Các em thân mến,

Chúng ta đang chuẩn bị cho một hành trình rất quan trọng – kỳ thi vào khối chuyên Anh năm 2025. Đây
không chỉ là cơ hội để các em thể hiện khả năng mà còn là bước đệm quan trọng cho sự nghiệp học tập
trong tương lai. Mỗi buổi học, mỗi bài tập về nhà đều là một viên gạch xây dựng nền tảng vững chắc
cho các em.

Cô mong các em hãy thực hiện nghiêm túc bài về nhà mà cô giao. Việc hoàn thành đầy đủ và đúng tiến
độ không chỉ giúp các em rèn luyện kỹ năng mà còn giúp cô theo dõi tiến độ học tập và chất lượng từng
kỹ năng của các em. Cô sẽ báo cáo chi tiết về sự tiến bộ của các em đến phụ huynh, vì vậy hãy chú ý
đến từng bài làm và hoàn thành thật tốt.

Nếu vì lý do đặc biệt các em không thể hoàn thành bài tập, phụ huynh vui lòng thông báo trực tiếp cho
cô giáo qua tin nhắn hoặc cuộc gọi. Mỗi bài không làm sẽ bị phạt vào quỹ liên hoan của lớp với mức 20
nghìn đồng/bài thiếu nếu không có sự thông báo từ phụ huynh.

Cô tin rằng với sự cố gắng và nỗ lực của các em, kỳ thi tới sẽ không còn là thử thách mà là cơ hội để
các em tỏa sáng. Chúng ta cùng quyết tâm và đi đến đích thành công!

Cô giáo

PRACTCE TEST 999. 666

A. LISTENING:
I. Listen to five short conversations and choose the correct answer to each question (5.0
points).
Question 1. You hear a reporter talking on the radio. Where is he?
A. outside a training ground B. outside an expensive hotel
C. outside somebody’s house
Question 2. You hear a woman talking about travelling to work every day. How does she feel
about the daily train journey?
A. It is open quite tiring B. It is a good opportunity to talk to people
C. It is a relaxing way to begin the day.
Question 3. You overhear a woman talking on the phone. Why is she calling?
A. to apologize for a mistake B. to refuse to do something
C. to deny she did something
Question 4. You hear a man taking about reading books. Why does he enjoy reading at home?
A. it helps him pass the time. B. It enables him to spend time alone.
C. It makes a change from his job.
Question 5. You overhear a conversation in a holiday resort. Who is the woman?
A. a waitress B. a tourist C. a café owner
II. You will hear an interview with an organiser at a tennis club. For each question, choose
the best option A, B, C or D. (5.0 points)
Question 6. Chris hopes to _______.
A. encourage people to join the club. B. discovered new talented players.
C. find more people to teach players. D. make more friends.
Question 7. What does Chris say about club nights?
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 A. they are held only in summer. B. there is sometimes a small
charge.
C. refreshments are sometimes provided each night. D. they are quite boring.
Question 8. The teaching programme ________.
A.is offered to people with membership only.
B. is available to people wanting to learn on their own.
C. must be paid for in advance. D. last 5 months.
Question 9. From spring, the tennis club is going to ______.
A. introduce junior club night. B. encourage people to help with
teaching.
C. provide snacks on junior club night. D. meet other clubs.
Question 10. Who is responsible for organising the club nights?
A. unpaid members B. various office workers C. the teaching staff D. exclusive
members
III. You will hear somebody talking about trips on the river. For each question, fill in the
missing information in the numbered space with NO MORE THAN THREE words.
Private parties. Groups: Minimum :10people. Maximum : (11) ________ people
Available all year round: Trips last 2-5 hours in the evening or (12)_____________
Food: Cold buffet or (13)_________________
Must be ordered at least before (14)_______________
Cost; Boat hire includes disco or (15) __________________
Bookings: Through website, by telephone or at the (16)___________ in the leisure centre.
IV. You will hear a conversation between a girl, Maria, and a boy, Dominic, about keeping
fit
Decide if each statement is TRUE or FALSE. (4.0 points)
STATEMENTS TRUE FALSE
Question 17. Maria and Dominic agree that running a marathon would be
enjoyable
Question 18. Maria is worried that running will be boring.
Question 19. Maria regularly does exercise classes.
Question 20. Dominic would be happier running alone.

B. GRAMMAR - VOCABULARY - LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS (20 points)

I. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences. (8.0 points)
Question 21. They tell me he is _______ a lot of money in his new job.
A. having B. earning C. gaining D. profiting
Question 22. Mr. Brown had to leave his family ______ when he went abroad to work.
A. out B. behind C. at a loss D. at all cost
Question 23. The international Olympic Committee (IOC) was created at an 1894 meeting in
Paris that ________ to the revival of the Olympic Games in 1896

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 A. led B. aimed C. attended D. determined
Question 24. Does that name __________ to you?
A. ring a bell B. break the ice C. foot the bill D. fall into place
Question 25. ___________, the results couldn't be better.
A. No matter what he tried hard B. No matter how hard he tried
C. Although very hard he tried D. Despite how hard he tried
Question 26. Simple sails were made from canvas _____ over a frame.
A. stretched B. was stretched C. a stretch D. it was stretched
Question 27. Last year she earned _____ her brother.
A. twice as much as B. twice more than C. twice as many as D. twice as more as
Question 28. _____ is caused by a virus was not known until 1911.
A. That measles B. Measles C. What if measles D. As measles
II. Choose the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions. (3.0 points)
Question 29.In just three months H.G. Wells wrote the famous classic The Time Machine
A B C
for what he won a Newberry Caldecot award.
D
Question 30. It was suggested that Pedro studies the material more thoroughly
before attempting to
A B C
pass the exam.
D
Question 31. Many of the important products obtained from trees, one of the most important is
A B C
wood pulp, which is used in paper-making.
D
III. Choose the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part. (2.0 points)
Question 32. I would rather figure things out on my own way than to ask that peevish librarian
for help.
A: approachable B: strict C: irritable D: kind
Question 33. Thank you for giving us this singular privilege of being part of this
commencement ceremony.
A: graduation B: important C: wedding D: engagement
IV. Choose the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s)
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. (2.0
points)
Question 34. It is important for a teacher to be totally impartial when determining which
students will pass or fail.
A. hostile B. biased C. dislike D. worried

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Question 35. The point at which pain becomes intolerable is known as the pain perception
threshold.
A. elusive B. altered C. intensified D. bearable
V. Use the given words in the brackets in the correct forms to complete the sentences (5.0
points)
Question 36. People in the USA and Canada aren’t annoyed by children’s ___________.
(MISCHIEVOUS)
Question 37. Mr. Jones has always played a __________ role at school staff meeting.
(SUPPORT)
Question 38. Young Americans are much more concerned about physical ___________ than
Asian counterparts. (ATTRACT)
Question 39. School uniform is no longer________ in many British school. (COMPEL)
Question 40. Long ago, mammoths of great _______________ lived on earth. (ENORMOUS)
C. READING:
I. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, D, E, F, or G on your answer
sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 41 to 45. (5.0 points)

A. and others react to weed pollens that are around from spring to autumn
B. when less pollens is lifted off the plants
C. and how much pollen is in the air each day
D. as their climate and altitude keep counts low
E. although they often grow out of it
F. which can make the problem worse
G. because they cause allergy

Hay fever is the most common allergy there is. It is widespread among children and teenagers,
you are also prone to hay fever if you have another allergy and, like other allergies, it seems to
run in families. What’s more it’s on the increase- studies throughout Europe show a steady
growth in the number of sufferers in the past 20 years.
Hay fever has little to do with hay. It’s actually caused by pollen from trees, grasses and weeds
(41) ___. When sufferers come into contact with pollen-laden air, their immune system starts
working overtime which is dispersed into the air during spring and summer which trigger all the
classic hay fever symptoms- a stuffy, runny nose, sneezing, an itchy or sore throat and watery
eyes. Although the hay fever season peaks in June and July, some people are allergic to trees
pollens releases in February and March (42) ___.
Weather is all-important. It determines when hay fever season starts (43) ___.The cooler and
drier the spring, the later the season. Pollen counts are lower on dull, damp days- (44) ___- and
higher on hot, dry days. Wind dilutes pollen, so sufferers should make for the coast where sea
breezes blow the pollen away. Mountain regions are another haven (45) ___. Cities also have
lower pollen counts than country areas. In low-lying grassland regions the counts can be five
times higher than in cities, although there’s now evidence that city pollutants can bring on hay
fever symptoms.
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II. The passage 2 has five paragraphs (46-50). Choose the correct Headings for each
paragraph 1-5 from the list of headings (A-G) below. (THERE ARE MORE OPTIONS
THAN NEEDED). (5.0 points). The first has been done for you.
A. Research holds the key to success B. New and improved techniques
C. A new kind of athlete D. New equipment has made a difference
E. Athletes are what they eat F. Personalized programs will help
G. Is there a limit to record-breaking?
[0: ___G __]
A world record is every athlete’s dream, but the hard-won records of a few years ago are mostly
just today’s qualifying times. Roger Bannister’s famous four-minute mile of 1956 has been
beaten by nearly 15 seconds, while almost an hour and twenty minutes has been taken off the
women’s marathon since 1953. ‘Faster, higher, stronger’ is the Olympic motto, and today’s
competitors continue to push back the boundaries of what the body can achieve. But one
wonders if this can continue.
[46: ______]
The last forty years have seen many important technological advances. For example, since the
introduction of strong, flexible fiberglass poles, over a meter has been added to the pole vault
record. There have also been important developments in the design the running shoe. And while
a shoe won’t actually make someone run faster, modern shoes do mean many more miles of
comfortable, injury-free training.
[47: ______]
Pushing back the limits now depends more on science, technology and medicine than anything
else. Athletic technique, training programs and diets are all being studied to find ways of taking
a few more seconds off or adding a few more cm to that elusive world record. It seems that
natural ability and hard work are no longer enough.
[48: ______]
The search to find more efficient ways of moving goes on. Analysis of an athlete’s style is
particularly useful for events like jumping and throwing. Studies show that long jumpers need
to concentrate not on the speed of approach, as once thought, but on the angle their bodies make
with the ground as they take off. However, the rules governing each sport limit advances
achieved by new styles. For instance, only one-footed takeoffs are allowed in the high jump.
[49: ______]
In the future, it should be possible to develop a more individual approach to training programs.
Athletes will keep detailed diaries and collect data to help predict the point when training
becomes overtraining, the cause of many injuries. If athletes fee all the information into a
database, it may then be possible to predict patterns and to advise them individually when they
should cut down.
[50: ______]
Combining the right diet with a training program is vital. Athletes are continually searching for
that special ‘go-faster’ ingredient, but apparently it’s still a battle to get them to drink sufficient
liquid and to follow a balanced healthy diet throughout all phases of training, competition and
recovery. Diet in the period after an event is particularly important and often neglected. An
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athlete who doesn’t replace all the liquid lost immediately after a hard run won’t be able to
repeat the performance at the same level 24 hours later
III. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to fill in the blank in the following passage. (10
points)
One of the most urgent environmental problems in the world today is the shortage of clean
water. Having clean drinking water is a basic human right. But acid rain,(51) ________
pollution and garbage have made many sources of water undrinkable. Lakes, reservoirs and
even entire seas have become vast pools (52) ________ poison. Lake Baikal in Russia is one of
the largest lakes in the world. It (53) ________ a rich variety of animals and plants, including
1,300 rare species that do not exist (54) ________ else in the world. But they are being
destroyed by the massive volume of toxic effluent which (55) ________ into the lake every day.
Even when laws existed, the government did not have the power to enforce them.
Most industries simply ignore the regulations. The Mediterranean Sea (56) ________ 1% of
the world’s water surface. But it is the dumping (57)________ for 50% of all marine pollution.
Almost 16 countries regularly throw industrial wastes a few miles (58) ________ shore.
Water is free to everyone. A few years ago, people thought that the supply of clean water in
the world was limitless. Today, many water supplies have been (59) ________ by pollution and
sewage. Clean water is now scarce, and we are at last beginning to respect this precious (60)
________. We should do something now.
Question 51. A. industrialized B. industrious C. industrial D. industry
Question 52. A. in B. to C. on D. of
Question 53. A. consists B. composes C. encloses D.
contains
Question 54. A. anywhere B. somewhere C. everywhere D. here
Question 55. A. boil B. burn C. stay D. pour
Question 56. A. comprises B. holds C. occupies D. makes
Question 57. A. ground B. soil C. shore D. land
Question 58. A. on B. away C. of D. off
Question 59. A. kept B. ruined C. made D. conserved
Question 60. A. outlet B. natured C. well D. source
IV. Read the text and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (10 points)
The Moon, which has undergone a distinct and complex geological history,
presents a
striking appearance. The moon may be divided into two major terrains: the maria
Line
(dark
(5)
lowlands) and the terrace (bright highlands). The contrast in the reflectivity (the
capability of reflecting light) of these two terrains suggested to many early observers
that the two
terrains might have different compositions, and this supposition was confirmed by
missions to the Moon such as Surveyor and Apollo. One of the most obvious
(10) differences
between the terrains is the smoothness of the maria in contrast to the roughness of the
highlands. This roughness is mostly caused by the abundance of craters; the highlands

6
 are
completely covered by large craters( greater than 40-50 km in diameter), while the
(15) craters
of the maria tend to be much smaller. It is now known that the vast majority of the
Moon’s craters were formed by the impact of solid bodies with the lunar surface.
Most of the near side of the Moon was thoroughly mapped and studied from
telescopic
(20) pictures years before the age of space exploration. Earth-based telescopes can resolve
objects as small as a few hundred meters on the lunar surface. Close observation of
craters, combined with the way the Moon diffusely reflects sunlight, led to the
understanding that the Moon is covered by a surface layer, or regolith, that overlies
the
(25) solid rock of the Moon. Telescopic images permitted the cataloging of a bewildering
array of land forms. Craters were studied for clues to their origin; the large circular
maria were seen. Strange, sinuous features were observed in the maria. Although
various land forms were catalogued, the majority of astronomers’ attention was fixed
on craters and their origins.
Astronomers have known for a fairly long time that the shape of craters changes as
they increase in size. Small craters with diameters of less than 10-15 km have
relatively
simple shapes. They have rim crests that are elevated above the surrounding terrain,
smooth, bowl-shaped interiors, and depths that are about one-fifth to one-sixth their
diameters. The complexity of shape increases for larger craters.
Question 61. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. What astronomers learned from the Surveyor and Apollo space missions
B. Characteristics of the major terrains of the Moon
C. The origin of the Moon’s craters
D. Techniques used to catalogue the Moon’s land forms
Question 62. The word “undergone” in line1 is closest in meaning to:
A. altered B. substituted C. experienced D. preserved
Question 63. According to the passage, the maria differ from the terrace mainly in terms of:
A. age B. manner of creation C. size D. composition
Question 64. The passage supports which of the following statements about the Surveyor and
Apollo missions?
A. They confirmed earlier theories about the Moon’s surface.
B. They revealed that previous ideas about the Moon’s craters were incorrect.
C. They were unable to provide detailed information about the Moon’s surface.
D. They were unable to identify how the Moon’s craters were made.
Question 65. The word “vast” in line 10 is closest in meaning to:
A. special B. known C. varied D. great
Question 66. All of the following are true of the maria EXCEPT:
A. They have small craters. B. They have been analyzed by astronomers.
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C. They have a rough texture. D. They tend to be darker than the terrace.
Question 67. All of the following terms are defined in the passage EXCEPT:
A. Moon (line1) B. reflectivity (line3)
C. regolith (line16) D. rays (line19)
Question 68. The author mentions “wispy marks” in line 19 as an example of:
A. an aspect of the lunar surface discovered through lunar missions
B. a characteristic of large craters
C. a discovery made through the use of Earth-based telescopes
D. features that astronomers observed to be common to Earth and the Moon
Question 69. According to the passage, lunar researchers have focused mostly on:
A. the possibility of finding water on the Moon B. the lunar regolith
C. cataloging various land formations D. craters and their origins
Question 70. The passage probably continues with a discussion of:
A. the reasons craters are difficult to study B. the different shapes small craters can have
C. some features of large craters D. some difference in the ways small and large craters were
formed
D. WRITING (20 POINTS)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as
the sentence printed before it. (3.0 points)
Question 71. The deadline for the receipt of this job application form is on August 8th.
This job application ______________________________________________________.
Question 72. Jack bought those shirts last month and has been wearing them ever since.
 Jack has ______________________________________________________________.
Question 73. Mary didn't realize the seriousness of the ongoing chaos in her family.
Little _____________________________________________________________.
II. Rewrite each sentence so that it contains the given word/ words in brackets. You may
have to change the form. (2.0 points)
Question 74. He not only loved her with all his heart but also went out of his way to protect her
from all the evil things in life. (Together)
 ______________________________________________________________.
Question 75. Work shouldn't take priority over family in any circumstances. (should)
 ______________________________________________________________.

III. Your school’s English club has decided to hold an English speaking contest in late
December, but some members of the club and you find that it is too near the first term
examination. Write to the Chief of the club to suggest a change of the time. (10 points)
You should begin like this:
“Dear Mr. Brown, the Chief of English club,”
IV. Write an essay (at least 250 words) about the following topic: (15 points)
It’s claimed that young people can benefit a lot from doing volunteer work. Do you agree or
disagree? Give reasons for your ans