National housing Bank?
a) Reserve Bank of India b) Government of India
c) NABARD d) State Bank of India
15) Soil erosion is caused due to _____.
a) Rapid urbanization b) Cutting of trees
c) Over grazing by animals d) All of the above factors
16) In which year regional rural banks act was passed _____.
a) 1986 b) 1976
c) 1996 d) 1990

Q.2 Answer the following. (Short Note) 16

a) Explain Functions of Manures and fertilizers in case of Losses of soil nutrients.
b) Explain Plant diseases and suggest Plant protection measures.

Q.3 Answer the following. (Short Note) 16

a) Explain Self Help groups.
b) Explain Problems and types of Soil Erosion.

Q.4 Answer any one of the following. (Long Answer) 16

a) Write in detail on State co-operative Bank (SCB), Land Development Bank
(LDB), and District Central Cooperative Bank (DCCB).
OR
b) Discuss characteristics, special programs for agriculture labour and provide
Lines of improvement of landless labour.

Q.5 Elaborate Cooperative Management in terms of Members, their duties and 16

responsibilities, meetings and functioning.

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 SLR-CD-31
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Marketing Management
Sales and Distribution Management (20407306)
Day & Date: Tuesday, 09-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Multiple Choice Questions. 16

1) Sales and Distribution Management majorly focuses on the ______ aspect of
an organization.
a) Producing b) Buying
c) Selling d) Transporting
2) _____ is the process of buying and selling online by using internet.
a) Retailing b) E -banking
c) E-selling d) Personal selling
3) The oral presentation of a company’s products, or services to one or more
prospective purchasers for the purpose of making a sale is known as
a) Adverting b) Promotion
c) Branding d) Personal Selling
4) _____ is an estimation of sales volume that a company can expect to attain
within the plan period.
a) Sales Budget b) Sales Forecast
c) Sales Research d) Sales Control
5) _____ is the programme of introducing salespeople the job are expected to do.
a) Induction b) Placement
c) Appraisal d) Development
6) _____ occurs when producers, wholesalers and retailers work in unison to meet
their customers' needs. It allows one company to have control over the entire
process of producing and selling a product.
a) Horizontal marketing system b) Vertical marketing system
c) Diagonal marketing system d) Matrix marketing system
7) A _____ estimates the sales in units as well as the estimated earning from
these sales.
a) Sales Quota b) Sales Budget
c) Sales Training d) Sales Recruitment
8) CIS in Distribution management stands for _____.
a) Computerised Integrated System
b) Channel Inserted System
c) Customer Information System
d) Channel Information System
9) A Sales Budget consists of expected volume of _____ and _____.
a) Manpower, Production expenses b) Profit, Material cost
c) Sales, Selling Expenses d) Profit, Manufacturing cost
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 SLR-CD-31
10) _____is the sales forecasting method in which the executives of the company
express their views and give guidance regarding future sales.
a) Execution Opinion b) Delphi Technique
c) Sales force composite d) All of these
11) _____ is planning, directing, and coordinating the activities of sales force for
increasing organisational efficiency.
a) Sales territory b) Sales Budget
c) Sales Quota d) Sales Organisation
12) ____ mainly deals with all activities associated with the flow and transformation
and information of goods from the stage of raw material to the end user i.e.,
consumption.
a) PLC b) Supply Chain Management
c) Purchasing d) Marketing Channel
13) The ____ quota is one of the financial quotas that is set with objective to
control the cost of manufacturing units or sales units.
a) Sales volume b) Activity
c) Expense d) Combination
14) ____ is made up of present or potential customers, rather than a geographical
area.
a) Territory b) Quota
c) Branch d) Sales force
15) _____ mangers are responsible to achieve certain sales targets.
a) Line b) Staff
c) Production d) HR
16) _____ is the process of educating salespeople and equipping them with the
skills they need to succeed in their role.
a) Sales Motivation b) Performance Appraisal
c) Sales Training d) All of these

Q.2 Answer the following. 16

a) The Personal Selling Process.
b) Sales Quota and its Types.

Q.3 Answer the following. 16

a) Key Drivers of Supply Chain Management.
b) Types of Sales Organisations.

Q.4 Answer the following. 16

a) Define Sales Forecasting. Explain various Sales forecasting methods in detail.
OR
b) What is Distribution Channel? Explain the importance and various functions of
marketing Channels in detail.

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 SLR-CD-31
Q.5 Case Study. 16
Karadi Tales is one of the leading children’s entertainment and knowledge products
selling company in India. It sells compact discs, books, and educational materials,
including computer games, in the Indian market. The company plans to open a
chain of retail stores specializing in creative toys and innovative learning materials
for children. The company plans to target the upper middle class and upper class
Indians living in metro cities and focus on customer service for competitive
advantage. It plans to conduct workshops and seminars for parents and children on
such topics as learning with computers, indoor gardening, creating one’s own world
through computer programs by parents for children, and conducting craft classes
ranging from papier mache to pottery for the kids. The company plans to cover 10
Indian cities, namely Mumbai, Bangalore, Chennai, New Delhi, Kolkata,
Hyderabad, Cochin, Indore, Lucknow, and Chandigarh in the coming year. The
company is planning to recruit around 300 people and wishes to hire and retain the
best people. The goal is to design a hiring process that will accomplish the
ambitious goals of the organization.
The children's market in which Karadi Tales plans to operate demands
service personnel who are very patient and knowledgeable about children, toys,
and computers. They are expected to be very sociable, engaging, and enthusiastic.
The top priority for the company is to create a network of excellent customer
service. Obtaining the desired result from the new recruits means a major
investment in training. The attrition rate in the industry is very high and it is seen
that almost every worker recruited by a company selling toys and books leaves the
company in a year’s time. This means that the company may get adequate return
on the investments it makes on the employee training, if the worker does not leave
the organization within a year of joining. One of the important factors for the high
turnover rate is the demanding nature of the job in this industry. They are planning
to set up sales teams than taking individual salesperson as the unit of performance
for the new chain stores. The sales teams will contribute towards improving the
quality of the service, identifying and solving any problems in service delivery, and
also brainstorming new opportunities in the market. This approach of team selling is
quite new to the industry and the company expects that this will deliver the desired
results.
Q.1 How can Karadi Tales attract best minds for jobs in the new chain stores? On what 06
groups the company’s recruitment efforts should focus? How should recruiting be
done?
Q.2 How should Karadi Tales go for selecting the best candidates? What measures and 06
characteristics should be used and why?
Q.3 How should Karadi Tales address the retention problem in the industry so that it 04
does not affect the company?

Page 3 of 3
 SLR-CD-32
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Banking Management
Indian Banking Structure (20407318)
Day & Date: Thursday,11-01-2024 Max. Marks:80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) All questions carry equal marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice questions. 16

1) State Bank of India is a ______.
a) Public Sector Bank b) Private Sector Bank
c) Joint Sector Bank d) Non-Nationalized bank
2) is the 3rd largest foreign bank of India in terms of branches.
a) Citi b) HSBC
c) Standard Chartered d) Royal Bank of Scotland
3) EXIM bank is a _______.
a) State-level institution b) Regional- level institution
c) All India institution d) International institution
4) _______ is the first development bank of the country.
a) ICICI b) IDBI
c) SFC d) IFCI
5) NABARD was set up essentially as a development bank for promoting: _____
a) Agriculture Development only b) Rural Development only
c) Both of The Above d) None of The Above
6) _____ is not the function of RBI.
a) Currency printing b) Credit control
c) Coin distribution d) Foreign currency custodian
7) The main function of EXIM bank is to _____.
a) Help RBI in foreign exchange regulation
b) To prevent unlicenced transaction
c) To conserve foreign exchange
d) To promote exports
8) Bank’s services include _______.
a) Net banking b) Mobile banking
c) Phone banking d) All the above
9) Banking functions centrally controlled by the ______.
a) Central Bank b) RBI
c) SBI d) Both [B] and [C]
10) _____ is the largest commercial bank in India.
a) Bank of India b) Axis Bank
c) State Bank of India d) HDFC

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 SLR-CD-32
11) The first Development Bank IFCI was established in ____.
a) 1948 b) 1947
c) 1949 d) 1950
12) _______ is not the work of RBI.
a) Bank of the banks
b) Credit controller
c) Custodian of foreign currency
d) Allocating funds directly to the farmers for agricultural development
13) RBI known as lender of last resort because: _____
a) It has to meet the credit need of citizens to whom no one else is willing
to lend
b) Banks lend to go to RBI as a last resort
c) It comes to help banks in times of crisis
d) All of the above
14) The primary function of the bank is to _____.
a) Accept deposit b) Issuing notes
c) Advising d) None of above
15) NABARD was set up with an initial capital of ______.
a) Rs. 50 Crore b) Rs. 100 Crore
c) Rs. 200 Crore d) None of The Above
16) HDFC bank is an example of______
a) Foreign Bank b) Public Bank
c) Private Bank d) None of these

Q.2 Write short notes on. 16

a) EXIM bank
b) NABARD

Q.3 Write short notes on. 16

a) Self-Help Group financing.
b) ECGC

Q.4 Answer the following question. 16

Differentiate between Public sector bank and Private sector bank giving examples.
OR
Write an explanatory note on the origin of banking system in India.

Page 2 of 3
 SLR-CD-32
Q.5 Attempt the following case. 16
Mallya who took over the business of his father after his demise at the age of 28
only saw his graph going high and there isn’t any turning back meanwhile. He
turned the business into a successful one and expanded his business by investing
in the airlines and liquor sector. His Kingfisher airlines have become the number
1 airline company and every passenger opted for the airlines to travel. The global
aviation industry in the year 2012 hit the ground because of various factors like
tumultuous financial markets and the slowdown economically.
His lavish lifestyle, a king-like living had made him become the brand icon and
kingfisher airlines were the result of it, its first take-off was in 2003 and within 2
years the airlines started commercial operations as well. From 4 flights at the start
to 104 flights, the airlines glitter in gold and got satisfying responses from the
passengers. So, after his decision to buy air Deccan, the kingfisher without having
known of its fate entered its pothole. In 2008, various speed breakers were made
to run the airlines in non-profitable routes too, hike in fuel price and the airlines
succumbed to it.
The airlines which once were celebrated over the world had been debt- trapped
and when it took measures to prevent the collapse it was too late. All the
international and domestic flights were canceled, shares steeped low and 2012
recorded 7,000 crore loss to the company. Meanwhile, the staff went on strike due
to the non-payment of salaries to them since 2008. Critics hold that the merging
of kingfisher with air Deccan was the main reason for its complete shutdown.
Indian express in 2015 reported that as a result of all the poor decisions and
inefficient company, Mallya owed loans from 17 Indian banks worst be SBI where
he has 1600 crore debt. That’s when he fled to Britain to escape the arrest.
Analyse the above case in the light of loan taken by Mallaya from the bank

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 SLR-CD-33
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Financial Management
Financial Decision Analysis (20407308)
Day & Date: Saturday, 30-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Choose the Correct alternative: 16

1) In _____analysis each items of assets is converted into percentage to Total
Assets and each item of capital and liabilities is expressed to Total Liabilities
and Capital fund.
a) Comparative Statement Analysis
b) Trend Analysis
c) Common-size Statement Analysis
d) All of the above
2) Increase in sundry Creditors over last year leads to _____ in working capital.
a) Increase b) No effect
c) Decrease d) None of these
3) If Percentage change in EBIT = 25%, Percentage change in sales =10%,
Percentage Change in EPS = 15% Calculate Degree of Operating Leverage.
a) 2.5 b) 3.33
c) 1.67 d) 1.33
4) If Percentage change in EPS = 20%, Percentage change in EBIT =15%, Percentage
Change in Sales = 10%. Calculate Degree of Financial Leverage.
a) 2.5 b) 1.33
c) 2 d) 1.5
5) If Percentage change in EPS = 15%, Percentage change in Sales =10%,
Percentage Change in EBIT = 8% Calculate Degree of Combine Leverage.
a) 2.5 b) 1.33
c) 1.875 d) 1.5
6) _____ can be defined as any statement containing financial data drafted in a
statement manner for arriving at some meaningful conclusion.
a) Ratio Analysis b) Break Even Chart
c) Financial Statement d) None of these
7) Financial Statements includes _____.
a) Income and expenditure Statement.
b) Balance Sheet
c) Funds Flow Statement
d) All of the above
8) _____ is a form of corporate restructuring in which the entity’s business
operations are segregated into one or more components.
a) Merger b) Strategic Alliance
c) Joint Venture d) Demerger

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 SLR-CD-33
9) _____ is/are features of capital Structure.
a) Solvency b) Conservatism
c) Flexibility d) All of these
10) _____ analysis helps the management to take an effective decision on whether
it would be better to finance a project with debt and equity.
a) Break Even b) Marginal Cost
c) EBIT-EPS d) Profitability
11) _____ is an acquisition of shares carrying voting rights in a company with a
view to gaining control over the assets and management of the company.
a) Reverse Merger b) Strategic Alliance
c) Joint Venture d) Takeover
12) Decrease in Working Capital is shown under _____ in funds flow statement.
a) Sources of Funds b) Funds from Operation
c) Application of Funds d) Balance sheet
13) The movement of cash in cash flows is classified as _____.
a) Operating activities b) Financial Activities
c) Investing activities d) All of the above
14) _____ of a company means recasting of company’s capital structure to suit to
particular situation of the business.
a) Venture Capital b) Share capital
c) Restructuring d) Leasing
15) _____ is/are types of Takeover.
a) Friendly Takeover b) Hostile Takeover
c) Bailout Takeover d) All of these
16) The portion of company’s net earnings that is paid out to ordinary share is
termed as_____.
a) Dividend b) Retained Earnings
c) Interest d) Tax

Q.2 Answer the following. 16

a) From the following information calculate Operating Leverage, Financial
Leverage and Combined Leverage:
Sales (1,00,000 Units) Rs.2,00,000/-
Variable Cost Per Unit Rs.0.70/-
Fixed Cost Rs.65,000/-
Interest Charges Rs.15,000/-
b) Explain different forms of corporate restructuring.

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 SLR-CD-33
Q.3 Attempt the following. 16
a) From the following Balance Sheet, Prepare a Common Size Statement:
Particulars 2019 2020
Assets
Cash 27,000 31,500
Debtors 2,20,000 2,11,000
Stock 1,00,000 1,26,000
Prepaid Expenses 11,000 21,000
Bills receivable 10,000 10,500
Fixed assets 6,35,000 6,50,000
Total Assets 10,03,000 10,50,000

Liabilities & Capital

Share Capital 6,58,000 7,00,000
Long Term Debt 2,25,000 2,00,000
Sundry Creditors 42,000 50,000
Other Current Liabilities 78,000 1,00,000
Total Liabilities 10,03,000 10,50,000
b) Define Capital Structure. Explain different factors affecting Capital Structure.

Q.4 Define Dividend Policy. Explain in detail determinants of dividend policy in detail. 16
OR
Perfect company Supplied the following information to you and request to compute to
cost of capital based on book Value as well as Market Value.
Source of Finance Book Value (Rs.) Market Value (Rs.) After Tax Cost (%)
Equity Capital 10,00,000 15,00,000 12
Long Term Debt 8,00,000 7,50,000 7
Short Term Debt 2,00,000 2,00,000 4
20,00,000 24,50,000

Q.5 Case Study: 16

Best Limited presents you the following Balance Sheet for the year 2018 and 2019
respectively:
Liabilities 2018 (Rs) 2019 (Rs) Assets 2018 (Rs) 2019 (Rs)
Share Capital 1,00,000 1,50,000 Fixed Assets 1,00,000 1,30,000
Profit & Loss A/c 60,000 80,000 Investment 4,000 8,000
Creditors 30,000 25,000 Stock 80,000 1,09,000
Provision for Tax 20,000 25,000 Debtors 30,000 40,000
Proposed Dividend 10,000 15,000 Cash 15,000 20,000
Depreciation Fund 9,000 12,000
2,29,000 3,07,000 2,29,000 3,07,000
Additional Information:
a) Tax and Dividend were paid Rs. 22,000/- and Rs. 12,000/- respectively during year
b) Fixed Asset Costing Rs. 8,000/- accumulated depreciation charged on same was
Rs. 6,000/- was sold for Rs. 4,000/-
You are required to prepare
a) Statement showing changes in Working Capital
b) Funds Flow Statement.

Page 3 of 3
 SLR-CD-34
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Tourism and Hospitality Management
Tourism and Travel Management (20407310)
Day & Date: Sunday, 31-12-2023 Max. Marks:80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice questions. 16

1) National tourism includes _______.
a) Domestic tourism b) Outbound tourism
c) Domestic & Outbound tourism d) None of these
2) Environmental based tourism is known as ______.
a) Domestic tourism b) International tourism
c) Eco- tourism d) Out bound tourism
3) A wholesaler who sells package tours is called a ______.
a) Travel Agent b) Tour operator
c) Travel agency d) None of the above
4) The _____ is a travel plan that includes all details such as the route of the
trip, distance, travel time, activities, accommodation type, and mode of
transportation.
a) Tour b) Package
c) Travel Book d) Itinerary
5) IATA stands for _______.
a) The International Air Transport Association
b) The International Available Transport Association
c) The Internal Air Transport Association
d) The International Air Transport Army
6) ______ is known as the Father of the Travel Agency Business.
a) Thomas Cook b) Jeena and Co.
c) Lee and Muirhead d) Cox and kings
7) Itinerary is also known as _____.
a) Tour Plan b) Tour Product
c) Travel Facilities d) Tour services
8) _____ is a cultural tourism.
a) Tourism that focuses on outdoor activities and adventure
b) Tourism that focuses on the cultural heritage and history of a
destination
c) Tourism that focuses on luxury and exclusivity
d) Tourism that focuses on environmental conservation
9) Visiting historical places and experiencing the thrill of being a part of history
is known as ‘_____’.
a) Heritage Walk b) Dandi March
c) Trekking d) Cultural Walk
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 SLR-CD-34
10) Travelling to attend sports events comes under _______.
a) agro-tourism b) sports tourism
c) cultural tourism d) health tourism
11) MICE stands for _____.
a) Meetings Incentives Conferences Expositions
b) Meetings Incentives Customer Expositions
c) Meetings Incentives Conferences Expenditure
d) Money Incentives Conferences Expositions
12) A tour accompanied by qualified, trained and experienced tour managers
or guides is called _____.
a) Independent Tour b) Incentivized Tour
c) Escorted Tour d) Hosted Tour
13) _____ is not a component of tourism product.
a) Attractive b) Accessibility
c) Amenities d) Attitude
14) Scuba diving can be associated with ______.
a) Farm Tourism b) Eco Tourism
c) Adventure Tourism d) Green Tourism
15) Eco-Tourist is interested to visit a destination where there is ____.
a) Rich wildlife wealth
b) Unique wildlife species
c) Relatively unspoilt natural environment
d) Dense forest
16) _______ refers to the observation and interaction with local animal and
plant life in their natural habitats.
a) Wildlife tourism b) Responsible tourism
c) Wellness tourism d) Mountain tourism

Q.2 Write short notes on. 16

a) Scope of Tourism Entrepreneurship
b) Eco-tel and Eco resorts

Q.3 Write short notes on. 16

a) Importance of Tour Packaging
b) MICE documentation

Q.4 Answer the following question. 16

Define tourism. Explain its concept and components of tourism.
OR
Explain the importance of travel agency and tour operation in tourism industry.

Q.5 Write an explanatory note on various types of tourism. 16

Page 2 of 2
 SLR-CD-35
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Production and Materials Management
Logistics and Supply Chain Management (20407312)
Day & Date: Thursday,11-01-2024 Max. Marks:80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) All questions carry equal marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice questions. 16

1) The purpose of supply chain management is _____.
a) provide customer satisfaction.
b) improve quality of a product
c) Integrating supply and demand management.
d) increase production.
2) Logistics is the part of supply chain involved with the forward and reverse
flow of _____.
a) goods b) services
c) cash d) all of the above
3) ______ and physical distribution are the two major operations of logistics.
a) Supply chain management b) Material management
c) Logistics management d) All of the above
4) Which of the following is not a component of 4 PL?
a) control room b) resource providers
c) information d) recycling
5) _____, production control and physical distribution are the three major
operations of logistics.
a) Supply chain Management b) Materials Management
c) Logistics Management d) Personal Management
6) Which of the following is not an area to responsibilities for a logistics manager?
a) Inventory b) Marketing
c) Warehousing d) Purchasing
7) In Railway transportation the ownership in with _____.
a) Manufacturer b) Third Party
c) Buyer d) Government
8) _____is a part of development of facility structures.
a) Transportation b) Warehousing
c) Sorting d) Logistics
9) The first thing that the consumer will notice about the product is the
______of the product.
a) Price b) Packaging
c) Expiry date d) Bar Code

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 SLR-CD-35
10) The sequence of a typical manufacturing supply chain is ______.
a) Storage-Supplier-manufacturing-storage-distributor-retailer-customer
b) Supplier-Storage-manufacturing-storage-distributor-retailer-customer
c) Supplier-Storage-manufacturing- distributor-storage-retailer-customer
d) Supplier-Storage-manufacturing-storage- retailer-distributor-customer
11) The purpose of supply chain management is _____.
a) provide customer satisfaction
b) improve quality of a product
c) integrating supply and demand management
d) increase production
12) _____refers to supply chain practices that strive to reduce energy and
environmental footprints in terms of freight distribution.
a) Inbound Logistics b) Green Logistics
c) Outbound Logistics d) SCM
13) _____ involves streamlining the distribution process in terms of physical
and information efficiency.
a) Technical Integration b) Channel Integration
c) Channel Hierarchy d) Vertical Marketing System
14) _____ is the task of buying goods of right quality, in the right quantities, at
the right time and at the right price.
a) Supplying b) Scrutinizing
c) Selling d) Purchasing
15) The ____ type of material handling system is the simplest and cheapest
form of material handling system.
a) Manual system b) Mechanized system
c) Semi-automated system d) Automated system
16) Conveyor belt facilitate continuous movement of material over a ______ Route.
a) Fixed b) Flexible
c) Rotational d) Safe

Q.2 Answer the following question. 16

a) Discuss Global Supply Chain Management.
b) Write Importance of Warehousing.

Q.3 Answer the following question. 16

a) Explain Packaging and its importance, packaging materials.
b) Write short note on 3PL and 4PL service providers.

Q.4 Answer the following long answers. 16

What are the objectives of transport in logistics? Discuss transportation strategy.
OR
Explain the meaning and objectives of Supply Chain Management. Also explain
Principles of Supply Chain Management.

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 SLR-CD-35
Q.5 Case Study: 16
Deere & Company (brand name John Deere) is well known for the manufacture
and supply of machinery used in agriculture, construction and forestry, as well as
diesel engines and lawn care equipment. In 2014, Deere & Company was listed
80th in the Fortune 500 America’s ranking and in 2013 was 307th in the Fortune
Global 500 ranking.
Deere & company has a complex product range, which includes a mix of heavy
machinery for the consumer market and industrial equipment which is made to
order. Retail activity is extremely seasonal, with the majority of sales made
between March and July.
The company was replenishing dealers inventory on a weekly basis, by direct
shipment and cross-docking operations, from source warehouses located near
Deere & Company’s manufacturing facilities. This operation was proving too costly
and too slow, so the company embarked on an initiative to achieve a 10% supply
chain cost reduction over a four-year period. The company undertook a supply
chain network redesign program, resulting in the commissioning of intermediate
“merge centers” and optimization of cross-dock terminal locations.
Deere & Company also began consolidating shipments and using break-bulk
terminals during the seasonal peak. The company also increased its use of third
party logistics providers and effectively created a network which could be
tactically optimized at any given point in time. Deere & Company’s supply chain
cost management achievements included inventory reduction of $1 billion, a
significant reduction in customer delivery lead times (from ten days to five or
less) and annual transportation cost savings of around 5%.
Question:
a) Analyze the case, identify problem.
b) Suggest alternatives and identify best alternative.

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 SLR-CD-36
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGEAND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
System Management
ERP and SPD (20407320)
Day & Date: Sunday, 31-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Select the appropriate alternative from the given alternatives: 16

1) The ____ adapt any new technologies and changes in IT very quickly that makes
changes in future business environments possible.
a) Management b) Employees
c) ERP Vendors d) Government
2) _____ is the phase where ERP is made available to the entire organization.
a) End User Training b) Going Live
c) Testing d) Reengineering
3) Using _____ helps in dealings with customer for servicing, marketing, and
selling in an organized, systematic way resulting in increasing customer
loyalty and decreasing customer agitation.
a) ERP b) SCM
c) CRM d) MIS
4) Which of the following has the least integration of information systems?
a) Web-integrated enterprise resource planning
b) Materials requirements planning
c) Enterprise resource planning
d) Manufacturing resource planning
5) What is at the heart of ERP is system?
a) Information b) Employees
c) Database d) Customer
6) At highest level, a DFD is referred to as _____.
a) Scope Diagram b) Context diagram
c) Level 1 DFD d) Level 2 DFD
7) _____ is the predecessor of ERP.
a) MRP b) SCM
c) MIS d) BPR
8) Key Enablers of BPR include
a) Total Quality Management b) Human resource
c) IT - information & Technology d) None of these
9) _____ is the radical Change in Business Processes.
a) Decision Trees b) Business Process Reengineering
c) Graphical user Interface d) SDLC

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 SLR-CD-36
10) Business process reengineering disadvantages include:
a) It doesn’t suit every business need as it depends on factors like size and
availability of resources.
b) In some cases, the efficiency of one department was improved at the
expense of the overall process.
c) This BPR approach does not provide an immediate resolution.
d) All of the above
11) The entity is represented in the E-R diagram by _____.
a) Rectangular box b) Circle
c) Diamond d) Filled diamond
12) Accuracy, relevancy and timeliness are the characteristic features of _____.
a) Data b) Knowledge
c) Networking d) Information
13) _____ is the technology of sensing, coding, transmitting, translating and
transforming.
a) ERP b) EIS
c) IT d) MRP
14) Material Requirement Planning (MRP) is a computerized system to plan the
requirements for _____.
a) Finished goods b) Raw materials
c) Work in progress d) All of the above
15) Which of the following is not an advantage of ERP systems?
a) Today’s ERP systems can cover a wide range of functions and integrate
them into one unified database.
b) Ability to customize an organizations requirement.
c) Ability to integrate business operations with accounting and financial
modules.
d) Ability to generate more sales.
16) ERP Stands for _____.
a) Enterprise Resource Planning b) Enterprise Ratio Planning
c) Enterprise Reverse Planning d) None of these.

Q.2 Answer the following question. 16

a) Explain Role and skills of software engineer.
b) Explain Business process reengineering in detail.

Q.3 Write Short Notes on following. 16

a) Explain various components of ERP in detail.
b) Describe in detail the process of designing forms and reports.

Q.4 Answer any one of the following. 16

a) What is ERP? What are the various phases of ERP implementation life cycle?
OR
b) What is input and output design? Briefly discuss characteristics/essentials of
good design. Briefly discuss design issues.

Q.5 Define SDLC. Explain Process of SDLC in detail. 16

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 SLR-CD-37
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Human Resource Management
Human Resource Initiatives (20407314)
Day & Date: Monday, 01-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice questions 16

1) An organization where employees are excited to come to work are called _____.
a) Employer of the choice b) Employee of the chance
c) Employer of the chance d) Employee of the choice
2) _____ is a database of candidates who have submitted their resumes for future
open position.
a) Employer Pool b) Talent Pool
c) Trainee Pool d) None of the above
3) The concept of knowledge management is closely associated with _____.
a) Intellectual capital b) Working Capital
c) Accountability d) Responsibility
4) Knowledge management involves _____.
a) Transforming knowledge resources
b) Identifying relevant information and then
c) Disseminating it
d) All of the above
5) _____ knowledge exists in people’s minds.
a) Tacit b) Explicit
c) Both d) None of the above
6) The APO stands for _____.
a) Asian Probability Organization.
b) Asian Productivity Organization
c) Asian Pacific Organization
d) Asian Profit Organization
7) Information is _____.
a) Structured & Unorganized b) Raw & Unorganized
c) Structured & Organized d) Row and Organized
8) The purpose of _____ is to communicate an organization’s values,
philosophy, and culture.
a) Policies b) Procedure
c) Knowledge d) Talent
9) “Steps involved to get vacation approval” is an example of _____.
a) Policy b) Survey
c) Observation d) Procedure

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 SLR-CD-37
10) Inferred from the behavior of manager is a _____ type of HR Policy.
a) Implied b) Explicit
c) Normal d) Unusual
11) HR policies help company adhere to _____.
a) Corporate governance
b) Regulation of employees.
c) Addressing employee grievances and problems
d) None of the above
12) A person whose current abilities reflect a strong probability that they can
develop into a successful leader.
a) Manager b) A high-potential employee
c) Working Employee d) Motivator
13) _____ is someone with the ability, engagement, and aspiration to rise to and
succeed in more senior, critical positions.
a) A high-potential employee b) A super human
c) Management trainee d) Supervisor
14) _____ approach is characterized by promoting or identifying employees that
have been with the company the longest.
a) Buddy Approach b) Tenure Approach
c) Condition Approach d) Mentor Approach
15) _____ employees are emotionally disconnected from their work and workplace.
a) Engaged b) Not Engaged
c) Talented d) knowledgeable
16) Medium to high satisfaction but low contribution is termed as _____.
a) Crash & Burners b) Almost Engaged
c) Honeymooners & Hamsters d) Not Engaged

Q.2 Answer the following short answers. 16

a) Define the talent management. Write down its concept, objective and
development and retention of talent.
b) Define knowledge management. Outline the process of knowledge management.

Q.3 Answer the following 16

a) Write down the definition and concept of employee engagement & degree of
employee engagement.
b) Describe the difference between HR policies and procedure. Write the
characteristics of HR policy.

Q.4 Attempt any one 16

a) Define the ‘High potential employees. Enlist the types of potential employee
approaches.
OR
b) Write down the meaning, and advantages of competency mapping. Describe
the ‘Identification of competency and requirement of competency based HRM’.

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 SLR-CD-37
Q.5 Analyze the following case study. 16
Another vital retirement issue is one with the loss of experience and information.
With the retirement the employees leave the workplace, taking years of expertise
and ability all along with them. But American Express found a way to retain these
experience and knowledge through their pilot program. AMEX created a team of
workers transformation group that would allow retiring members to step by step
provide up some of their day to day responsibilities. In return, the person would
spend some of this time mentoring and educating classes to successors. This
resulted in a phased retirement, permitting personnel to leave steadily and revel in
extra time whilst nevertheless taking part in a component of their preceding salary,
and regular benefits. This additionally meant that some personnel stayed a year or
more previous traditional retirement age. AMEX believes this software is a
success, allowing senior personnel to experience their final years of work in a
decreased capacity, as properly as educating the current group of workers for
future success.
Question
Analyze the employee engagement strategy at AMEX.

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 SLR-CD-38
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
International Business Management
Export policy, Procedures and Document (20407316)
Day & Date: Thursday, 11-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) All questions carry equal marks.

Q.1 Choose correct alternatives given below. 16

1) Foreign Trade Policy is a set of guidelines and instructions established by
the _____.
a) DGFT b) MSME
c) Govt. of India d) None of these
2) Trade Policy is prepared and announced by the _____.
a) DGFT b) MSME
c) Govt. of India d) Ministry of Commerce
3) The IEC number is issued by the _____
a) Central Government
b) State Government
c) Director General of Foreign trade
d) Ministry of commerce
4) Dumping refers to _____.
a) Reducing tariffs
b) Sale of goods abroad at a lower price, below their cost and price in
their home market
c) Buying goods at low prices abroad and selling at higher prices locally
d) Expensive goods selling for low prices
5) _____ are not required for obtaining an export license?
a) IEC number certificate
b) Letter of credit
c) Registration cum membership certificate
d) Bank account number
6) Pre-shipment credit is available from Exim bank is available for _____.
a) period up to 180 days.
b) period beyond 180 days.
c) turnkey projects only.
d) foreign currency component only
7) The standard policy of ECGC covers the risk of _____.
a) buyers failure to obtain import license
b) insolvency of the collecting bank
c) cancellation of the import licence in the buyers country.
d) all the above.

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 SLR-CD-38
8) _____ is not a document related to the fulfil the customs formalities.
a) Shipping bill b) Export licence
c) Letter of insurance d) Proforma invoice
9) An application for customs clearance of import cargo is _____.
a) Bill of lading b) Bill of exchange
c) Shipping bill d) Bill of Entry
10) The small exporter’s policy of ECGC is issued to _____.
a) any exporter in the SSI category
b) any exporter who is exempt from excise duty.
c) an exporter with an expected turnover of Rs.1crore.
d) an exporter with an anticipated turnover in the next twelve months not
exceeding of Rs. 50 lakhs.
11) FOB stands for _____.
a) Free on Board b) Fire on Board
c) Free on Band d) Fire on Back
12) INCOTERMS is the abbreviation used for _____.
a) International Commercial Terms
b) Intended Commercial Terms
c) Individual Commercial Terms
d) Indian Commercial Terms
13) DFIA scheme came into force from _____.
a) 1st May 2008 b) 1st May 2007
st
c) 1 May 2006 d) 1st May 2009
14) Ex W means _____.
a) Excellent Work b) Ex Works
c) Excused Work d) Express Works
15) _____ is a prerequisite for export and import.
a) IEC number b) License
c) Status d) None of the above
16) A receipt issued by the commanding officer of the ship when the cargo is
loaded on the ship is known as _____.
a) Shipping receipt b) Mate receipt
c) Cargo receipt d) Charter receipt

Q.2 Write short Note on. 16

a) Letter of credit
b) Government regulation on export import

Q.3 Write short Note on. 16

a) Export Payment Terms
b) IEC Code

Q.4 Answer the following question. 16

a) Write an explanatory note on pre-shipment and post-shipment export
finance.
OR
b) Explain the concept, importance and role of ECGC.

Q.5 Explain in details the document required for processing an export order. 16

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 SLR-CD-39
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - III) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Agriculture & Co-operative Management
Agriculture Marketing (20407322)
Day & Date: Thursday, 11-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All Questions are compulsory
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Choose the right Answer. 16

1) Affordability, Availability, Acceptability and Awareness are the terms
generally referred as 4A’s in _____ marketing.
a) Social b) Rural
c) Metropolitan d) Urban
2) _____ is agricultural production carried out according to an agreement
between a buyer and farmers, which establishes conditions for the
production and marketing of a farm product or products.
a) Sole trading b) Joint venture
c) Contract Farming d) Cooperative firm
3) AGMARK is certification mark for _____.
a) Industrial market b) Agriculture produce
c) Industrial produce d) Agriculture finance
4) What does QA and QC stand for?
a) Quality Assurance and Quality Coding.
b) Quality Acknowledge and Quality control.
c) Quality Adherence and Quality Credit.
d) Quality Assurance and Quality control.
5) _____ is the act of storing goods that will be sold or distributed later.
a) Transportation b) Warehousing
c) Packaging d) Purchasing
6) _____ is a national apex body which was set up in 1966 by the packaging
and allied industries and the Ministry of Commerce, for improving the
packaging standards in the country.
a) IIP b) NABARD
c) AIMS d) IPS
7) _____ of the following is an agricultural input.
a) Motorcycle b) Farm Machinery
c) Plant destroying chemicals d) All of these
8) _____ relates to the mechanical structures and devices used in farming or
other agriculture activities.
a) Agricultural machinery b) Agricultural electricity
c) Agricultural construction d) Industrial equipment

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 SLR-CD-39
9) _____ involves creating, organizing, pricing, and distributing products and
services to ensure that rural residents have access to essentials at
reasonable costs.
a) Urban marketing b) Semi urban marketing
c) Metro marketing d) Rural marketing
10) Prices are determined by the equality of _____ of a commodity.
a) Cost and Demand b) Demand and Control
c) Demand and Supply d) Cost and Stock
11) The _____ are the traditional system of markets like the periodic markets or
hats and fairs held in rural areas.
a) Secondary rural markets b) Tertiary rural markets
c) Terminal rural markets d) Primary rural markets
12) It is one of the characteristics of rural consumer that they prefer _____
products and purchase only the required quantity of goods.
a) Affordable b) Costly
c) Elite d) Luxurious
13) Directorate of Marketing and Information works under the guidance of
Ministry of _____.
a) Commerce & Industry
b) Corporate affairs
c) Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
d) Rural Development
14) Regulated marketis a wholesale market where buying and selling is
regulated and controlled by _____ the through the market committee.
a) Municipal Corporation b) State government
c) Central d) All of these
15) _____ is/are driver/s of growth of agricultural marketing in India.
a) Technological change b) Transportation and communication
c) Urbanisation d) All of these
16) The process of assembling, storage, grading, packaging and distribution of
different agricultural products is known as _____.
a) Agricultural management b) Agricultural diversification
c) Agricultural banking d) Agricultural marketing

Q.2 Answer the following. 16

a) Rural Market Segmentation
b) Means of Transportation

Q.3 Answer the following 16

a) Contract Marketingin farming and its advantages.
b) Brief out various important farm inputs.

Q.4 Answer the following. 16

a) What is the Traditional Agricultural Marketing system? Explain in brief about
the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection.
OR
b) What is Agricultural Marketing? Explain various components of Agricultural
Market in detail.

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 SLR-CD-39
Q.5 Case Study
India has huge buffer stocks of sugar. The SMP (Statutory Minimum Price) for
sugarcane is still being maintained by the government. Trading on future
exchanges is unfamiliar for most people in India. In a scenario like this, if we give
a platform for hedging and at the same time we go in for total decontrol, the
results can be chaotic. Milers with large holdings may decide to dump in the
futures market and exercise delivery. In a decontrolled environment, there will be
no release mechanism to control that. Naturally buyers in the market may also
not come to the exchange for hedging anticipating a collapse in prices. That will
not help the industry. The banks and financial institutions which have financed
the industry may also insist on using the exchange to liquidate their holdings
immediately. Farmers not knowing how to hedge at this point of time, may
encounter less attractive prices from millers. In a phased out decontrol
environment, the monthly release mechanism will move towards quarterly
release, and so on- the following benefits accrue to the millers, traders and
consumers. If there is excessive speculation and there is a big open position at
the end of the near month contract, the existing quota system will make traders
square up the transaction; the release mechanism will act as a brake to reduce
open positions.
Similarly, exercise volatility in prices can be contained. Moreover in the early
period, the intermediaries/ participants in the market may create an outstanding
monopoly position without releasing the ramifications of that. This type of
situation would have a disastrous effect on the economy, millers, consumers,
farmers and the rest. The release mechanism will put a check in the creation of
such a situation by intermediaries, while trading on the exchanges. Therefore
there is a need to continue with the existing quota system of release till the
intermediaries/players in the market are fully geared up to meet the challenges.
Phased out decontrol-over a period from monthly to quarterly- will not help in
sustaining the price level, but also help the environment of the exchange to
mature, thereby creating better liquidity for participants during the period of
transaction.
1) Analyse the Case and write in your own words. 05
2) For a long time there was system of dual pricing (controlled price and open 06
market) Do you think this can continue now?
3) What is the appropriate method to change from control era to open era? 04
4) Give a suitable title to this case. 01

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 SLR-CD-40
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Business Ethics & Corporate Governance (20407401)
Day & Date: Thursday, 14-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q.1 Select the appropriate alternative from the given alternatives: 16
1) Values and Ethics shape the _____.
a) Corporate utility b) Corporate discipline
c) Corporate Culture d) Corporate differences
2) The moral principles, standards of behaviours, or set of values that guide a
person’s action in the workplace is called _____.
a) Office place ethics b) Factory place ethics
c) Behavioral Ethics d) Work place ethics
3) _____ encourages good ethics in the workplace.
a) Transparency
b) Fair treatment to the employees of all levels
c) both a and b
d) Bribe
4) _____ is ethical issues in financial markets.
a) Churning b) illegal dividend payment
c) Creative accounting d) None of these
5) Disqualification of directors may result from breaches under the_____.
a) Health and Safety Act b) Financial Services Act
c) Sale of Goods Act d) Companies Act
6) In large corporations the _____are the legal overseas of management.
a) CEO b) Shareholder
c) Board Members d) None of the above
7) There are _____ conditions that if satisfied, change the moral status of
whistle blowing.
a) Three b) Four
c) Five d) six
8) One classic example of whistle blowing is _____.
a) Ford pinto case b) Lincoln case
c) Toyota case d) None of the above
9) _____ means by the phrase CSR.
a) Corporate social responsibility
b) Company social responsibility
c) Corporate society responsibility
d) company society responsibility

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 SLR-CD-40
10) Ethics is to do with _____.
a) The wider community b) Business
c) Right and Wrong d) Nothing
11) _____ legislation relates to the concept of business ethics.
a) Food Act b) Building regulations
c) Freedom of Information Act d) All of the
12) The social economy partnership philosophy emphasizes _____.
a) Co-operation and Assistance
b) Profit maximisation
c) Competition
d) Restricting resources and support
13) _____ is standards of behaviour that groups expect of their members.
a) Codes of conduct b) group values
c) group norms d) organizational norms
14) An organization that is owned by shareholders but managed by agents on
their behalf is conventionally known as the modern_____.
a) Conglomerate b) Corporation
c) Company d) Firm
15) The modern corporation has four characteristics these are limited liability,
legal personality, centralized management and _____.
a) Fiduciary duty b) Stakeholders
c) Shareholders d) Transferability
16) The view that sees profit maximization as the main objective is known
as _____.
a) Shareholder theory b) Principal agent problem
c) Stakeholder theory d) Corporation theory

Q.2 Answer the following short questions. 16

a) Define Business Ethics. Explain the importance of ethics in business.
b) Explain the ethical issues in Information technology.

Q.3 Answer the following short answers. 16

a) Deontological Ethical theory
b) Ethical Decision Making
Q.4 Attempt any one of the following. 16
a) Explain the relationship between values, norms, beliefs and standard.
OR
b) Explain the concept of social audit and its relevance to corporate social
responsibility and corporate citizenship.

Page 2 of 3
 SLR-CD-40
Q.5 Attempt the following case study. 16
No Minor Offence- Census data reveals high level of underage marriages.
Census statistics are generally full of surprises. But this one is startling 6.4 million
Indians under the age of 18 are already married. That’s not all. As many as 1.3
lakh girls under 18 are widowed and another 56000 are divorced or separated.
The legal marriageable age for women is 18, for men 21. A century had a half
after Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar;s crusade against child marriage , the practice
persists. Obviously, the Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929 exists only on paper
and has not been able to deter parents form marrying off under aged sons and
daughters. The incidence is understandably higher in rural areas, nut not as low
as expected in the cities. It’s more common in the BlMARU states with Rajasthan
leading the way Ironically the Act renders all under age marriages illegal but not
void. Which means than an illegally married couple can stay married? It is
therefore, violated with impunity and hardly anyone is ever hauled up. Despite the
fact that child marriage is a criminal offence, action is rarely taken by the police.
Even civil society remains a passive spectator. There’s not enough outrage
against the practice even among the educated. The meagre penalty a fine of Rs
1,000 and imprisonment up to three months show s that the state does not view
the crime seriously.
The practice is linked to the curse of dowry- “Chhota chhora dehej kam mangta”
(the younger the groom, the smaller the dowry demand). Justifies many such
alliances. The grimmest part of the scenario is the physical havoc that early
marriage wreaks upon girls who are too young to bear the burden of maternity.
Under aged girls who are too young to bear the burden of maternity under- aged
girls who are already disadvantaged by a childhood of deprivation produce weak
offspring adding to the rate of maternal and child mortality. There is also the belief
that a daughter’s marriage is a sacred obligation that parents must fulfil at the
earliest. A new legislation. Prevention of Child Marriages Bill, 2004 to replace the
loophole ridden 1929 Act is awaiting Parliament’s approval. But legislation alone
is not enough. Compulsory registration of marriages is one way of tackling the
problem. Creating awareness about the ill-effects of such marriages and
mobilising committed social workers to intervene are others. However, social
workers have to often function in hostile conditions. The 1992 case of Bhanwari
Devi, the Rajasthan saathin for preventing a child marriage is chilling in the end
only education, economic security and increasing empowerment of women can
eliminate the problem.
Case Questions:
a) Discuss ethically the drawbacks you find in the under age marriages?
b) How does the increasing empowerment of women help eliminate problems
of this type?

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 SLR-CD-41
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Total Quality Management (20407402)
Day & Date: Friday, 15-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives from the options. 16
1) Juran's Quality trilogy emphasizes the roles of quality planning, quality
control and _____.
a) Quality Definition b) Quality enhancement
c) Quality improvement d) Quality maintenance
2) Kaizen is a Japanese term meaning _____.
a) Continuous improvement b) Just-in-time (JIT)
c) A fishbone diagram d) Setting standards
3) DMAIC is _____.
a) Develop, multiply, analyze, improve, check
b) Define, multiply, analyze, improve, control
c) Define, measure, analyze, improve, control
d) Define, manufacture, analyze, improve, control
4) Which of the following is not a target of Total Quality Management:
a) Customer Satisfaction
b) Reducing manpower
c) Continuous Cost Reduction
d) Continuous Operational Improvement
5) Juran’s quality management philosophy is based on three pillars namely
planning, control and _____.
a) Implementation b) Improvement
c) Monitor d) Design
6) A _____ chart can be used to identify the most frequently occurring defect.
a) Pareto b) Ishikawa
c) Histogram d) Scatter
7) _____ is about supplying customers with what they want when they want it.
a) JUT b) HET
c) JAT d) JIT
8) _____ is an award established by the U.S. Congress in 1987 to raise
awareness of quality management.
a) Demings Award
b) European quality award
c) Malcolm Baldridge national quality award
d) Juran’s award

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9) _____ is the systematic examination of an organization's quality
management system.
a) Quality control b) Quality Audit
c) Quality check d) Quality assurance
10) _____ sets the standard for Environmental Management Systems.
a) ISO 9000 b) ISO 14001
c) ISO 2000 d) ISO 2005
11) _____ is a process of measuring products, services, and processes against
those of organizations known to be leaders in one or more aspects of their
operations.
a) Quality Control b) Benchmarking
c) Standardization d) Marking
12) European Quality award was instituted in _____ by the European Foundation
for Quality Management.
a) 1992 b) 1982
c) 2002 d) 2012
13) _____ is an inventory control system used in just-in-time (JIT) manufacturing to
track production and order new shipments of parts and materials.
a) JIT b) Kanban
c) Poke yoke d) Six sigma
14) The “Zero Defect” phrase was given by _____.
a) Deming b) Juran
c) Mc.Cleland d) Philip B. Crosby
15) in 5s concept “Seiri” stands for _____.
a) Sort b) Set in Order
c) Shine d) Standardize
16) All of the following costs are likely to decrease as a result of better quality
except _____.
a) customer dissatisfaction costs b) Inspection costs
c) maintenance costs d) warranty and service costs

Q.2 Write short notes on. 16

a) Six sigma
b) 5-s concept

Q.3 Write short notes on. 16

a) Malcolm Baldridge national quality award
b) Quality Circles

Q.4 Answer the following 16

a) Define benchmarking. Explain its objectives and types of benchmarking.
OR
b) Define quality and types of quality. Explain the components of total quality
management.

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Q.5 Analyse the following case. 16
By the late 1970 xerox was losing significant market share to its Japanese
competitors. Not only where the Japanese product excellent but to xerox dismay
they were sold cheaper than xerox could manufacture them. Xerox found that it
had nine times as many suppliers as the Japanese companies and made seven
times as many manufacturing defects. Lead time for the new products where twice
as long, and production setup times where five times as long the competitors.
The company introduce benchmarking in 1980. Its process and practices were
benchmark against the best in and out of its industry. As a result of these efforts,
xerox save itself. Today xerox is a world class competitor capable of holding its
own in terms of technology, price, service and customer satisfaction against any
company. Benchmarking at xerox has reached into every facet of the company and
remains a primary feature of the corporation.
Analyse the case and answer the following questions
a) Why was benchmarking inevitable for xerox?
b) What type of benchmarking the company under took to overcome its
problem?
c) What benefits the company could obtain by implementing benchmarking
practices?

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Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Marketing Management
Integrated Marketing Communications & Digital Marketing (20407403)
Day & Date: Saturday, 16-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) all questions carry equal marks

Q.1 Multiple choice question. 16

1) _____ is certificates that give buyers a saving when they purchase specified
product.
a) Sample b) Premiums
c) Coupons d) Patronage rewards
2) Manufacturers direct most of their sales promotional budget towards _____.
a) Consumer b) Retailers and Wholesalers
c) Lobbyists d) Public such as shareholder
3) Types of skill development includes _____.
a) Speaking b) Listening
c) Negotiating d) All of these
4) In an interview when you do not know an answer, you should _____.
a) admit you do not know the answer
b) Keep guessing
c) Bluff
d) Remain quiet
\
5) An error is also known as _____.
a) Bug b) Debug
c) Cursor d) Icon
6) Web tracking software, online couponing and online referring are linked to ___.
a) La Bodega b) Search Engine Marketing
c) Measuring success d) Online Measurement
7) The number of clicks divided by the numbers of impressions refers to _____.
a) The CTR b) The CTY
c) The CAT d) The CTP
8) Measuring success includes all of the following except _____.
a) Reach b) Frequency
c) Gross ratio points d) Web Tracking
9) _____ defines a communication budget that is a fixed percentage of
forecasted sales.
a) Competitive Parity b) Affordable Budgeting
c) Percentage of sales d) Expensive budgeting

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10) Examples of electronic media except _____.
a) Websites b) Consumer Blogs
c) Online games d) Social Marketing
11) Forms of feedback may include _____.
a) Redeeming a coupon
b) Purchasing an item
c) Complaints about the item
d) All of the above
12) _____ tool of the promotional mix is defined as any paid form of non
personal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods or services by an
identified sponsor.
a) Advertising b) Public Relations
c) Direct Marketing d) Sales promotion
13) If a company wants to build a good corporate image it will probably use
_____ marketing communication mix tools.
a) Advertising b) Public Relations
c) Direct Marketing d) Sales promotion
14) _____ fragmentation has resulted in Media Fragmentation.
a) Market b) Purchasing
c) Product d) Public relations
15) _____ is well suited to highly targeted marketing efforts to building one to
one customer relationships.
a) Advertising b) Public relations
c) Sales promotion d) Direct Marketing
16) _____ advertising media type had almost 5% change.
a) Radio b) Television
c) Magazines d) Newspaper

Q.2 Answer the following. (Short answers) 16

a) Explain the concept of direct marketing.
b) Explain social media marketing.

Q.3 Answer the following. (Short answers) 16

a) Explain future of advertising agency.
b) Explain Event Management.

Q.4 Answer any one of the following. (Long answers) 16

a) Explain how to develop and execute public relation programs.
OR
b) Explain the role of promotional mix elements in integrated marketing.

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Q.5 Case Study 16
Emirates
Emirates started with two leased aircraft in 1985 and have never looked back
since then. The airline company currently operates 265 aircraft to over 155
destinations.
Emirates’ Integrated Marketing Communication Approach:
Traditional Media
Emirates' commercials and print advertisements in significant media highlight
the airline’s new products, flying routes, and aircraft.
Event Sponsorship
The airline actively sponsors a bunch of sports events like soccer, horse racing,
and tennis. In addition to that, it has signed a sponsorship deal with large
football clubs like Arsenal. Its presence in the Asian Football Confederation has
also ensured a high level of visibility across Asia.
Owned Media
Owned Media
The company publishes two in-flight magazines to reach its customers. A
brilliant in-flight entertainment system allows the airline to publicize its latest
offers, partners, and services. Furthermore, the company's official retail website
enables customers to purchase branded merchandise.
Millennial Appeal
The airline is adopting a sustainable environmental strategy to protect natural
resources and reduce air pollution. Being a step ahead and ensuring that their
fleet is up-to-date with the latest, most fuel-efficient aircraft. Emirates uses a
variety of marketing communication tools in an integrated way to deliver a
unified message:
The high quality of its services
Emirates portrays the lofted quality of its airline services as an underlying theme
for all its marketing activities.
Emirates' Integrated Marketing Communication Channels:
• Television commercials
• Print advertisements
• Sponsorships
• Charitable foundations
• In-plane advertisements
• Internet marketing
• Trade Promotions.
The above communication tools have helped Emirates to appeal to a large
number of travelers all over the world, and create a positive vibe all-around.

Case Questions
a) Explain the role of International advertising and promotion with reference to
above case study
b) Explain the role of promotional mix element in international marketing.

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Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
Financial System of India, Markets & Service (20407406)
Day & Date: Sunday, 17-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q.1 Multiple Choice Questions. 16
1) A stock broker is a member of _____.
a) SEBI b) Any stock exchange
c) Recognised stock exchange d) None of above
2) _____ is also called zero coupon bond.
a) Trade bills b) Call money
c) Treasury bills d) Commercial papers
3) Futures contracts are regularly traded on the _____.
a) Chicago Board of Trade.
b) New York Stock Exchange.
c) American Stock Exchange.
d) Chicago Board of Options Exchange.
4) _____ is an example of money.
a) Currency notes b) Time deposits
c) Current account deposits d) Saving account deposits
5) he first introduction of Mutual Funds in India occurred in which of the
following years?
a) 1963 b) 1986
c) 1956 d) 1943
6) When was the first organised commodity futures market started in India?
a) 1874 b) 1867
c) 1875 d) 1888
7) _____ is correct about Bombay stock exchange.
a) It is the oldest exchange of India
b) It is also known as Dalal Street
c) Its share index is called as SENSEX
d) All of above
8) An investor can acquire equity shares through _____.
a) Secondary market only
b) Through the primary market or secondary market
c) Money market
d) Primary market only
9) Organised banking sector comprises of _____.
a) Commercial bank b) Foreign bank
c) Co-operative bank d) All of above

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10) Commercial bills market is a part of _____.
a) Organised money market b) Unorganised money market
c) Stock Market d) Capital Market
11) A _____ is a trust that pools the savings of a number of investors who share
common financial goals.
a) Shares b) Mutual Funds
c) Government Securities d) Derivatives
12) _____ is/are the instruments of money market?
a) Call money b) Certificate of deposits
c) Trade bills d) All of the above
13) Primary market is also known as _____.
a) Capital Market b) Money market
c) Future market d) New issue market
14) OCTEI was started on the lines of _____.
a) BSE b) NSE
c) NASDAQ d) NYSE
15) Which of the following is not a problem with an interest rate forward
contract?
a) Low interest rate b) Default risk
c) Lack of liquidity d) Finding a counterparty
16) _____ is not an instrument of money market.
a) Call money b) Commercial papers
c) Bills of exchange d) Securities of companies

Q.2 Write short notes on. 16

a) Constituents of Secondary Market
b) Options & Swap

Q.3 Writ short notes on. 16

a) Functions of SEBI
b) Components of formal financial system

Q.4 Answer the following. 16

What is the meaning of IPO? Explain the steps in public issue
OR
What is commodity market? Explain the types and participants in commodity market.

Q.5 Analyze the following case study: 16

Mr. Sham is conservative investor he likes to invest only in fixed deposits, Post
office and PPF and also, he has less knowledge regarding investment in share
market and mutual funds. But he heard from his friend that Mutual Funds offer
good returns and they are also considered as one of the better options before
directly investing in share market. So, Mr. Sham wants to know all things about
mutual funds investment and he is consulting you as Financial Planner or
investment advisor.
You as Investment advisor explain to Mr. Sham:
a) Concept of Mutual Fund
b) Mutual fund Structure and Constituent
c) Types of Mutual Funds Schemes
d) Concept of SIP and One time Investment

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Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Tourism and Hospitality Management
Accommodation Management (20407409)
Day & Date: Wednesday, 20-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q.1 Multiple choice question. 16
1) ______ refers to a dining system where the guest serves themselves.
a) Back bar b) Banquet
c) Cocktail d) Buffet
2) The following takes care of complaint handling _____.
a) Travel desk b) Receptionist
c) GRE d) Both b & c
3) The department normally responsible for servicing rooms _____.
a) Reception b) Housekeeping
c) Porterage d) Maintenance
4) _____ is the head of the housekeeping department.
a) Chef De Cuisine b) Executive Housekeeper
c) Engineer d) None of these
5) The person responsible for the landscapes and gardens of the hotel
premises is ______.
a) Florist b) Horticulturist
c) Public area supervisor d) Gardener
6) The job of a _____ is a mammoth task because he keeps track of all linen
as they would number in thousands.
a) Linen Room Supervisors b) Uniform Room Attendants
c) Linen Room Attendant d) Linen changer
7) _____ is responsible for the cleanliness, maintenance and presentability of
all public areas.
a) Floor Supervisor b) Public Area Supervisor
c) Helper d) Head Houseman
8) _____ is responsible for the supply of clean dry towels, soaps and
Perfumeries.
a) Night supervisor b) Cleaner
c) Clock Room Attendants d) House keeper
9) _____ are also known as chamber maids or room boys.
a) Room attendants b) Cleaners
c) House keepers d) Receptionists

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10) _____ a place where the washing and finishing of clothes and other
washable articles are carried out.
a) Spa b) Kitchen
c) Laundry d) Ironing place
11) ______ deals with the provision of restaurant services.
a) Food and beverages b) Reception department
c) Accommodation department d) Housekeeping
12) ______ procures out -of-stock items for housekeeping.
a) Reception counters b) Accommodation department
c) The purchase department d) Food and beverages
13) Room allocation means _____.
a) Having enough rooms
b) Room status
c) Securing a vacant ready room
d) Room diary
14) Important aspect in hospitality industry is ______.
a) HRM b) Accountancy
c) Engineering d) Architecture
15) ______ is necessary for improving and upgrading their knowledge and skills
in relation to the respective jobs they are handling.
a) Recruitment b) Selection
c) Training and development d) Coordination
16) ______ function to keeps the morale of the employees high.
a) Induction b) Recruitment
c) Motivation d) Control

Q.2 Write Short Notes: 16

a) Guest Safety
b) Designing a customer feedback form

Q.3 Write Short Notes: 16

a) Eco housekeeping
b) Importance of Facility management in Hotels

Q.4 Answer the following question. 16

a) What is the importance of interior designing and decoration in hospitality
industry?
OR
b) Write an explanatory note on legal concerns for front office operations.

Q.5 Answer the following question. 16

What is meant by housekeeping department? What are the roles and
responsibilities of housekeeping department?

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Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Production and Materials Management
Industrial Engineering (20407412)
Day & Date: Monday, 18-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions carry equal marks.
2) All questions are compulsory.

Q.1 Multiple choice question. 16

1) The average time recorded by work study man for an operation is called ____.
a) Standard time b) Normal time
c) Representative time d) None of these
2) What does symbol O imply in work study?
a) Operation b) Inspection
c) Transportation d) Delay
3) How can employers prevent/reduce ergonomic hazards?
a) Engineering Controls b) Administrative Controls
c) Personal Protective Equipment d) All of the above
4) The following chart(s) record the movements
a) operation process chart b) flow process chart
c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’ d) None of the above
5) What does symbol ‘D’ imply in work study?
a) Operation b) Inspection
c) Transportation d) Delay
6) There are various methods to reduce cost of production except _____.
a) Increase in production output
b) Reduction in number of rejections
c) Maintaining maximum inventory levels
d) Producing Standardized products
7) The correct order of procedure in method study is ______.
a) Select - Record - Examine - Develop - Define - Install - Maintain
b) Select - Define - Examine - Develop - Record - Install - Maintain
c) Select - Record - Develop - Examine - Define - Install - Maintain
d) Select - Record - Examine - Define - Develop - Install - Maintain
8) A diagram showing the path followed by men and materials while performing
a task is known as ______.
a) String Diagram b) Flow process chart
c) Travel chart d) Flow diagram
9) Work study comprises following main techniques ______.
a) method study and work measurement
b) method study and time study
c) time study and work measurement
d) method study and job evaluation
e) value analysis and work measurement.
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10) Productivity is the ______ of production system.
a) Measurement b) Efficiency
c) Both (A) and (B) d) None of the above
11) Travel charts are used to ______.
a) analyse material handling
b) determine inventory control difficulties
c) plan material handling procedure and routes
d) All of these
12) Work study examines _____.
a) method b) duration of work
c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’ d) None of the above
13) String diagram is used for ______.
a) For checking the relative values of various layouts
b) When a group of workers are working at a place
c) Where processes require the operator to be moved from one work
place to another
d) All of the above
14) In outline process chart, the horizontal lines represent ______.
a) general flow of process
b) materials being introduced
c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d) None of the above
15) The basic definition of Ergonomics is?
a) Using relaxed posture
b) Fitting the employee to the workstation
c) Fitting the workstation to the employee
d) Either B or C
16) Work study is done with the help of ______.
a) Process chart b) Material handling
c) Stop watch d) All of the above

Q.2 Answer the following. 16

a) Explain the process of Business Process Engineering in detail.
b) Elements and its types

Q.3 Answer the following. 16

a) Types of Allowances
b) Principles of Motion Economy

Q.4 Answer the following Long answer. 16

a) What is Ergonomics and what are different factors in ergonomics? Which
workplace problems can be solved with ergonomics?
OR
b) Define productivity. What are the different factors affecting productivity? What
are different kinds of productivity measures?

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Q.5 Case Study. 16
In the mid-1990s, India’s largest multi utility vehicle (MUV) and tractor
manufacturer M&M was facing serious problems at its Igatpuri and Kandivili
plants in Maharashtra. The plants were suffering from manufacturing
inefficiencies, poor productivity, long production cycle and sub-optimal output.
The reason: highly under-productive, militantly unionized and bloated workforces.
The company had over the years been rather lenient towards running the
plants and had frequently crumbled under the pressure of union demands.
The work culture was also reportedly very unhealthy and corruption was
widespread in various departments. Alarmed at the plant’s dismal condition,
Chairman Keshub Mahindra tried to address the problem by sacking people
who allegedly indulged in corrupt practices. M&M also tried to implement
various voluntary retirement schemes (VRS), but the unions refused to
cooperate and the company was unable to reduce the labor force. During this
period, M&M was in the process of considering the implementation of a
Business Process Reengineering (BPR) program throughout the organization
including the manufacturing units. Because of the problems at the Igatpuri and
Kandivili plants, M&M decided to implement the program speedily at its
manufacturing units. The program, developed with the help of the UK-based
Lucas Engineering Systems, was first implemented on an experimental basis
at the engine plant in Igatpuri. Simultaneously, an exercise was initiated to
assess the potential benefits of implementing BPR and its effect on the
unions.
M&M’s management was not surprised to learn that the unions expressed
extreme displeasure at the decision to implement BPR and soon went on a
strike. However, this time around, the management made it clear that it would
not succumb to union demands. Soon, the workers were surprised to see the
company’s senior staff come down to the plant and work in their place. With
both the parties refusing to work out an agreement, observers began casting
doubts on the future of the company’s grand plans of reaping the benefits of
BPR.
Questions:
a) Analyse the case
b) Identify problem
c) Suggest alternatives and identify best alternative

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Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Human Resource Management
Industrial Relations and Labour Laws (20407415)
Day & Date: Tuesday, 19-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q.1 Choose correct alternatives given below 16
1) Legislations relating to factory includes _____.
a) Factories Act
b) Industrial Employment Standing Order Act
c) The trade Union Act
d) All of these
2) The term 'collective bargaining' means _____.
a) A process by which a union negotiates with suppliers for the provision
of e.g. office furniture
b) A process by which a union meets with another union to discuss
recruitment
c) A process by which a union recruits new members
d) A process by which a union negotiates with an employer on behalf of its
members on matters concerning the terms and conditions of
employment
3) The objectives of trade union include _____.
a) Employee compensation b) Working Condition
c) Recognition and participation d) All of these
4) The Trade Union Act is enacted in the year _____.
a) 1926 b) 1925
c) 1936 d) 1935
5) _____ these is/are the causes of Grievance.
a) Inadequate wage and bonus b) Bad working Conditions
c) Inadequate health and safety d) All of these
6) The Payment of Wages Act enacted in the year _____.
a) 1926 b) 1925
c) 1936 d) 1935
7) “Adult” means a person who has completed his _____ year of age.
a) 15 b) 18
c) 20 d) 21
8) _____ means a period of twenty-four hours beginning at midnight.
a) Day b) Month
c) Week d) Half-day

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9) _____ have many provisions to safe the interests of workers of organized
and unorganized sectors in India.
a) Industrial Law b) Labour laws
c) Factory Law d) Trade Union Act
10) _____ are a strong medium to safe the rights of the employees.
a) Trade Unions b) Industry
c) Government d) Trusts
11) _____ ensures that workers must get wages/salaries on time and without
any unauthorized deductions.
a) Industrial Law b) The payment of wages Act
c) Factory Law d) Trade Union Act
12) _____ entitles maternity leave for pregnant women employees i.e. full
payment despite absence from work.
a) Minimum Wages Act b) Factories Act
c) Payment of Bonus Act d) The Maternity Benefit Act
13) Reasons for poor Industrial relations _____.
a) Economic causes b) Organizational causes
c) Social causes d) All of these
14) Ways to improve Industrial relations ______.
a) Stable Union
b) Workers Participation in Management
c) Mutual Trust
d) All of these
15) The Employees’ Provident Funds Act, 1952 applicable to _____.
a) the whole of India b) J and K
c) Maharashtra d) Delhi
16) The Employee’s Pension Scheme enacted in the year _____.
a) 1960 b) 1975
c) 1995 d) 1976

Q.2 Write Short Notes. 16

a) Main Provisions of Trade Union Act
b) Importance of Minimum wages Act

Q.3 Attempt the following short answer. 16

a) Causes of Grievances
b) Types and causes of industrial disputes

Q.4 Attempt any one of the following. 16

a) Define Industrial relation, importance of Industrial relation and explain the
methods to develop sound industrial relation.
OR
b) Define Bonus and explain the provisions of Bonus as per the Payments of
Bonus Act 1965.

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Q.5 Attempt the following. 16
THE LOYAL EMPLOYEE
Raman is the Sales manager of a reputed corporation. He has 25 employees in his
department, and all are paid commission for their sales in their territories. For the
past 3 years the market for the company’s goods has been steadily growing and
the majority of Raman’s staff have met this growth with increased sales. However,
one employee in particular, Gopal has not kept up with the pace.

Gopal has been with this corporation for over 20yrs and is now 56 years old. He is
a friendly man and is liked by all his peers and those to whom he sells the
company’s products of a regular basis. The company has always considered
Gopal dependable and loyal. Through the years, he has been counted as an asset
to the company, but at the age of 56, he has gone into an age of semi-retirement.
Gopal’s sales have not increased others have and he does not have the
determination to acquire a significant increase in sales. Raman wishes to change
this situation. He wants to motivate Gopal into increasing his ales to match that of
his younger peers. To do this. Gopal must begin to do more than just put in his
time, but Raman is not sure how to go about trying to motivate him. Unlike the
majority of new employees, Gopal is an old man, who within a few years will reach
the age of retirement.
Questions:
1) Analyze the case.
2) If you were Raman, the sales manager, what would you do?

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Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
International Business Management
International Marketing (20407418)
Day & Date: Monday, 18-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 11:00 AM To 02:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions carry equal marks.
2) All questions are compulsory.

Q.1 Select the appropriate alternative from the given alternatives: 16

1) It is _____ when a country or company exports a product at a price that is lower
in the foreign importing market than the price in the exporter's domestic market.
a) Countertrade b) Dumping
c) Cost cutting d) BEP
2) _____ markets cover a wider are than local markets like a district, or a cluster of
few smaller states.
a) Hyper market b) National
c) Regional d) Global
3) A _____ mix is a combination of marketing methods including advertising, sales,
public relations and direct marketing to achieve a specific marketing goal.
a) Product b) Place
c) Promotional d) Price
4) _____ are the systems of economic institutions through which a producer of
goods delivers them into the hands of their users.
a) Promotions b) Warehouses
c) Transportation d) Distribution channels
5) _____ is the sale of genuine branded products that have been diverted from
authorized distribution channels or that have been imported into another
country without the consent and knowledge of the brand owner.
a) Green Marketing b) Virtual Marketing
c) Gray marketing d) Network Marketing
6) The process of dividing the customers into groups that share similar
attributes or respond similarly to firm's marketing efforts is referred as _____.
a) Segmentation b) Targeting
c) Positioning d) Forecasting
7) The purpose of _____ is to help people from a variety of countries and
cultures recognize your brand
a) global branding b) national branding
c) global pricing d) global distribution
8) Protection, containment, information, promotion, and utility of use are basic
functions of product _____.
a) Distribution b) Promotion
c) Branding d) Packaging

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9) Global marketing channels exist to create _____ utility for customers.
a) Place b) Time
c) Information d) All of these
10) _____ is a system of gathering, storing, managing, and evaluating data and
information in the global marketplace.
a) International Management information system
b) Global Marketing Information system
c) Global Executive Information System
d) International Stock information system
11) In _____ pricing strategy a high price is charged for a product till such time
as competitors allow after which prices can be dropped.
a) Penetration b) Skimming
c) Economy d) Premium
12) _____ in marketing involves breaking the target audience into segments and
then designing marketing activities that will reach the segments most likely to
be responsive to firm's efforts.
a) Segmentation b) Targeting
c) Positioning d) Forecasting
13) Which element of the promotion mix do the wholesalers generally apply to
obtain their promotional objectives?
a) Advertising b) Personal Selling
c) trade Promotion d) Direct Marketing
14) When a company pays to be associated with another company, individual,
group, or event as a means of marketing its brand, it is called as _____.
a) Hosting b) Charity
c) Sponsorship d) Social work
15) _____ is a pricing strategy where the price is set artificially low to gain
market share quickly.
a) Penetration b) Skimming
c) Economy d) Premium
16) Facebook, Whatsapp, Instagram and Youtube are the most popular form of ____.
a) Private media b) Government media
c) Social Media d) Hybrid media

Q.2 Answer the following. (Short answers/Short Problem)

a) International Product Life Cycle 08
b) International branding decisions 08

Q.3 Answer the following.

a) Global pricing- three policy alternatives 08
b) International Transfer Pricing 08

Q.4 Answer the following 16

a) Define International Marketing? Explain various global marketing elements
that may impact the international business.
OR
b) Define Global customer. Explain the bases for International Market
Segmentation.

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Q.5 Case Study. 16
Kit Kat the candy brand owned by Swiss multinationals Nestle, has become the
leading confectionary brand in Japan. The road to the top spot took some very
clever, creative marketing. A number of years ago, Nestle discovered a sharp
spike in the sales of Kit Kat candy bars during exam periods. Apparently Japanese
parents would place Kit Kat bars as a treat in their children’s lunch boxes,
especially during the exam season. In addition studios pupils were buying Kit Kats
for themselves as reminder that they were going to give these exams their best
shot. Kit Kat had become a lucky charm for Japanese students cramming for their
exams.
One reason for Kit Kat’s success has to do with the ring of its brand name.
The “Kit Kat” name sounds very much like the expression “kitto katsu”, Japanese
exam-season mantra that literally means “I will do my best to make sure I
succeed”. To leverage the brand name’s symbolic meaning, Nestle partnered with
Japan Post to create “Kit Kat Mail”, a post card like product available only at the
post office. These items could be mailed to students as an edible good-luck charm.
Nestle also decorated post offices with a cherry blossom theme, as Japan’s annual
exam period overlaps with the celebration of country’s cherry-blossom season.
Using the postal service as a distribution channel provided Nestle with the further
advantage of no competition -unlike convenience stores or supermarkets.
To cater the taste of Japanese consumers, Nestle offers a wide variety of
flavours. Just as in the rest of the world, the firm sells its staple chocolate flavours.
But it does not end there. Other flavours reflect specialties from regions across
Japan such as sweet potatoes from Okinawa, melons from Hokkaido, strawberries
from Tokyo. Other even more exotic flavours include wasabi, chilli, miso, cherry
and lemon or strawberry cheesecake. Many of these special flavours are
introduced for a limited time only to encourage shoppers to try something new and
are then subsequently taken off the market. Excess inventory is collected and
used to create “Happy Bags” that are sold during gift-giving periods such as New
Year.
1) Analyse the Case 06
2) Do you think the socio-cultural environment helps company to make impact on 05
a buying decision?
3) From this case explain how did Kit Kat succeed in selling their products in 05
Japan?

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Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Banking Management
E-Banking (20407421)
Day & Date: Monday, 18-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Choose correct alternatives given below 16

1) BHIM a mobile payment app is developed by _____ organization.
a) Election Commission b) NABARD
c) SEBI d) NPCI
2) _____ a system and electronic protocol to ensure the integrity and security
of transactions conducted over the internet
a) Secure Electronic Transaction b) Electronic Phishing
c) Software Bombs d) In-house banking
3) _____ can be defined as the place where a transaction takes place
between a customer and a merchant.
a) Point of Order b) Point of Sale
c) Point of Stock d) Point of Store
4) _____ is a technology used by merchants to accept debit or credit card
purchases from customers.
a) NEFT b) Payment Gateway
c) E cheque d) None of these
5) Following is/are the example/s of smart cards.
a) ATM card b) Electronic Wallets
c) ID cards d) All of these
6) ATM are generally used for _____ activities.
a) Debentures b) Tax related
c) Banking d) Loans
7) UPI stand for _____.
a) Unique Payment Interaction b) Unified Process Interface
c) Unified Payment Interface d) Unified Protocol Integrity
8) _____ is the exchange of goods and services and the transmission of funds
and data over the internet.
a) Commerce b) E Commerce
c) Mobile Commerce d) Trading
9) _____ involves using a fake email address or phone number to make it
appear as if the message is coming from a trusted source.
a) Hacking b) Tracing
c) Trapping d) Spoofing

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 SLR-CD-48
10) _____ is/are the forms of E-banking.
a) Electronic cheque conversion I bill payment
b) Internet banking
c) Mobile banking
d) All of these
11) _____ is an inter-bank/inter-branch online fund transfer within India.
a) Cheque b) Demand Draft
c) NEFT d) All of these
12) Using ATM one can _____ the money.
a) Only withdraw b) Only deposit
c) Deposit and withdraw d) Only transfer
13) _____ is a form of online scam where attempt is made to gain customer
account information such as user names, passwords, PINs
(Personal Identification Numbers) or Social Security numbers.
a) Phishing b) Spamming
c) Spoofing d) Trapping
14) _____ has minimum Rs. 2 lakhs and Maximum Rs. 10 lakhs transaction
under retail internet banking
a) RTGS b) Cheque
c) Overdraft d) Demand Draft
15) Following is/are risk/s involved in E-banking.
a) Operational Risk b) Security Risk
c) Cross-border Risk d) All of these
16) In confirmation of making the authentication of payment on mobile phone
_____ is entered by the user to authenticate the online payment.
a) Personal Information b) Barcode
c) Login details d) OTP

Q.2 Write Short Notes on the following

a) Advantages and disadvantages of E banking. 08
b) Basel Guidelines for e-banking 08

Q.3 Answer the following

a) Threats to information system 08
b) Impact of IT on banking 08

Q.4 Answer the following 16

a) What are different types of Delivery channels and payment gateways in E-
banking? Explain each in detail.
OR
b) What is E-banking? Explain the Centralised / Core banking system, its
features, advantages and limitations in detail.

Q.5 What are Management and Technological challenges in E-banking? Elaborate 16

each in detail.

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 SLR-CD-49
Set
No. Set P
M.B.A (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
System Management
Relational Database Management System (20407424)
Day & Date: Wednesday, 20-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Select the right option for each of the following from the choices given: 16
1) A Subquery is ______.
a) a 'select ___ from ___ where ___' expression that is nested within
another query
b) any query that is nested within another query
c) a relation specified externally used to handle data in queries
d) a condition to exclude invalid tuples from the database
2) The _____ clause allows you to form groups based on the specified
condition.
a) Order by b) Group by
c) Having d) CEIL
3) The _____ between two union compatible relations contains all those
tuples in the first relation that are not present in the second relation.
a) Union b) Difference
c) Intersection d) Cartesian product
4) The _____ clause of SELECT statement filters the required records
depending on one or more conditions.
a) GROUP BY b) ORDER BY
c) HAVING d) WHERE
5) _____ is a DDL command.
a) SELECT b) DELETE
c) ALTER d) GRANT
6) One of the objectives of _____is to ensure that there are no orphan records in
transaction tables of the database
a) primary key b) normalization
c) referencial integrity d) unions and joins
7) Which of the following is not Constraint in SQL?
a) Primary Key b) Not Null
c) Check d) Union
8) The ORDER BY Clause assumes ______ order by default if not specified.
a) ASC
b) DESC
c) Mandatory to mention ASC or DESC
d) Order of Primary key field is used

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 SLR-CD-49
9) A table is in the _____ Normal Form if all its non key fields are fully
functionally dependent on the whole key.
a) First b) Second
c) Third d) Forth
10) ERD stands for ____.
a) Error Rectification Diagram b) Entity Relationship Diagram
c) Entity Rational Diagram d) Entity Ratio Diagram
11) ______ function is used to remove unnecessary spaces before the text.
a) trim b) Itrim
c) remove d) None of the above
12) SQL Views are also known as _______.
a) simple Tables b) virtual tables
c) complex tables d) actual tables

13) Composite key is the _____ that is selected to identify every Tuples in a
relation independently.
a) composition of all keys
b) unique single candidate key
c) Primary key that consists of two or more attributes
d) None of the above

14) Which of the following describe the properties of entities in a database?

a) Groups b) Attributes
c) Switchboards d) Table
15) Which of the following is an aggregate function in SQL?
a) Union b) Select
c) Cascade d) Average

16) The ______ clause of SELECT statement filters the required records
depending on one or more conditions.
a) GROUP BY b) ORDER BY
c) WHERE d) DISTINCT

Q.2 Answer in brief: 16

a) Explain the Components of entity relationship diagram.
b) Write note on the role of Data Base Administrator.

Q.3 Write short notes on: 16

a) Discuss different Data types of RDBMS.
b) Object Oriented database.

Q.4 Answer Any One of the following: 16

a) Explain in detail functions and procedures in RDBMS.
b) Discuss various SQL Command types with Syntax of various statements.

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 SLR-CD-49
Q.5 Analyse the following case, and answer the questions given below: 16
A database is to be designed for a Car Rental Co. (CRC). The information
required includes a description of cars, subcontractors (i.e. garages), company
expenditures, company revenues and customers. Cars are to be described by
such data as: make, model, year of production, engine size, fuel type, number of
passengers, registration number, purchase price, purchase date, rent price and
insurance details. It is the company policy not to keep any car for a period
exceeding one year. All major repairs and maintenance are done by
subcontractors (i.e. franchised garages), with whom CRC has long-term
agreements. Therefore the data about garages to be kept in the database
includes garage names, addresses, range of services and the like. Some
garages require payments immediately after a repair has been made; with others
CRC has made arrangements for credit facilities. Company expenditures are to
be registered for all outgoings connected with purchases, repairs, maintenance,
insurance etc. Similarly the cash inflow coming from all sources - car hire, car
sales, insurance claims - must be kept in file. CRC maintains a reasonably stable
client base. For this privileged category of customers special credit card facilities
are provided. These customers may also book in advance a particular car.
These reservations can be made for any period of time up to one month. Casual
customers must pay a deposit for an estimated time of rental, unless they wish to
pay by credit card. All major credit cards are accepted. Personal details (such as
name, address, telephone number, driving licence, number) about each
customer are kept in the database.
Questions:
a) Identify the various entities in the database.
b) Describe the attributes of identified entities.

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 SLR-CD-50
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Agriculture &Co-operative Management
Agricultural Production Management (20407427)
Day & Date: Monday, 18-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice question. 16

1) Modern farming practices allow farmers _____.
a) To increase productivity b) Decreasing environmental impact.
c) Both A & B d) None of the above
2) Biggest problems with traditional agriculture is that ______.
a) It kills off life in the topsoil and subsoil.
b) Synthetic fertilisers and treatments are used immoderately
c) Evil impact on the soil
d) All of the above
3) Features of Indian Agriculture is _____.
a) Source of livelihood b) Dominance of food crops
c) Inadequate irrigation facilities d) All of the above
4) When farmers pool their land, labour and capital and work jointly under the
direction of an elected managing committee and divide the profit among
themselves in proportion of land contributed and wages earned by each one
of them it is called _____.
a) Co-operative farming b) Collective farming
c) Capitalist farming d) Peasant farming
5) _____ activity refers to the process of cultivating land for the purpose of
producing crops or livestock.
a) Farming b) Dairy
c) Transporting d) Oil mills
6) A _____ is a pre-industrial agricultural laborer or a farmer with limited land-
ownership, especially one living in the Middle Ages under feudalism.
a) Carpenter b) Peasant
c) Transporter d) Importer
7) Corporate farming is not associated with _____.
a) High levels of efficiency and productivity.
b) The utilization of advanced technologies
c) Lower pay to Farmers
d) High yield
8) The rights given by the tenure system are _____ for time.
a) Unlimited b) Limited
c) Permanent d) Can not be defined

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9) _____ in cludefarm products, and day-to-day maintenance of farm production
financial activities of a farm.
a) Corp record b) Seed record
c) Land record d) Farm record
10) Over irrigation can cause following problem except _____.
a) Lowering of the water table b) Land subsidence
c) Decreased water quality d) Increase in level of rainwater
11) _____ is a structure that allows people to regulate climatic conditions, such
as temperature and humidity.
a) Greenhouse b) Paint house
c) Wooden hose d) Leather house
12) _____ is considered to occur as a result of aging, wear and tear, and
obsolescence of farm buildings, farm machinery
a) Appreciation b) Depreciation
c) Maintained d) Purchase
13) Land holding of either 10 or more hectares have been classified as _____.
a) Semi-medium b) Medium
c) Semi-large d) Large
14) _____ is not a component of farm business.
a) Capital b) Environment
c) Land d) Management
15) Co-operative farming, Collective farming, Capitalistic farming and Peasant
farming are _____.
a) Nature of farming b) System of farming
c) Function of farming d) Capital of farming
16) _____ occurs when more species, plant varieties or animal breeds are added
to a given farm or farming community.
a) Agricultural diversification b) Agricultural minimizing
c) Agricultural depreciation d) Agricultural stagnation

Q.2 Attempt the following. 16

a) Write the difference between farm and non-farm business management.
b) Write a short note on ‘Land tenure system’.

Q.3 Attempt the following. 16

a) Write down the features of "Corporate farming’, ‘Peasants’, ‘Proprietorship’.
b) Discuss on ‘Farm efficiency and measures’.

Q.4 Attempt any one. 16

a) Discuss the, ‘Occupational structure and causes for low agricultural
productivity’.
OR
b) Discuss on, ‘Management & technology change in agricultural sector, it’s
mechanism and automation’.

Q.5 Attempt the following. 16

Give a summary for Demand for agricultural product by throwing light on
production and supply of farm products. Also discuss on ‘Law of diminishing
returns on input combination’.

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 SLR-CD-51
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Marketing Management
Services and Retail Marketing (20407404)
Day & Date: Thursday, 21-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Select the appropriate alternative from the given alternatives: 16

1) The word Retail is derived from the _____ word.
a) Latin b) French
c) English d) German
2) Retailer is a person who sells the goods in a _____.
a) Large quantities b) small quantities
c) Both A and B d) None of the above
3) The main objective of the management is _____.
a) Profitability b) Sales growth
c) Return on investment d) All of these
4) In retailing there is a direct interaction with _____.
a) Producer b) Customer
c) Whole seller d) All of these
5) Retailing creates _____.
a) Time utility b) Place Utility
c) Ownership Utility d) All of these
6) _____ activities performed by the retailers.
a) Assortment of offerings b) Holding stock
c) Extending services d) All of these
7) The term stakeholders which includes _____.
a) Stockholders b) Consumers
c) Suppliers d) All the above
8) _____ represents how a retailer is perceived by consumers and others.
a) Image b) Sales
c) Profit d) None of these
9) The function of management starts with _____.
a) Buying b) Planning
c) Organizing d) Supervising
10) “Management is what a manager does” given by _____.
a) Henry Fayol b) F.W. Taylor
c) Dinkar Pagare d) None of these
11) Human resource management process consists of _____.
a) Recruitment b) Selection
c) Training d) All of these

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 SLR-CD-51
12) _____ is the process of seeking and attracting a pool of people from which
qualified candidates for job vacancies can be selected.
a) Selection b) Advertisement
c) Compensation d) Recruitment
13) _____ gives the nature and requirements of specific jobs.
a) Human resource planning b) Job description
c) Job. Analysis d) None of these
14) _____ is a kind of internal sources of recruitment.
a) Promotion b) Employer recommendation
c) Transfer d) All of these
15) Attracting potential employees is more difficult in case of _____
a) Internal recruitment b) External recruitment
c) Both a and b d) None of these
16) _____ is the next step after recruiting the retail personnel.
a) Supervision b) Compensation
c) Training d) Selection

Q.2 Answer the following. (Short answers) 16

a) Explain the reasons for growth of the service economy.
b) Differentiate between goods and services?

Q.3 Answer the following. (Short answers) 16

a) Explain Marketing strategies for Insurance services.
b) Explain Marketing strategies for Educational services.

Q.4 Answer any one of the following. (Long answers) 16

a) Explain visual merchandising. Explain in details the roles and responsibilities of
the merchandiser.
OR
b) Explain with example what is organized retail. List down the functions of
retailer.

Q.5 Case Study 16

Problems in handling complaints
Pioneer electronics store, one of the leading electronic stores in Hyderabad sells
batteries, all shapes and sizes, all voltages and prices, one particular battery sells for
₹300 for a package of three, mohit a salesperson at pioneer electronic store sold a
package of these batteries to a customer on Monday this week, he paid cash for them
and left the store headed for home, the next day on Tuesday morning the customer
returned to the store having battery packet in hand and told rohan different
salesperson as mohit was on leave that he had purchased these batteries the day
before and they are not working. Rohan tested the batteries and found the batteries
and found the batteries really dead.
customer started shouting you wasted my time you're fraud and so on it put rohan
in trouble he was dancing between horns of dilemma in the last 5 years at Pioneer
store he never heard of such complaint but he was quite because the batteries looked
like new, how do we resolve such customer complaint? to begin with there is no way
to determine that the battery’s customer has in hand is indeed the battery he bought
last day. Since most batteries show no external sign of wear for all practical purposes
they may all have been the older set the set that the new one replaced second, the
nature of batteries in such that the customer may be accidentally drained them himself
and now wants to become smart and pass the responsibility to the store.

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 SLR-CD-51
In either case the salesman rohan standing in front of the customer who claims he
was sold defective batteries and now wants the situation resolved as soon as
possible.
Suppose you face the same complaint while working as same sort of sales store.
a) How would you examine the case from store's point of view and customer’s
point of view?
b) Suggest a solution that has been win-win solution for both the parties
concerned.

Page 3 of 3
 SLR-CD-52
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Financial Management
Investment Management (20407407)
Day & Date: Friday 22-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q.1 Choose the correct alternative. 16
1) Investment is the _______.
a) Net addition made to the nation’s capital stocks
b) persons commitment to buy a flat or a house
c) employment of funds on assets to earn returns
d) employment of funds on goods and services that are used for
production purpose
2) Which of the following is used in economic analysis?
a) Gross Domestic Product b) Surveys
c) Labor cost d) Diffusion Indexes
3) Which of the following is true regarding the expected return of a portfolio?
a) it is a weighted average only for stock portfolios
b) it can only be positive
c) it can never be above the highest individual return
d) all of the above are true
4) Interest rate risk is a ______.
a) systematic risk b) unsystematic risk
c) internal risk d) market risk
5) Technically, investments include ______.
a) only financial assets
b) only marketable assets
c) financial and real assets that is marketable or non- marketable
d) only financial and real assets that is marketable
6) Weak form market efficiency ______.
a) implies that the expected return on any security is zero
b) incorporates semi-strong form efficiency
c) involves price and volume information
d) is compatible with technical analysis
7) Total return is equal to ________.
a) Capital gain + price change b) Yield + income
c) Capital gain – loss d) Yield + price change
8) The ______ is the risk-free investment.
a) savings account b) certificate of deposit
c) treasury bill d) treasury bond

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 SLR-CD-52
9) Under the Markowitz model, investors ______.
a) are assumed to be risk- seekers
b) are not allowed to use leverage
c) are assumed to be institutional investors
d) all of the above
10) Financial disclosure regulations affecting the brokerage industry are a type
of _______.
a) market risk b) financial risk
c) business risk d) liquidity risk
11) The value of bonds depends upon ______.
a) Coupon rate b) Expected yield to maturity
c) Both A & B d) Yield to call
12) Speculator is a person ______.
a) who evaluates the performance of the company
b) who uses his own funds only
c) who is willing to take risk for high return
d) who considers here says and market behaviors
13) ______ describes the relationship between systematic risk and expected
return for assets, particularly stock.
a) CAPM b) PERT
c) Sharp ratio d) Trey nor ratio
14) If an investor searches for patterns in security returns by examining various
techniques applied to a set of data, this is known as ______.
a) fundamental analysis b) technical analysis
c) data mining d) random walk theory
15) The highest level of market efficiency is _______.
a) weak form efficiency b) semi strong form efficiency
c) random walk efficiency d) strong form efficiency
16) Most investors are risk averse which means _______.
a) they will assume more risk only if they are compensated by higher
expected return
b) they will always invest in the investment with the lowest possible risk
c) they actively seek to minimize their risks
d) they avoid the stock market due to the high degree of risk

Q.2 Answer the following, 16

a) Fundamental Analysis
b) Types of bonds

Q.3 Answer the following, 16

a) Investment v/s Speculation
b) Components of Capital Asset Pricing Model

Q.4 Attempt any one of the following. (Long Answer) 16

a) Briefly discuss about Efficient Market Hypothesis.
OR

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 SLR-CD-52
b) Mrs. Sharma is currently holding five securities is her portfolio. The details of
her portfolio are given below.

Securities Return (%) Probability

1 25 .7
2 30 .5
3 35 .6
4 40 .4
5 45 .3

You are required to-

1) Check the performance of present portfolio on the basis of expected
return and standard deviation.
2) Give the analysis of your answer.

Q.5 Mr. Ajit is an executive officer in a reputed multinational company. He is recently 16

got married with Veena, who is a fashion designer by profession. Mr. Ajit is 30
years of age. who is very ambitious and wants to live the lavish life. He is ready to
work hard for his dreams. He is having consistently good track record and due to
his smart performance, always got promotions in his career. At present his gross
salary is Rs. 48,000 per month.
Mrs. Veena is also a smart woman; she knows her responsibilities very well.
She earns Rs. 10,000 per month from her profession. During her marriage, she
got gift of Rs. 5,00,000 in cash from her father. Mrs. Veena is always providing
support to her husband regarding the decisions to be taken in their life. Mr. Ajit
has purchased a luxurious flat for Rs. 30 lakhs, where the loan has been taken
from State Bank of India. His EMI for this bank loan is Rs. 20,000.
Both Mr. Ajit and his wife are now interested in making the investment with
their available amount of funds and monthly savings. They want to secure their
future and also to live the life with comfort. You are approached by them to advise
regarding their investment strategy to be matching with their expectations.
Your advice is expected to consider the following points:
a) Investment avenues available
b) Objectives of investment
c) Constraints of investment

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 SLR-CD-53
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Tourism and Hospitality Management
Facility and Security Management (20407410)
Day & Date: Sunday, 07-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice question. 16

1) This material is known for offering security, which is why it is often used for
the main entrance door _____.
a) Wood b) Steel
c) Aluminium d) Glass
2) A guest indicates that she was bitten by a snake. What do you do?
a) Apply ice to the wound and take to the nearest fire station or hospital
b) Wash the wound, keeping injured area lower than the heart; get
professional medical care within 30 minutes.
c) Cut a 1” cross at the site if injury and suck the poison out, apply ice.
d) Elevate injured area, apply ice, and get professional medical care within
30 minutes.
3) Discharge of warm water into a river is called ______ pollution.
a) Nuclear Pollution b) Chemical Pollution
c) Thermal Pollution d) Eutrophication
4) Air pollution leads to _____ diseases.
a) Respiratory Diseases b) Gastro intestinal Diseases
c) Cancer d) Hair loss
5) EIA stands for _____.
a) Ecological Impact Assessment
b) Effective Impact Assessment
c) Environment Impact Assessment
d) Effective Industry Assessment
6) ______ is not a part of maintenance of a hotel
a) Plumbing work b) Electric work
c) Civil work d) Cleaning of guest room
7) In HVAC ‘V’ stands for ______.
a) Venture b) Vending
c) Ventilation d) Vacuum
8) Which of these is the first material that starts to burn in a fire caused by smoking?
a) Wastebasket contents b) Bedding
c) Mattress d) Upholstered furniture
9) ______ of the following is key elements of a fire safety management system.
a) Maintenance Plan b) Staff Training Plan
c) Fire Action Plan d) All of above

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 SLR-CD-53
10) In HVAC ‘C’ stands for ______.
a) Concentrating b) Calculating
c) Conditioning d) Cancelling
11) Building maintenance has all of the following except ______.
a) cleaning of the exterior surfaces b) reproofing the entire building
c) Photo shooting d) Interior maintenance
12) _____ of the total property budget is the responsibility of the engineering
department.
a) 11% b) 12%
c) 14% d) 13%
13) In a HVAC system ‘H’ stands for ______.
a) Healing b) Heating
c) Hacking d) Honoring
14) Time based maintenance comprises of the following except ______.
a) Routine preventive maintenance b) Minor Periodic overhaul
c) Corrective maintenance d) Major Periodic overhaul
15) ______ refers to the daily activities with repetitive nature.
a) Routine maintenance b) Planned maintenance
c) Unplanned maintenance d) Corrective maintenance
16) Cloud base energy management system provides the ability to _____.
a) Remotely control HVAC
b) Collect real time data
c) Generate intelligent, specific and real time guidance
d) All of these

Q.2 Write short Notes. 16

a) Responsibilities of facility manager and facility department.
b) Laundry system

Q.3 a) Fire safety and prevention 16

b) Role and functions of the Security Department.

Q.4 Answer the following questions. 16

Write an explanatory note on types of maintenance and repairs in hospitality industry.
OR
What is sustainable management in hospitality industry? What are the types of
pollution? Explain briefly.

Q.5 What is facility management? What are the various costs associated with facility 16
design?

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 SLR-CD-54
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Production and Materials Management
Quality Management (20407413)
Day & Date: Saturday, 23-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 A Multiple-choice question 16

1) _____ is any systematic process of determining whether a product or
service meets specified requirements.
a) Quality assurance (QA) b) Quality control (QC)
c) Quality performance (QP) d) Quality focus (QF)
2) _____ recognizes both individuals for their contributions to the field of Total
Quality Management (TQM) and businesses that have successfully
implemented TQM.
a) Malcolm Baldrige National Quality Award
b) Rajiv Gandhi National Quality Award
c) Deming Prize quality award
d) EFQM award
3) The dimension of 'product quality’ which appreciates agile manufacturing is
______.
a) Aesthetics b) Reputation
c) Responsiveness d) Conformance
4) Ishikawa diagrams are sometimes referred to as _____.
a) Fish bone diagrams
b) Herringbone diagrams
c) Cause-and-effect-diagrams
d) All of above
5) Traditional culture of quality requirements focuses on _____.
a) Product oriented b) Process oriented
c) Customer oriented d) Supplier oriented
6) Quality Trilogy is the contributions of ______.
a) Walter Shewhart b) Philip crosby
c) Joseph m juran d) W. Edward deming
7) The contribution by quality guru Crosby was _____.
a) PDCA cycle b) Quality trilogy
c) PDSA d) Concept of zero defects
8) Cost of quality is given by costs of _____.
a) Prevention + appraisal +internal failure + external failure
b) Prevention + appraisal
c) Internal failure + external failure
d) Appraisal + internal failure

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9) The most common techniques used for analyzing the quality costs are___.
a) Trend analysis b) Pareto analysis
c) Both a and b d) None of the above
10) The frequency distribution of a numerical data can be graphically
represented by a _____.
a) Histogram b) Telegram
c) Monogram d) Anagram
11) The Rajiv Gandhi Quality award is given at _____ level.
a) National b) Regional
c) Trade or professional bodies d) By other companies
12) ISO create the ISO 14000 family of standards in the year _____.
a) 1956 b) 1966
c) 1978 d) 1996
13) Pareto analysis is also known by _____.
a) 80/20 rule b) Demand forecasting
c) Benchmarking d) Job Scheduling
14) The frequency distribution of a numerical data can be graphically
represented by a ______.
a) Histogram b) Telegram
c) Monogram d) Anagram
15) Quality Function Deployment is also known as _____.
a) House of product b) House of quality
c) House of six sigma d) House of Kaizen
16) Pattern in control charts which show the tendency to cluster around central
line is termed as:
a) Stratification b) Mixture
c) Cyclic pattern d) Shift in process level

Q.2 Write short notes on 16

a) Concept of Statistical Quality Control
b) Consequences of poor-quality management

Q.3 Write short notes on 16

a) ISO 9001
b) Problem solving techniques of Quality

Q.4 Answer the following question. 16

Write an explanatory note on histogram, control chart, Parato analysis, and flow
charts.
OR
Explain the Evolution of Quality Management Concepts of Product and Service
and the importance of Quality in modern business.

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 SLR-CD-54
Q.5 Analyze the following case. 16
One morning in August 1985 the CEO of Velcro received a phone call from
his Detroit sales manager informing that General Motors was dropping while
crow from its highest supplier quality rating to the next to lower level 4 General
Motors allowed well crow 90 days’ time period to set up and start a program of
Total Quality Control or else face the loss of not only and important customer
GM but also well cross most promising growth market.
At this time Velcro crow had 23 quality control people in their plant. To the
machine operator’s quality was the responsibility of quality control people. The
quality control people wear station at certain points and they would inspect on a
sample basis and say whether the particular Run was good or bad. What was
bad was scrapped. Nobody change the process and there was no pressure on
anybody to make a change to improve quality and reduce wastages.
It is wrong to assume that the production employees were causing the waste
and to blame them for it without giving them the tool to deal with the problem
would have been a bigger mistake. Under such conditions production employees
where afraid to report defect in product produced and scrap was being disposed
of to scrap yard during the third shift. The management felt that it was necessary
to train the operators in quality control and more attention to be given to the
operators, machine repair and Re design and to measurement and reporting
techniques that tract result focus on responsibilities and established ups and
down communication.
The pressure on production employees to reduce wastage was lacking due
to the attitude of the supervisors who took the wastage due to bad quality very
lightly. The supervisors in fact where a big barrier to make the operators
responsible for quality.
Velcro installed the statistical process control system which went along with
towards pinpointing where the production process went wrong and needed
improvement. The charting mechanism control charts of statistical process
control put pressure on the line operators who had difficulty with the idea that
quality and quantity are not mutually exclusive expectations.
The production employees were reluctant to speed up production for the fear
of making more mistake and thereby increase wastage or scrap. Gradually the
quality control people will pull out of station early in the process and then out of
point later in the process interesting the production employees the job of
maintaining quality in their work. The number of mistakes declined as a result.
Questions
a) Unless thread and with losing a major customer why should an organisation
work to improve its quality.
b) Discuss the role of managers workers and quality control inspectors in
quality improvement.

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 SLR-CD-55
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Human Resource Management
Competence Based HRM (20407416)
Day & Date: Friday, 05-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives given below 16

1) Human resource management emphasis _____.
a) Development of people b) Punishment of people
c) Adoption of people d) None of these
2) Human resource management is amalgam of _____.
a) Job analysis, recruitment and selection
b) Social behaviour and business ethics
c) Organizational behaviour, personal management and industrial relation
d) Employer and employees
3) Planning, organizing and controlling of procurement, development,
compensation, integration of human resources to the end those objectives of
individual, organisation and society are achieved given by _____.
a) Storey b) Flippo
c) Vetter d) F.W. Taylor
4) Operative functions of HRM includes _____.
a) Procurement, development, compensation & motivation
b) Maintenance
c) Integration and emerging trends
d) All of these
5) Basic managerial functions of HRM are _____.
a) Planning, organising, staffing
b) Planning, organising and co-ordinating
c) planning, organising, directing and controlling
d) None of these
6) Training process is_____.
a) Short term b) Medium term
c) Long term d) None of these
7) OJT stands for _____.
a) On the job training b) On the job technique
c) On the job technology d) Off the job training
8) On the job training includes _____.
a) Coaching b) Conference
c) Understudy d) All of these

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 SLR-CD-55
9) ln _____training, a training centre is set-up and actual job conditions are
duplicated or simulated in it.
a) Classroom b) Apprenticeship
c) Internship d) Vestibule
10) _____ is the process of imparting or increasing knowledge or skill of an
employee to do a particular job.
a) Training b) Development
c) Motivation d) Leadership
11) Methods of training and development are _____.
a) Off the job b) On the job
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
12) _____ is a device or situation that replicates job demands at on the job site.
a) Brainstorming b) Simulation
c) Artificial intelligence d) Transactional analysis
13) Management development _____.
a) Is a short term in nature
b) Focuses on employees’ current job
c) Is an informal activity
d) Aims at overall development of a manager
14) _____ is a performance appraisal technique that involves agreement
between employee and manager on goals to be achieved in a given period.
a) Rating scales b) BARS
c) BOS d) MBO
15) Simulation technique of off the job method includes_____.
a) Role playing b) In-basket exercise
c) Case study d) All of these
16) The combination of peer, superior, subordinate and self-review appraisal is
known as _____.
a) 360° appraisal
b) Human resource accounting system
c) All round review
d) Feed forward

Q.2 Answer the following. (Short answers) 16

a) Define competency explain the different types of competency assessment
tools.
b) Explain the different components of remuneration.

Q.3 Answer the following. (Short answers) 16

a) Describe in details selection of right type of training methodology for human
resource development.
b) Define human resource development explains the objective of human
resource development.

Q.4 Answer any one of the following. (Long answers) 16

a) Explain the linkages between competencies and rewards.
OR
b) Discuss the competency-based HR process, assessment and development
centers.

Page 2 of 3
 SLR-CD-55
Q.5 Attempt the following Case study. 16
Belever is a financial company mainly interested in institutional financing. It
employees over 6500 financial professional working in over 12 countries all of
them are qualified resources chiefly incompetence's like financial management,
audit treasury taxation, financial management audit investment management and
equity market management the management of the company had invited human
resource head for a discussion on the human resource model that company
should drive in order to in order to create differentiation mainly through the quality
of human resources they employee. Human resource head came up with this
suggestion that organization must move towards creating a competency best
Human Resource Management for which the management board had agreed and
wanted human resource head to come up with budget estimate estimates and
assessment of what resources are required to create this competency based
HRM.
Question
1) Discuss and substantiate the resources required to create a competency
best HRM model especially keeping and view the nature of organization and
its business.

Page 3 of 3
 SLR-CD-56
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
International Business Management
EXIM Management (20407419)
Day & Date: Saturday, 23-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice question 16

1) Under FEMA, the RBI has been authorized to make _____ to carry out the
provisions of the Act.
a) Rules b) Regulations
c) Both Rules and Regulations d) Notification
2) The foreign direct investment includes_____.
a) Intellectual properties. b) Human resources
c) Tangible goods d) Intangible goods
3) The foreign Trade (Regulation) Rules was passed in the year_____.
a) 1991 b) 1992
c) 1993 d) 1994
4) Foreign Trade Policy is a set of guidelines and instructions established by
the _____
a) DGFT b) MSME
c) Govt. of India d) None of these
5) MPEDA refers to _____
a) Marine Products Export Development Authority
b) Mining Products Export Development Authority
c) Meat Products Export Development Authority
d) None of these
6) RCMC is a registration certificate granted by _____ as prescribed by
Foreign Trade Policy to an exporting unit.
a) Export Promotion Council b) Commodity Board
c) Development Authority d) All above
7) There are at present _____ Export Promotion Councils under the administrative
control of the Department of Commerce.
a) 10 b) 11
c) 12 d) None of these
8) Export & Import (EXIM) was set up in _____.
a) 1981 b) 1978
c) 1975 d) 1960

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 SLR-CD-56
9) The main function of EXIM bank is _____.
a) Granting of direct loan in India and outside for the purpose of Import &
Export
b) Granting of loan for Industrial houses established aboard
c) Granting license for import and export
d) None of the above
10) More expansion of foreign direct investment can boost _____.
a) Money circulation b) Demand
c) Employment d) Unemployment
11) An authorized person under FEMA does not include _____.
a) An authorized dealer b) An authorized money changer
c) An off-shore banking unit d) An exchange broker
12) The investment in productive assets and participation in management as
stake holders in business enterprises is_____
a) FDI b) FII
c) Balance of payment d) SDR
13) _____ do not form part of duty drawback scheme.
a) Refund of excise duties
b) Refund of custom duties
c) Refund of export duties
d) Refund of income dock charges at the port of shipment
14) Government of India had set up EXIM Bank with an objective _____.
a) Provides Lines of Credit (LOC) to enable Indian exporters to enter
new geographies
b) To enhance exports from India, and to integrate the country’s foreign
trade and investment with the overall economic growth.
c) Enhanced export opportunities for India and driven the economic
growth of the nation.
d) None of the above
15) Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) organization was established
in _____.
a) 1991 b) 1985
c) 1990 d) 1995
16) The standard policy of ECGC covers the risk of _____.
a) buyers failure to obtain import license
b) insolvency of the collecting bank
c) cancellation of the import licence in the buyers country.
d) all the above.

Q.2 Write short note on. 16

a) Handloom Export Promotion Council.
b) Export Promotion Capital Goods (EPCG) Scheme.

Q.3 Write short notes on. 16

a) Objectives of new foreign trade policy
b) Foreign Direct Investment

Page 2 of 3
 SLR-CD-56
Q.4 Answer the following question. 16
Write a note on the objectives, scope and important provisions of FEMA.
OR
What are the objectives and functions of APEDA and MPEDA.

Q.5 Explain the objectives, role and functions of EXIM Bank. 16

Page 3 of 3
 SLR-CD-57
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Banking Management
Marketing of Financial Services (20407422)
Day & Date: Saturday, 23-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Choose correct alternative. 16

1) In Bank Marketing, segmentation can be done by considering.
a) Occupation b) Gender
c) Income d) All of the above
2) Loans, cash credit, overdrafts and other money transfers are examples of
_____ services.
a) Consultancy b) Non-fund based
c) Fund based d) Secondary
3) Various financial instruments such as debit cards, credit cards, cheque, bill
of exchanges and many more assist people in_______.
a) Payments b) Employment
c) Loan Process d) Technology
4) The term financial services in its broader sense refers to______.
a) Mobilizing and allocation of savings
b) Simplified investment program
c) Method of onetime investment
d) Safe Investment Option
5) _______ includes all activities involved in the transformation of savings in to
investment.
a) Financial system b) Financial service
c) Economic system d) Saving system
6) Purpose of Market Segmentation of Banks is to provide_____.
a) Variety of loans b) Customer satisfaction
c) To loose customer d) Both a & b
7) _____ is non-banking financial activity. But it resembles banking function.
a) Portfolio Management b) Merchant banking
c) Credit Syndication d) Factoring
8) Generally mutual funds are of ________.
a) High risk b) Risk free
c) Low risk d) Zero risk
9) Retail banking is confined to _______ customers.
a) Corporate b) Firm
c) Individual d) Individual and corporate

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 SLR-CD-57
10) Customer Relationship Management results in ______.
a) Boosted Sale b) Decreased Productivity
c) Less customers d) Poor Service
11) _____ is a method of renting assets.
a) Hire Purchase b) Leasing
c) Hedge Finance d) Credit Rating
12) Capital is needed for product development and initial marketing.
a) Ventre capital b) Seed Start-up capital
c) Second round financing d) Third round financing
13) We should keep our savings with banks because.
a) It is safe b) Earns interest
c) Can be withdrawn anytime d) All of above
14) Equipment leasing is______ financial service.
a) fund based b) fee based
c) non-fund based d) any of the above
15) In India, forfaiting is done by ______ bank.
a) Foreign bank b) RBI
c) Commercial bank d) EXIM bank
16) _____ is pay later product.
a) Debit card b) Credit card
c) Both a & b d) None of these

Q.2 Answer the following. 16

a) Write a note on Merchant Banking.
b) Write Various types of Financial Services.

Q.3 Answer the following. 16

a) Discuss Various categories of Financial Products?
b) Discuss features of international bank marketing?

Q.4 Answer the following (Any One) 16

a) Define market segmentation. Explain the purpose and importance of market
segmentation of banks?
b) Define marketing strategy. Explain various marketing mix and promotional
strategies for banks?

Q.5 Case Study 16

Traditionally, banks were seen as the holders of the money, which gradually
changed their role as the creators of money. Today, the scope of banks has
widened phenomenally, now the banks are seen as the purveyor of finance for the
entire nation. A sound banking system is the life blood of any developing economy
and it reflects the growth of the economy. Of the 6.9 billion people on the planet,
just 30 per cent (2.1 billion) have bank accounts while 75 percent 5.2 billion people
have mobile phones. In India, only 200 million people have access to a bank
account while 811 million have a mobile phone. For a population of 1.2 billion
people, this translates into 68 per cent having a mobile phone and only 17 per cent
having a bank account. Observing the above statistical data, it can be concluded
that there is still an ample scope for the growth of banking sector. Hence, it
requires sound and innovative marketing strategies to capture the untapped
market.

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 SLR-CD-57
Following trends have been observed in the marketing strategies of banks
recently: Advertising remains the undisputed promotional tool for banks so far
among the other promotional tools. Advertising, which includes direct mail,
accounted for the largest share of marketing expenditures at 52 percent,
compared to 58 percent in 2007. Public relations accounted for 27 percent of
marketing budgets compared to 21 percent in 2007. Consumer expectations are
growing. With the increase in the education of the consumers, they are now
demanding more and more value-added services and are ready to pay premium
for it.
Mobile banking is the need for today. It has become the blessing for the
consumers who don’t have the time to visit the bank personally. The biggest
advantage that mobile banking offers to banks is that it drastically cuts down the
costs of providing service to the customers. Social media is also a tool for
marketing the banking services. Forty percent of banks used social media for
marketing purposes in 2009. Twenty-nine percent used social networking (i.e.,
Face book, Twitter, etc.). Face book, used by 76% of banks, is the most popular
among various social media outlets, followed by Twitter at 37%.
Due to increased use of technological bases has increased the operational
efficiency of the Indian banks. By 2009, virtually all banks had embraced the
Internet and most had websites. Marketer said e- newsletters were the most
effective form of Internet marketing, followed by search engine marketing and then
sponsorships.
Marketing expenditure has witnessed the tremendous growth in last few years as
the percentage of total banking expenditure. Despite the overall state of the
economy and the banking industry, marketing expenditures were up in 2009.
Nearly 60 percent of banks said they planned to, increase their marketing
expenditures in 2009, the same amount as in 2007
Focus on Incremental New Customer Growth: Instead of generating as many
accounts as possible, banks will be focusing on the potential value of relationships
including engagement and retention Gathering Email Addresses: With other
communication channel cost increasing and the improved results achieved when
email is combined with more traditional channels, the importance of collecting (and
using) email addresses has never been more important.
a) Analyze the case. 06
b) Comment on the new trends in bank marketing. 05
c) Discuss the role of digital and social media in Bank marketing 05

Page 3 of 3
 SLR-CD-58
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
System Management
Security and Control Information System (20407425)
Day & Date: Sunday, 07-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q.1 Select the right option for each of the following from the choices given: 16
1) CIA is an acronym for the Goals of Computer Security. CIA stands for _____.
a) Compatible, interoperable architecture.
b) Commercial Intelligent Assessment.
c) Common Identifier Authentication.
d) Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability.
2) Installing best antivirus software is a onetime process which ensures 100%
security for all times without any modifications required to be made.
a) TRUE b) FALSE
c) Not sure d) Depends
3) Influencing computer users to reveal computer security or private
information by exploiting the natural tendency of a person to trust and/or by
exploiting a person's emotional response is known as _____.
a) internet bullying b) Intrusion
c) deception d) Social Engineering
4) _____ involves transforming the data into scrambled code using special
algorithm which appears meaningless unless retransformed to original data.
a) Prototyping b) Encryption
c) Programming d) Data Base designing
5) Actions which can be taken to protect buildings, property and assets
against intruders are categorised as _____.
a) Logical security b) Internet security
c) Personal Security d) Physical security
6) Which of the following is not a Logon Security feature?
a) Mandatory Logon b) Lock and Cabinet system
c) Password Restrictions d) Account Expiry
7) There are 2 types of cryptography systems _____and _____.
a) Local and Global b) LAN and WAN
c) Secret Key and Public Key d) Primary Key and Foreign Key
8) TCP/IP is _____.
a) Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol.
b) Transfer Controlled Protocol/Internet Control Protocol.
c) Transaction Control Protocol/Intranet Protocol
d) None of the above

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 SLR-CD-58
9) A network of computers belonging to an organization and using the
internet technologies for communication is known as _____.
a) Internet b) WAN
c) LAN d) Intranet
10) Find the Odd Term out of-the following:
a) Thumb impression b) Voice Verification
c) Swipe Cards d) Ratina identification
11) The data which, if disclosed/compromised with, may cause serious
damage to the organization in terms of loss of an opportunity or an edge
over the competition or achieving leading position in the market, can be
classified as:
a) Unclassified b) Confidential
c) Secret d) Top Secret
12) Protocols are _____.
a) Software b) Type of Security
c) Antivirus Programs d) Communication Rules
13) From the options below, which of them is not a vulnerability to information
security?
a) Flood
b) without deleting data, disposal of storage media.
c) Unchanged default password
d) Latest patches and updates not done
14) In Information Security, DOS means _____.
a) Disk Operations System b) Denial of Service
c) Disk Operating Software d) Disk Omission Software
15) PAP is _____.
a) Protection for Authenticated Protocols.
b) Post Assess Protocol.
c) Password Authentication Protocol
d) None
16) The science of breaking secure communication using detailed analysis is
known as _____.
a) Cryptography b) Cryptology
c) cryptanalysis d) Cryptographic Algorithm

Q.2 Answer in brief: 16

a) Discuss the need for security and control in information systems.
b) Explain meaning of Authentication and discuss types of authentication in
e-security.

Q.3 Write Short Notes on: 16

a) Security Policy.
b) Virus Threats and Protection.

Q.4 Attempt the following (Any One) 16

a) Explain the concept of Security Audit and Administrative security in detail
along with organizational security policies.
b) Discuss the concept of Security of information resources along with different
types of security risks.

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 SLR-CD-58
Q.5 Analyse the following case, identify the problem, provide alternative 16
solutions and justify the best solution
XYZ is major airline company that is based in Mumbai. It has a computer system
dedicated to reservations and ticketing operations. More than 1000 terminals
scattered throughout India are connected to the mainframe computer in the
company’s head office.

Mr. Sinha, a member of the audit team was amazed to find the system did not
use passwords to prevent unauthorised access to the system. When the
enquired with information system manager he informed Mr. Sinha that
passwords are unnecessary. He explains that each terminal connected to the
computer is given a unique identification number. This number is stored in a
table within a secure area of the operating system. A terminal must supply this
identification number with each message it sends and the system will respond
only to a valid identification number. The identification number is sent
automatically by a terminal because it is hard wired into the terminal.

He Further explains that a password system had been tried previously and
abandoned. Each reservation and ticketing clerk had been given a unique
password. Because multiple clerks often used a single terminal, however, the
system was too awkward and unwieldy as clerks had to continuously sign on and
sign off the system. Major problems occurred with the system during rush
periods.

Finally the information systems manager wad surprised about Mr. Sinha’s
concerns. Under the current system, he argues unauthorised removal of assets
cannot occur. Moreover he points out that the previous auditor had never
expressed concerns about the system

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 SLR-CD-59
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Agriculture &Co-operative Management
Agro- Processing Industries & Rural Industrialization (20407428)
Day & Date: Saturday, 23-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice Questions. 16

1) Co-operative society is ______ source of Credit.
a) Institutional b) non-Institutional
c) Both a and b d) none of above
2) ______ are also known as Rural Industries or Traditional Industries.
a) Agriculture Industries b) Food Industry
c) Cottage Industries d) None of the above
3) Rural credit is required for farming Business because______.
a) Most farming families have small holdings.
b) They produce only for self – Consumption.
c) They Need funds for further Investment in Agriculture.
d) All of these
4) The duration of Short- Term Credit is ______.
a) 6 to 12 month b) 2 to 5 year
c) 5 to 20 year d) 12 months to 5 year
5) WTO stands for_______.
a) World Trade Organization
b) World Time Organization
c) World technology association
d) World tourism organization
6) Amul is an Indian _____ Co-operative Society.
a) Dairy b) Consumer
c) Labour d) Housing
7) Demand of agriculture Product found to be ______.
a) Elastic b) Zero Elastic
c) Inelastic d) Infinite Elastic
8) Which of the following is part of Village and Small Industries Sector?
a) Handicrafts b) Sericulture
c) Handlooms d) All of the Above
9) Apex funding agency in India for providing rural credit is______.
a) State Bank of India b) Regional Rural Bank
c) NABARD d) None of the above

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 SLR-CD-59
10) Khadi and village Industry Commission was established in ______.
a) Third Plan b) Fourth Plan
c) Second Plan d) First plan
11) Basket weaving falls in the category of _____.
a) Small-scale industry b) Cottage Industry
c) Large-scale industry d) None of these
12) Law of demand shows a relation between the _____.
a) Quantity demand and quantity supply of a commodity
b) Income and quantity demand of a commodity
c) Price and quantity of a commodity
d) Income and price of a commodity
13) _______ help integrate formal credit systems into rural societies.
a) Land Development Banks b) Self- Help Groups
c) Regional Rural Banks d) Commercial Bank
14) When the elasticity of demand for a commodity is very low, it shows that
the product ______.
a) Has little importance in the total budget.
b) Is a Luxury
c) Is a necessity
d) None of the above
15) Agriculture Related activities comes under______.
a) Primary Sector b) Secondary Sector
c) Tertiary sector d) none of the Above
16) “Blue Revolution “is related with the following _____.
a) Oil seed Production b) Fish Production
c) Milk Production d) Food Production

Q.2 Answer the following- (Short Notes) 16

a) Cooperative Sugar Industries?
b) Rural Indebtness

Q.3 Attempt the following. (Short Note) 16

a) Explain the Socio- Eco benefits of Rural Industries?
b) Explain the sources of Agriculture Finance?

Q.4 Attempt any one of the following. (Long Answer) 16

a) Explain the role of agriculture in rural industrialization?
b) Explain difficulties and role of agriculture Co-operatives?

Q.5 Attempt any one of the following. (Long Answer) 16

Explain the role and problems of small-scale Industries.

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 SLR-CD-60
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester – IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Marketing Management
International Marketing (20407405)
Day & Date: Tuesday, 09-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Choose the correct alternatives from the options. 16

1) _____ factors affecting the international marketing are-
a) Social factors b) Economic factors
c) Political factors d) All of these
2) Distribution channels vary depending on which of the following?
a) Target market size
b) Competition
c) Available distribution intermediaries
d) All of the above
3) Identification of marketing opportunities in foreign markets assumes
studying of market conditions, studying of the marketing environment and
establishment of potential opportunities of firm.
a) True b) False
c) Can’t Say d) None of the above
4) Sales promotion is very important for any product, especially for newly
launched and designed product as it_____.
a) Affects the quality of product b) Affects the quantity of product
c) Affects the image of product d) Affects the price of product
5) Price is not a major marketing factors in creating the revenue for the firm.
a) True b) False
c) Can’t Say d) None of the above
6) A manufacture provide sales promotion to a wholesaler is _____.
a) Cooperative advertising b) Sales promotion
c) Dealer promotion d) Trade promotion
7) Cultural barriers are one of the biggest challenges in global marketing _____.
a) True b) False
c) can’t say d) None of these
8) According to the text, the most dramatic of the environments that affect
marketing and appear to be now shaping our world is the environment.
a) Natural b) Demographic
c) Economic d) Technological
9) ____ of the following would you consider to be a socio-cultural influence on
international marketing.
a) Language b) Religion
c) Social organization d) All of the above

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 SLR-CD-60
10) Psychographic segmentation calls for the division of market into segments
based upon different personality traits, values, attitudes, interests, and
lifestyles of consumers.
a) True b) False
c) Can’t Say d) None of the above
11) For______ marketing companies should market through Facebook,
Instagram, and LinkedIn platforms to its customer.
a) media b) societal media
c) Social media d) None of the above
12) All of the following are actual modes of market-entry except____.
a) Licensing b) Standardization
c) Franchising d) Exporting
13) The short-term motivation schemes prepared for purchase promotion are
known as- _____.
a) Personal Sale b) Sales promotion
c) Publicity d) Advertisement
14) For long term __________ of the following is a more effective tool for the
promotion process.
a) Advertisement b) Personal Sale
c) Publicity d) Sales promotion
15) ______ of the following is price determination method.
a) Cost price transfer b) Cost plus transfer
c) Transfer price based on market d) All of these
16) _____ is an especially important strategy for goods and services that have a
universal demand.
a) retailing b) marketing
c) international marketing d) None of these
Q.2 Answer the following. 16
a) Explain global segmentation.
b) Explain Social Media Marketing.
Q.3 Answer the following. 16
a) Explain in detail global pricing strategies.
b) Explain sales promotion in detail for international marketing.
Q.4 Answer the following long question. 16
a) Explain in detail global marketing environment and its impact on marketing.
OR
b) Explain the concept of new products development in global marketing.

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 SLR-CD-60
Q.5 Case study.
The Mysore Incenses is a tiny unit located in Mysore, manufacturing and selling
agarbathies. It is owned and managed by Mr. Chnadrashekhar, who has had only
high school education. Through lot of experiments Chnadrashekhar had
developed a blend of incense that has been widely liked. During the last four
years of existence of the Mysore Incenses, the two brands of agarbathi, Bhagya
and Sowbhagya,have earned a very good reputation. Initially it introduced just
one brand, Bhagya. Bhagya clicked well in the market. Though the product was
regarded as very good, the price of ‘Bhagya’ was a bit lower than that of the
popular branch of established manufactures. By selling at lower price,
Chnadrashekhar hoped to generate more sales. Use of cheaper packaging and
lower overheads enabled him to sell at lower but sufficiently remunerative price.
Labelling was done in Kannada and English. The Mysore Incenses have not had
any aggressive marketing programme. At the beginning free samples were
supplied to some house-holds in residential localities. Slides were also exhibited
in certain cinema theatres. The dealers were offered attractive terms. Initially, the
product was sold only in and around Mysore city. Encouraged by its success in
Mysore, sale of Bhagya was extended to all over Karnataka and the consumer
response was favourable. On the advice of Mr. Sham, a close friend of Mr.
Chnadrashekhar, the Mysore Incenses introduced a premium brand, Soubhagya.
The ingredients and quality of the new brand were not significantly different from
that of Bhagya. Instead of the rectangular package of Bhagya, a tubular package
was used for Soubhagya. The new brand also’ got good market acceptance.
Chnadrashekhar was thinking of expanding his market to outside Karnataka also.
There was no problem to get additional workers to roll agarbathies; nor was there
any problem of input availability. The problem was organizational. The Mysore
Incenses was managed all alone by Mr. Chnadrashekhar. The distribution to
dealers was done by agents who worked on commission basis.
As a birthday presentation Chnadrashekhar sent hundred packets each of
Bhagya and Soubhagya to his good friend Aayub working in Saudi Arabia. Two
months later, Chnadrashekhar received a letter from Aayub. The letter contained
the following information of particular importance to Chnadrashekhar’s business.
Aayub distributed most of the agarbathies among his friends. His friends liked the
products very well. Some of them ranked Bhagya and Soubhagya as good as the
best brands available. Some even considered them as better than leading brands.
Some of the foreigners found it difficult to pronounce and remember the words
Bhagya and Soubhagya. Aayub suggested that Chnadrashekhar could think of
entering the foreign markets.
Chnadrashekhar knew that a few agarbathi manufacturers who had started in a
small way grew well in the domestic and foreign markets. Chnadrashekhar
became enthusiastic about selling his products in the foreign markets. He was
wondering how he could carry out this idea. He decided to consult Mr.Sham
.From Chnadrashekhar’s discussion with him, Sham conceived that
Chnadrashekhar would like to have his advice on the International marketing
channel suitable for the Mysore Incenses and Product modifications, including
brand, packaging and labelling for the overseas markets.
1) Analyze the case study 04
2) Identify the problem. 04
3) Generate possible alternatives for international marketing 04
4) Choose the best alternative. 04

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Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Financial Management
International Finance (20407408)
Day & Date: Thursday, 11-01-2024 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
Q.1 Choose the correct alternative and rewrite the sentences again. 16
1) The currency used to buy imported goods is _____.
a) the buyer’s home currency. b) the seller’s home currency.
c) the currency of a third country. d) special drawing rights.
2) A country records its international finance accounts in its _____.
a) balance of payments accounts b) import/export log accounts
c) trade payments accounts d) net exports payments account
3) The balance of payments accounts includes the _____.
a) non-performing account b) export bank account
c) current account d) Exim bank account
4) The account used to record changes in the official reserve is the _____.
a) capital account b) current account
c) official settlements account d) official reserves account
5) If a country during its entire history has invested more in the rest of the world
than the rest of the world has invested in it, the country is a _____.
a) net lender b) net borrower
c) creditor nation d) debtor nation
6) If a country has a capital account surplus, that country’s stock of international
indebtedness is _____.
a) increasing b) decreasing
c) zero d) constant
7) The main source of fluctuations in the current account balance is _____.
a) net interest income b) net exports
c) net taxes d) net transfers
8) The private sector surplus or deficit equals _____.
a) net taxes minus government purchases
b) investment minus saving
c) government purchases minus net taxes
d) saving minus investment
9) Net exports equals _____.
a) government saving plus private saving.
b) imports of goods and services minus exports of goods and services.
c) exports of goods and services minus imports of goods and services.
d) Both answers A and C are correct.

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10) The foreign exchange rate is the price at which the _____ of one country,
exchanges for the ______ of another country.
a) currency; goods b) currency; financial instruments
c) currency; currency d) goods; goods
11) As the exchange rate ______ the _____ is the value of U.S _____.
a) rises; smaller; imports b) falls; greater; imports
c) rises; greater; exports d) falls; greater; exports
12) If the U.S. interest rate rises, the _____.
a) there is a movement downward ‘along the demand curve for dollars.
b) demand curve for dollars shifts leftward.
c) demand curve for dollars shifts rightward.
d) None of the above answers are correct.
13) One of the main reasons the supply curve for dollars slopes _____ includes
the _____.
a) upward; exports effect
b) downward; imports effect
c) downward; expected profit effect
d) upward; imports effect
14) The _____ the exchange rate, the _____ are foreign-produced goods and
hence the smaller the quantity of dollars supplied.
a) greater; cheaper b) lower; cheaper
c) lower; more expensive d) greater; more expensive
15) The capital account measures _____.
a) capital used outside the United States but manufactured inside the
United States.
b) capital produced outside of the United States minus capital produced
inside the United States.
c) capital used inside the United States but manufactured outside the
United States.
d) foreign investment in the United States minus U.S. investment abroad.
16) The private sector surplus or deficit is equal to _____.
a) saving minus investment
b) income minus consumption
c) income minus consumption minus net taxes
d) income minus consumption minus investment

Q.2 Answer the following.

a) Importance of International Finance. 08
b) Characteristics of foreign exchange market. 08

Q.3 Answer the following.

a) Types of transactions. 08
b) Importance of Balance of Payments. 08

Q.4 Answer the following. 16

a) Explain Factors influencing Exchange rates.
OR
b) Explain Factors influencing international capital budgeting.

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 SLR-CD-61
Q.5 Answer the following. 16
Cleto Srl (Spain) has just constructed a manufacturing plant in Ghana. The
construction cost 9 billion Ghanian cedi. Cleto intends to leave the plant open for
three years. During the three years of operation, cedi cash flows are expected to
be 3 billion cedi,3 billion cedi, and 2 billion cedi, respectively. Operating cash flows
will begin one year from today and are remitted back to the parent at the end of
each year. At the end of the third year, Cleto expects to sell the plant for 5 billion
cedi. Cleto has a required rate of return of 17 percent.
It currently takes 8,700 cedi to buy one euro, and the cedi is expected to
depreciate by 5 percent per year.
a) Determine the NPV for this project. Should Cleto build the plant?
b) How would your answer change if the value of the cedi was expected to
remain unchanged from its current value of 8,700 cedi per euro over the
course of the three years? Should Cleto construct the plant then?

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 SLR-CD-62
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Tourism and Hospitality Management
Hospitality and Tourism Marketing (20407411)
Day & Date: Sunday,31-12-2023 Max. Marks:80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice questions. 16

1) Tourism Marketing has a dominant role of_____.
a) Customers b) Producers
c) Travel agencies d) Intermediaries
2) 4 P’s of marketing 1.Place 2.Price 3.Promotion 4. ______.
a) Packaging b) Product
c) People d) Process
3) Tourism is having highly ______demand.
a) Stable demand b) Passive demand
c) None of these d) Unstable demand
4) Which one is not the element of market planning?
a) Policies b) Programs
c) People d) Budgets
5) After decline stage a product can undergo for _____?
a) New product development b) Modifications
c) Offers d) Discount sales
6) Tour operation in marketing is a _____ mix?
a) Product mix b) Place mix
c) Promotion mix d) Product mix
7) Leaving a destination in a better condition than you found it is known as _____.
a) Enhancive sustainability b) Sustainable tourism
c) Eco-tourism d) Clean-up tourism
8) Personal selling in tourism is one of the ______mix.
a) Product mix b) Place mix
c) Promotion mix d) None of these
9) From the below options which suits for promotion?
a) Discounted price b) Trade fares
c) Outdoor selling d) Whole sale price
10) The relation between production and consumption about tourism product is ___.
a) Interrelated b) Production after consumption
c) Consumption after production d) None of these
11) In tourism industry and tourism marketing, travel agent is known as ______.
a) Spoke person b) Negotiator
c) Intermediaries d) Agent

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 SLR-CD-62
12) The process of grouping people within a market according to similar
needs, characteristics, or behaviour is known as _____.
a) Tourism marketing b) Segmentation
c) Targeting d) None of these
13) The main aim of the tourism industry in India is _____.
a) To spread word of mouth & create repeat visitors
b) To spread word of month
c) Create repeat visitors
d) None of these
14) _____ is the critical determinant of tourism demand.
a) Race of gender b) Mobility
c) Income d) Education
15) _____ demand comprises of category of people who do not travel for same
reason.
a) Suppressed demand b) No demand
c) Effective demand d) Actual demand
16) _____ is the most important economic benefit of tourism.
a) Increase in employment b) Increase in production
c) Foreign exchange d) None of these

Q.2 Write short notes on. 16

a) Role of Digital Marketing in Hospitality and Tourism.
b) Factors influencing price.

Q.3 Write short notes on. 16

a) Marketing mix in tourism industry.
b) Role of media in promotion of destination marketing.

Q.4 Answer the following question. 16

What is the meaning of promotion mix? Explain the major promotion tools in
tourism.
OR
Explain the product life cycle of tourism product in details.

Q.5 Define marketing and state its importance in tourism industry. What are the 7’ps 16
of marketing in tourism.

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 SLR-CD-63
Set
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Production and Materials Management
World Class Manufacturing (20407414)
Day & Date: Friday, 29-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) All questions carry equal marks.

Q.1 Multiple Choice Questions. 16

1) Total productive maintenance aims at _____.
a) Less idle time b) Increase in productivity
c) Zero down time d) None of the above
2) How many dimensions of employee involvement are listed?
a) 3 b) 4
c) 5 d) 6
3) A systematic approach for maintenance is _____.
a) Problem – Cause – Diagnosis – Rectification
b) Problem – Diagnosis – Cause – Rectification
c) Problem – Measure – Diagnosis – Rectification
d) Problem – Diagnosis – Measure – Rectification
4) EMS certification is against _____.
a) ISO 14000 b) ISO 14001
c) ISO 14004 d) ISO 14050
5) How many pillars are considered under the TPM?
a) 6 b) 8
c) 5 d) 4
6) Job description is a statement containing items like
a) Job title, location, and duties
b) Machines, tools, and equipment
c) Materials, working conditions and hazards
d) All of these
7) The elements in a high-moderate uncertain environment.
a) Changes unpredictably b) Changes infrequently
c) Doesn’t change d) Changes slowly
8) Which of the following is not an element of management process?
a) Pricing b) Staffing
c) Planning d) Controlling
9) Which was the first company to adopt SIX SIGMA?
a) Motorola b) Fuji
c) General Electric d) Suzuki
10) Which of the following is a pull factor in emigration?
a) Political Crisis b) Job opportunities
c) Food shortage d) War

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11) _____ typically offer more flexibility in international markets.
a) SME’s b) LSE’s
c) MNE’s d) None of the above
12) Capacity =
a) (Average production rate/Hour) × (Number of hours worked/Period)
b) (Maximum production rate/Hour) × (Number of hours worked/Period)
c) (Maximum production rate/Hour) × (Period/Number of hours worked)
d) None of the above
13) Which of these are not IT requirements to implement WCM
a) Network and communications
b) Computers, Phones and Visual Display Boards
c) Secure systems
d) Embedded systems
14) What is called for the pollution that can be traced directly to industrial activity?
a) Soil pollution b) Water pollution
c) Air pollution d) Industrial pollution
15) Human capital management is occasionally used synonymously among _____.
a) Marketing b) Finance
c) Information Technology d) Human Resources
16) Continuous learning is possible by looking at organizations design’s _____.
a) 4 elements b) 5 elements
c) 6 elements d) 7 elements

Q.2 Answer the following 16

a) Write short note on Benchmarking.
b) Write short note on Maintainability.

Q.3 Answer the following 16

a) Write short note on Kanban system.
b) Write short note on Flexible Manufacturing System.

Q.4 Answer the following Long answers 16

Discuss role of Human Resource System in World Class Manufacturing.
OR
What are the factors causing pollution and its effects on health? How to control
pollution.

Q.5 Case Study: 16

Indian Institute of Materials Management (IIMM) is a forum for purchase and
materials related employees and they have frequent meetings, seminars and
annual conventions to share knowledge.
In one of their annual conventions the topic was implementation of JIT for
competitive advantages. Leading personalities of the Indian industries talked lots
of positive points and benefits due to the JIT purchase and JIT manufacturing
methods. Many presented calculations and statistics of savings in costs and time
and how it helps in reduce the price of the end products and hence competitive
advantage. Most of the audience were impressed about the theory and thought of
practical application in their respective companies.

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 SLR-CD-63
However, few of the executive participants were more worried about practice
and less interested in idealistic theories. Mr. Joshi of LML’s Bangalore office was
impressed. He has been arranging Engine Block castings, tyre tube sets,
machined components, speedometers, etc. from southern region to LML, Kanpur
Unit. He was facing lots of problems in arranging the long distance supplies. He
asked few questions against the JIT and summary of question to Mr. Sudhakar
(the speaker) were as follows: Mr. Joshi said JIT cannot be fully implementable in
Indian conditions due to following genuine constraints.
a) The inter-state disputes “Border disputes” at times disturb the arrangements.
b) On and off terrorism, political agitations, holidays due to local, regional and
national leaders’ deaths also disturb work environment.
c) Spread of vendors all over India and vastness of coverage do not enable to
know correct position of WIP of vendors.
d) Transport bottlenecks, heavy rains, floods (coastal areas), workers’ strikes
cause anxiety and worry.
e) Partnership problems, financial and quality constraints are not easily
attended or solved.
These questions were like a mini speech on anti JIT and the atmosphere in the
auditorium got charged up Mr. Sudhakar, the speaker, gave half hearted replies to
questions for which Mr. Joshi and his friends were not satisfied. Finally Mr.
Sudhakar said: “The system which operate successfully in Japan may not work
equally well in other countries”. Only when Mr. Joshi took his seat as he felt he has
made his clear on practical problems than merely going through the theory.
Suddenly he seems to have won the admiration of the gathering. Prof. Rao who
was Chairman of the technical session gave his concluding remarks. He appreciated
the ideology of JIT but advised executives to take it up step by step and ensure
pragmatic views and do not over depend on JIT to fail. This he told as Indian
Industrial Environment is yet to mature to take care of JIT systems in totality.
Questions:
a) Explain why JIT purchase works well in the developing countries.
b) Do you agree with Mr. Joshi’s views on constraints to JIT?
c) Write how you feel the JIT systems can be adopted in India.

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 SLR-CD-64
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Human Resource Management
International Human Resource Management (20407417)
Day & Date: Saturday, 30-12-2023 Max. Marks:80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice questions. 16

1) When an international firm follows a strategy of choosing only from the
nationals of the parent country, it is called _____.
a) Polycentric approach b) Geocentric approach
c) Ethnocentric approach d) None of the above
2) When the firms adopt a strategy of limiting recruitment to the nationalities
of the host country where the branch is located, it is called _______.
a) Polycentric approach b) Geocentric approach
c) Ethnocentric approach d) None of the above
3) When the firms choose a strategy of recruiting the most suitable persons
for the positions available in the firm, irrespective of their nationalities, it is
called_____.
a) Polycentric approach b) Geocentric approach
c) Ethnocentric approach d) None of the above
4) IHRM involves ______ of the right people at the right positions, irrespective of
geographic locations.
a) Selection b) Employment
c) Rejection d) All of these
5) Knowledge sharing among expatriates is done under _____strategy.
a) Individual strategy b) Group strategy
c) organizational strategy d) National strategy
6) _______ approach is basically taken up while employing host country
nationals in the subsidiary of the MNC Operating in that country.
a) Geocentric b) Regio centric
c) Polycentric d) Ethnocentric
7) Management describes organizational behavior within countries and culture.
a) Indo-cultural b) Human resource
c) Cross cultural d) Behavioral
8) Tendency of ______ company in case of MNC’s to have some work culture in
an overseas company.
a) Host b) Parent
c) Both d) None of the above

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 SLR-CD-64
9) Host country nationals are employed because they know the taste and
preferences of the _____.
a) Local workers b) Local workers
c) TCNs d) Home country nationals
10) ______ is not incorporated in major categories of Balance Sheet Approach.
a) Housing b) Income Tax
c) Goods and services d) Expatriate
11) The term ______ failure has been defined as the premature return of an
expatriate.
a) Expatriate b) Non-expatriate
c) Global expatriate d) Repatriate
12) _____ are the managers who are citizens of countries other than the one
in which the MNC is headquarters.
a) TCNs b) Host country nationals
c) Parent country nationals d) None of the above
13) _____ is arranged to make the expatriate familiarize with the challenge of
assignment.
a) Work experience b) Online training
c) Field experience d) Off job training
14) The term _____ leads to a revolution in the global division of labour.
a) Resource management b) Recruitment
c) Selection d) Offshoring
15) _____are the people who travel internationally but they do not relocate to
another country.
a) Repatriates b) Expatriates
c) Non-Expatriates d) Third country nationals
16) ______is the main issue in international labour relations.
a) Labour participation b) Labour Turnover
c) Labour Retention d) Labour Change

Q.2 Write short notes on. 16

a) Training for expatriate.
b) Causes of expatriate failure.

Q.3 Write short notes on. 16

a) Selection Technique.
b) Participative management.

Q.4 Answer the following question. 16

What are the objectives of international compensation management. Explain the
factors affecting international compensation.
OR
Explain the meaning of international HRM. What is the difference between
domestic and international HRM.

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 SLR-CD-64
Q.5 Attempt the following case. 16
Rajmudra textiles the leading market leader established in 2001 at Solapur. The
main production of this organization was Cotton Yarn with excellent quality. After
5 years the Managing Director Mr. Vikram thought that he should start different
yarns which would be export in other countries. With the dream of Vikram,
Rajmudra textiles extended his business in Terrylene and Woolen yarn. In 2010
with the globalization of cotton industries Rajmudra textiles had started to acquire
spinning mills at foreign land. At the time of acquisition, they determined to change
human resource policies into international human resource policies for
improvement in quality and quantity. But, the determination remained only a
thought and vanished with the time. In 2014 again after the failure in market all
directors came together at Solapur headquarter for discussion and all were
confused about international human resource policies.
Analyse the above case and help Mr. Vikram to form international human
resource policies for foreign branches.

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 SLR-CD-65
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
International Business Management
International Logistics (20407420)
Day & Date: Friday,29-12-2023 Max. Marks:80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) All questions carry equal marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice questions. 16

1) The warehousing function that combines the logistical flow of several small
shipments to a specific market area is _____.
a) Break bulk function b) Operational function
c) Stockpiling function d) Consolidation function
2) VLCC refers to _____.
a) Very large crude container b) Very large crude carrier
c) Very large closed container d) Very large closed carrier
3) The department in the shipping company that ensures the seaworthiness
of ship is ________.
a) Husbandry department b) Finance department
c) Technical department d) Operating department
4) The transportation model coordinated between railways and roadways is _____.
a) Transship b) Air truck
c) Piggyback d) Fishy back
5) A mate’s receipt is _____.
a) A draft bill of lading
b) A substitute bill of lading
c) Bill of lading evidencing goods carried on deck
d) None of the above
6) The term used for loading or unloading of heavy cargo is _____.
a) Rigging b) Slinging
c) Carnage d) Forced discharge
7) The logistics is derived from the _______word.
a) Greek b) Latin
c) Spanish d) American
8) The concept of logistics has been systematically divided into _____.
a) 2 phases b) 3 phases
c) 4 phases d) 5 phases
9) ICD stands for _____.
a) Internal Container Depot b) Inland Container Depot
c) International Container Depot d) Indian Container Depot
10) The stability of liner freight rates extends for a period of not less than _______.
a) 6 months b) 12 months
c) 15 months d) 18 months

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11) Inbound and outbound logistics is _____ in the generic value chain of logistics.
a) A support activity b) A primary activity
c) Not an activity d) The only activity
12) The head quarter of shipping corporation of India is located at _______.
a) Chennai b) Mumbai
c) Delhi d) Kolkata
13) According to the Multimodal Transportation of Goods Act, a multimodal
transport document cannot be ______.
a) A bearer instrument
b) An order instrument
c) A non-negotiable instrument
d) None of the above
14) Vessels that carry railway passenger and freight rolling stock are ______.
a) OBO b) RO/RO
c) SD 14 d) Train ferry
15) Packaging performs two functions. ______and logistics.
a) Distribution b) Store keeping
c) Marketing d) Material handling
16) ________ are the elements of logistics system.
a) Transportation b) Warehousing
c) Inventory management d) All of the above

Q.2 Write short notes on. 16

a) Types of Marking
b) Kinds of Charter

Q.3 Write short notes on. 16

a) Trends in International supply chain management.
b) Symptoms of poor Inventory Management.

Q.4 Answer the following question. 16

What is the meaning of warehousing? Explain its objectives and functions in details
OR
Define packaging. Explain its functions and types.

Q.5 Analyse the following case study. 16

Trade team is a joint venture of Excel Logistics, along with its parent company
NFC Plc., and Bass Brewers to provide a national distribution network service to
the U.K. beverage industry. Trade team was developed in response to changing
pressures and shifting market conditions in the industry. The beer market in the
United Kingdom had been in long-term decline, with pub consumption shrinking at
approximately 1 percent per year. Overall, the industry had been suffering from
excess capacity and lower margins. On top of this, the government had required
brewers to divest themselves of their interest in pubs, a directive with major
marketplace implications. Between 1992 and 1999, for example, pub ownership
by regional and national brewers declined from 74 percent to 33 percent. The end
result was typical of low-growth industries: Brewers were consolidating and
repositioning and were in need of a fresh approach to marketing and distribution.
As the United Kingdom’s largest provider of brewery distribution services, Excel
Logistics had a significant interest in protecting a business that was under
pressure from individual brewers and emerging pub-ownership groups. Excel’s
idea was to take over one major brewer’s existing distribution infrastructure to
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achieve the critical mass associated with that company’s market share.
Leveraging that infrastructure, it would then offer cost effective logistics services
to other beverage suppliers. This concept led to the formation of the Trade team
joint venture between Excel Logistics and Bass, which already was the industry’s
low-cost producer. Trade team is now the U.K.’s leading independent logistics
provider to the beverage industry. It has annual revenues of $200 million and
delivers approximately 280 million gallons of beer and other beverages to more
than 27,000 retail customers on behalf of a number of beverage suppliers.
Uniquely situated as a multiuser distributor between the consumer and the
supplier, Trade team has revolutionized the beverage industry supply chain.
Results to date have been encouraging. Trade team has enabled the brewers and
beverage suppliers to reduce their operating costs, increase revenues through
market expansion, and provide superior service levels to their customers. Market
share for this innovative joint venture has reached the 40 to 50 percent range. In
fact, this represents the largest outsourcing initiative yet undertaken in the United
Kingdom
Question:
Analyse the case and write down the case facts.

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Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Banking Management
Retail & Universal Banking (20407423)
Day & Date: Friday,29-12-2023 Max. Marks:80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat labelled diagrams wherever necessary.

Q.1 Choose correct alternatives given below. 16

1) Which of the following is known as “Retail banking”?
a) Consumer Banking b) Merchant Banking
c) Investment Banking d) Wholesale Banking
2) Which of the following institutions is not a bank?
a) BOB b) IDBI
c) SBI d) BOI
3) Which of the following is not fundamental ingredient in effective marketing
mix of retail banking?
a) Product and profit b) Product and price
c) Place and people d) Process Trade
4) Customer not gaining any interest from _____.
a) Current ac b) FD
c) RD d) Savings
5) RTGS stands for _____.
a) Reverse Technology geographic service
b) Repeated Technology geographic service
c) Reengineered Technology geographic service
d) Real time Gross Settlement
6) Banking is ______ modern commerce and trade.
a) Backbone b) Blood
c) Both a & b d) None of these
7) Which of the following is a function of central Bank?
a) accepting deposits of money from public with a purpose of lending or
investment
b) Agency function of the Bank
c) Credit Creation
d) Banker to the Government
8) Full form of PSB is _______.
a) Police service bank b) People’s service bank
c) Public savings bank d) Public sector bank
9) With evolution of banking the customer base changed from _____to ____
over a period of time.
a) Heterogeneous, homogenous b) Homogenous, heterogeneous
c) a and b d) None of these
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 SLR-CD-66
10) The evolution of retail banking in India can be traced back to the entry of _____.
a) retail-banks b) wholesale bank
c) RBI d) Foreign banks
11) The conventional banking business by PSBs was done on a more _____
approach.
a) specialized b) Moderate
c) generalized d) none of these
12) Consumer backings models with hybrid liabilities and assets specifically
targeted at the _____.
a) industrial segment b) Personal segment
c) a & b both d) none of these
13) The entry of new generation of ______ in early 1990s has created a new
approach to retail banking by banks.
a) foreign banks b) Wholesale banks
c) Private sector bank d) none of these
14) Which of the following targets to individual segment?
a) Retail Banking b) Wholesale Bank
c) Corporate Banking d) B & C both
15) Which of the following is not a service provided by retail banks?
a) savings account b) Remittance
c) Personal loans d) Consultancy
16) The focus of retail banking is on _____and _____ the market share and ______.
a) chasing, creating, capital base
b) capturing, creating, asset base
c) capturing, improving, customer base
d) creating, improving, data base

Q.2 Attempt the following. 16

a) Discuss the main characteristics of retail banking in INDIA.
b) Write note advantages of retail banking.

Q.3 Attempt the following. 16

a) Explain different retail banking strategies.
b) Explain scope and importance of universal banking.

Q.4 Attempt the following. (Any one) 16

a) Define Customer relationship management and explain Stages of CRM
process in retail banking and explain role and importance of CRM in
customer relationship.
b) Explain Different kinds of retail loans and Recovery process of retail loans.

Q.5 Explain recent Trends in Retail Banking. 16

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 SLR-CD-67
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
System Management
Programming Concepts and Practices (20407426)
Day & Date: Sunday, 31-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Select the right option for each of the following from the choices given: 16
1) Which of the following is a loop construct in programming?
a) For b) While
c) Do While d) All of the above
2) An expression that compares two operands uses _____ operators.
a) Arithmatic b) relational
c) Logical d) conditional
3) A function may or may not take _____ from the calling function.
a) variables b) parameters
c) instructions d) inputs
4) The type of programming that proposes logically structured programs with
top-down approach is known as _____.
a) structured programming b) object oriented programming
c) algorithm d) None of the Above
5) What is the term used for a block of code that is executed repeatedly until
a certain condition is met?
a) Function b) Loop
c) Condition d) Variable
6) A variable declared inside the function is called _____.
a) private variable b) function variable
c) local variable d) complex variable
7) =’ operator is a _____ type of operator.
a) Arithmatic b) Logical
c) Assignment d) Relational
8) _____ is a feature of reusing the set of properties and methods of one
class in another class.
a) Abstraction b) Inheritance
c) Encapsulation d) Polymorphism
9) A _____ is the name assigned to programming elements like variable,
constant, function, etc.
a) data type b) identifier
c) character code d) construct
10) Function _____ contains the actual definition and body of a function.
a) Declaration b) Definition
c) Body d) Call

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 SLR-CD-67
11) An operator that requires a single operand is known as _____.
a) Increment operator b) Decrement operator
c) Unary operator d) Assignment operator
12) _____ refers to the process of locating and removing the errors in a program.
a) Analyzing b) Correcting
c) Debugging d) Executing
13) Which of the following is not a valid variable name in most programming
languages?
a) myVariable b) 123Variable
c) _myVariable d) my_variable
14) The feature that allows the same operations to be carried out differently
depending on the object is _____.
a) Encapsulation b) Abstraction
c) Polymorphism d) Inheritance
15) _____ class cannot be instantiated.
a) Friend b) Abstract
c) Local d) Global
16) A function that calls itself is known as a _____ function.
a) Static b) Recursive
c) Null d) None of the Above

Q.2 Answer in brief: 16

a) Differentiate between Local and Global variables.
b) Discuss the logical ‘AND’ and ‘OR’ functions in Excel with examples.

Q.3 Write Short Notes on: 16

a) Relational Operators.
b) Branching constructs in programming.

Q.4 Answer Any One of the following: 16

a) Define Functions. Discuss in detail the different types of functions.
b) What is Object Oriented programming? Discuss the basic features of Object
Oriented programming.

Q.5 Analyse the following case, identify the problem, provide alternative 16
solutions and justify the best solution.
Draw flowchart for a program of medicine schedule for a patient. The course is
for 3 days, 3 doses a day. The program should count the number of doses for
each day and the day number in progress. Before every dose, the patient be
asked if he feels uncomfo.

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 SLR-CD-68
Seat
No. Set P
M.B.A. (Semester - IV) (New) (CBCS) Examination: Oct/Nov-2023
COLLEGE AND UNIVERSITY CAMPUS
Agriculture & Co-Operative Management
International Trade and Agriculture (20407429)
Day & Date: Friday, 29-12-2023 Max. Marks: 80
Time: 03:00 PM To 06:00 PM
Instructions: 1) All Questions are compulsory
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.

Q.1 Multiple choice Questions (One mark each). 16

1) SWOT stands for?
a) Strengths, Wellbeing, Opportunities, Threat
b) Sudden, Weakness, Outstanding, Threat
c) Social way of overcoming Threats
d) Strengths, Weakness, Opportunities, Threats
2) Which of the following is international Trade?
a) Trade between provinces b) Trade between regions
c) Trade between Countries d) both (b) and (c)
3) Exporter has to register with one of the following authorities
a) RBI b) Exim Bank
c) DGFT d) ECGS
4) If the Balance of Payment of a country is adverse, then which institution
Will help that country?
a) World bank
b) World trade organization
c) International Monetary Fund
d) Asian Development Bank
5) Eliminating government set restrictions or barriers is known as?
a) Free Trade b) Favourable trade
c) Investment d) Liberalisation
6) The World Bank was established?
a) To promote the international Trade
b) To improve the adverse Balance of payment situation of the non-
member Countries.
c) To construct the economics damaged during the second world war
d) All of these
7) AGMARK is related to _____.
a) Quality b) packaging
c) Processing d) Production
8) When did the World Trade Organization come into effect?
a) March 6, 1996 b) April 8, 1994
c) February 5, 1994 d) January 1, 1995

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 SLR-CD-68
9) Bilateral Trade means _____.
a) The trade between two nations.
b) The trade between three or more nations
c) The trade among many nations
d) None of the above
10) Trade between two countries can be useful if cost rations of goods are _____
a) Undetermined b) Decreasing
c) Equal d) Different
11) International trade contributes and increases the world _____
a) Population b) Inflation
c) Economy d) Trade barriers
12) _____ refers to the tax imposed on imports
a) Imported tax b) Tariffs
c) Subsides d) Import quotes
13) Which of the following is not true of a letter of credit?
a) It is a document
b) Issued by a bank
c) At the request of the exporter
d) The bank agrees to honour a draft drawn on the importer.
14) According to the theory of comparative advantage, a country will export a
good only if
a) It can produce it using less labour than other countries
b) Its productivity is higher in producing the good than the productivity of
countries in producing it.
c) Its wage rate in producing the good is lower than in other countries.
d) all of the above
15) Which among the following are called "Breton Wood Twins”?
a) IBRD & IMF b) IDA & IFC
c) IDA & MIGA d) IMF & IDA
16) The method of payment where the exporter relies on the. undertaking of a
bank to pay is
a) Bank Grantee b) Letter of credit
c) Letter of comfort d) none of the above

Q.2 Answer the following- (Short Notes) 16

a) IFC
b) SWOT of Commercial Crops

Q.3 Attempt the following. (Short Notes) 16

a) Explain Objectives of IBRD
b) Explain the effect of Tariff Monopoly and Price discrimination

Q.4 Attempt any one of the following. (Long Answer) 16

a) Explain the Import and Export Procedure.
OR
b) Explain WTO Organisation and its Function

Q.5 Attempt the following. (Long answer) 16

Explain the Theory of Comparative Advantage.

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