i

Model Question Bank on

Fish Genetics
and Breeding

Dear Author
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Matters.

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 136 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

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 iii

Model Question Bank on

Fish Genetics
and Breeding

— Authors —
Janmejay Parhi
Avinash Rambhau Rasal
Sullip Kumar Majhi
Naresh Sahebrao Nagpure

2015
BIOTECH BOOKS®
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 iv

Dear Author
Check Carefully Symbols, Superscript and Subscript
Matters.

Cross Check all Answers with Questions

Write About the Book and Author and provide your

pics for the cover.

© 2015 AUTHORS
ISBN 978-81-7622-

All rights reserved. Including the right to translate or to reproduce this

book or parts thereof except for brief quotations in critical reviews.

Published by: BIOTECH BOOKS®

4762-63/23, Ansari Road, Darya Ganj,
New Delhi - 110 002
Phone: +91-011-23262132
E-mail: biotechbooks@yahoo.co.in

Printed at:Chawla Offset Printers

Delhi - 110 052

PRINTED IN INDIA

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 COLLEGE OF FISHERIES
CENTRAL AGRICULTURAL UNIVERSITY
Lembucherra, Agartala, Tripura-799 001
cofcau@rediffmail.com Ph: 0381-2865264

Foreword

The ever increasing global population and rapid change in food habit
of the growing population have led to increase the demand for producing
more fish. However, fishery sector at global level is constantly facing stiff
challenges such as alarmingly shrinking of water spread area, decreasing
fish population in natural water bodies and rapidly changing climatic
conditions. Indian fishery sector is no exception to these challenges, yet
the sector has registered impressive growth rate over the years and
significantly contributed to the national economy, with 1.1 per cent of
national GDP and 5.4 per cent of me agricultural GDP during last financial
year. The fishery sector that is also called as “sunrise” sector has the
potential to further accelerate enhancement of production and contribution
to national economy. Perhaps all these issues could be addressed by
carefully harnessing the country’s natural resources and human resources
development. Probably, one of the best approaches for developing human
resources is imparting of quality education to the students and skill
enrichment training to the farmers, thereby increasing their knowledge
on the subject. Our research and educational establishments, including
the agricultural universities and central research institutes, across the
country are actively engaged in this endeavour. However, motivating the
students for higher education with specialization would not only generate
highly skilled manpower but also the country can expect involvement of
more technically sound personnel at research and development in the
field. It is in this perspective that the authors based on their long standing

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 vi

teaching and research experience have compiled this model question bank
which would go in a long way to help the fisheries professional in
enhancing and up scaling their competency for addressing the emerging
need based issues in the sector.
I am convinced that, this “Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and
Biotechnology” authored by J. Parhi, A. Rasal, S.K. Majhi and N.S. Nagpure
would help the students and fisheries professionals in the field of genetics
and biotechnology to prepare and succeed in various competitive
examinations conducted by the central and state agencies for higher
studies and jobs.

Place: Agartala J.R. Dhanze

Dean

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 vii

Preface

Agricultural Scientist Recruitment Board (ASRB), New Delhi conducts

National Eligibility Test (NET) examination for the post of assistant
professor in SAUs and CAUs in various disciplines of fisheries such as
Fish Genetics and Breeding, Fisheries Resources Management,
Aquaculture, Fish Processing Technology, Fish Nutrition and Fish Health
Management. The board also conducts ARS examination for recruitment
of scientist in the ICAR research institutes. In the backdrop of these
competitive examinations, we have compiled a model question bank on
Fish Genetics and Breeding.
This question bank will also be helpful to the fisheries graduates
appearing for the national level competitive examinations such as JRF
and SRF. Besides, post-graduate students of fish genetics and biotechnology,
Aquaculture, Fish Nutrition and Fish Health Management may also be
immensely benefited for PhD entrance examination conducted by CIFE,
Mumbai and various agricultural universities. This model question bank,
consisting of approximately 600 multiple choice questions and 250 general
fish genetics questions, covers complete syllabus of Fish Genetics and
Breeding as prescribed by ASRB.
This model question bank would not have been possible without the
encouragement and help from many people. We would like to thank Dr.
J. R. Dhanze, Dean, College of Fisheries, Central Agricultural University,
Lembuchera and Dr. J. K. Jena, Director of National Bureau of Fish Genetic

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 viii

Resources (NBFGR), Lucknow for encouragement and support. We also

acknowledge with thanks to our student friends from all over the country
for voluntarily contributing few but important questions. Last but not the
least, we sincerely welcome suggestions for further improvement of this
question bank.
Janmejay Parhi
Avinash Rambhau Rasal
Sullip Kumar Majhi
Naresh Sahebrao Nagpure

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding
ix 143

Contents

Foreword v
Preface vii
1. Principles of Fish Genetics and Breeding 1
2. Population and Quantitative Genetics 23
3. Genetic Tools for Aquaculture Application 45
4. Breeding of Fish and Shellfish 55
5. Conservation and Bioinformatics 71
6. General Fish Genetics 89
Chronology of Important Developments in Genetics 109
Answer Keys 113
Further Reading 133

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 1

Chapter 1
Principles of Fish Genetics
and Breeding

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 2 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 3

1. Crossing over takes place between_______

[A] Sister chromatid [B] Non-sister chromatid
[C] Chromosome [D] Chromonema

2. The type of cell division which takes place only once in cell life
time is called
[A] Mitosis [B] Free cell division
[C] Meiosis [D] Amitosis

3. Crossing over takes place in_______

[A] Mitosis [B] Meiosis I
[C] Meiosis II [D] All of the above

4. Most important part of cell cycle which is not observed under light
microscope is called_______
[A] Interphase [B] Anaphase
[C] Metaphase [D] Telophase

5. The longest phase of mitotic cell cycle is_______

[A] Prophase [B] Metaphase
[C] Interphase [D] S-Phase

6. Chromosome exhibit high level of coiling at which phase of

karyokinensis
[A] Prophase [B] Metaphase
[C] Telophase [D] Anaphase

7. Shape of acrocentric and telocentric chromosome respectively at

anaphase of meiosis are
[A] I and V [B] V and J
[C] J and I [D] I and J

8. The exchange of chromosomal segments between non-homologous

chromosomes is known as
[A] Inversion [B] Deletion
[C] Translocation [D] Transversion
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 4 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

9. Centromere of chromosomes lies at equator and arms directed

towards poles, above condition occurs at
[A] Metaphase of mitosis [B] Metaphase I of meiosis
[C] Metaphase II of meiosis [D] Both [A] and [B]

10. Sickle cell anemia is example of_______

[A] Point mutation [B] Frame shift mutation
[C] Backward mutation [D] Segmental mutation

11. Pleiotropic gene has

[A] Multiple genotypes [B] Multiple phenotypes
[C] Multiple allelism [D] Single phenotype

12. Down syndrome is due to trisomy of_______chromosome

[A] 13 [B] 22
[C] 18 [D] 21

13. Pairing of homologous chromosomes (synapsis) takes place in

[A] Diplotene [B] Pachytene
[C] Leptotene [D] Zygotene

14. ABO blood grouping is based on

[A] Co-dominance [B] Incomplete dominance
[C] Multiple allelism [D] Epistasis

15. Tryptophan operon is

[A] Inducible [B] Repressible
[C] Regulatory [D] None

16. In split genes coding sequences are

[A] Introns [B] Operons
[C] Exons [D] Cistron

17. F2 ratio of recessive epistasis is

[A] 13:3 [B] 15:1
[C] 12:3:1 [D] 9:3:4

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 5

18. Theory of epigenesis was given by

[A] Charles Darwin [B] Wolf
[C] Mendel [D] Bonnet

19. F2 ratio in duplicate dominant epistasis is

[A] 9:3:4 [B] 12:3:1
[C] 15:1 [D] 13:3

20. Jumping genes are known as

[A] Plasmon [B] Transposon
[C] Intron [D] Exon

21. Down’s syndrome is an example of

[A] Monosomy [B] Tryploidy
[C] Trisomy [D] Tetraploidy

22. Bacterial genome contains

[A] DNA and Histone [B] DNA or Histone
[C] DNA without Histone [D] Neither DNA nor Histone

23. When in dihybrid cross 12:3:1 ratio is obtained, this is due to which
gene interaction
[A] Recessive Epistasis [B] Dominant Epistasis
[C] Supplementary gene action [D] None

24. Lampbrush chromosomes are found in

[A] Brain cell of cat [B] Germ cells of mammals
[C] Ovarian cells of amphibians [D] Salivary glands of dipteral

25. According to folded fibrillar theory each chromosome composed

of
[A] One DNA [B] Two DNA
[C] 16 DNA [D] 32 DNA

26. One solenoid composed of

[A] 8-nucleosome [B] 6-nucleosome
[C] 10-nucleosome [D] 16-nucleosome

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 6 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

27. Which type of chromosome have maximum arm ratio

[A] Metacentric [B] Sub-metacentric
[C] Acrocentric [D] Telocentric

28. First genetically engineered hormone was

[A] GA3 [B] IAA
[C] Estrogen [D] Insulin

29. The location on a chromosome where a particular gene is located

is known as the:
[A] Allele [B] Dihybrid
[C] Locus [D] Autosome

30. In a Mendelian monohybrid cross, which generation is always

completely heterozygous?
[A] F1 generation [B] F2 generation
[C] F3 generation [D] P generation

31. In which kind of cross would you expect to find a ratio of 9:3:3:1
among the F2 offspring?
[A] Monohybrid cross [B] Dihybrid cross
[C] Testcross [D] Polygenic cross

32. In which kind of cross would you expect to find two different kinds
of ratios among the offspring, either 1:1 or 1:1:1:1?
[A] Monohybrid cross [B] Dihybrid cross
[C] Testcross [D] Polygenic cross.

33. A gene pair hides the effect of another. The phenomenon is

[A] Epistasis [B] Dominance
[C] Mutation [D] None of these

34. How many different types of genetically different gametes will

be produced by a heterozygous fish having the genotype AABbCc?
[A] Six [B] Nine
[C] Two [D] Four

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 7

35. When a single gene influences more than one trait it is called
[A] Pseudo dominance [B] Pleiotropy
[C] Epistasis [D] None of these.

36. The genes controlling the seven pea characters studied by Mendel
are now known to be located on how many different chromosomes?
[A] Seven [B] Six
[C] Five [D] Four

37. Which of the following nucleotide bases is not found in RNA?

[A] Thymine [B] Adenine
[C] Uracil [D] Guanine

38. Promoter regions are nucleotide sequences that:

[A] Are involved in the initiation of transcription
[B] Are involved in transcription termination
[C] Contain the code for mRNA molecule
[D] is important to the translation process

39. Which component is not directly involved in translation?

[A] mRNA [B] DNA
[C] tRNA [D] Ribosome’s

40. Which of the following is not true of RNA processing?

[A] Exons are cut out before mRNA leaves the nucleus
[B] Nucleotides may be added at both ends of the RNA
[C] Ribozymes may function in RNA splicing
[D] RNA splicing can be catalyzed by spliceosomes

41. Which of the following statements are true about protein synthesis
in prokaryotes?
[A] Extensive RNA processing is required before prokaryotic
transcripts can be translated.
[B] Translation can begin while transcription is still in progress.

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 8 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

[C] Unlike eukaryotes, prokaryotes require no initiation or elongation

factors.
[D] Translation requires antibiotic activity

42. From the following list, which is the first event in translation in
eukaryotes?
[A] The small subunit of the ribosome recognizes and attaches to the
5' cap of mRNA
[B] Base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the mRNA
[C] The larger ribosomal subunit binds to smaller ribosomal subunits
[D] Covalent bonding between the first two amino acids

43. What is the most abundant type of RNA?

[A] mRNA [B] tRNA
[C] rRNA [D] pre-mRNA

44. Once transcribed, eukaryotic mRNA typically undergoes

substantial alteration that includes
[A] Union with ribosomes
[B] Fusion into circular forms known as plasmids
[C] Linkage to histone molecules
[D] Excision of introns or RNA splicing

45. A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is 5'

AGT 3'.The corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is
[A] 3' UCA 5'. [B] 3' UGA 5'.
[C] 5' TCA 3' [D] 3’ACU 5'.

46. The enzymes responsible for adding nucleotides to the exposed

DNA template bases are
[A] Replicases [B] DNA polymerases
[C] Helicases [D] Nucleotidases

47. RNA differs from DNA in that RNA

[A] is sometimes single-stranded
[B] Contains a different sugar molecule

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 9

[C] Contains the nitrogenous base uracil

[D] All of the above

48. Each nucleotide triplet in mRNA that specifies a particular amino

acid is called
[A] Mutagen [B] Anticodon
[C] Codon [D] Exon

49. EcoR1 is a_______

[A] Vector [B] Virus
[C] Restriction enzyme [D] Terminal transferase

50. Transfer of trait from male parent to grandson through daughter

is called
[A] Diandric [B] Diagynic
[C] Holandric [D] Androgenic

51. The limit of correlation coefficient is

[A] 0 to 1 [B] 0 to -1
[C] -1 to +1 [D] +1 to -1

52. Genes for sex influenced traits are present on

[A] Allosome [B] Autosomes
[C] Sex chromosome [D] all of the above

53. Non-disjunction is defined as

[A] Homologous chromosomes do not separate during meiosis
[B] Heterologous chromosomes do not separate during meiosis
[C] Heterologous chromosomes do not separate during mitosis
[D] Homologous chromosomes do not separate during translocation

54. Site on ribosome where the second and next amino-acyl tRNA
enters is called
[A] T-Site [B] P-Site
[C] A-Site [D] M-Site

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 10 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

55. Mutation which do not cause any change in protein is

[A] Point mutation [B] Silent mutation
[C] Frame shift mutation [D] Spontaneous mutation

56. The process by which a cell takes up the segment of naked DNA
[A] Transcription [B] Translation
[C] Transformation [D] Replication

57. The genes which show shuffling from one location to another is
[A] Promoter gene [B] Jumping gene
[C] Regulator gene [D] None

58. For deciphering the genetic code H.G.Khurana synthesized

[A] Triplet codon [B] Co-polymers of repetitive
sequences
[C] Gene for yeast alanyl tRNA [D] None

59. Activation of amino acid requires which enzyme

[A] Amino acyl DNA synthetase
[B] Carboxylase
[C] Catalase
[D] Amino acyl tRNA synthetase

60. Charles Darwin gave which theory?

[A] Semen theory [B] Particulate theory
[C] Pangenesis theory [D] Epigenesis theory

61. Dosage compensation is given by

[A] Weisman [B] Lyon
[C] Bateson [D] Davenport

62. Lamarckism envisages that organisms

[A] Tend to grow in size
[B] Reproduce in large number
[C] Inherit characters acquired by their parent
[D] None of these

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 11

63. Theory of continuity of germplasm was proposed by

[A] Gregor Mendel [B] Lamarck
[C] Haeckel [D] August Weismann

64. Pyrimidine base found in both DNA and RNA is

[A] Cytosin [B] Thiamin
[C] Uracil [D] None

65. Holandric genes are situated on which chromosome

[A] X chromosome [B] Y chromosome
[C] Both above [D] None

66. Turner syndrome is found in woman who has sex chromosome

composition
[A] XX [B] XXX
[C] XO [D] OO

67. One gene one enzyme hypothesis was proposed by

[A] Beadle [B] Tatum
[C] Both [A] and [B] [D] None

68. mRNA in eukaryotes is synthesized with the help of

[A] RNA polymerase I [B] RNA polymerase II
[C] RNA polymerase III [D] None of these

69. When more than one codon designate same amino acid it is referred
as
[A] Degeneration codon [B] Overlapping Codon
[C] Nonsense codon [D] Ambiguous codon

70. Which has the shape of clover leaf?

[A] mRNA [B] tRNA
[C] rRNA [D] DNA

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 12 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

71. Which of the Mendel’s law states that two alternative factors of a
character do not blend with one another in a hybrid and separate
at the time of formation of gametes?
[A] Law of segregation [B] Law of dominance
[C] Law of independent assortment [D] None

72. Which RNA is also called as soluble RNA?

[A] mRNA [B] tRNA
[C] rRNA [D] All of the above

73. XXY chromosome complement is found in

[A] Down’s syndrome [B] Turner’s syndrome
[C] Super female [D] Klinfelter’s syndrome

74. The chromosome region to which spindle fiber attaches is known

as
[A] Centriole [B] Nucleoli
[C] Centromere [D] Centrosphere

75. Mutation of purine into a pyrimidine or vice versa is

[A] Transition [B] Transversion
[C] Translation [D] None

76. Mutation of purine into a another purine or pyrimidine into another

is pyrimidine is called as
[A] Transition [B] Transversion
[C] Translation [D] None

77. The chromosomes are best seen in

[A] Telophase [B] Anaphase
[C] Metaphase [D] Prophase

78. Semi conservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in

[A] E.coli [B] Streptococcus pneumonae
[C] Salmonella typhimurium [D] Drosophila

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 13

79. Mendel presented his work in

[A] Natural history society in Russia
[B] Natural history society in Germany
[C] Natural history society in America
[D] Natural history society in Brunn

80. The buoyant density of RNA in CsCl is

[A] 1.45 g/cm3 [B] 1.9 g/cm3
[C] 1.7 g/cm3 [D] 1.3 g/cm3

81. Total number of genotypes in human ABO blood group system

[A] 3 [B] 4
[C] 8 [D] 6

82. Eye colour in drosophila is an example of

[A] Sex linked inheritance [B] Sex limited inheritance
[C] Sex influenced inheritance [D] Incomplete dominance

83. If the X/A ratio is 0.5, the individual will be

[A] Intersex [B] Normal female
[C] Super female [D] Normal male

84. Total number of barr bodies in an individual with Turner’s

syndrome
[A] 0 [B] 1
[C] 2 [D] None

85. If the centromere is located close to the end, and giving a very
short arm and an exceptionally long arm, the chromosome is called
[A] Acrocentric [B] Telocentric
[C] Submetacentric [D] None of the above

86. Shortest phase in mitosis is

[A] Prophase [B] Anaphase
[C] Metaphase [D] Telophase

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 14 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

87. The buoyant density of DNA in CsCl is

[A] 1.45 g/cm3 [B] 1.9 g/cm3
[C] 1.7 g/cm3 [D] 1.3 g/cm3

88. Xanthine is deaminated product of

[A] Adenine [B] Thymine
[C] Cytosine [D] Guanine

89. Rho factor is required for the termination of

[A] Replication [B] Transcription
[C] Translation [D] Transversion

90. The types of histone proteins present in eukaryotic chromosome

are
[A] 4 [B] 5
[C] 6 [D] 7

91. The classical test cross ratio in dihybrid is

[A] 7:1:1:7 [B] 1:7:7:1
[C] 1:1:1:1 [D] Both [A] and [B]

92. Chromatin consists of

[A] DNA and protein only [B] RNA and protein only
[C] RNA and protein only [D] DNA, RNA and protein

93. Epistasis is _______ type of interaction

[A] Inter allelic [B] Intra allelic
[C] Allelic genetic [D] Both A and C

94. Sickle cell anemia is due to point mutation, in which

[A] glu. is replaced by val. [B] val. is replaced by glu.
[C] his. is replaced by val. [D] val. is replaced by his.

95. MN blood group system in humans is an example of

[A] Multiple allelism [B] Co-dominance
[C] Incomplete dominance [D] Pleiotropism

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 15

96. Chromosome theory of linkage was proposed by

[A] Beadle and Tatum [B] Bateson and Punnett
[C] Morgan and Castle [D] Sutton and Bovery

97. A radioisotope used to label proteins differential from nucleic

acid is
[A] 32
P [B] 14
C
[C] Tritium [D] 3 5 S

98. Bacterial cells are rendered more permeable to uptake of plasmids

by treatment with
[A] Heat [B] Calcium chloride
[C] Alkali [D] Ultrasound

99. During meiosis I chromosome divide

[A] Equationally [B] Reductionally
[C] Both [A] and [B] [D] None

100. Which of the following cells is normally diploid?

[A] Primary polar body [B] Spermatid
[C] Primary spermatocyte [D] Sperm

101. In oogenesis the cell that corresponds to a spermatid is called

[A] Ovum [B] Egg
[C] Secondary oocyte [D] Secondary polar body

102. Mutation in the codon UCG to UAG is called as

[A] Missense mutation [B] Neutral mutation
[C] Silent mutation [D] Non sense mutation

103. Nucleolar organizing regions (NORs) are most closely associated

with
[A] Protein coding genes [B] rRNA genes
[C] Replication forks [D] Cellular differentiation

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 16 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

104. There are three kinds of RNA polymerases (I, II, III) in eukaryotic
cells, each specific for one class of RNA molecule. Which of the
following is correct match?
[A] I= rRNA, II=tRNA [B] II=mRNA, III=rRNA
[C] I=rRNA, II=mRNA [D] I=tRNA, III=rRNA

105. Transfer of recombinant plasmid into E. Coli cells needs

[A] Heat treatment [B] UV rays treatment
[C] Cacl2 treatment [D] Lysis

106. Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at a specific site called

[A] Ligation site [B] ori C
[C] Recognition sequence [D] Replication site

107. The scientists who won Nobel Prize for physiology for their
discovery of RE enzymes?
[A] Jacob and Monad [B] Smith, Nathans and Arber
[C] Watson and Crick [D] Alec Jaffreys and Milstein

108. Restriction endonucleases are also called

[A] Molecular scissors [B] Molecular stichers
[C] DNA synthesis [D] Polymerases

109. DNA finger printing was first developed by

[A] David Suzuki [B] Khorana
[C] Alec Jaffrey [D] Gilbert

110. In Operon model, RNA polymerase binds to

[A] Structural gene [B] Promoter gene
[C] Regulator [D] Operator gene

111. Genetic material of retroviruses is

[A] Single stranded RNA [B] Single stranded DNA
[C] Double stranded RNA [D] Double stranded DNA

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 17

112. ‘Z’ DNA is characterized by

[A] Left handed helix [B] Right handed helix
[C] GC rich [D] Both [A] and [C]

113. A bivalent consists of

[A] Two chromatids and one centromere
[B] Four chromatids and two centromeres
[C] Two chromatids and two centromeres
[D] Four chromatids and four centromeres

114. Protein subunit found within microtubules is

[A] Collagen [B] Tubulin
[C] Myosin [D] DNA

115. Balbiani rings occur in

[A] Autosome [B] Lampbrush chromosome
[C] Heterosome [D] Polytene chromosome

116. Chromosome manipulation in fish is done by

[A] Gynogenesis [B] Androgenesis
[C] Ploidy induction [D] All of these

117. Natural gynogenesis occurs in which fishes?

[A] Asian seabass
[B] Labeo rohita and Catla catla
[C] Poecilia Formosa and Carassius auratus gibelio
[D] Atlantic salmon

118. _______gynogenesis is induced by retention of second polar body

by early shock treatment
[A] Mitotic gynogenesis [B] Meiotic gynogenesis
[C] Both [A] and [B] [D] None of these

119. Mitotic gynogenesis is induced by

[A] Retention of second polar body
[B] Blocking first cleavage by late shock

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 18 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

120. Through which type of gynogenesis it is possible to produce 100

per cent homozygous individuals in one generation
[A] Mitotic gynogenesis [B] Meiotic gynogenesis
[C] Both [A] and [B] [D] None of these

121. All male production through androgenesis is beneficial in

[A] Tilapia [B] Freshwater prawn
[C] Fighter fish [D] All of these

122. Triploid individuals are generally

[A] Fertile [B] Sterile
[C] Both [A] and [B] [D] None of these

123. Hormone used for all male production in fishes

[A] Estradiol 17-b [B] Estrogen
[C] 17-a methyl testosterone [D] None of these

124. Hormone used for all female production in fishes

[A] Estradiol 17-b [B] Androgen
[C] 17-a methyl testosterone [D] None of these

125. The demerits of hormonal sex reversal are

[A] Residual effect may be carcinogenic
[B] Costly and time consuming
[C] Process has to repeated every time
[D] All of the above

126. The range of pressure shock used for diplodization of androgenetic

and gynogenetic offspring
[A] 3000-4000 Pascal [B] 4000-5000 Pascal
[C] 7000-9000 Pascal [D] 9000-11000 Pascal

127. Which of the following cell can undergo meiosis to produce

functional egg?
[A] Oogonia [B] Primary oocyte
[C] Primordial germ cell [D] None

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 19

128. Which is called mother cell of sperm?

[A] Primary spermatocyte [B] Oogonia
[C] Spermatid [D] Spermatogonia

129. The process of differentiation of spermatid into mature sperm is

called
[A] Spermatogenesis [B] Spermiogenesis
[C] Spermateliosis [D] Both [B] and [C]

130. Most common sex determining system detected in fish is

[A] WZ [B] XY
[C] WXY [D] Aotosomal

131. WZ sex determining system present in

[A] Tilapia aurea [B] Tilapia hornarum
[C] Both [A] and [B] [D] Platy fish

132. In sword tail and blue poecilia which sex determining system is
present?
[A] WZ [B] XY
[C] WXY [D] Aotosomal

133. In platy fish which sex determining system is present?

[A] WZ [B] XY
[C] WXY [D] Aotosomal

134. Albinism in goldfish is example of

[A] Recessive epistasis [B] Dominant epistasis
[C] Duplicate dominant [D] Duplicate gene with
cumulative effect

135. Eye colour in Mexican cave characin is example of phenotype

controlled by
[A] Recessive epistasis [B] Dominant epistasis
[C] Duplicate dominant [D] Duplicate gene with
cumulative effect

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 20 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

136. The maculates pigment pattern (black spot on dorsal fin and red
spot on body) in guppy is controlled by
[A] X-linked genes [B] Y-linked genes
[C] Autosomal genes [D] None

137. If the absorbance at 260 nm is 1 then sample contain _______ RNA

per ml
[A] 30 µg [B] 50 µg
[C] 40 µg [D] 100 µg

138. If the absorbance at 260 nm is 1 then sample contain _______ DNA

per ml
[A] 30 µg [B] 50 µg
[C] 40 µg [D] 100 µg

139. The ratio of Phenol: chloroform: Isoamyl alcohol used for DNA
isolation
[A] 24:25:1 [B] 20:25:1
[C] 25:24:1 [D] 1:24:25

140. If the absorbance at 260 nm is 1 then sample contain _______

plasmid DNA per ml.
[A] 33 µg [B] 50 µg
[C] 40 µg [D] 100 µg

141. Which of the following amino acid has single codon?

[A] Valine [B] Tryptophan
[C] Methionine [D] Both B and C

142. A virus that contains approximately 29.1 per cent adenine and
29.3 per cent uracil. The genetic material of virus will be
[A] dsDNA [B] ssDNA
[C] ssRNA [D] dsRNA

143. The number of base pairs per turn in ‘Z’ form DNA
[A] 10 bp [B] 12 bp
[C] 11 bp [D] 14 bp

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 21

144. The diameter of DNA double helix is

[A] 30 A° [B] 40 A°
[C] 50 A° [D] 20 A°

145. The pfu polymerase produces _______ end PCR product

[A] Sticky end [B] Blunt end
[C] Cut end [D] None

146. All male progeny produced by mating of YY male of Tilapia with

normal female is called
[A] GIFT Tilapia
[B] Genetically improved Tilapia
[C] Genetically male Tilapia
[D] None

147. Sex linked inheritance in fish was first described by

[A] Johannes Schmidt [B] Darwin
[C] M.V.Gupta [D] S.Ayyapan

148. Positive LOD scores favor the presence of

[A] Independent assortment [B] Linkage
[C] Recombination [D] None

149. By convention, a LOD score greater than 3.0 is considered evidence

for
[A] Independent assortment [B] Linkage
[C] Recombination [D] None

150. A LOD score less than -2.0 is considered evidence of

[A] No linkage [B] Linkage
[C] Recombination [D] None

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 22 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 23

Chapter 2
Population and
Quantitative Genetics

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 24 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 25

1. Two or more than two species which found in identical areas are
called
[A] Synchronic species [B] Allopatric species
[C] Sympatric species [D] Gemo species

2. Sum total of genes in population is called

[A] Genotype [B] Phenotype
[C] Karyotype [D] Gene pool

3. Phenotype of an organism is the result of

[A] Genotype and environment interactions
[B] Mutations and linkages
[C] Cytoplasm effects and nutrition
[D] None

4. When heritability of trait is high the best basis of selection is

[A] Individual [B] Progeny
[C] Family [D] Pedigree

5. Repeatability is the upper limit of

[A] Mean [B] Mode
[C] Median [D] Heritability

6. Accuracy of selection when heritability of trait is low is

[A] High [B] Low
[C] Medium [D] Same

7. When individuals are selected solely on the basis of their

phenotypic value it is called as
[A] Mass Selection [B] Individual selection
[C] Both of the above [D] None

8. The chief circumstances under which the family selection has to

be preferred when the character has
[A] High h2 [B] Low h2
[C] Medium h2 [D] All of the above
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 26 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

9. Primary effect of selection in population is to

[A] Maintain constant level of population mean
[B] Increase the number of homozygote
[C] Increase the frequency of desirable genes
[D] Decrease homozygosity

10. The correlation between repeated measurements on the same

individual is known as
[A] Phenotypic correlation [B] Realized heritability
[C] Correlated response [D] Repeatability

11. Inbreeding coefficient is a measure of increase of

[A] Homozygosity [B] Heterozygosity
[C] Both of the above [D] None

12. Increase level of performance as compared to average of the

parental type is called
[A] Inbreeding depression [B] Prepotency
[C] Heterosis [D] Breeding value

13. A population cannot be in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium if it is

[A] Open [B] Small
[C] Mutating [D] all of the above

14. A multiple allelic series having 4 alleles, the possible genotypes

are
[A] 6 [B] 10
[C] 15 [D] 20

15. The range of heritability is

[A] 0 to 2 [B] 0 to 1
[C] -1 to +1 [D] None

16. The proportion of sex-linked genes in a population is

[A] Higher in heterogametic sex [B] Higher in homogametic sex
[C] Equal in both sexes [D] None of the above

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 27

17. The trait which cannot be measure are known as

[A] Quantitative [B] Commercial
[C] Pure [D] Qualitative

18. Continuous variation is character of

[A] Quantitative trait [B] Commercial trait
[C] Pure trait [D] Qualitative trait

19. Effect of environment is minimum on which trait

[A] Quantitative [B] Commercial
[C] Pure [D] Qualitative

20. The genetic correlation of two independent traits is

[A] 1 [B] 2
[C] 0.5 [D] 0

21. The frequency of zygote is known as

[A] Gene Frequency [B] Genotype frequency
[C] Frequency of population [D] None

22. The frequency of Gametes is known as

[A] Gene Frequency [B] Genotype frequency
[C] Frequency of population [D] None

23. The range of gene frequency is

[A] 0 to 2 [B] 0 to 1
[C] -1 to +1 [D] None

24. For an ideal population which is true

[A] Phenotypic variation =0 [B] Genotypic variation =0
[C] Environmental variation =0 [D] None

25. Genetic variation is equal to

[A] Additive variance [B] Non additive variance
[C] Sum of above [D] Product of above

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 28 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

26. If ‘n’ pair of genes are involved the type of gametes formed will
be
[A] 2 n [B] 3 n
[C] 4 n [D] 5 n

27. If ‘n’ pair of genes are involved the type of genotype formed will
be
[A] 2 n [B] 3 n
[C] 4 n [D] 5 n

28. If ‘n’ pair of genes are involved the type of phenotype formed will
be
[A] 3 n [B] 2 n
[C] 4 n [D] 5 n

29. Heritability in broad sense is

[A] VP/V G [B] VG/V P
[C] VA/V P [D] VP/V A

30. Heritability in narrow sense is

[A] VP/V G [B] VG/V P
[C] VA/V P [D] VP/V A

31. Heritability is
[A] Correlation of breeding value and phenotypic value
[B] Regression of phenotypic value on breeding value
[C] Regression of breeding value on phenotypic value
[D] None of the above

32. Genotype frequency of the progeny is depend upon

[A] Gene frequency of parent
[B] Genotype frequency of parent
[C] Gene constitution of parent
[D] None

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 29

33. Frequency of heterozygote in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium is

always
[A] Equal to 1 [B] Less than 1
[C] More than ½ [D] Never exceed ½

34. Genetic drift is applicable for

[A] Large population [B] Small Population
[C] Both of the above [D] None

35. Most important evolutionary force is

[A] Artificial Selection [B] Recurrent mutation
[C] Natural selection [D] Non-recurrent mutation

36. Which of the following is used to express fitness?

[A] Selective value [B] Adaptive value
[C] Both above [D] None

37. Proportionate genetic contribution of the genotype to the next

generation is
[A] Fitness [B] Selection Index
[C] Selection ratio [D] Selection Differential

38. Which is the change in gene frequency if the selection is carried

against recessive allele?
[A] –Sq2 (1-q)/1-Sq2 [B] Sq2 (1-q)/1-S (1-q2)
[C] (1-q)/1-S (1-q2) [D] None

39. Average fitness (F) and genetic load (L) are related as
[A] L= F-1 [B] F=1-L
[C] F/L=0 [D] L/F=1

40. When an individual does not contribute genetic material to the

next generation, the condition is known as
[A] Genetic sterility [B] Selection block
[C] Genetic death [D] Both [A] and [B]

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 30 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

41. Selection is most efficient at

[A] High gene frequency [B] Low gene frequency
[C] Intermediate gene frequency [D] At any gene frequency

42. Which can be predicted in random drift (dispersive process?)

[A] Direction of change [B] Amount of change
[C] Both [A] and [B] [D] None of the above

43. Number of breeding individuals of population is known as

[A] Population size [B] Genetic group of population
[C] Effective population size [D] Breeding group

44. If mated individuals are phenotypically alike then the mating is

called
[A] Dissortative mating [B] Random mating
[C] Assortative mating [D] None of the above

45. For polymorphic locus frequency of most common allele should

be
[A] Equal to 1 [B] less than 0.99
[C] 0 to 1 [D] more than 0.5

46. Gradient of gene frequency between localities that is one allele is

favoured in one locality and other in another locality is called
[A] Cline [B] Locality differential
[C] Selection gradient [D] None

47. If phenotypic value is equal to genotypic value then heritability

will be
[A] Low [B] High
[C] 100 per cent [D] 50 per cent

48. Breeding value is due to which gene

[A] Non-additive [B] Additive
[C] Dominance [D] Epistasis

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 31

49. If there is no dominance deviation then breeding value is

[A] Equal to phenotypic value [B] Less than genotypic value
[C] Equal to genotypic value [D] Less than phenotypic value

50. Which is exact expression for phenotypic variance?

[A] VP=V G+V E+V GE [B] VP=V G+V E
[C] VP=V G+V E+2COVGE+V GE [D] VP=V G+V E+2COV GE

51. Degree of genetic determination is also known as

[A] Polymorphism [B] Broad sense h2
[C] Narrow sense h2 [D] Racism

52. Resemblance between relative is simply measure of

[A] Variance [B] Mean deviation
[C] Covariance [D] Standard deviation

53. Half sib covariance is equal to which

[A] 1/2V A [B] 1/2V A+1/4V D
[C] 1/4V A [D] 1/8V A

54. Full sib covariance is equal to which

[A] 1/2V A [B] 1/2V A+1/4V D
[C] 1/4V A [D] 1/8V A

55. Offspring and mid-parent covariance is equal to

[A] 1/2V A [B] 1/2V A+1/4V D
[C] 1/4V A [D] 1/8V A

56. Repetition of character with time is known as

[A] Spatial repetition [B] Temporal repetition
[C] Continuous repetition [D] Discontinuous repetition

57. Repetition of character with place is known as

[A] Spatial repetition [B] Temporal repetition
[C] Continuous repetition [D] Discontinuous repetition

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 32 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

58. Gain in accuracy will be higher if

[A] Repeatability high and number of observation high
[B] Repeatability low and number of observation high
[C] Repeatability high and number of observation low
[D] Repeatability low and number of observation low

59. Heritability is the character of

[A] Individual [B] Species
[C] Population and Trait [D] All above

60. Change in gene frequency due to sampling in terms of variance is

given by
[A] 1/2N [B] 1/p 0q 0
[C] 2N/p0q 0 [D] p0q 0/2N

61. Coefficient of inbreeding for base population having random

mating is
[A] 1 [B] 0 to 1
[C] 0 [D] More than 1

62. If p is panmictic index and f is inbreeding index then

[A] P=1-F [B] f-p=1
[C] F=1-p [D] p-f=1

63. If two gene in population are originated from replication of own

gene of ancestral population then it is known as
[A] Independent by descent [B] Identical by descent
[C] Dependent by descent [D] Non identical by descent

64. Mating of more closely related individual than average of

population is called
[A] Out breeding [B] Out crossing
[C] Inbreeding [D] Cross breeding

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 33

65. For inbreeding mated individuals should have common ancestor

within
[A] 2-3 generation [B] 4-6 generation
[C] 6-9 generation [D] More than 10 generation

66. Inbreeding coefficient for full sib is

[A] 1 [B] 0.75
[C] 0.125 [D] 0.25

67. Inbreeding coefficient for half sib is

[A] 1 [B] 0.75
[C] 0.125 [D] 0.25

68. Inbreeding depression is maximum when gene frequency of both

allele of a gene is equal to
[A] p=1, q=0 [B] p=1/2, q=1/2
[C] p=3/4, q=1/4 [D] At any gene frequency

69. Average superiority of selected parent is known as

[A] Reach [B] Selection differential
[C] Both [A] and [B] [D] Selection index

70. Response to selection is equal to

[A] hS [B] h 2 S
[C] hS 2 [D] h 2S 2

71. In which type of selection all the individuals above a certain

breeding value is kept for breeding
[A] Tandem selection [B] Two way selection
[C] Truncation selection [D] Family selection

72. Average age of parent when their offspring produce next

generation is called
[A] Maturity age [B] Puberty age
[C] Generation Interval [D] None of these

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 34 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

73. For trait of high heritability (h2) which selection is done?

[A] Individual and pedigree [B] Individual and family
[C] Family and sib [D] Pedigree and family

74. Specific combining ability (SCA) is practiced to take the advantage

of
[A] Additive gene action [B] Non additive gene action
[C] Both [A] and [B] [D] Physical fitness

75. Allopatric speciation is due to

[A] Mutations
[B] Migration
[C] Hybridization
[D] Geographical separation of populations

76. A new population of a species arises from small number of

individuals of other population is
[A] Random drift [B] Origin of species
[C] Founder effect [D] Speciation

77. Who gave the theory of path coefficient?

[A] Sewell Wright [B] Fisher
[C] Haldane [D] Hazel

78. Name the scientist who defined selection as “differential

reproductive rate”?
[A] Hazel [B] Lush
[C] Lerner [D] Falconer

79. Heritability of a trait is given by

[A] rAP [B] bAP
[C] bGP [D] None of above

80. The artificial selection in which extreme phenotypes are chosen

as breeding animals
[A] Directional selection [B] Diversifying selection
[C] Stabilizing selection [D] None of the above
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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 35

81. Recessive epistasis is also called

[A] Masking gene action [B] Complementary gene action
[C] Supplementary gene action [D] Inhibitory gene action

82. Duplicate dominant epistasis is also called

[A] Masking gene action [B] Complementary gene action
[C] Pseudo allele [D] Inhibitory gene action

83. Response is not a function of

[A] Selection intensity
[B] Mean of the trait
[C] Phenotypic standard deviation of trait
[D] h2 of the trait

84. Individual merit and family merit as basis of selection was

proposed by
[A] Hazel and Lush [B] Hazel
[C] Lush [D] Lerner

85. Another name of selection intensity is _______

[A] Standardized selection differential
[B] Weighed selection differential
[C] Selection differential
[D] Selection coefficient

86. The selection index method was introduced in animal breeding

by
[A] Lush [B] Smith and Hazel
[C] Lerner [D] Comstock

87. A locus will contribute to a change of mean value on inbreeding

only if
[A] Dominance is absent [B] There is epistasis
[C] There is partial dominance [D] Dominance is not zero

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 36 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

88. The selection in which phenotypes around the mean are selected
and extremes are discarded
[A] Directional selection [B] Diversifying selection
[C] Stabilizing selection [D] None of the above

89. By increasing the intensity of selection, breeder can increase the

[A] Response per unit time [B] Response per generation
[C] Realized response [D] Realized heritability

90. The occurrence of heterosis on crossing is dependent on

[A] Non-directional dominance [B] Directional dominance
[C] Presence of dominance [D] Presence of heterotic genes

91. A measure of variation which is correlated with the mean is

[A] Variation [B] Standard deviation
[C] Coefficient of determination [D] Coefficient of variation

92. The mean performance of line when expressed as the deviation

from the mean of all crosses
[A] G.C.A of line [B] S.C.A of line
[C] G.C.A and S.C.A of line [D] Average effect of the line

93. Reciprocal recurrent selection (RRS) is used to improve

[A] Only G.C.A [B] Only S.C.A
[C] Both G.C.A and S.C.A [D] None

94. Reciprocal recurrent selection was first proposed by_______in 1949

[A] Comstock, Robertson and Harvey
[B] Comstock, Robinson and Harvey
[C] Croas, Robertson and Fisher
[D] Comstock, Lush and Hazel

95. What increases or decreases the chance of fixation of a new mutant

[A] Crossbreeding [B] Random drift
[C] Selection [D] Inbreeding

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 37

96. Variance due to general combining ability arises due to

[A] VA + VAA+ VAD [B] VA + VAA+ VD
[C] VA + VAA+ VDD [D] VA + VAA+ VAAA

97. If the frequency of recessive gene in a population if 0.10, then

what would be the frequency of this recessive gene after 4
generations of selection
[A] 0.001 [B] 0.071
[C] 0.005 [D] 0.021

98. The ratio of response to selection to selection differential is the:

[A] Degree of genetic determination [B] Heritability in broad sense
[C] Realized heritability [D] Heritability in narrow sense

99. When response to selection has ceased, the population is said to

be at
[A] Zero response [B] Selection limit
[C] Response limit [D] No response

100. The maternal effect may show an asymmetry of response associated

with
[A] Genes derived from dam
[B] Traits governed by female’s hormones
[C] Traits governed by xx chromosomes
[D] Maternal component of the trait

101. If additive gene action is most important for a trait, the best and
simplest basis of selection
[A] Pedigree selection [B] Individual selection
[C] Progeny testing [D] None

102. If the environmental and genetic effects of a trait are difficult to

distinguish the individual selection is:
[A] Advantageous [B] Disadvantageous
[C] Equally efficient to [D] None
other methods

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 38 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

103. In an analysis of half sib families the component of covariance

between sire is
[A] 1/2 VA [B] 1/4 VA
[C] 3/4 VA [D] COV AB

104. Precision of heritability estimate depends on its:

[A] Standard error [B] Coefficient of variation
[C] Sampling variance [D] All the above

105. The panmictic index at tth generation is

[A] Pt = (1+Df)t P0 [B] Pt = (1-Df)t P0
[C] Pt = (1-Df t-1
) P0 [D] None

106. Family selection is better than individual selection when interclass

correlation is
[A] Zero [B] 0.5
[C] >0.5 [D] <0.5

107. The correlated response obtained for a trait when selection is done
on another trait is due to
[A] Linkage effect [B] Pleotropic effect
[C] Epistatic effect [D] Dominance effect

108. Hardy Weinberg law was formulated in the year

[A] 1809 [B] 1908
[C] 1918 [D] 1928

109. Repeatability sets an upper limit to

[A] VA/V P [B] VG/V P
[C] Both above [D] VA /V D

110. In a population under H-W equilibrium, the maximum genotype

frequency of heterozygote will be observed when the frequency
of dominant gene is
[A] 0.4 [B] 0.5
[C] 0.6 [D] 0.25

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 39

111. Assuming Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium in fish stock with q= 0.4

what is the expected frequency of heterozygotes three generation
later
[A] 0.49 [B] 0.48
[C] 0.42 [D] 0.27

112. The BLUP method for sire evaluation was suggested by _______
[A] Lush [B] Henderson
[C] S. Wright [D] Fischer

113. Number of generations’t’ required to change the gene frequency

from q0 to qt is given by
[A] qt-q0 [B] 2(qt-q0)
[C] 1/qt - 1/qo [D] None above

114. Reduction of genetic variance caused by selection in initial

generation is called
[A] Founder effect [B] Bulmer effect
[C] Wahlund effect [D] None

115. If gene frequency in migrants is the same as that in the groups

from and to which they go, migration affects:
[A] Quality of population [B] No. of population
[C] Neither quality nor number [D] Both quality and number

116. If 25 per cent have the recessive phenotype (aa) and the population
is in equilibrium with respect to this locus, then q is _______
[A] 0.25 [B] 0.5
[C] 0.75 [D] 1.00

117. The difference between the genotype value (G) and the breeding
value (A) of a particular genotype is _______
[A] Dominance deviation [B] No dominance
[C] Directional dominance [D] None of the above

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 40 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

118. The quantitative traits are governed by genes having large

phenotypic effects are called as
[A] Quantitative genes [B] Major genes
[C] Minor genes [D] Polygene’s

119. The correlation between breeding values and phenotypic values

is equal to the square root of _______
[A] Repeatability [B] Regression
[C] Response [D] Heritability

120. The resemblance between offspring and parents provide the basis
for
[A] Discrete breeding [B] Inbreeding
[C] Random breeding [D] Selection breeding

121. Selection brings many changes in the population. The ultimate

interest of the breeder is
[A] Change in gene frequency [B] Change in population mean
[C] Change in variation [D] Extruding the range of traits

122. The sum of the additive or average effects for all loci influencing
a trait is referred as
[A] Additive genetic variance [B] Average breeding value
[C] Dominance variation [D] Epistatic variation

123. Sibs selection is recommended for

[A] Sex linked traits [B] Sex limited traits
[C] Sex influenced traits [D] None of the above

124. Variation without natural discontinuities is called continuous

variation and character that exhibit it are called
[A] Metric character [B] Correlated character
[C] Neutral character [D] Balanced character

125. The description of the covariance, applicable to any sort of

relationship is
[A] Between half and full sibs
[B] Between offspring and mid parent
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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 41

[C] Between offspring and one parent

[D] All the above

126. The population mean is given by formula

[A] M= a (p-q) + 2dpq [B] M= a (p-q) + 2dpq (1-F)
[C] M= a (p+q) + 2dpq [D] M= a(p-q) + 2dpq (1+p)

127. The strength of selection is expressed as

[A] Coefficient of selection [B] Response to selection
[C] Selection differential [D] None

128. If”s’ is the coefficient of selection then the relative fitness of the
genotype selected against
[A] S [B] 1-S
[C] S/2 [D] None

129. Genetic drift in small population is an example of _______

[A] Systematic process [B] Dispersive process
[C] None of the above [D] Both of the above

130. When repeatability is low, multiple measurements gives_______

gain in accuracy
[A] Large [B] A little
[C] Both [A] and [B] [D] None

131. The proportion of phenotypic variation expressed by repeatability

is
[A] Permanent genetic variance
[B] Permanent environmental variance
[C] Both
[D] Special environmental variance

132. The regression of offspring and one parent (bop) is given by _______
[A] VA/V P [B] 1/4 VA/VP
[C] 1/2 VA/VP [D] 3/4VA/V P

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 42 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

133. Quantitative traits are controlled by

[A] Major genes [B] Minor genes
[C] Poly genes [D] Both B and C

134. The rate of change of gene frequency due to migration is given by

[A] Dq= m (qm-q0) [B] Dq= m + (qm-q0)
[C] Dq= m / (qm-q0) [D] Dq= 1+ m (qm-q0)

135. Most effective method of selection

[A] Mass selection [B] Pedigree selection
[C] Progeny testing [D] Selection index

136. In a population sex linked genes are carried by homogametic sex

is _______of the total
[A] 1/2 [B] 1/4
[C] 1/3 [D] 2/3

137. The proportion of population which shows genetic death is

[A] Genetic sterility [B] Genetic linkage
[C] Genetic load [D] Genetic drift

138. Inbreeding coefficients of progenies produced by self mating, full

sibs and half sibs are
[A] 1, 0.5, 0.25, 0.125 [B] 0.5, 0.5, 0.25, 0.125
[C] 1, 0.5, 0.5, 0.25 [D] 0.5, 0.25, 0.125

139. In the second generation, hybrid vigor will be

[A] Same as the first [B] Doubled the first
[C] Half of the first [D] None of the above

140. The contribution of offspring to the next generation is called

[A] Fitness [B] Adaptive value
[C] Selective value [D] All of the above

141. In MN blood group system, genotypes are MM = 153, MN = 260,

NN = 87, then the gene frequencies of M and N alleles are
[A] 0.64, 0.36 [B] 0.5, 0.5
[C] 0.566, 0.434 [D] 0.518, 0.482
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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 43

142. If the coefficient of selection is 0.25, then the fitness is

[A] 1 [B] 0.25
[C] 0.75 [D] 0.5

143. Father of modern animal breeding

[A] Robert Bakewell [B] S.Wright
[C] J.L. Lush [D] Gauss

144. Reproductive traits in animals usually follow _______ type h2

[A] High [B] Medium
[C] Low [D] None of the above

145. All of the following are sources of genetic variation for evolution,
except:
[A] Mutation [B] Recombination
[C] Genetic drift [D] Gene flow

146. The heritability obtained from selection program is called

[A] Narrow sense heritability [B] Realized heritability
[C] Broad sense heritability [D] None of these

147. Nei’s genetic distance assumes that the genetic differences arises
due to
[A] Mutation [B] Genetic drift
[C] Both [A] and [B] [D] None

148. Cavalli-Sforza and Reynolds, Weir, and Cockerham’s genetic

distance assumes that the genetic differences arises due to
[A] Mutation only [B] Genetic drift only
[C] Both [A] and [B] [D] None

149. A commonly used measure of genetic distance is the fixation index

which varies between 0 and 1. A value of 0 indicates
[A] Two populations are different species
[B] Two populations are genetically identical

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 44 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

[C] Both [A] and [B]

[D] None

150. The concept of F-statistics was given by

[A] R.A.Fisher [B] J.B.H.Haldane
[C] Sewall Wright [D] Carl Pearson

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 45

Chapter 3
Genetic Tools for
Aquaculture Application

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 46 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 47

1. RFLP, VNTR, Probe are some of the terminologies associated with

[A] Hybridoma technology [B] Tissue culture
[C] DNA finger printing [D] None

2. A regulatory body working under MoEF for the release of

transgenic crops is
[A] NBPGR [B] GEAC
[C] NSC [D] NIPGR

3. Dolly, The first cloned mammal, was produced by

[A] Parthenogenesis
[B] Artificial fertilization
[C] Replacement of zygote nucleus by somatic nucleus
[D] In vitro fertilization

4. The markers used for linkage mapping

[A] RAPD [B] SNP
[C] Microsatellite and RFLP [D] AFLP

5. The transgenic animals are those which have

[A] Foreign DNA in some of their cells
[B] Foreign DNA in all of their cells
[C] Foreign RNA in all of their cells
[D] Both (A) and (C)

6. Whole genome sequencing of zebra fish in India was done in the

year 2009 by
[A] Wellcome Trust Sanger Institute
[B] Institute of Genomics and Integrative Biology, Delhi
[C] CIFA, Bhubaneswar
[D] CCMB, Hyderabad

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 48 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

7. Transgenic Atlantic salmon was produced by Aqua bounty called

[A] Genomer supreme salmon [B] GIFT salmon
[C] Aquadvantage salmon [D] Bounty salmon

8. The transgenic Atlantic salmon carries _______promoter

[A] Mouse Metallothionin [B] AFP from Ocean pouts
[C] SP6 promoter [D] SV 40 promoter

9. Most popular technique used for gene transfer in fish is

[A] Electroporation [B] Liposome mediated
[C] Sperm mediated [D] Microinjection

10. Most widely used method for detecting transgene in fish is

[A] Western blotting [B] Real time PCR
[C] Southern blotting [D] Nested PCR

11. Widely used reporter genes for transgenic fish studies are
[A] Chloramphenicol acetyltransferase (CAT)
[B] b-galactosidase
[C] Luciferase
[D] GFP and RFP
[E] All of the above

12. An organism that has a foreign or modified gene integrated in its

genome is called as
[A] Transgenic
[B] Genetically modified organism (GMO)
[C] Living modified organism (LMO)
[D] All of these

13. Green Fluorescent Protein gene was isolated from

[A] Sea anemone (Discosoma spp.) [B] Mollusk
[C] Jelly fish (Aequorea victoria) [D] Mussels

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 49

14. Red Fluorescent Protein gene was isolated from

[A] Sea anemone (Discosoma spp.) [B] Mollusk
[C] Jelly fish (Aequorea victoria) [D] Mussels

15. First Indian transgenic zebra fish was produced in the year
[A] 1995 [B] 1991
[C] 1990 [D] 1985

16. The virus mediated gene transfer using genetically modified

bacteriophages is called
[A] Transformation [B] Conjugation
[C] Transfection [D] Transduction

17. Which of the following bacterium is considered as natural genetic

engineer?
[A] Agrabacterium tumifaciens [B] Agrabacterium radiobactor
[C] Psuedomonas putida [D] Thermus aquaticus

18. Introduction of DNA into cells by exposing to high voltage electric

pulse
[A] Electrofusion [B] Electroporation
[C] Electrolysis [D] Electrofission

19. DNA solution injected directly into the cell using

micromanipulators is called
[A] Macroinjection [B] Microfection
[C] Microinjection [D] None

20. Simple sequence repeats are

[A] 1-6 bp long sequences distributed along chromosome
[B] Also called as microsatellite
[C] Individual specific in number and position
[D] All of the above

21. RAPD is a
[A] Sequencing based method [B] PCR based method
[C] RE digestion based method [D] All of these
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 50 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

22. RFLP is used to

[A] Construct high resolution linkage map
[B] Identify single gene diseases
[C] Construct QTL maps
[D] All of these

23. The peculiar characteristics of mitochondrial genome in fish

[A] Haploid [B] Maternally inherited
[C] Intronless [D] All of the above

24. Which of the following is type-I DNA marker?

[A] RAPD [B] AFLP and SNP
[C] RFLP and EST [D] Microsatellite

25. Which of the following is dominant marker?

[A] RFLP [B] Allozyme
[C] Microsatellite [D] RAPD

26. Which of the following is co-dominant marker?

[A] RFLP [B] Allozyme
[C] Both [A] and [B] [D] RAPD

27. Which of the following is protein marker?

[A] RFLP [B] Allozyme
[C] Microsatellite [D] RAPD

28. The annealing temperature used during RAPD PCR

[A] 50-60 °C [B] 20-30 °C
[C] 36-40 °C [D] 60-70 °C

29. Microsatellites are tandemely repeated DNA sequences having a

unit length of
[A] 10-60 bp [B] 1-6 bp
[C] 6-10 bp [D] 100-1000 bp

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 51

30. For a variation to be considered as SNP it must occur at least —-

per cent of population
[A] 2 [B] 3
[C] 1 [D] 4

31. Most abundant DNA marker is

[A] AFLP [B] RFLP
[C] Microsatellite [D] SNP

32. The usefulness of molecular marker is measured based on

[A] Its distribution [B] Its abundance
[C] Its PIC content [D] None of the above

33. Most widely used mitochondrial gene for DNA barcoding of fishes
is
[A] Cytochrome b
[B] Cytochrome oxidase subunit I (COI)
[C] ITS
[D] 16 S

34. Diploid (2n) chromosome number in tilapia is

[A] 32 [B] 54
[C] 50 [D] 44

35. Diploid (2n) chromosome number in Indian major carps is

[A] 32 [B] 54
[C] 50 [D] 44

36. Diploid (2n) chromosome number in Macrobrachium rosenbergii

is
[A] 32 [B] 118
[C] 100 [D] 44

37. Diploid (2n) chromosome number in common carps is

[A] 58 [B] 118
[C] 100 [D] 88

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 52 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

38. Widely used marker for parentage analysis

[A] AFLP [B] RFLP
[C] Microsatellite [D] SNP

39. First transgenic gold fish was produced in the year 1985 by
[A] Palmiter et al. [B] Zhou et al.
[C] Ozota et al. [D] T. J Pandian et al.

40. Most commonly used next generation sequencing platform

[A] Roche 454 [B] SOLiD
[C] Illumina GA [D] Pacific Bio

41. Which of the following next generation sequencing is based on

pyro-sequencing principle?
[A] Roche 454 [B] SOLiD
[C] Illumina GA [D] Pacific Bio

42. Read length of Illumina next generation technology is

[A] 200-300 bp [B] 300-400 bp
[C] 700-900 bp [D] 35-50 bp

43. The isozyme product of two different allele at same locus is

[A] Isozyme [B] Allozyme
[C] RFLP [D] RAPD

44. The separable forms of enzymes encoded by one or more loci are
called
[A] Isozyme [B] Allozyme
[C] RFLP [D] RAPD

45. The Sanger method of sequencing is based on

[A] Enzymatic cleavage [B] Chain termination
[C] Pyrosequencing [D] Oligo ligation and detection

46. The problem of null allele is occur mostly in

[A] Microsatellite and Allozyme [B] RFLP and AFLP
[C] EST [D] RAPD

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 53

47. Which stain is used in NOR banding?

[A] Geimsa stain [B] Silver nitrate stain
[C] Quinacrine [D] None

48. Sanger sequencing required _______DNA as template

[A] Double stranded [B] Single stranded
[C] Both can be used [D] None of the above

49. Whole genome sequencing project of Rohu and Magur is taken by

[A] CIFE, Mumbai [B] CIFA, Bhubaneswar
[C] CIBA, Chennai [D] NBFGR, Lucknow

50. The Kursk carp is _______ hybrid

[A] Interspecific [B] Intraspecific
[C] Intergeneric [D] None

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 54 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 55

Chapter 4
Breeding of Fish and
Shellfish

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 56 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 57

1. The fish in which both male and female sex organs are present in
same individual is called
[A] Bisexual [B] Unisexual
[C] Hermaphrodite [D] None

2. Which of the following is protandrus hermaphrodite?

[A] Asian sea bass [B] Sparus auratus
[C] Clown fish [D] All of these

3. Which of the following is protogynus hermaphrodite?

[A] Epinephelus tauvina [B] Oyster
[C] Sword tail [D] Sea bream

4. Secondary sexual characters in catfishes is

[A] Gonopodium [B] Genital papilla
[C] Ovipositing tube [D] None of these

5. The glandular part of pituitary is called

[A] Neurohypophysis [B] Adenohypophysis
[C] Hypophysis [D] None of these

6. Yolk protein vitollogenin is produced by

[A] Kidney [B] Blood
[C] Liver [D] Gonads

7. _______ type of ovary is not continuous with the oviduct

[A] Gymnovarian [B] Cyst ovarian
[C] Semicyst ovarian [D] Synchronus

8. Arginine vasotocin (AVT) and isotocin are secreted by

[A] Pars Intermedia (PI) [B] Proximal pars distalis (PPD)
[C] Neurohypophysis [D] Rostral pars distalis (RPD)

9. Gonadotrophic hormones are secreted by

[A] Pars Intermedia (PI) [B] Proximal pars distalis (PPD)
[C] Neurohypophysis [D] Rostral pars distalis (RPD)
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 58 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

10. GnRH is secreted by

[A] Pituitary gland [B] Liver
[C] Hypothalamus [D] Gonads

11. GtH-I is secreted during

[A] Vitellogenic phase [B] Post vitellogenic phase
[C] Ovulation [D] None of these

12. The hormone required for final maturation of oocyte and ovulation
is
[A] GtH-I [B] GtH-II
[C] GnRH [D] GtH-III

13. In crustaceans the neurosecretary organ called x-organ is located

in
[A] Pleopod [B] Periopod
[C] Eye stalk [D] Cephalothorax

14. Which of the following neurohormone is secreted by x-organ in

crustacean?
[A] OIH/ GIH [B] MIH
[C] Light adapting hormone [D] All of these

15. Gonad stimulatory hormone (GSH) in crustaceans is secreted by

[A] Ovary [B] Thoracic ganglia
[C] Y-oragn [D] Mandiular organ

16. The molting hormone (ecdysone) is secreted by

[A] Ovary [B] Thoracic ganglia
[C] Y-oragn [D] Mandiular organ

17. Mandibular organ secretes _______ which has shown to be

involved in ovarian growth and vitellogenesis
[A] GSH [B] MIH
[C] Neuro depressing hormone [D] Methyl furnesoate

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 59

18. The maturation in prawns is usually induced by

[A] Hormone treatment [B] Eye stalk ablation
[C] Environmental manipulation [D] None of these

19. In IMCs which type of ovaries are found?

[A] Synchronus [B] Asynchronous
[C] Group synchronous [D] None

20. Brood stock of cobia are stocked at the rate of

[A] 2 kg/m3 [B] 12 kg/m3
[C] 5 kg/m3 [D] 15 kg/m3

21. Follicle cells of oocyte secrets

[A] Testosterone [B] Vitellogenic
[C] Progesterone [D] Estradiol

22. Carp brood fishes are normally stocked at the rate of _______Kg/
ha in brood stock pond
[A] 500 to 700 [B] 1500-2000
[C] 700-900 [D] 2500-3000

23. Which of the following is dopamine antagonist?

[A] Synahorin [B] GnRH
[C] Pimozide and domperidone [D] GtH

24. The first successful induced breeding of IMC with administration

of pituitary gland extract was carried out by
[A] Houssay [B] MacDonald
[C] Choudhary and Alikunhi [D] C.V. Kulkarni

25. Pituitary gland can be preserved in

[A] Absolute alcohol [B] Acetone
[C] Both [A] and [B] [D] Glycerin

26. Pituitary gland extract is preserved in

[A] Distilled water [B] Glycerin
[C] Absolute alcohol [D] Acetone

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 60 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

27. Each ml of ovaprim, a synthetic hormone contains

[A] 20 mg sGnRH + 10 µg domperidone
[B] 20 mg domperidone + 10 µg sGnRH
[C] 20 µg sGnRH + 10 mg domperidone
[D] 20 mg sGnRH + 100 µg domperidone

28. _______ is a mixture of chorionic gonadotropin and mammalian

pituitary gland
[A] Puberogen [B] Synahorin
[C] Antiutrin [D] Sumach

29. Crude HCG is commercially available by the trade name of

[A] Puberogen [B] Synahorin
[C] Antiutrin [D] Sumach

30. _______is one of the mineralocorticosteroid used to induce

ovulation in fishes
[A] DOCA [B] Cortisone
[C] Corticosterone [D] None

31. Eggs of IMC are _______ in nature

[A] Floating [B] Semi-buoyant
[C] Adhesive [D] None of the above

32. The general dose of ovaprim to induce spawning in IMC is _______

ml/Kg body wt
[A] 0.2 [B] 0.3
[C] 0.5 [D] 1

33. Bundh breeding was undertaken on scientific lines for the first
time in the state
[A] West Bengal [B] Madhya Pradesh
[C] Orissa [D] Bihar

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 61

34. Adhesiveness of common carp eggs can be removed with the help
of
[A] NaCl + KCl [B] NaCl + HCl
[C] NaCl + Na2S2O3 [D] NaCl + Urea

35. _______ is a combination of 63 per cent FSH and 34 per cent LH

[A] Ovaprim [B] Puberogen
[C] Synahorin [D] Prolan

36. The ovapel composed of

[A] 20 mg sGnRH + 10 µg metaclopramide
[B] 20 mg domperidone + 10 µg sGnRH
[C] 18-20 µg mGnRHa + 10 mg metaclopramide
[D] 20 mg sGnRH + 100 µg domperidone

37. The recommended dose of ovapel in fish is

[A] 3-4 pellet/Kg of fish [B] 1-2 pellet/Kg of fish
[C] 5-6 pellet/Kg of fish [D] 7-8 pellet/Kg of fish

38. Which of the following hormone is indigenous to India?

[A] Ovaprim [B] WOVA-FH
[C] Ovapel [D] Ovatide

39. Ovaprim is manufactured by

[A] University of Godolla, Hungary [B] Hemmopharma, Mumbai
[C] Syndel Laboratories, Canada [D] WOCKHRDT, Mumbai

40. In Macrobrachium rosenbergii genital pores are located at the base

of _______ pair of periopods of male and female respectively
[A] Fifth and Third [B] Third and Fifth
[C] Fifth and Fourth [D] Fourth and Fifth

41. The larva of Macrobrachium rosenbergii pass through how many

zoeal stages
[A] 12 [B] 13
[C] 11 [D] 9

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 62 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

42. There are _______ naupliar stages in Penaeus monodon

[A] 7 [B] 6
[C] 3 [D] 9

43. First feeding stage of Penaeus monodon is

[A] Naupli [B] Mysis
[C] Protozoea [D] Post larva

44. In which of the following female thelycum is of open type

[A] Penaeus monodon [B] Penaeus semisulcatus
[C] Marsupenaeus japonicus [D] Litopenaeus vannamei

45. The larva of crab is called

[A] Phyllosoma [B] Pedveliger
[C] Megalopa [D] Mysis

46. How much ppt salinity is maintained in larval rearing tank of

scampi?
[A] 4 to 6 [B] 10 to 14
[C] 20 to 25 [D] 28 to 32

47. In hatchery oyster larva are fed with which species of

phytoplankton
[A] Skeletonema [B] Chetoceros
[C] Isochrysis [D] Coscinodiscus

48. The eye stalk ablation for gonadal maturation was discovered by
[A] Hudinaga [B] Panouse
[C] Cook and Murphy [D] Hornell

49. Which larva of sea cucumber is slipper shaped?

[A] Doliolaria [B] Pentactula
[C] Auricularia [D] Morula

50. Which larva of sea cucumber is barrel shaped?

[A] Doliolaria [B] Pentactula
[C] Auricularia [D] Morula

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 63

51. Which of the following cross is called interspecific hybrid?

[A] Labeo rohita X Catla catla
[B] Labeo rohita X Labeo calbasu
[C] Labeo rohita from Gomti river X Labeo rohita from Brahmaputra
river
[D] None of these

52. Which of the following cross is called intergeneric hybrid?

[A] Labeo rohita X Catla catla
[B] Labeo rohita X Labeo calbasu
[C] Labeo rohita from Gomti river X Labeo rohita from Brahmaputra
river
[D] None of these

53. Which molecular markers are used mostly for MAS?

[A] RAPD [B] RFLP
[C] Microsatellite and SNP [D] AFLP

54. The method of selection used when trait has low heritability and
is difficult to measure
[A] Individual selection [B] Progeny testing
[C] Independent level of culling [D] Marker assisted selection

55. First successful cryopreservation of herring sperm in 1953 was

done by
[A] Polge et al. [B] J. H. S. Blaxter
[C] Billard et al. [D] Padhi and Mandal

56. The quality of spermatozoa can be evaluated by

[A] Motility [B] Spermatocrit value
[C] Fertilizing capacity [D] All of the above

57. Most cryoinjuries during cryopreservation of gametes take place

in the temperature range
[A] 0 to 10 °C [B] 0 to -40 °C
[C] -40 to -80 °C [D] 10 to 25 °C

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 64 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

58. During cryopreservation _______ helps to prevent or reduce intra-

cellular ice crystal formation
[A] Cryoprotectant [B] Extender
[C] Water [D] Liquid N2

59. A solution of salts and sometimes including some organic

compounds which helps to maintain viability of cell during
refrigeration
[A] Cryoprotectant [B] Liquid N2
[C] Extender [D] Water

60. Which of the following is permeating cryoprotectant?

[A] Glycerol
[B] Dimethyl sulphoxide (DMSO)
[C] Methanol and ethylene glycol
[D] All of the above

61. Which of the following is non-permeating croprotectant?

[A] Polyvinyl pyrrolidone (PVP) [B] Glucose and egg yolk
[C] Sucrose and serum [D] All of the above

62. Cryopreservation of fish eggs is difficult than sperm because

[A] Large size of egg [B] Thick chorion
[C] Large quantity of yolk [D] All of the above

63. Most widely used extender in fish sperm cryopreservation are

[A] Ringers solution [B] Hanks medium
[C] Both [A] and [B] [D] None

64. The dilution ratio of milt and diluents in fish range from
[A] 1:1 to 1:3 [B] 1:1 to 1:9
[C] 1:1 to 1:20 [D] 1:1 to 1:25

65. Most commonly used anesthetic during transportation of brood

stock
[A] Qunaldine [B] Clove oil
[C] MS222 [D] None
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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 65

66. Selection method used for threshold character

[A] Individual selection [B] Family selection
[C] Progeny testing [D] Pedigree selection

67. Lowest inbreeding rate found in which mating design

[A] Mass spawning [B] Full factorial
[C] Single pair mating [D] Nested design

68. Most commonly used mating design in aquaculture breeding

program
[A] Mass spawning [B] Full factorial
[C] Single pair mating [D] Nested design

69. In single pair mating design the offspring produced are all
[A] Half sibs [B] Full sibs
[C] Paternal half sib [D] Maternal half sib

70. The first selective breeding program of Atlantic salmon by

AKWAFORSK started in the year
[A] 1970 [B] 1975
[C] 1988 [D] 2000

71. The base population for GIFT program was

[A] 4 X 4 diallele cross [B] 6 X 6 diallele cross
[C] 8 X 8 diallele cross [D] None

72. Selection index procedure was given by

[A] Henderson [B] Smith and Hazel
[C] Crick [D] Dickerson

73. GIFT program by World Fish Center was started in the year
[A] 1978 [B] 1998
[C] 1976 [D] 1988

74. The selectively bred rohu in India by CIFA called

[A] Genetically supreme rohu [B] Jayanti rohu
[C] Golden rohu [D] Genetically Imp. farm rohu

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 66 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

75. The genetic gain in Jayanti rohu was

[A] 10 per cent [B] 13 per cent
[C] 17 per cent [D] 15 per cent

76. _______ is the only selection method for which the accuracy of
selection can be 100 per cent.
[A] Individual selection [B] Family selection
[C] Pedigree selection [D] Progeny testing

77. Incubation period of Macrobrachium rosenbergii is

[A] 21 hrs [B] 21 days
[C] 48 hrs [D] 15 days

78. Which of the following is least reliable way to estimate

heritability?
[A] Half sib correlation
[B] Regression of off-spring on father
[C] Full sib correlation
[D] None of the above

79. The trait or character that natural selection selects for

[A] Growth [B] Disease resistance
[C] Flesh quality [D] Fitness

80. M. rosenbergii selective breeding program was conducted by CIFA

in a year
[A] 2007 [B] 2009
[C] 1997 [D] 1999

81. Tag used for M. rosenbergii selective breeding programe

[A] Visible implant alpha numeric tag (VIA)
[B] Visible implant elastomer tag (VIE)
[C] Both [A] and [B]
[D] PIT tag

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 67

82. Selective breeding programme of Rohu conducted by CIFA in a

year
[A] 1994 [B] 1992
[C] 2004 [D] 2002

83. Least accurate method of selection for aquatic species

[A] Individual selection [B] Progeny testing
[C] Pedigree selection [D] Family selection

84. Eye stalk ablation in shrimp is done by

[A] Pinching [B] Electro cauterization
[C] Cutting by scissors [D] All of the above

85. Appendix masculina in the male of freshwater prawn is located

on
[A] 1st pleopod [B] 2nd pleopod
[C] 3rd periopod [D] 4th periopod

86. The fecundity of Clarius batrachus is

[A] 8000-10,000 [B] 15,000-20,000
[C] 30,000-50,000 [D] 5,000-6,000

87. Petasma in male shrimp present on

[A] 1st pleopod [B] 2nd pleopod
[C] 3rd periopod [D] 4th periopod

88. The mixture of extender and cryoprotectant is called

[A] Cryoextender [B] Diluent
[C] Ringers medium [D] None

89. The synthetic ovulating agent Puberogen contains________

[A] 63 per cent LH and 34 per cent FSH
[B] 63 per cent FSH and 34 per cent sGnRH
[C] 63 per cent FSH and 34 per cent LH
[D] 63 per cent FSH and 34 per cent Domperidone

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 68 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

90. _______ is the largest and fastest growing species among

freshwater prawn
[A] M. rosenbergii [B] M. malcomsoni
[C] M. choprai [D] M. rude

91. Males of M. rosenbergii whose growth is suppressed due to

dominant ones are called
[A] Jumpers [B] Shooters
[C] Bulls [D] Runts

92. Dominant males of M. rosenbergii showing fast growth rate are

called
[A] Jumpers [B] Shooters
[C] Bulls [D] Runts

93. A peculiar characteristics of the blue-clawed males of M.

rosenbergii is
[A] They are submissive and sexually active
[B] They are dominant and sexually active
[C] Growth is very fast
[D] Consume less feed

94. A peculiar characteristics of the orange-clawed males of M.

rosenbergii is
[A] Have high somatic growth rate
[B] Highly dominant
[C] Show territoriality
[D] Suppresses growth of others

95. In diatom culture _______ nutrient is essential for production of

external shell
[A] Chlorides [B] Silicates
[C] Nitrates [D] Calcium

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 69

96. Daphnia is an example of

[A] Copepods [B] Cladocerans
[C] Nematodes [D] Rotifers

97. _______ cultures are free from any foreign organism and require
strict sterilization
[A] Axenic [B] Xenic
[C] Batch [D] Continuous

98. Disease resistance in fish is example of

[A] Sex influenced trait [B] Sex limited trait
[C] Threshold trait [D] Sex linked trait

99. _______ is commercially sold freeze-dried ornamental fish food

in India
[A] Infusorians [B] Tubifex worms
[C] Mosquito larvae [D] Rotifers

100. CIFE D model of carp hatchery was designed by

[A] Shirgur [B] S.N. Dwivedi
[C] Alikunhi [D] Alagarswami

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 71

Chapter 5
Conservation and
Bioinformatics

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 73

1. The process by which the totipotent embryonic cells are converted

into specialized cells and giving rise to specific tissue
[A] Organization [B] Transformation
[C] Differentiation [D] Mutation

2. The underlying principle of DNA microarray is_______

[A] Transcription [B] Replication
[C] Hybridization [D] Translation

3. Technique used for gene expression study when there is no prior

information of genome
[A] Northern blotting [B] RT-PCR
[C] DNA microarray [D] RNA Sequencing

4. The set of all mRNA produced in a cell at a particular given time

point is called
[A] Genome [B] Transcriptome
[C] Proteome [D] Metabolome

5. DNA microarray is also called as

[A] DNA chip [B] Bio chip
[C] Gene chip [D] All of the above

6. Which of the following comes under biological data mining tool?

[A] Entrez (NCBI)
[B] Sequence Retrieval System (SRS)
[C] DBGET
[D] All of the above

7. DNA sequence data can be submitted to NCBI or EMBL by using

[A] BankIt [B] Sequin
[C] Both [A] and [B] [D] None

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 74 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

8. EMBL stands for

[A] European Molecular Biochemical Laboratory
[B] European Molecular Biology Laboratory
[C] European Molecular Biotechnological Laboratory
[D] European Molecular Biotechnical Laboratory

9. ArkDB is genomic database concern about

[A] Human Genome [B] Drosophila Genome
[C] Cenorhabdis eligans [D] Farm animal genome

10. Which of the following is protein structure database?

[A] PIR [B] PDB
[C] Swiss-Prot [D] TIGRFAM

11. Which is the most common scoring matrix?

[A] PAM [B] BLOSUM
[C] Both [A] and [B] [D] None

12. Who developed PAM and which year?

[A] Needleman and Wunch, 1976 [B] Smith-Waterman, 1978
[C] Henikoff and Henikoff, 1992 [D] D.Dayhoff et al., 1978

13. The term bioinformatics was coined by

[A] J.D.Watson [B] Margaret Dayhoff
[C] Pauline Hogeweg [D] F. Sanger

14. How is e-value related to the score?

[A] Lower the value more significant is the score
[B] Lower the value less significant is the score
[C] e-value does not relate to score
[D] None of these

15. What can be used for pairwise sequence alignment?

[A] Dynamic programming method [B] DOTLET
[C] None [D] Both [A] and [B]

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 75

16. Who developed Neighbor joining method?

[A] Henikoff and Henikoff, 1992 [B] Saitou and Nei, 1987
[C] D.Dayhoff et al., 1978 [D] None

17. What does PHYLIP stands for?

[A] PHYlogeny Inference Package
[B] PHYlogentic Image Processing
[C] PHYlogenetic Inference Package
[D] PHYlogeny Inference Protocol

18. What are the commonly used tools for multiple sequence
alignment?
[A] ClustalW [B] MUSCLE
[C] T-Coffeee [D] All of the above

19. Margaret Dayhoff developed first protein sequence database

called
[A] Swiss Prot
[B] Protein sequence databank
[C] PDB
[D] Atlas of protein sequence and structure

20. Stepwise method of solving problems in computer science is called

[A] Procedure [B] Algorithm
[C] Sequential design [D] Flowchart

21. The term used to refer something performed on computer

[A] Dry lab [B] Wet lab
[C] Invitro [D] Insilico

22. NCBI was established in the year

[A] 1988 [B] 1989
[C] 1990 [D] 1978

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 76 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

23. The computational methodology that tries to find the best matching
between two molecules a receptor and ligand is called
[A] Molecular matching
[B] Molecular docking
[C] Molecular fitting
[D] Molecule affinity checking

24. A compound that has desirable properties to become as drug is

called
[A] Lead [B] Fit drug
[C] Fit compound [D] None

25. The study of the molecular organization of genomes, their

information content and the gene products they encode
[A] Genetics [B] Genomics
[C] Ergonomics [D] Metabolomics

26. Which type of genomics studies the physical nature of genomes?

[A] Comparative genomics [B] Structural genomics
[C] Functional genomics [D] None

27. Which type of genomics studies the transcripts and proteins

expressed by a genome?
[A] Comparative genomics [B] Structural genomics
[C] Functional genomics [D] None

28. Which type of genomics studies similarities and differences among

the genomes of multiple organisms?
[A] Comparative genomics [B] Structural genomics
[C] Functional genomics [D] None

29. Who first developed the DNA sequencing approach using

dideoxynucleoside triphosphates in DNA synthesis?
[A] Pauling [B] Watson
[C] Sanger [D] Smith

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 77

30. How are the four different bases distinguished in automated

sequencing systems?
[A] Each base has a different radioactive tag
[B] Each base has a distinctive fluorescent tag
[C] Each base has a unique antibody bound to it
[D] None of these

31. Which bacterial genome was the first to be completely sequenced?

[A] E. coli [B] Streptococcus pneumoniae
[C] Haemophilus influenza [D] Vibrio sp

32. The whole-genome shotgun sequencing approach depends

primarily on
[A] Rapidly sequencing thousands of small randomly cloned
fragments
[B] Methodical sequencing a few large cloned fragments of DNA
[C] Sequencing the bacterial chromosome while it is still intact
[D] None of these

33. The field that is concerned with the management and analysis of
biological data using PC
[A] Statistics [B] Genomics
[C] Bioinformatics [D] Transcriptomics

34. Small solid supports onto which are spotted hundreds of thousands
of tiny drops of DNA that can be used to screen gene expression.
[A] DNA microarrays [B] Cloning library
[C] Southern blot [D] Northern blot

35. The first dimension of separation for two-dimensional

electrophoresis is based on _______
[A] Molecular mass [B] Isoelectric point
[C] Folding [D] None of these

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 78 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

36. The second dimension of separation for two-dimensional

electrophoresis is based on
[A] Molecular mass [B] Isoelectric point
[C] Folding [D] None of these

37. Monoclonal antibodies are

[A] Heterogeneous antibodies produced from single clone of plasma
cells
[B] Homogenous antibodies produced from single clone of plasma
cells
[C] Both [A] and [B]
[D] None of the above

38. The technology used for the production of monoclonal antibodies

is called
[A] Mass culture Technology [B] Suspension culture
[C] Hybridoma Technology [D] None

39. Hybridoma technology was developed by

[A] Khorana and Nirenberg [B] Kohler and Milstein
[C] Khorana and Kornberg [D] None of these

40. The hybridomas are made by

[A] Fusing T cells with myeloma cells
[B] Fusing B cells with myeloma cells
[C] Fusing T helper cells with myeloma cells
[D] Fusing B memory cells with myeloma cells

41. Mabs are _______

[A] Specific toward an antigen [B] Specific toward paratope
[C] Specific toward an epitope [D] None

41. In hybridoma technology hybrid cells are selected in

[A] MS medium [B] x-gal medium
[C] Whites medium [D] HAT medium

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 79

42. Which of the following cell is deficient of HGPRT enzyme?

[A] B cell [B] Hybrid cell
[C] Myeloma cell [D] None of these

43. A myeloma cell in hybridoma helps in

[A] Continuous growth of hybridomas
[B] Production of antibodies
[C] Both [A] and [B]
[D] None of these

44. BLAST and FASTA are used for

[A] Global similarity [B] End free space alignment
[C] Local similarity [D] Gap penalty

45. Which of the following is not primary nucleotide sequence

database?
[A] DDBJ [B] OWL
[C] GENBANK (NCBI) [D] EMBL

46. Which of the following mice are used for immunization in the
hybridoma technology?
[A] Swiss mice [B] Balb/c mice
[C] Outbred mice [D] Indigenous mice

47. Coastal Aquaculture Authority (2005) has head quarter at

[A] Hyderabad [B] Kolkata
[C] Chennai [D] Mumbai

48. Databases such as CATH and SCOP are used to identify:

[A] The structural family to which a protein belongs
[B] The genic family to which a protein belongs
[C] Homologous proteins
[D] Analogous proteins

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 80 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

49. The correct sequence, from the most to the least comprehensive,
of the taxonomic levels listed here is
[A] Family, phylum, class, kingdom, order, species, and genus
[B] Kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species
[C] Kingdom, phylum, order, class, family, genus, and species
[D] Phylum, kingdom, order, class, species, family, and genus

50. Which algorithms are used for generating phylogenetic trees from
molecular data?
[A] Neighbor-joining [B] Parsimony
[C] Maximum likelihood [D] all of the above

51. Explant is
[A] Any cut part of the fish organ used in tissue culture
[B] A plant extract used in tissue culture
[C] A source of growth regulators added to media
[D] Solidifying agent

52. Totipotency refers to

[A] The ability of a fish cell to arrest the growth of a fish
[B] The ability of a fish cell to develop disease in fish
[C] The ability of a fish cell to develop into a complete fish
[D] The ability of a fish cell to develop into a organ

53. The process of introduction of foreign DNA into animal cells is

called
[A] Transversion [B] Conversion
[C] Inversion [D] Transfection

54. Stem cells can be obtained from

[A] Embryo only
[B] Any part of the body
[C] Blood only
[D] Embryo, bone marrow, umbilical cord blood

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 81

55. The global alignment is based on _______ algorithm

[A] Smith [B] Waterman
[C] Needleman–Wunsch [D] Smith and Waterman

56. The local alignment is based on _______ algorithm

[A] Smith [B] Waterman
[C] Needleman–Wunsch [D] Smith and Waterman

57. What does “pluripotent” mean?

[A] Ability of a single cell to develop into an embryonic or adult stem
cell
[B] Ability of a single stem cell to develop into many different cell
types of the body
[C] Ability of a single embryonic stem cell to develop into an adult
stem cell
[D] Ability of a single stem cell to heal different types of diseases

58. Polyethylene glycol is

[A] Fusogenic chemical [B] Electro fusion stimulant
[C] Callus stimulant [D] Differentiation stimulant

59. A fertilized egg can develop into all the types of cells in the body
and is therefore considered
[A] Unipotent [B] Multipotent
[C] Totipotent [D] Pluripotent

60. What is a disadvantage of adult stem cells over embryonic stem

cells?
[A] There is no disadvantage; the two types of cells are identical
[B] They are much smaller and therefore difficult to maneuver
[C] They are difficult to locate
[D] They grow too fast

61. Which of the following is NOT a source for stem cells?

[A] Umbilical cord blood [B] Early embryos
[C] Sperm and egg [D] Certain adult tissues

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 82 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

62. How many biodiversity hotspots are there in India?

[A] 5 [B] 4
[C] 3 [D] 6

63. Government of India has legislated biological diversity act in the

year_______ for the conservation of our natural heritage
[A] 2001 [B] 2000
[C] 2003 [D] 2002

64. Major threats to fish diversity are

[A] Habitat destruction [B] Overexploitation
[C] Aquatic pollution [D] All of these

65. According to IUCN 2008 red list, how many fish species are
threatened?
[A] 1300 [B] 1275
[C] 1375 [D] 1475

66. The head quarter of IUCN is at

[A] Paris [B] Bangkok
[C] Switzerland [D] Rome

67. Population estimated to number less than 250 mature individuals

and 80 per cent reduction of population size over 10 years or 3
generations are criteria for
[A] Endangered species [B] Vulnerable species
[C] Extinct species [D] Critically Endangered

68. Population estimated to number less than 2500 mature individuals

and 50 per cent reduction of population size over 10 years or 3
generations are criteria for
[A] Endangered species [B] Vulnerable species
[C] Extinct species [D] Critically Endangered

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 83

69. Population estimated to number less than 10000 mature individuals

and 20 per cent reduction of population size over 10 years or 3
generations are criteria for
[A] Endangered species [B] Vulnerable species
[C] Extinct species [D] Critically Endangered

70. Concept of ‘state fish’ for conservation of fish diversity was started
by
[A] CIFA (2006) [B] CIBA (2007)
[C] NBFGR (2006) [D] NBFGR (2008)

71. State fish of Kerala is

[A] Tenulosa ilisha [B] Clarias batrachus
[C] Chitala chitala [D] Etroplus suratensis

72. Tor putitora is state fish of

[A] Arunachal Pradesh [B] Himachal Pradesh
[C] Jammu and Kashmir [D] All of the above

73. The national agency specially involved in aquatic bioresources

conservation and management is
[A] ICAR [B] NBFGR
[C] NFDB [D] NBDB

74. PALI data base is about the information regarding

[A] Phylogenetic analysis and alignments of proteins
[B] Amino acid sequence
[C] Protein, amino acid data
[D] Public American Latin Information

75. PDB contains data derived from

[A] a-ray crystallography and IR studies
[B] g-ray crystallography and IR studies
[C] X-ray crystallography and NMR studies
[D] X-ray crystallography and IR studies

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 84 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

76. The following is a nodal institute that monitor introduction of exotic

fish germplasm in the country?
[A] CIFE, Mumbai [B] NBFGR, Lucknow
[C] CMFRI, Cochin [D] CIFA, Bhubaneswar

77. Red data book provides data on

[A] Red colored fishes [B] Red flowered plants
[C] Endangered plants and animals [D] Endangered marine life

78. The first molecular biology server Expasy came in the year?
[A] 1994 [B] 1993
[C] 1991 [D] 1992

79. IUCN established in the year

[A] 1947 [B] 1957
[C] 1968 [D] 1948

80. _______ is the smallest possible size at which a biological

population can exist without facing extinction from natural
disasters
[A] Effective population size [B] Minimum viable population
[C] Minimum founder population [D] None

81. Which of the following are microarray database?

[A] Gene Expression Omnibus (GEO)
[B] Array Express
[C] Both [A] and [B]
[D] MIAME

82. BlastX searches

[A] Translated nucleotide database using a protein query
[B] Protein database using a protein query
[C] Protein database using a translated nucleotide query
[D] Nucleotide database using a nucleotide query

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 85

83. tblastn searches for

[A] Translated nucleotide database using a protein query
[B] Protein database using a protein query
[C] Protein database using a translated nucleotide query
[D] Nucleotide database using a nucleotide query

84. SISK is the first marine fish cell line developed in the year 2006
by
[A] Shobana et al. [B] Riji John et al.
[C] Sahul Hameed et al. [D] Sathe et al.

85. First permanent fish cell line is

[A] SISE [B] MG3
[C] SISK [D] RTG-2

86. Which of the following method is used for single gene expression
study
[A] Microarray [B] Real time PCR
[C] Northern blotting [D] Both B and C

87. The following is a nodal institute that maintaining live gene bank
[A] CIFE, Mumbai [B] NBFGR, Lucknow
[C] CMFRI, Cochin [D] CIFA, Bhubaneswar

88. Hela is a cell line derived from

[A] Fish [B] Frog
[C] Human [D] Mice

89. _______ is the evolution of species involving an entire population

rather than a branching event, as in cladogenesis
[A] Anagenesis [B] Cladogenesis
[C] Endosymbiosis [D] Symbiosis

90. Forces for molecular evolution are

[A] Mutation [B] Selection
[C] Genetic drift [D] All of the above

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 86 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

91. Molecular clock hypothesis is put forth in the year 1962 first by
[A] Emile Zuckerkandl [B] Linus Pauling
[C] Both [A] and [B] [D] None

92. _______ is a phylogenetic tree formed using cladistic methods

[A] Dendrogram [B] Cladogram
[C] Phylogram [D] Chronogram

93. Father of DNA barcoding

[A] M. Dayhoff [B] Alec Jeffery
[C] Paul Hebert [D] Candolle

94. _______ is phylogenetic tree that explicitly represents evolutionary

time through its branch spans
[A] Dendrogram [B] Cladogram
[C] Phylogram [D] Chronogram

95. Most commonly used distance matrix method for constructing

phylogenetic trees
[A] UPGMA [B] Neighbor Joining
[C] Maximum likelihood [D] Maximum parsimony

96. _______ is a collection of immunoglobulin molecules that react

against a specific antigen, each identifying a different epitope
[A] Monoclonal antibody [B] Polyclonal antibody
[C] Hybridoma [D] None

97. The commonly used cryoprotectant for cell line cryopreservation

[A] Glycerol [B] Methanol
[C] DMSO [D] Glycerine

98. The genome size of zebra fish is

[A] 2.4 Gb [B] 1.4 Gb
[C] 3 Gb [D] 5 Gb

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 87

99. The mitochondrial genome size of Rohu is

[A] 16594 bp [B] 16600 bp
[C] 16626 bp [D] 16596 bp

100. The fish mitochondrial genome database is produced and

maintained by
[A] CIFE, Mumbai [B] CIBA, Chennai
[C] CMFRI, Cochin [D] NBFGR, Lucknow

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 89

Chapter 6
General Fish Genetics

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 91

1. Any chromosome other than a sex chromosome is?

Answer:_______

2. Site on chromosome to which spindle fibers attach

Answer:_______

3. Adjective applicable to a chromosome with arms of about equal

length
Answer:_______

4. Adjective referring to the number of chromosomes in gamete

Answer:_______

5. Specialized cell division consisting of a reductional and equational

division
Answer:_______

6. Division of the cytoplasm

Answer:_______

7. The first phase of mitosis

Answer:_______

8. The cytological structure on paired chromosome with which genetic

exchange is correlated
Answer:_______

9. Chromosome that contain enough similar genetic material to pair

in meiosis
Answer:_______

10. The period between two mitotic division cycles

Answer:_______

11. Any measurable or distinctive characteristics or trait possessed

by an organism
Answer:_______

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 92 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

12. The genetic endowment of an individual or cell is

Answer:_______

13. A cell produced by the union of gametes carrying identical alleles

Answer:_______

14. A cell produced by the union of gametes carrying different alleles

Answer:_______

15. Adjective used for the alleles which is not expressed in

heterozygote
Answer:_______

16. Any phenotype that is extremely rare in a natural population

Answer:_______

17. Adjective describing any pair of alleles that interact in the

heterozygous condition to produce a phenotype different from
those of the respective homozygotes
Answer:_______

18. Any gene that when homozygous results in the death of the
individual during development
Answer:_______

19. The proportion of individuals of a specified genotype that show

the expected phenotype
Answer:_______

20. The degree of effect produced by a given genotype under a given

set of environment
Answer:_______

21. Protein catalyst that speed the rate of reaction

Answer:_______

22. The phenomenon in which a specific genotype at one locus can

prevent the phenotypic manifestation of a genotype at other locus
Answer:_______

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 93

23. A phenomenon wherein a single gene has more than one

phenotypic effect
Answer:_______

24. The genetic event that recombines linked genes

Answer:_______

25. The linkage arrangement in dihybrid in which the two dominant

genes are on the one chromosome and their corresponding
recessive alleles are on the homologous chromosomes
Answer:_______

26. A unit of map distance equivalent to 1 per cent crossing over

Answer:_______

27. The complement of the coefficient of coincidence

Answer:_______

28. An animal that has both male and female reproductive organ
Answer:_______

29. An adjective applied to genes on the nonhomologous segment of

the Y chromosome
Answer:_______

30. A class of traits governed by autosomal alleles whose dominance

relationships are reverse in the two sexes as a consequence of sex
hormone difference
Answer:_______

31. A class of autosomal traits having phenotypic variability in a

population in only one sex; the other sex exhibit a single phenotype
regardless of its genotype
Answer:_______

32. A cell or organism containing three sets of chromosomes

Answer:_______

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 94 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

33. A cell or organism having genomic formula 2n-1

Answer:_______

34. A cell or organism produced by doubling the chromosome number

of an interspecific hybrid
Answer:_______

35. An adjective applicable to a giant chromosome consisting of

hundreds of chromatid strands
Answer:_______

36. The exchange of pieces between two nonhomologous chromosomes

Answer:_______

37. The kind of phenotypic variation associated with quantitative trait

Answer:_______

38. A bell shaped distribution of continuous phenotypic variation

Answer:_______

39. A squared of standard deviation

Answer:_______

40. A type of allelic interaction in which the phenotype of a

heterozygote is outside the phenotypic limits of the corresponding
homozygotes
Answer:_______

41. The proportion of the phenotypic variance of a trait that is

attributable to gene effect
Answer:_______

42. A method of estimating breeding value of an individual by the

performance of its offspring
Answer:_______

43. The mating of individuals those are more closely related than the
average of the population to which they belong
Answer:_______

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 95

44. The superiority of offspring over parent

Answer:_______

45. The breeding structure of a population when each gamete has an

equal opportunity of uniting with any other gamete from the
opposite sex
Answer:_______

46. The total genetic information possessed by the reproductive

members of a population of sexually reproducing organism
Answer:_______

47. An important model of population genetics

Answer:_______

48. An interbreeding group of organisms sharing common gene pool

Answer:_______

49. Changes in gene frequencies due to sampling errors in very small

population
Answer:_______

50. The general hallmark criterion that demarcates one biological

species from another
Answer:_______

51. The method of DNA replication in which each strand of the double
helical molecule serves as template against which a complementary
new strand is synthesized
Answer:_______

52. A genetic locus that serve as a recognition site for RNA polymerase
attachment
Answer:_______

53. A group of three nucleotides in mRNA that together specify an

amino acid
Answer:_______

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 96 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

54. A short RNA sequence onto which DNA polymerase III adds
dNTPs during bacterial DNA replication
Answer:_______

55. The process whereby RNA is synthesized from DNA template

Answer:_______

56. The single stranded pieces of DNA produced by discontinuous

replication of dsDNA
Answer:_______

57. Regions within a eukaryotic primary transcript that are removed

during processing of mRNA
Answer:_______

58. Removal or reversal of damaged DNA by light dependent enzyme

Answer:_______

59. The protein coat of virus

Answer:_______

60. The name of all viruses that infect bacterial cells

Answer:_______

61. Phage DNA integrated into bacterial genome

Answer:_______

62. The class of RNA viruses that produce cDNA as part of their life
cycle
Answer:_______

63. Mobile DNA element

Answer:_______

64. Cancer causing genes

Answer:_______

65. The analogue in eukaryotes of the bacterial Pribnow box

Answer:_______

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 97

66. Genes involved in metabolism that tend to be active at all times in

all nucleated cells
Answer:_______

67. The total complement of proteins in a cell

Answer:_______

68. A small protein that when covalently attached to target proteins

mark them for destruction by proteases
Answer:_______

69. The removal of intron sequences from mRNA and coupling of

flanking exons
Answer:_______

70. Programmed cell death

Answer:_______

71. A technique that separates molecules according to their net charge

in an electric field, usually on solid or semisolid support media
such as paper or agarose
Answer:_______

72. Separation of complementary chains of DNA molecule usually

heat
Answer:_______

73. Reassociation of complementary single stranded regions of DNA

with DNA or RNA with DNA
Answer:_______

74. Exposure of photographic film to DNA labeled with radioactive

isotope
Answer:_______

75. Symmetrical sequences of nucleotide base pairs in dsDNA that

read the same on each strand from 5’ to 3’
Answer:_______

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 98 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

76. Bacterial enzymes that break phosphodiester bonds in DNA at

specific base sequence
Answer:_______

77. The random collection of a sufficiently large sample of cloned

fragments of the DNA of an organism to ensure that all of that
organisms DNA is represented in the collection
Answer:_______

78. The name of the product produced by reverse transcriptase enzyme

from mRNA template
Answer:_______

79. Chemical synthesis of DNA was devised by-

Answer:_______

80. Most commonly used type of restriction enzymes are of-

Answer:_______

81. Major complement component present in serum is-

Answer:_______

82. PCR technique was developed by –

Answer:_______

83. Major DNA polymerase involved in replication in prokaryotes is-

Answer:_______

84. Most abundant polysaccharide among living system-

Answer:_______

85. Recombinant DNA technology developed by –

Answer:_______

86. Semi-conservative replication of DNA was proved by-

Answer:_______

87. Protein part of an enzyme is termed as-

Answer:_______

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 99

88. During replication, the enzyme that prevents torsion by breaking

DNA strands
Answer:_______

89. Eukaryotic DNAP for mitochondrial DNA replication is-

Answer:_______

90. Monoclonal antibody technique developed by-

Answer:_______

91. Most stable form of DNA and RNA seen under physiological
condition is-
Answer:_______

92. Type II restriction enzymes were discovered by

Answer:_______

93. In prokaryotes, the DNA polymerase having 5’-3’ exonuclease

activity
Answer:_______

94. Concept of Transformation was proved by

Answer:_______

95. During replication of DNA the separation of double strands is

done by
Answer:_______

96. DNA replication takes place from which direction

Answer:_______

97. Cracking of genetic code was performed by

Answer:_______

98. Jumping genes or transposons were first reported by

Answer:_______

99. One gene-One Enzyme hypothesis was proposed by

Answer:_______

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 100 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

100. Operon concept was proposed by

Answer:_______

101. Phenomenon of Conjugation was put forth by

Answer:_______

102. Histones are rich in amino acids

Answer:_______

103. Wobble hypothesis was proposed by

Answer:_______

104. Bacterial DNA is compacted in a structure called

Answer:_______

105. Transfer RNA in eukaryotes is produced by

Answer:_______

106. Chemical method of DNA sequencing was developed by

Answer:_______

107. Molecular beacons’ are probes used in detection system for

Answer:_______

108. Reverse transcriptase was first discovered by

Answer:_______

109. The enzyme employed for amplification of specific genes in PCR

technique
Answer:_______

110. In Agarose gel electrophoresis, the movement of proteins is based

on
Answer:_______

111. Phenomenon of transduction was proposed by

Answer:_______

112. The medium used for selecting myeloma cells in hybridoma

technology is
Answer:_______

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 101

113. Amino acid that does not exhibit optical activity is

Answer:_______

114. In SDS-PAGE, the movement of proteins is based on

Answer:_______

115. The reagent developed by Sanger to identify the amino terminal

amino acid
Answer:_______

116. Most abundant amino acid present in collagen is

Answer:_______

117. In Agarose gel electrophoresis the DNA is visualized using

Answer:_______

118. Reverse transcriptases are present in

Answer:_______

119. A diploid cell line of human origin is

Answer:_______

120. Cell lines are commonly preserved in

Answer:_______

121. Size of a prokaryotic cell generally ranges from

Answer:_______

122. Scientist who coined the term Genetics

Answer:_______

123. What is the contribution of Wilhem Johanssen to Genetics?

Answer:_______

124. Theory of pangenesis was proposed by

Answer:_______

125. The concept of Genotype and Phenotype was introduced by

Answer:_______

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 102 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

126. Chromosome theory of heredity was proposed by

Answer:_______

127. Germ plasm theory was put forward by

Answer:_______

128. The nationality of Gregor Mendel who is regarded as “father of

genetics”
Answer:_______

129. In 1900, Mendel’s work were rediscovered by

Answer:_______

130. Law of Segregation is also known as

Answer:_______

131. Human blood group type is an example of

Answer:_______

132. What is the ratio due to double recessive epistasis?

Answer:_______

133. Crossing over occurs in the _______ stage of meiosis.

Answer:_______

134. Epistasis works at— level where as Dominance always work at

the _______ Level
Answer:_______

135. Name the scientist who first discovered chromosomes

Answer:_______

136. Who coined the term Chromosomes?

Answer:_______

137. The organelle from which the r-RNA is synthesized

Answer:_______

138. Metacentric chromosomes assume which shape?

Answer:_______

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 103

139. Pairing of the homologous chromosomes takes place at _______

stage
Answer:_______

140. Darkly stained regions of the chromosomes at prophase is called

Answer:_______

141. Sex chromatin is rich in?

Answer:_______

142. Where are Lampbrush chromosomes found?

Answer:_______

143. The Octate structure in the nucleosome consists of?

Answer:_______

144. Balbiani rings or Chromosomal puffing are present in?

Answer:_______

145. Interphase of the cell cycle consists of ?

Answer:_______

146. Complete synaptonemal complex is found in which stage?

Answer:_______

147. The complementary phenomena of inbreeding depression is?

Answer:_______

148. The unit representing a map unit between the linked genes?
Answer:_______

149. Phenomenon by which crossing over in one region suppresses

crossing over in adjacent region
Answer:_______

150. What is coefficient of coincidence?

Answer:_______

151. _______ is measured using coefficient of coincidence?

Answer:_______

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 104 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

152. Genic balance theory of sex determination was proposed by?

Answer:_______

153. _______ confirms the presence of Barr body in female somatic

cells.
Answer:_______

154. World’s first chromosome map was produced by?

Answer:_______

155. The no. of chromosomes in Drosophila is?

Answer:_______

156. Haploid-Diploid type of sex determination is seen in?

Answer:_______

157. In Drosophila sex is determined by the ratio of X chromosome to?

Answer:_______

158. Polyploids created by chromosome duplication is called?

Answer:_______

159. The presence of extra chromosome sets in a cell is called as?

Answer:_______

160. Which is the stain used for G banding?

Answer:_______

161. The chart of images of chromosomes is called?

Answer:_______

162. How many different pairs of contrasting characters Mendel studied

in pea?
Answer:_______

163. per cent of homozygous offspring’s in F2 generation of monohybrid

cross is?
Answer:_______

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 105

164. Test to assess whether the individuals are showing dominant

character due to homo or heterozygosity?
Answer:_______

165. The term ‘heterosis’ was coined by?

Answer:_______

166. Phenotypic ratio n incomplete dominance is?

Answer:_______

167. Number of linkage groups in an organism is equal to?

Answer:_______

168. Theory of linkage and concept of sex linked inheritance was

proposed by?
Answer:_______

169. Crossing over occurs between ?

Answer:_______

170. Chances of crossing over more if genes are located?

Answer:_______

171. Spindle formation inhibition and arresting the cells in metaphase

are done by?
Answer:_______

172. Changes that involve replacement of one purine in a

polynucleotide chain by another purine is called?
Answer:_______

173. In interphase, nucleus of cells in females a dark stained chromatin

mass is observed called?
Answer:_______

174. A severe reduction in a population’s effective breeding number?

Answer:_______

175. The process of removal of individuals during selection?

Answer:_______

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 106 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

176. The loss of genetic variance that occurs when a population is started
with small number of fish?
Answer:_______

177. Brothers and sisters that have only one parent in common
Answer:_______

178. A triploid produced by mating tetraploid with a diploid

Answer:_______

179. A system of mating in which each male leaves one son and each
female leaves one daughter for the following generation’s
broodstock
Answer:_______

180. Fish that were able to exploit environmental variables and grew
more quickly than the rest of the fish population
Answer:_______

181. In hardy Weinberg equilibrium the frequency of heterozygotes is

Answer:_______

182. The number of generations of selection required to effect a

specified change of gene frequency is given by formula
Answer:_______

183. The proportion of population that suffers genetic death is called

Answer:_______

184. The initial random mating population is referred as

Answer:_______

185. The probability that two genes at any locus in an individual are
identical by descent
Answer:_______

186. The average age of parents at the birth of their offspring

Answer:_______

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 107

187. When pedigree of an individual is known then the inbreeding

coefficient of an individual is given by formula
Answer:_______

188. The degree of relationship by descent between two parents is

called
Answer:_______

189. The value observed when a character is measured on an individual

is called
Answer:_______

190. The value of an individual judged by mean value of its progeny is

called
Answer:_______

191. The non genetic variation whose cause is unknown and which
therefore cannot be eliminated by experimental design
Answer:_______

192. The difference of mean phenotypic value between the offspring’s

of the selected parents and whole of the parental generation
before selection
Answer:_______

193. The trait which we want to improve is called

Answer:_______

194. The trait on which you have got information (measurements)

Answer:_______

195. The reduction in genetic variance in the initial generation of

selection is called
Answer:_______

196. The theoretical maximum response to selection is given by

Answer:_______

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 108 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

197. The reduction of mean phenotypic value shown by characters

connected with reproductive capacity after inbreeding is called
Answer:_______

198. The correlation of breeding value is

Answer:_______

199. The process which transforms intra-cellular water to non-

crystalline solids after freezing
Answer:_______

200. The temperature at which vitrification begins is called

Answer:_______

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 109

Chronology of Important
Developments in Genetics

Sl.No. Year Scientist Discovery/Contribution

1 1665 R. Hooke First description of cells

2 1717 Thomas Fairchild First Artificial plant hybrid
3 1809 Lamarck Inheritance of acquired characters
4 1831 R. Brown Presence of nuclei in cells
5 1838-39 Schleiden and Proposed cell theory
Schwann
6 1856 G.J. Mendel Begins hybridization in peas, Father
of genetics
7 1858 Darwin and Theory of evolution of life
Wallace
8 1859 Charles Darwin Publishes the book ‘On the origin of
species’
9 1865 G. J. Mendel Presented paper ‘Experiments in
plant hybridization
10 1882 Walter Flemming Mitosis
11 1883 E. Van Beneden Meiosis

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 110 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

Sl.No. Year Scientist Discovery/Contribution

12 1883 August Weismann Proposes germplasm theory

13 1900 Hugo de Vries, Rediscover Mendel’s paper
C. Correns,
E. Tschermak
14 1901 Hugo de Vries Term ‘Mutation’
15 1901 K. Landsteiner Human ABO blood group
16 1902 Sutton and Boveri Chromosome theory of heredity
17 1902- W. Bateson Coined term Genetics, Allelomorph,
1909 Homozygote, Heterozygote, F1, F2
and Epistatic genes
18 1908 G. H. Hardy and Independently formulate Hardy-
W. Weinberg Weinberg law
19 1909 W. Johannsen Coined term gene, genotype,
phenotype
20 1910 T. H. Morgan Sex linkage in drosophila
21 1913 A. H. Sturtevant First genetic map
22 1925 C. B. Bridges Genic balance theory of sex
determination
23 1928 F. Griffith Transformation in Diplococcus
pneumoniae
24 1941 G.W. Beadle and One gene one enzyme theory
E.L. Tatum
25 1941 K. Mather Coined term polygene’s
26 1944 O. T. Avery, Demonstrates that DNA is
C. M. MacLeod transforming principle in
and M. McCartey Diplococcus pneumoniae
27 1950 B. McClintock Discovered transposable elements
(Transposons) in maize
28 1952 N. D. Zinder and Described transduction in Salmonella
J. Lederberg

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 111

Sl.No. Year Scientist Discovery/Contribution

29 1952 A. D. Hershey & DNA is the genetic material in E.coli

M. Chase phage T2
30 1953 J. D. Watson & Proposed double helix model of
F. H. C. Crick DNA
31 1955 S. Benzer Coined the terms cistron, recon and
muton
32 1955 H. Frankel Conrat Demonstrate that RNA is genetic
& R. C. Williams material in TMV
33 1955 S. Ochoa and In vitro synthesis of RNA
Coworkers
34 1956 A. Kornberg & In vitro synthesis of DNA
Coworkers
35 1958 M. Meselson & Demonstrate semi conservative
F. W. Stahl replication of DNA in E.coli
36 1959 R. H. Whittaker Classified organisms into 5
kingdoms
37 1961 F. Jacob and Propose the operon concept of gene
J. Monod regulation
38 1964 R. Holiday Hybrid DNA model of
recombination
39 1965 R. W. Holley, Complete base sequence of alanine
Nirenberg and tRNA of yeast
Khorana
40 1965 DuPraw Folded fiber model of eukaryotic
chromosome organisation
41 1966 F. H. C. Crick Wobble hypothesis of base pairing
between mRNA codon and tRNA
anticodon
42 1968 W. Gilbert and Rolling circle model of DNA
D. Dressler replication

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 112 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

Sl.No. Year Scientist Discovery/Contribution

43 1968 M. Kimura The neutral gene theory of molecular

evolution
44 1968 H. O. Smith, Isolate and characterize the first
Arber & Nathans restriction endonuclease HindIII
45 1970 D. Baltimore & Reverse transcriptase in two
H. M. Temin oncogenic RNA virus
46 1975 G. Kohler & Developed the hybridoma
C. Milstein technology for mab production
47 1975 E. M. Southern Southern blotting and hybridization
techniques
48 1975 F. Sanger & Enzymatic method of DNA
A. R. Coulson sequencing
49 1977 A. M. Maxam Chemical method of DNA
& W. Gilbert sequencing
50 1978 W. Gilbert Coined the terms introns and exons
51 1980 J.W. Gordon First transgenic mice
& Coworkers
52 1982 Eli Lilly First to market a drug produced by
International recombinant DNA technology ;
Corporation Insulin marketed as ‘Humulin’
53 1985 C. W. Greider Isolated telomerase from
& E.H. Blackburn Tetrahymena pyriformis
54 1985 K.B. Mullis Invention of Polymerase Chain
Reaction (PCR)

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 113

Answer Keys

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 114 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 115

Chapter 1
Principles of
Fish Genetics and Breeding

1 [A] 17 [D] 33 [A] 49 [C]

2 [C] 18 [B] 34 [D] 50 [B]
3 [B] 19 [C] 35 [B] 51 [C]
4 [A] 20 [B] 36 [D] 52 [B]
5 [C] 21 [C] 37 [A] 53 [A]
6 [B] 22 [C] 38 [A] 54 [C]
7 [C] 23 [B] 39 [B] 55 [B]
8 [C] 24 [C] 40 [A] 56 [C]
9 [D] 25 [A] 41 [B] 57 [B]
10 [A] 26 [B] 42 [A] 58 [C]
11 [B] 27 [C] 43 [C] 59 [D]
12 [D] 28 [D] 44 [D] 60 [C]
13 [D] 29 [C] 45 [A] 61 [B]
14 [C] 30 [A] 46 [B] 62 [C]
15 [B] 31 [B] 47 [D] 63 [D]
16 [C] 32 [C] 48 [C] 64 [A]

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 116 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

65 [B] 87 [C] 109 [C] 131 [C]

66 [C] 88 [D] 110 [B] 132 [D]
67 [C] 89 [B] 111 [A] 133 [C]
68 [B] 90 [B] 112 [D] 134 [B]
69 [A] 91 [C] 113 [B] 135 [A]
70 [B] 92 [D] 114 [B] 136 [B]
71 [A] 93 [A] 115 [D] 137 [C]
72 [B] 94 [A] 116 [D] 138 [B]
73 [D] 95 [B] 117 [C] 139 [C]
74 [C] 96 [C] 118 [B] 140 [A]
75 [B] 97 [D] 119 [B] 141 [D]
76 [A] 98 [B] 120 [A] 142 [C]
77 [C] 99 [B] 121 [D] 143 [B]
78 [A] 100 [C] 122 [B] 144 [D]
79 [D] 101 [D] 123 [C] 145 [B]
80 [B] 102 [D] 124 [A] 146 [C]
81 [D] 103 [B] 125 [D] 147 [A]
82 [A] 104 [C] 126 [C] 148 [B]
83 [D] 105 [C] 127 [B] 149 [B]
84 [A] 106 [C] 128 [D] 150 [A]
85 [A] 107 [B] 129 [D]
86 [B] 108 [A] 130 [B]

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 117

Chapter 2
Population and
Quantitative Genetics

1 [C] 17 [D] 33 [D] 49 [C]

2 [D] 18 [A] 34 [B] 50 [C]
3 [A] 19 [D] 35 [C] 51 [B]
4 [A] 20 [D] 36 [C] 52 [C]
5 [D] 21 [B] 37 [A] 53 [C]
6 [B] 22 [A] 38 [A] 54 [B]
7 [C] 23 [B] 39 [B] 55 [A]
8 [B] 24 [C] 40 [C] 56 [B]
9 [C] 25 [C] 41 [C] 57 [A]
10 [D] 26 [A] 42 [B] 58 [B]
11 [A] 27 [B] 43 [C] 59 [C]
12 [C] 28 [B] 44 [C] 60 [D]
13 [D] 29 [B] 45 [B] 61 [C]
14 [B] 30 [C] 46 [A] 62 [A]
15 [B] 31 [C] 47 [C] 63 [B]
16 [B] 32 [A] 48 [B] 64 [C]

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 118 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

65 [B] 87 [D] 109 [C] 131 [C]

66 [D] 88 [C] 110 [B] 132 [C]
67 [C] 89 [B] 111 [B] 133 [D]
68 [B] 90 [B] 112 [B] 134 [A]
69 [B] 91 [D] 113 [C] 135 [D]
70 [B] 92 [A] 114 [B] 136 [D]
71 [C] 93 [C] 115 [C] 137 [C]
72 [C] 94 [A] 116 [B] 138 [D]
73 [A] 95 [C] 117 [A] 139 [C]
74 [B] 96 [D] 118 [B] 140 [D]
75 [D] 97 [B] 119 [D] 141 [C]
76 [C] 98 [C] 120 [D] 142 [C]
77 [A] 99 [B] 121 [B] 143 [C]
78 [B] 100 [B] 122 [B] 144 [C]
79 [B] 101 [B] 123 [B] 145 [C]
80 [B] 102 [B] 124 [A] 146 [B]
81 [C] 103 [B] 125 [D] 147 [C]
82 [C] 104 [A] 126 [A] 148 [B]
83 [B] 105 [B] 127 [A] 149 [B]
84 [C] 106 [D] 128 [B] 150 [C]
85 [A] 107 [B] 129 [B]
86 [B] 108 [B] 130 [A]

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 119

Chapter 3
Genetic Tools for Aquaculture
Application

1 [C] 14 [A] 27 [B] 40 [C]

2 [B] 15 [B] 28 [C] 41 [A]
3 [C] 16 [D] 29 [B] 42 [D]
4 [C] 17 [A] 30 [C] 43 [B]
5 [B] 18 [B] 31 [D] 44 [A]
6 [B] 19 [C] 32 [C] 45 [B]
7 [C] 20 [D] 33 [B] 46 [A]
8 [B] 21 [B] 34 [D] 47 [B]
9 [D] 22 [D] 35 [C] 48 [B]
10 [C] 23 [D] 36 [B] 49 [D]
11 [E] 24 [C] 37 [C] 50 [B]
12 [D] 25 [D] 38 [C]
13 [C] 26 [C] 39 [B]

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 120 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

Chapter 4
Breeding of Fish and Shellfish

1 [C] 19 [C] 37 [B] 55 [B]

2 [D] 20 [A] 38 [D] 56 [D]
3 [A] 21 [D] 39 [C] 57 [B]
4 [B] 22 [B] 40 [A] 58 [A]
5 [B] 23 [C] 41 [C] 59 [C]
6 [C] 24 [C] 42 [B] 60 [D]
7 [A] 25 [C] 43 [C] 61 [D]
8 [C] 26 [B] 44 [D] 62 [D]
9 [B] 27 [C] 45 [C] 63 [C]
10 [C] 28 [B] 46 [B] 64 [B]
11 [A] 29 [D] 47 [C] 65 [C]
12 [B] 30 [A] 48 [B] 66 [B]
13 [C] 31 [B] 49 [C] 67 [C]
14 [D] 32 [C] 50 [A] 68 [D]
15 [B] 33 [B] 51 [A] 69 [B]
16 [C] 34 [D] 52 [A] 70 [A]
17 [D] 35 [B] 53 [C] 71 [C]
18 [B] 36 [C] 54 [D] 72 [B]

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 121

73 [D] 81 [C] 89 [C] 96 [B]

74 [B] 82 [B] 90 [A] 97 [A]
75 [C] 83 [C] 91 [D] 98 [C]
76 [D] 84 [D] 92 [C] 99 [B]
77 [B] 85 [B] 93 [B] 100 [B]
78 [C] 86 [B] 93 [B]
79 [D] 87 [A] 94 [A]
80 [A] 88 [B] 95 [B]

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 122 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

Chapter 5
Conservation and Bioinformatics

1 [C] 19 [D] 37 [B] 55 [C]

2 [C] 20 [B] 38 [C] 56 [D]
3 [D] 21 [D] 39 [B] 57 [B]
4 [B] 22 [A] 40 [B] 58 [A]
5 [D] 23 [B] 41 [C] 59 [C]
6 [D] 24 [A] 42 [D] 60 [C]
7 [C] 25 [B] 43 [A] 61 [C]
8 [B] 26 [B] 44 [C] 62 [B]
9 [D] 27 [C] 45 [B] 63 [D]
10 [B] 28 [A] 46 [B] 64 [D]
11 [C] 29 [C] 47 [C] 65 [B]
12 [D] 30 [B] 48 [A] 66 [C]
13 [C] 31 [C] 49 [B] 67 [D]
14 [A] 32 [A] 50 [D] 68 [A]
15 [D] 33 [C] 51 [A] 69 [B]
16 [B] 34 [A] 52 [C] 70 [C]
17 [A] 35 [A] 53 [D] 71 [D]
18 [D] 36 [B] 54 [B] 72 [D]

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 123

73 [B] 81 [C] 89 [A] 97 [C]

74 [A] 82 [C] 90 [D] 98 [B]
75 [C] 83 [A] 91 [C] 99 [C]
76 [B] 84 [C] 92 [B] 100 [D]
77 [C] 85 [D] 93 [C]
78 [B] 86 [D] 94 [D]
79 [D] 87 [B] 95 [B]
80 [B] 88 [C] 96 [B]

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 124 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

Chapter 6
General Fish Genetics

1. Autosome
2. Centromere or Kinetochore
3. Metacentric
4. Haploid
5. Meiosis
6. Cytokinesis
7. Prophase
8. Chiasma or recombination nodule
9. Homologous chromosome
10. Interphase
11. Phenotype
12. Genotype
13. Homozygote
14. Heterozygote
15. Recessive allele
16. Mutant
17. Co-dominant

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 125

18. Lethal gene

19. Penetrance
20. Expressivity
21. Enzyme
22. Epistasis
23. Pleiotropism
24. Crossing over
25. Coupling phase
26. Centimorgan
27. Interference
28. Hermaphrodite
29. Holandric genes
30. Sex influenced trait
31. Sex limited traits
32. Triploid
33. Monosomic
34. Allotetraploid or amphidiploids
35. Polytene
36. Reciprocal translocation
37. Continuous variation
38. Normal distribution
39. Variance
40. Overdominance
41. Heritability
42. Progeny testing
43. Inbreeding
44. Heterosis

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 126 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

45. Random mating or Panmixia

46. Gene pool
47. Hardy Weinberg model
48. Mendelian population
49. Random Drift
50. Reproductive isolation
51. Semi conservative replication
52. Promoter
53. Codon
54. Primer
55. Transcription
56. Okazaki fragments
57. Introns
58. Photo reactivation
59. Capsid
60. Bacteriophage
61. Prophage
62. Retrovirus
63. Transposon
64. Oncogenes
65. Hogness box
66. Housekeeping genes
67. Proteome
68. Ubiquitin
69. Splicing
70. Apoptosis
71. Electrophoresis

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 127

72. Denaturation or Melting

73. Renaturation or annealing
74. Autoradiography
75. Palindrome
76. Restriction endonucleases
77. Genomic library
78. cDNA
79. H. G. Khorana
80. Type II
81. C3
82. Kary. B. Mullis
83. DNAP III
84. Cellulose
85. Cohen and Boyer
86. Meselson and Stahl
87. Apo-enzyme
88. Topoisomerase
89. DNAP-gamma
90. Kohler and Milstein
91. B-DNA and A-RNA respectively
92. Hamilton Smith (1970)
93. DNAP I
94. Griffith
95. Helicases
96. 5’-3’ direction
97. Nirenberg and Mathaei
98. Barbara McClintock

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 128 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

99. Beadle and Tatum

100. Jacob and Monod
101. Lederberg and Tatum
102. Arginine and lysine
103. Francis Crick
104. Nucleoid
105. RNA polymerase III
106. Maxam and Gilbert
107. Real Time PCR
108. Temin and Baltimore
109. Taq DNA polymerase
110. Charge: Mass ratio
111. Zinder and Lederberg
112. HAT medium
113. Glycine
114. Mass
115. 1-fluoro-2, 4- Dinitrobenzene
116. Glycine
117. Ethidium bromide
118. Retroviruses and Hepadna viruses.
119. HeLa
120. Liquid Nitrogen
121. 1-10 microns.
122. William Bateson
123. Coined ‘allele’ and ‘genes’
124. Darwin
125. W. Johanssen

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 129

126. W. S. Sutton
127. August Weismann
128. Austria
129. Hugo de Vries, Carl Correns Eric von Tschermack
130. Law of purity of gametes
131. Multiple Allelism
132. 9:7
133. Pachytene
134. Intergenic, Intragenic
135. Strassburger
136. Waldeyer
137. Nucleolus
138. V shape
139. Zygotene
140. Heterochromatin
141. Heterochromatin
142. Primary oocytes of amphibians and spermatocyte of Drosophila
143. Two molecules each of H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
144. Salivary gland cells of Drosophila
145. G1, S and G2
146. Zygotene
147. Heterosis/ Hybrid vigour
148. CentiMorgan
149. Interference
150. per cent of observed double cross overs/ per cent of expected double
crossovers (Ratio)
151. Degree of interference

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 130 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

152. C.B.Bridges
153. Lyon’s hypothesis
154. Alfred Sturtevant
155. 8
156. Honey bees and wasps
157. Autosome
158. Autopolyploid
159. Polyploidy
160. Giemsa
161. Karyotype
162. Seven
163. 50 per cent
164. Test cross
165. Shull (1910)
166. 1:2:1
167. No. of chromosome pairs
168. Thomas Hunt Morgan
169. Non-sister chromatids of homologous pairs of chromosomes.
170. Farthest
171. Colchicine
172. Transitions
173. Barr body
174. Bottleneck
175. Culling
176. Founder effect
177. Half sib
178. Interploid triploid

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 131

179. Pedigreed mating

180. Shooters
181. 2pq
182. qt = q0/1+tq0
183. Load
184. Base population
185. Coefficient of inbreeding (F)
186. Generation interval
187. FX=S (1/2)n (1+ FA)
188. Co-ancestry or Coefficient of kinship or Consanguinity
189. Phenotypic value
190. Breeding value
191. Intangible variation
192. Response to selection
193. Selection objective
194. Selection criteria
195. Bulmer effect
196. R= 2Ne ih2s
197. Inbreeding depression
198. Genetic correlation
199. Vitrification
200. Glass transformation temperature

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 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding 133

Further Reading

1. Ayyappan. S, Gopalkrishan. A, Transgenics in Fisheries: Perspectives,

Priorities and Preparedness for India, Indian J. Fish., 53(2): 127-152,
2006.
2. Ayyappan. S, Moza. U, Gopalkrishan. A, Meenakumari. B, Jena. J. K,
Pandey. A. K, Handbook of Fisheries and Aquaculture, Second edition,
Directorate of Knowledge Management in Agriculture, ICAR, New
Delhi, 2011.
3. Chauhan. T, Kumar. R, Molecular markers and their applications in
fisheries and aquaculture, Advances in Bioscience and Biotechnology,
Vol.1, No.4, 2010.
4. Elrod. S, Stanfield. W, Genetics, Fourth Edition, Tata McGraw Hill
Publishing Company Limited, Noida, Uttar Pradesh, 2009.
5. Falconer. D. S, Mackay. F. C. T, Introduction to Quantitative Genetics,
Fourth Edition, Addison Wesley Longman Limited, Boston, United
States, 1996.
6. Gjedrem. T, Selection and Breeding Programs in Aquaculture, Springer
Publication, Ney York, USA, 2004.
7. Gopalakrishnan. A, Application of molecular genetic markers in
fisheries and aquaculture, Winter School on Recent Advances in
Breeding and Larviculture of Marine Finfish and Shellfish, 2009.

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 134 Model Question Bank on Fish Genetics and Breeding

8. Lakra. W. S, Abidi. S. A. H, Mukherji. S. C, Ayyapan. S, Fisheries

Biotechnology, Narendra publishing house, 2008.
9. Marx. K. K, Sanjeevraj. J, Manual on Fish Genetics and Biotechnology,
TANUVAS Publication, Tamil Nadu, 2005.
10. Padhi. B. K, Mandal. R. K, Applied Fish Genetics, Fishing Chimes
Publication, 2000.
11. Reddy. P. V. G. K, Ayyapan. S, Thampy D. M, Krishna. G, Textbook
of Fish Genetics and Biotechnology, ICAR Publication, New Delhi,
2005.
12. Tave. D, Genetics for Fish Hatchery Manager, Second edition, Kluwer
Academic Publisher, London, 2001.
13. Thomas. P. C, Rath. S. C, Mohapatra. K. D, Breeding and Seed
Production of Fin Fish and Shell Fish, Daya Publishing House, New
Delhi, 2003.
14. Winter. P. C, Hickey. G. I, Fletcher. H. L, Instant Notes Genetics,
Second Edition, Bios Scientific Publishers Ltd, UK, 2003.

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