TEST CODE : 1712 TARGET – NEET 2025 NEET REPEATER BATCH Date : 08–12–2024

Time: 3 HRS. Max. Marks: 720

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
1) This booklet is divided into 3 Parts:
(Part A – Physics, Part B – Chemistry, Part C – Biology).

Physics Syllabus • Waves & Sound

+Ve –Ve No. of Total
Part A Question Type
Marks Marks Ques. Marks

(No. 1 – 45) Questions with Single Correct Choice 4 –1 45 180

Chemistry Syllabus • Solution • Electrochemistry

+Ve –Ve No. of Total
Part B Question Type
Marks Marks Ques. Marks

(No. 46 – 90) Questions with Single Correct Choice 4 –1 45 180

Biology Syllabus • Animal Physiology

+Ve –Ve No. of Total
Part C Question Type
Marks Marks Ques. Marks

(No. 91 – 180) Questions with Single Correct Choice 4 –1 90 360

Keep Calm And Good Luck With The Exam

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PART – A (PHYSICS)

1. The displacement of an elastic wave is given by the function y = 3 sin t + 4 cos t, where y is in
cm and t is in s. The resultant amplitude is:
(a) 3 cm (b) 4 cm (c) 5 cm (d) 7 cm
2. A plane progressive wave is represented by the equation y = 0.25 cos (2t – 2x). The equation of a
wave is with double the amplitude and half frequency but travelling in the opposite direction will be:
(a) y = 0.5 cos (t – x) (b) y = 0.5 cos (2t + 2x)
(c) y = 0.25 cos (t + 2x) (d) y = 0.5 cos (t + x)
3. Two waves are represented by equation
y1 = a sin t and y2 = a cos t
the first wave:
(a) leads the second by  (b) lags the second by 
 
(c) leads the second by (d) lags the second by
2 2
4. The distance between two consecutive crests in a wave train produced in string is 5 m. If two
complete waves pass through any point per second, the velocity of wave is:
(a) 2.5 m/s (b) 5 m/s (c) 10 m/s (d) 15 m/s
5. For the travelling harmonic wave y (x1 t) = 2 cos 2 (10t– 0.008x + 0.35) where x and y are in cm
and t is in S. The phase difference between oscillatory motion of two points separated by a distance
of 0.5 m is:
(a) 0.2  rad (b) 0.4  rad (c) 0.6  rad (d) 0.8  rad
6. The equation of a wave is given by
 2 
y = 10 sin  t +  
 45 
If the displacement is 5 cm at t = 0, then the total phase at t = 7.5 s is:
  
(a) (b) (c) (d) 
3 2 6
7. A transverse wave is represented by y = A sin (t – kx). For what value of the wavelength is the
wave velocity equal to the maximum particle velocity:
A
(a) (b) A (c) 2A (d) A
2
8. If the bulk modulus of water is 2100 MPA what is the speed ............ in water?
(a) 1450 ms–1 (b) 2100 ms–1 (c) 1400 ms–1 (d) 1200 ms–1
 7  5
9. The ratio of the velocity of sound in hydrogen   =  to that in helium   =  at the same
 5  3
temperature is:
5 5 42 21
(a) (b) (c) (d)
42 21 5 5
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10. If vm is the velocity of sound in moist air and vd is the velocity of sound in dry air then:
(a) vm < vd (b) vm > vd (c) vd >> vm (d) vm = vd
11. A student plotted the following four graphs representing the variation of velocity of sound in a gas
with the pressure P. Which one is correct:

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

12. A tuning fork produces 4 beats/sec, with another tuning fork B of frequency 288 Hz. If fork is loaded
with little wax no. of beats per sec decreases. The frequency of the fork A, before loading is:
(a) 290 Hz (b) 288 Hz (c) 292 Hz (d) 284 Hz
13. A source x of unknown frequency produces 8 beats with a source of 250 Hz and 12 beats with a
source of 270 Hz. The frequency of source x is:
(a) 258 Hz (b) 242 Hz (c) 262 Hz (d) 282 Hz
14. If the tension and diameter of a sonometer wire of fundamental frequency (n) is doubled and density
is halved then its fundamental frequency will become:
n n
(a) (b) 2n (c) n (d)
4 2
15. A guitar string is 90 cm long and has a fundamental frequency of 124 Hz. To produce a fundamental
frequency of 186 Hz, the guitar should be pressed:
(a) 60 cm (b) 30 cm (c) 20 cm (d) 10 cm
16. A pipe 30 cm long, is open at both ends. Which harmonic mode of the pipe resonates a 1.1 kHz
source? (Speed of sound in air = 330 ms–1):
(a) First (b) Second (c) Third (d) Fourth
17. The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the same frequency as the first overtone of a closed
pipe L meter long. The length of the open pipe will be:
L
(a) (b) 4L (c) L (d) 2L
2
18. Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n – 1), n, (n+ 1). They superimpose to give
beats. The number of beats produced per second will be:
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4
19. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz.
What is the fundamental frequency of the system?
(a) 20 Hz (b) 30 Hz (c) 40 Hz (d) 10 Hz

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20. In the given progressive wave equation y = 0.5 sin (10 t – 5x) where x,y in cm and t in second.
The maximum velocity of the particle is:
(a) 5 cm/s (b) 5 cm/s
(c) 10 cm/s (d) 10.5 cm/s
21. If the speed of the wave shown in the figure is 330 m/s in the given medium, then the equation of the
wave propagating in the positive x–direction will be (all quantities are in M.K.S. units)

(a) y = 0.05 sin 2(4000 t – 12.5x) (b) y = 0.05 sin 2(4000 t –122.5x)
(c) y = 0.05 sin 2(3300t – 10x) (d) y = 0.05 sin 2(3300x – 10t)
22. If the frequency of a wave is increased by 25%, then the change in its wavelength will be: (medium
not changed)
(a) 20% increase (b) 20% decrease
(c) 25% increase (d) 25% decrease
23. A transverse periodic wave on a string with a linear mass density of 0.200 kg/m is described by the
following equation y = 0.05 sin(420t – 21.0x)
where x and y are in metres and t is in seconds. The tension in the string is equal to
(a) 32 N (b) 42 N (c) 66 N (d) 80 N
24. Two waves are propagating to the point P along a straight line produced by two sources A and B of
simple harmonic and of equal frequency. The amplitude of every wave at P is ‘a’ and the phase of A

is ahead by than that of B and the distance AP is greater than BP by 50 cm. Then the resultant
3
amplitude at the point P will be, if the wavelength is 1 meter
(a) 2a (b) a 3 (c) a 2 (d) a
25. Two pulses travel in mutually opposite directions in a string with a speed of 2.5 cm/s as shown in the
figure. Initially the pulses are 10 cm apart. What will be the state of the string after two seconds?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

26. Beats are produced by two waves given by y1 = a sin 2000 t and y2 = a sin 2008 t. The number of
beats heard per second is
(a) Zero (b) One (c) Four (d) Eight

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27. Two closed organ pipes, when sounded simultaneously gave 4 beats per sec. If longer pipe has a
length of 1 m. Then length of shorter pipe will be, (v = 300 m/s)
(a) 185.5 cm (b) 94.9 cm (c) 90 cm (d) 80 cm
28. An open pipe of length 33 cm resonates to a frequency of 1000 Hz. The mode of vibration is:
(velocity of sound = 330 m/s)
(a) Fundamental (b) The 2nd harmonic
(c) The 3rd harmonic (d) The 4th harmonic
29. An open organ pipe has fundamental frequency 300 Hz. The first overtone of the open organ pipe is
the same as the first overtone of a closed organ pipe. The length of the closed organ pipe is:
(vsound = 330 m/s)
(a) 10 cm (b) 41 cm (c) 82 cm (d) 164 cm
30. Under similar conditions of temperature and pressure, in which of the following gases the velocity of
sound will be largest?
(a) H2 (b) N2 (c) He (d) CO2
31. Two sound waves with wavelengths 5.0 m and 5.5 m respectively, each propagates in a gas with
velocity 330 m/s. We expect the following number of beats per second:
(a) 12 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 6
32. Two sources of sound placed close to each other are emitting progressive waves given by y 1 = 4 sin
600 t and y2 = 5 sin 608 t. An observer located near these two sources of sound will hear:
(a) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 81 : 1 between waxing and waning
(b) 4 beats per second with intensity ratio 25 : 16 between waxing and waning
(c) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 25 : 16 between waxing and waning
(d) 8 beats per second with intensity ratio 81 : 1 between waxing and waning
33. Sound source of frequency 170 Hz is placed near a wall. A man walking from the source towards the
wall finds, that there is periodic rise and fall of sound intensity. If the speed of sound in air is 340
m/s, then the distance separating the two adjacent portions of minimum intensity is:
(a) (1/2) m (b) (3/2) m (c) 1 m (d) 2 m
34. Velocity of sound in medium is V. If the density of the medium is doubled, what will be the new
velocity of sound?
(a) 2V (b) V (c) V / 2 (d) 2V
35. The frequency of tuning fork is 256 Hz. It will not resonate with a fork of frequency:
(a) 768 Hz (b) 738 Hz (c) 512 Hz (d) 256 Hz
36. Length of a sonometer wire is either 95 cm or 100 cm, in both the cases a tuning fork produces 4
beats. Then the frequency of tuning fork is:
(a) 152 (b) 156 (c) 160 (d) 164
37. A tuning fork gives 4 beats with 50 cm length of a sonometer wire. If the length of the wire is
shortened by 1 cm then no. of beats still the same. The frequency of the fork is:
(a) 396 (b) 400 (c) 404 (d) 384

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38. A sings with a frequency (n) and B sings with a frequency 1/8 that of A. If the energy remains the
same and the amplitude of A is a, then amplitude of B will be:
(a) 2a (b) 8a (c) 4a (d) a
39. The velocities of sound at the same pressure in two monoatomic gases of densities 1 and  2 are v1
1 v
and v2 respectively. If = 4 , then the value of 1 is:
2 v2
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/2 (c) 2 (d) 4
40. The stationary wave y = 2a sin kx cos t in a stretched string is the result of superposition of
y1 = a sin (kx – t) and:
(a) y2 = a cos(kx + t) (b) y2 = a sin(kx + t)
(c) y2 = a cos(kx – t) (d) y2 = a sin(kx – t)

41. The phase difference between oscillatory motion of two points separated by a distance of is
2
(where  is the wavelength):
 3
(a) (b)  (c) (d) 2
2 2
42. A wave of frequency 500 Hz travels between X and Y and travel a distance of 600 m in 2 sec.
between X and Y. How many wavelengths are there in distance XY:
(a) 1000 (b) 300 (c) 180 (d) 2000
43. The graph between wave number (v) and angular frequency:

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

44. The relation between frequency n, wavelength  and velocity of propagation of a wave v is:
 v
(a) n = (b) n = v (c) n = (d) None of these
v 
45. If the initial tension on a stretched string is doubled, then the ratio of the initial and final speed of the
transverse wave along the string is:
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 :1

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PART – B (CHEMISTRY)

46. A solution containing 12.5 g of non–electrolyte substance in 185 g of water shows boiling point
elevation of 0.80 K. Calculate the molar mass of the substance. (Kb = 0.52 K kg mol–1)
(a) 53.06 g mol–1 (b) 25.3 g mol–1
(c) 16.08 g mol–1 (d) 43.92 g mol–1
47. 1 g of solute (molar mass = 50 g mol–1) is dissolved in 50 g of solvent and the elevation in boiling
point is 1 K. The molal elevation constant of the solvent is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 2.5 (d) 5
48. In the given graph, pq, qr and st represent

(a) pq → liquid state of solution, qr → solid state of solution, st → liquid state of solvent
(b) pq → liquid state of solvent, qr → solid state of solvent, st → liquid state of solution
(c) pq → liquid state of solvent, qr → solid state of solution, st → liquid state of solution
(d) pq → solid state of solvent, qr → liquid state of solvent, st → solid state of solution.
49. 2 g of sugar is added to one litre of water to give sugar solution. What is the effect of addition of
sugar on the boiling point and freezing point of water?
(a) Both boiling point and freezing point increase.
(b) Both boiling point and freezing point decrease.
(c) Boiling point increases and freezing point decreases.
(d) Boiling point decreases and freezing point increases.
50. Sprinkling of salt helps in clearing the snow-covered roads in hills. The phenomenon involved in the
process is
(a) lowering in vapour pressure of snow
(b) depression in freezing point of snow
(c) increase in freezing point of snow
(d) melting of ice due to increase in temperature by putting salt.
51. A 5% solution (w/W) of cane sugar (molar mass = 342 g mol–1) has freezing point 271 K. What will
be the freezing point of 5% glucose (molar mass = 18 g mol–1) in water if freezing point of pure
water is 273.15 K?
(a) 273.07 K (b) 269.07 K
(c) 273.15 K (d) 260.09 K

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52. If semipermeable membrane is placed between the solvent and solution as shown in the given figure
then

(a) the solvent molecules will flow through the membrane from solution to pure solvent
(b) the solvent molecules will flow continuously till the equilibrium is attained
(c) the flow of the solvent from its side to solution side across a semipermeable membrane can be
stopped if some extra pressure (called osmotic pressure) is applied on the solution.
(d) both (b) and (c).
53. 10% solution of urea is isotonic with 6% solution of a non–volatile solute X. What is the molecular
mass of solute X?
(a) 6 g mol–1 (b) 60 g mol–1 (c) 36 g mol–1 (d) 32 g mol–1
54. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) 5% aqueous solutions of NaCl and KC1 are said to be isomolar.
(b) 1 M sucrose solution and 1 M glucose solution are isotonic.
(c) Reverse osmosis is used in desalination of sea water.
Tb K b
(d) For the same solution, =
Tf K f
55. Grapes placed in three beakers X, Y and Z containing different types of solutions are shown in
figures.

If beaker X contains water, Y and Z contain

(a) Y – hypotonic solution, Z – hypertonic solution
(b) Y – hypertonic solution, Z – hypotonic solution
(c) Y and Z– isotonic solutions
(d) Y and Z– hypotonic solutions

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56. Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice.
Column I Column II
K b  W2  1000
(A) Kb (i)
Tb  W1

W2  1000
(B) M2 (ii)
M 2  W1

RTb2
(C)  (iii)
1000  LV

Tb  dRT
(D) m (iv)
1000  K b

(a) (a) → (i), (b) → (iii), (c) → (ii), (d) → (iv)

(b) (a) → (iv), (b) → (ii), (c) → (i), (d) → (iii)
(c) (a) → (ii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (iii), (d) → (i)
(d) (a) → (iii), (b) → (i), (c) → (iv), (d)→ (ii)
57. Why is the molecular mass determined by measuring colligative property in case of some solutes is
abnormal?
(a) Due to association or dissociation of solute molecules.
(b) Due to insolubility of solute molecules.
(c) Due to decomposition of solute molecules.
(d) Due to large size of solute molecules.
58. Which of the following representations of i (van’t Hoff factor) is not correct?
Observed colligative property
(a) i =
Expected colligative property
Normal molecular mass
(b) i =
Observed molecular mass
Number of molecules actually present
(c) i =
Number of molecules exp ected to be present
Total number of particles taken
before association / dissociation
(d) i =
Number of particles after
association / dissociation
59. Which of the following relations is not correctly matched with the formula?
i −1
(a) In case of association,  =
1
−1
n

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i −1
(b) In case of dissociation,  =
n +1
pA − pA nB
(c) Relative lowering of vapour pressure = =i
pA nA + nB
WB  1000
(d) Elevation in boiling point, Tb = K b 
M B  WA
60. Which of the following will have same value of van’t Hoff factor as that of K4[Fe(CN)6]?
(a) Al2(SO4)3 (b) AlCl3 (c) Al(NO3)3 (d) Al(OH)3
61. Arrange the following aqueous solutions in the order of their increasing boiling points.
(i) 10–4 M NaCl (ii) 10–4 M Urea
(iii) 10–3 M MgCl2 (iv) 10–2 M NaCl
(a) (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (iii) (b) (ii) < (i) = (iii) < (iv)
(c) (ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv) (d) (iv) < (iii) < (i) = (ii)
62. Which of the following has the highest freezing point?
(a) 1 m NaCl solution (b) 1 m KCl solution
(c) 1 m AlCl3 solution (d) 1 m C6H12O6 solution
63. If  is the degree of dissociation of Na2SO4, the van’t Hoff’s factor (i) used for calculating the
molecular mass is
(a) 1 +  (b) 1 −  (c) 1 + 2 (d) 1 − 2
64. For which of the following solutes the van’t Hoff factor is not greater than one?
(a) NaNO3 (b) BaCl2
(c) K4[Fe(CN)6] (d) NH2CONH2
65. What will be the degree of dissociation of 0.1 M Mg(NO3)2 solution if van’t Hoff factor is 2.74?
(a) 75% (b) 87% (c) 100% (d) 92%
66. The elevation in boiling point of a solution of 9.43 g of MgCl2 in 1 kg of water is (Kb = 0.52 K kg
mol–1, Molar mass of MgCl2 = 94.3 g mol–1)
(a) 0.156 (b) 0.52 (c) 0.17 (d) 0.94
67. 0.001 molal solution of Pt(NH3)4Cl4 in water had a freezing point depression of 0.0054 °C. If K f for
water is 1.80, the correct formula of the compound is
(a) [Pt(NH3)4Cl3]Cl (b) [Pt(NH3)4Cl4]
(c) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl2 (d) [Pt(NH3)4Cl]Cl3
68. A galvanic cell has electrical potential of 1.1 V. If an opposing potential of 1.1 V is applied to this
cell, what will happen to the cell reaction and current flowing through the cell?
(a) The reaction stops and no current flows through the cell.
(b) The reaction continuous but current flows in opposite direction.
(c) The concentration of reactants becomes unity and current flows from cathode to anode.
(d) The cell does not function as a galvanic cell and zinc is deposited on zinc plate.

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69. Following reactions are taking place in a Galvanic cell,

Zn → Zn2+ + 2e– ; Ag+ + e– → Ag
Which of the given representations is the correct method of depicting the cell?
2+ +
(a) Zn(s) | Zn (aq) | | Ag (aq) | Ag(s) (b) Zn2+ | Zn | | Ag | Ag+
2+ + + 2+
(c) Zn(s) | Zn (aq) | | Ag (aq) | Ag(aq) (d) Zn(s) | Ag (aq) | | Zn (aq) | Ag(s)

70. Which of the following is the cell reaction that occurs when the following half–cells are combined?
I2 + 2e– → 2I– (1 M) ; E° = +0.54 V
Br2 + 2e– → 2Br– (1 M) ; E° = +1.09 V
(a) 2Br– + I2 → Br2 + 2I– (b) I2 + Br2 → 2I– + 2Br–
(c) 2I– + Br2 → I2 + 2Br– (d) 2I– + 2Br– → I2 + Br2
71. Observe the given diagram and fill in the blanks by choosing the correct option.

x y z
–2 +
(a) H2(g) at 1 atm 10 M H Finely divided Pt
(b) H2(g) at 1 bar 1.00 M H+ Finely divided Pt
(c) 1.00 M H+ H2(g) at 1 bar Finely divided Ni
+
(d) H2(g) at 1 bar 1.00 M H Pt granules
72. Given below are the standard electrode potentials of few half–cells. The correct order of these metals
in increasing reducing power will be
K+ / K = –2.93 V, Ag+ / Ag = 0.80 V, Mg2+ / Mg = –2.37 V, Cr3+ / Cr = –0.74 V.
(a) K < Mg < Cr < Ag (b) Ag < Cr < Mg < K
(c) Mg < K < Cr < Ag (d) Cr < Ag < Mg < K
73. E° values of three metals are listed below.
2+
Zn (aq) + 2e– → Zn(s) ; E° = –0.76 V
2+
Fe(aq) + 2e– → 2Fe(s) ; E° = –0.44 V
2+
Sn (aq) + 2e– → Sn(s) ; E° = – 0.14 V

Which of the following statements are correct on the basis of the above information?
(i) Zinc will be corroded in preference to iron if zinc coating is broken on the surface.

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(ii) If iron is coated with tin and the coating is broken on the surface then iron will be corroded.
(iii) Zinc is more reactive than iron but tin is less reactive than iron.
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii) only
n+
74. For a cell reaction: M(aq) + ne– → M(s), the Nernst equation for electrode potential at any
concentration measured with respect to standard hydrogen electrode is represented as
RT 1 RT [M n + ]
(a) E = E n + − ln n + (b) E = E − ln
(M n + /M) (M /M) nF [M ] (M/M n + ) (M/M n + ) nF [M]
RT 1 RT
(c) E = E − log (d) E = E − log[M n + ]
(M/Mn + ) (Mn + /M) nF [M] (M n + /M) (M n + /M) nF
75. What will be the emf of the following concentration cell at 25°C?
Ag(s) | AgNO3(0.01 M) | | AgNO3 (0.05 M) | Ag(s)
(a) 0.828 V (b) 0.0413 V (c) –0.0413 V (d) –0.828 V
76. What will be the reduction potential for the following half–cell reaction at 298 K?
(Given: [Ag+] = 0.1 M and Ecell = + 0.80 V)
(a) 0.741 V (b) 0.80 V (c) –0.80 V (d) –0.741 V
77. What is the SI unit of conductivity?
(a) Sm (b) S m–1 (c) S m2 (d) S m–2
78. The molar conductivity is maximum for the solution of concentration
(a) 0.004 M (b) 0.002 M (c) 0.005 M
(d) 0.001 M
79. Mark the correct choice of electrolytes represented in the graph.
(a) A → NH4OH, B → NaCl
(b) A → NH4OH, B → NH4Cl
(c) A → CH3COOH, B → CH3COONa
(d) A → KCl, B → NH4OH
80. Limiting molar conductivity of NaBr is
(a) m NaBr = m NaCl + mKBr (b) m NaBr = m NaCl + mKBr − mKCl

(c) m NaBr = m NaOH + m NaBr − m NaCl (d) m NaBr = m NaCl − m NaBr
81. Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice.
Column I Column II

(A) Kohlrausch’s law (i) eq = c + a


(B) Molar conductivity (ii)  m =
C

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m
(C) Degree of dissociation (iii)  =
 m

C 2
(D) Dissociation constant (iv) K a =
1− 
(a) (a) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (c) → (i), (d) → (ii)
(b) (a) → (i), (B) → (ii), (c) → (iii), (d) → (iv)
(c) (a) → (iv), (B) → (i), (c) → (ii), (d) → (iii)
(d) (a) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i)
82. How many coulombs of electricity is required to reduce 1 mole of Cr2O72− in acidic medium?
(a) 4  96500 C (b) 6  96500 C
(c) 2  96500 C (d) 1  96500 C
83. A current of 1.40 ampere is passed through 500 mL of 0.180 M solution of zinc sulphate for 200
seconds. What will be the molarity of Zn2+ ions after deposition of zinc?
(a) 0.154 M (b) 0.177 M (c) 2 M (d) 0.180 M
84. Label the given diagram showing lead storage battery:

p q r
(a) Pb PbO2 5 M H2SO4
(b) PbO2 Pb conc. H2SO4
(c) Pb3O4 PbO2 50% H2SO4
(d) PbO2 Pb dil. 38% H2SO4

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason.

Mark the correct choice as:
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

85. Assertion: Osmosis does not take place in two isotonic solutions separated by semipermeable
membrane.
Reason: Isotonic solutions have same osmotic pressure.
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 TARGET – NEET 2025

86. Assertion: 1 M solution of KCl has greater osmotic pressure than 1 M solution of glucose at the same
temperature.
87. Reason: In solution, KCl dissociates to produce more number of particles.

88. Assertion: Cu2+ ions get reduced more easily than H+ ions.
Reason: Standard electrode potential of copper is 0.34 V.

89. Assertion: Lithium has the lowest electrode potential.

Reason: Lithium ion is the strongest oxidising agent.

90. Assertion: Current stops flowing when Ecell = 0.

Reason: Equilibrium of the cell reaction is attained.

PART – C (BIOLOGY)

91. Match column I with column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below.
Column I Column II
A. TV (i) 1100–1200 mL
B. IRV (ii) 1000–1100 mL
C. ERV (iii) 500 mL
D. RV (iv) 2500–3000 mL
(a) A–(i), B–(iii), C–(iv), D–(ii) (b) A–(iii), B–(iv), C–(ii), D–(i)
(c) A–(iii), B–(iv), C–(i), D–(ii) (d) A–(ii), B–(iv), C–(iii), D–(i)
92. Match column I with column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below.
Column I Column II
Partial pressures (mmHg) of O2
A. Tissue (i) 159
B. Oxygenated blood (ii) 104
C. Alveoli (iii) 95
D. Atmospheric air (iv) 40
(a) A–(i), B–(iii), C–(iv), D–(ii) (b) A–(ii), B–(i), C–(iii), D–(iv)
(c) A–(iv), B–(ii), C–(iii), D–(i) (d) A–(iv), B–(iii), C–(ii), D–(i)

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 TARGET – NEET 2025

93. Match column I with column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below.
Column I (pO2) Column II (Site)
A. 40 (i) Atmospheric air
B. 95 (ii) Alveoli
C. 104 (iii) Deoxygenated blood
D. 159 (iv) Oxygenated blood
(a) A–(iv), B–(iii), C–(i), D–(ii) (b) A–(iv), B–(iii), C–(ii), D–(i)
(c) A–(iii), B–(iv), C–(i), D–(ii) (d) A–(iii), B–(iv), C–(ii), D–(i)
94. Match column I with column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below.
Column I (Animal) Column II (Respiratory organ)
A. Earthworm (i) Gills
B. Aquatic Arthropods and Molluscs (ii) Lungs
C. Flatworms (iii) Entire body surface
D. Birds and Reptiles (iv) Moist cuticle
(a) A–(iii), B–(iv), C–(i), D–(ii) (b) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(iv), D–(ii)
(c) A–(iv), B–(ii), C–(i), D–(iii) (d) A–(iv), B–(i), C–(iii), D–(ii)
95. Match column I with column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below.
Column I Column II
A. Respiratory rhythm centre (i) Pons
B. Pneumotaxic centre (ii) Diaphragm
C. Vomit centre (iii) Medulla
D. Dome-shaped (iii) Cerebellum
(a) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii) (b) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(v), D-(iii)
(c) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(ii) (d) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
96. Match column I with column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below.
Column I Column II
A. FRC (i) ERV + RV + TV
B. IC (ii) ERV + RV
C. VC (iii) TV + IRV
D. Total Lung Capacity (iv) TV + ERV
E. EC (v) VC + RV
(a) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(v), E-(i) (b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(iv), E-(i)
(c) A-(v), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i), E-(iii) (d) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(v), E-(iv)
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 TARGET – NEET 2025

97. Match column I with column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below.
Column I Column II
A. Oxyhaemoglobin (i) Bicarbonates and potassium
B. Carbamino haemoglobin (ii) Hydrogen ions and haemoglobin
C. Haemoglobinic acid (iii) Oxygen and haemoglobin
D. Carbonic acid (iv) Carbon dioxide and haemoglobin
(v) Carbon dioxide and water
(a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv) (b) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
(c) A-(v), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii) (d) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(v)
98. Match column I with column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below.
Column I Column II
A. Larynx (i) Lid of larynx
B. Trachea (ii) Air sacs
C. Alveoli (iii) Voice box
D. Epiglottis (iv) Wind pipe
(v) Common passage
(1) A-(iii), B-(v), C-(ii), D-(iv) (b) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(c) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(v) (d) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
99. Match column I with column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below.
Column I Column II
A. Inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles (i) Emphysema
B. Alveolar walls are damaged (ii) Occupational respiratory disorders
C. Fibrosis (proliferation of fibrous tissues) (iii) Sigmoid
D. Oxygen dissociation curve (iv) Asthma
(a) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii) (b) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(c) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i) (d) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
100. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:
A. Thoracic chamber is formed dorsally by sternum.
B. Respiratory rhythm centre is located in the midbrain.
C. The role of CO2 in regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.
D. On an average a healthy human breathes 12-16 times per minute.
E. Contraction of diaphragm increases the volume of thoracic chamber along antero-posterior axis.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, and C (b) B, C, and D
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 TARGET – NEET 2025

(c) B, D, and E (d) D and E

101. In the graphical representation of pulmonary volumes and capacities, ‘X’ denotes

(a) Inspiratory reserve volume (b) Total lung capacity

(c) Expiratory capacity (d) Inspiratory capacity
102. Lungs are covered by a double layered membrane called
(a) Pleura (b) Capsule
(c) Pericardium (d) Glycocalyx
103. Conducting part of the respiratory system is formed by
(a) External nostrils up to the terminal bronchioles
(b) External nostrils up to the initial bronchioles
(c) External nostrils up to the ducts of the alveoli
(d) Initial bronchioles up to the terminal bronchioles
104. Which is the site of actual diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and atmospheric air?
(a) Conducting part (b) Exchange part
(c) Both parts of respiratory system (d) Trachea
105. Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema,
respectively?
(a) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface
(b) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface
(c) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles
(d) Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles.
106. Difference between artery and vein includes all except
(a) Diameter of vessel (b) Thickness of the vessel wall
(c) Valves (d) Types of cells in endothelium
107. The first heart sound ‘lub’ is associated with
(a) Closure of mitral and tricuspid valves (b) Closure of atrio-ventricular valves
(c) Closure of semilunar valves (d) Both (a) and (b)
108. SA node acts as the pacemaker of the heart because of the fact that it
(a) Is located in right atrium
(b) Generate impulses with greatest rhythmicity
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 TARGET – NEET 2025

(c) Has rich sympathetic innervations

(d) Is capable of generating impulses spontaneously at irregular rate
109. Select the mismatched pair.
(a) Neutrophils - Polymorphonuclear leucocyte
(b) Monocytes - Bean shaped nucleus
(c) Basophils - Least number of WBCs/ml of blood
(d) Lymphocytes - Granulocyte phagocytic cells
110. The site of erythropoiesis in 20 years old healthy human is
(a) Yolk sac (b) Red bone marrow
(c) Liver (d) Spleen
111. The condition in which heart muscles get suddenly damaged due to inadequate blood supply is called
(a) Angina (b) Heart failure
(c) Heart attack (d) Cardiac arrest
112. Which of the following is an incorrect statement?
(a) Heart failure causes congestion in lungs.
(b) Angina pectoris is more common in young persons.
(c) The lumen of coronary arteries become narrow in patients with coronary artery disease.
(d) Spleen is often called graveyard of RBCs.
113. The erythroblastosis foetalis can be prevented by
(a) Administering anti-Rh antibodies to mother, immediately after conception
(b) Injecting Rh-antigen into mother’s body, soon after pregnancy is confirmed
(c) Injecting Rh-antigen into the mother’s body, immediately after delivery
(d) Administering anti-Rh antibodies into mother’s blood, immediately after delivery of the first
child
114. The phagocytic WBC’s of blood are
(a) Neutrophil and basophil (b) Monocyte and neutrophil
(c) Lymphocyte-and basophil (d) Monocyte and lymphocyte
115. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the formed elements of blood in increasing order
of their numbers in blood?
(a) Platelets, RBCs, WBCs (b) WBCs, Platelet, RBCs
(c) Platelets, WBCs, RBCs (d) RBCs, WBCs, Platelets
116. Which layer or wall of an artery is lined by endothelium?
(a) Tunica externa (b) Tunica media
(c) Tunica adventitia (d) Tunica intima
117. Choose the incorrect match.
(a) P-wave — Depolarisation of atria (b) Q-wave — Excitation of atria
(c) QRS complex — Depolarisation of ventricles (d) T-wave — Repolarisation of ventricles

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118. Thrombokinase is associated with

(a) Maintenance of pulmonary and systemic circulation
(b) Detoxification of drugs in liver cells
(c) Production of platelets, i.e., thrombocytes from megakaryocytes of bone marrow
(d) Formation of thrombin from its precursor prothrombin
119. Which of the following WBC’s resist infections and allergic reactions?
(a) Neutrophils (b) Basophils
(c) Eosinophils (d) Monocytes
120. All of the following statements are correct, except
(a) Smaller the organism, higher is its metabolic rate.
(b) Heart rate of newborn is much more than an adult.
(c) Defects in the conduction system of heart cause heart block.
(d) Serum globulins are the most abundant proteins in plasma.
121. Person with blood group AB is considered universal recipient because he has
(a) Both A and B antibodies in plasma
(b) No antigen on RBCs and no antibody in plasma
(c) Both A and B antigens on RBCs but no antibodies in plasma
(d) Both A and B antigens in plasma but no antibodies
122. Megakaryocytes are special cells in the bone marrow that produce cell fragments called
(a) Leucocytes (b) Erythrocytes
(c) Fibrinogen (d) Thrombocytes
123. Closure of semilunar valves occurs due to
(a) Ventricular systole
(b) Increased pressure in ventricles
(c) Attempted backflow of blood into the ventricles
(d) Attempted backflow of blood into atria during ventricular diastole.
124. Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is
(a) Same as that in the aorta (b) Less than that in the vena cava
(c) More than that in the carotid artery (d) More than that in the pulmonary vein
125. All the components of the nodal tissue are auto-excitable. Why does the SA node act as the normal
pacemaker?
(a) SA node has lowest rate of depolarisation
(b) SA node has highest rate of depolarisation
(c) SA node is the only component to generate the threshold potential
(d) Only SA node can convey the action potential to other components

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 TARGET – NEET 2025

126. Match column I with column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below.
Column-I Column-II
(A) LH (i) Regulates blood calcium
(B) ANF (ii) Ovulation
(C) GIF (iii) Decreases blood pressure
(D) TCT (iv) Inhibits gastric secretion
(a) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii) (b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(c) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i) (d) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)
127. Match column I with column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Pars distalis (i) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
(B) Pars intermedia (ii) Thyroid stimulating hormone
(C) Pars nervosa (iii) Vasopressin
(a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii) (b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii)
(c) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii) (d) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(ii)
128. Match column I with column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Cortisol (i) Iodothyronines
(B) Oxytocin (ii) Proteinaceous hormone
(C) Thyroxine (iii) Steroidal derivative
(D) Luteinizing hormone (iv) Anterior pituitary hormone
(a) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i) (b) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(c) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii) (d) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
129. Match column I with column II and choose the correct combination from the options given below.
Column-I Column-II
(A) Adrenaline (i) Goitre
(B) Hyperparathyroidism (ii) Accelerates heart beat
(C) Oxytocin (iii) Salt-water balance
(D) Hypothyroidism (iv) Child-birth
(E) Aldosterone (v) Demineralization
(a) A-(ii), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(iii), E-(i) (b) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(v), D-(ii), E-(i)
(c) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(ii), E-(iv) (d) A-(ii), B-(v), C-(iv), D-(i), E-(iii)

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130. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:
(A) The secretion of parathyroid hormone is regulated by circulating levels of calcium.
(B) Adrenaline and nor adrenaline are commonly called catecholamines.
(C) Glucocorticoids stimulates synthesis of proteins and lipids.
(D) In adult women, hypothyroidism may cause menstrual cycle to become irregular.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, and D (b) B, C, and D
(c) B and D (d) A and D
131. Identify the wrong statement.
(a) Hypersecretion of growth hormone in elderly patients causes gigantism.
(b) Hyposecretion of insulin causes hyperglycemia.
(c) Vasopressin causes water reabsorption from distal nephron.
(d) Hormones secreted by neurohypophysis are transported axonally from hypothalamus.
132. Which of the following statement about pituitary gland is incorrect?
(a) Pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity of sphenoid bone called sella tursica.
(b) Posterior lobe of pituitary is called pars nervosa.
(c) Adenohypophysis is under direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.
(d) Adenohypophysis consists of pars distalis and pars intermedia.
133. Oxytocin is
(a) Used to induce labour (b) Called birth hormone
(c) Milk ejecting hormone (d) All are correct
134. Deficiency of thyroxine in children causes dwarfism, low IQ, deaf-mutism and mental retardation.
This condition is called
(a) Myxedema (b) Cretinism
(c) Grave’s disease (d) Cushing’s disease
135. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements:
(A) The neural coordination is fast but short lived.
(B) Endocrine glands lack ducts and are hence called ductless.
(C) Neural system provides a point-to-point rapid coordination
(D) Nerve cells innervates all cells of the body and regulate cellular functions continuously.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, and C (b) B, C, and D
(c) B and D (d) A and D
136. Deficiency of vasopressin causes
(a) Diabetes mellitus with glycosuria and polyuria
(b) Diabetes insipidus with polyuria
(c) Diabetes insipidus with polyuria and ketonuria

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 TARGET – NEET 2025

(d) Diabetes mellitus with ketonuria and diuresis

137. Select the set of disorders which are caused due to hypersecretion of hormones
(a) Acromegaly and diabetes mellitus (b) Exopthalmic goitre and gigantism
(c) Tetany and diabetes insipidus (d) Cretinism and acromegaly
138. Which of the following is an incorrect pair w.r.t antagonistic set of hormones?
(a) Parathormone and thyrocalcitonin (b) Insulin and glucagon
(c) Epinephrine and norepinephrine (d) Gastrin and enterogastrone
139. Match the options given in column I with column II.
Column I Column II
(a) Gastrin (i) Inhibits gastric secretions
(b) Secretin (ii) Stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes
(c) Cholecystokinin (iii) Stimulates secretion of water and
bicarbonates from pancreas
(d) Gastric inhibitory peptide (iv) Stimulates release of HCl and pepsinogen
(a) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i) (b) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
(c) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii) (d) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i)
140. Complete the analogy by selecting the correct option from the following.
Insulin : Hypoglycemia : : Parathyroid hormone : _________
(a) Hyperglycemia (b) Hypocalcemia
(c) Hypercalcemia (d) Hypoglycemia
141. Which of these are not involved in the regulation of kidney function?
(a) Hypothalamus (b) Heart (c) JGA (d) Spleen
142. Which of these do not activate osmoreceptors?
(a) Blood volume (b) Body fluid volume
(c) Homoeostasis (d) Ionic concentration
143. What is another name for ADH?
(a) Oxytocin (b) Noradrenaline
(c) Vasopressin (d) Ghrelin
144. Where is vasopressin released from?
(a) Neurohypophysis (b) Pineal gland
(c) Adrenal gland (d) Pancreas
145. Which of these is not a function of ADH?
(a) Stimulates water reabsorption (b) Decreases blood pressure
(c) Prevents diuresis (d) Decreases perspiration
146. Which of these hormones do not lead to the constriction of blood vessels?
(a) Epinephrine (b) Angiotensin II

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 TARGET – NEET 2025

(c) ANF (d) ADH

147. Which of the following can increase GFR?
(a) Increase in blood pressure
(b) Decrease in blood pressure
(c) Increased Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure
(d) Ureteral constriction
148. A fall in GFR can stimulate the juxtaglomerular cells to release which hormone from the kidney?
(a) Angiotensinogen (b) ADH
(c) Renin (d) Angiotensin I
149. Aldosterone decreases the reabsorption of sodium ions. True or false?
(a) True (b) False
150. Which of these hormones converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I?
(a) Aldosterone (b) ADH
(c) Angiotensin II (d) Renin
151. Which of these is not a property of muscles?
(a) Extensibility (b) Excitability
(c) Degradability (d) Elasticity
152. What percentage of body weight of an adult human is contributed by muscles?
(a) 20-30% (b) 10-20%
(c) 40-50% (d) 30-40%
153. Which of these is not a basis of classification for muscles?
(a) Excitability (b) Appearance
(c) Location (d) Regulation of activities
154. Which of these statements is not true regarding skeletal muscles?
(a) They are also called voluntary muscles
(b) They help in the movement of food through the oesophagus
(c) They have striations
(d) They are involved in changing of body posture
155. Which of these is not a characteristic of cardiac muscles?
(a) They work continuously (b) They are branched
(c) They are not striated (d) They are involuntary
156. Identify the structure shown in the figure.

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 TARGET – NEET 2025

(a) Fascia (b) Muscle fibre

(c) Sarcolemma (d) Fascicle
157. Which of these ions are abundant in the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
(a) Magnesium (b) Sodium
(c) Potassium (d) Calcium
158. Which of these structures has alternate dark and light bands on it?
(a) Fascicles (b) Sarcolemma
(c) Myofibrils (d) Fascia
159. Which of these statements is false regarding myofibrils?
(a) The A band is also known as the light band
(b) Myosin is parallel to the longitudinal axis of myofibril
(c) Light bands contain actin
(d) Anisotropic bands contain myosin
160. What does the A band of a myofibril contain?
(a) Troponin (b) Actin
(c) Myosin (d) Tropomyosin
161. Adult human RBCs are enucleated. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate
explanation for this feature?
I. They are somatic cells
II. They do not need to reproduce
III. All their internal space is available to transport oxygen
IV. They do not metabolize
(a) I, II, and IV (b) III and IV
(c) Only III (d) Only I
162. Name the blood cells whose reduction in number in cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss
of blood from the body
(a) thrombocytes (b) erythrocytes
(c) Neutrophils (d) leucocytes
163. Serum differs from blood in lacking
(a) antibodies (b) clotting factors
(c) albumins (d) globulins
164. Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is
(a) more than that in the carotid (b) same as that in the aorta
(c) less than that in the venae cavae (d) more than that in the pulmonary vein
165. This blood vessel in mammals would typically carry the largest amount of urea
(a) Dorsal aorta (b) Renal vein
(c) Hepatic portal vein (d) Hepatic vein

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 TARGET – NEET 2025

166. Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The second sound is
heard when
(a) Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles
(b) AV valves open up
(c) Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing in of blood from atria
(d) AV node receives signal from SA node
167. Person with blood group AB is considered a universal recipient because he has
(a) both A and B antigens in the plasma but no antibodies
(b) both A and B antibodies in the plasma
(c) no antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma
(d) both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma
168. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart?
(a) both heart rate and cardiac output increase
(b) reduce both heart rate and cardiac output
(c) heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output
(d) heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases
169. A certain road accident patient with an unknown blood group needs immediate blood transfusion.
His one doctor friend at once offers his blood. What was the blood group of the donor?
(a) Blood group AB (b) Blood group O
(c) Blood group A (d) Blood group B
170. Which one of the following plasma proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood?
(a) Fibrinogen (b) Serum amylase
(c) Globulin (d) Albumin
171. The gaps between two adjacent myelin sheaths are called
(a) synapse (b) synaptic gap
(c) nodes of Ranvier (d) sheath gap
172. Myelin sheath is produced by
(a) Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes (b) Astrocytes and Schwann cells
(c) Oligodendrocytes and osteoclasts (d) Osteoclasts and astrocytes
173. In resting stage, the axonal membrane is comparatively more permeable and nearly impermeable to
(a) sodium; potassium, respectively (b) sodium; calcium, respectively
(c) potassium; sodium, respectively (d) potassium; calcium, respectively
174. In the resting stage of a neuron, concentration gradient generates due to the
(a) high concentration of K+ and low concentration of Na+ inside the axon
(b) high concentration of Na+ and low concentration of K+ inside the axon
(c) low concentration of Na+ outside the axon
(d) high concentration of K+ outside the axon

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175. Maintenance of the ionic gradients across the resting membrane is done by
(a) active transport of ions (b) passive transport of ions
(c) active transport of neurotransmitters (d) passive transport of neurotransmitters
176. For the maintenance of ionic gradients across the resting membrane, the sodium-potassium pump
transports
(a) 3N+ outwards for 2K+ into the cell (b) 2Na+ outwards for 2K+ into the cell
(c) 3Na+ inwards for 2K+ out the cell (d) 2Na+ inwards for 2K+ out the cell
177. When a stimulus is applied at a site on the polarised membrane, the membrane at that site becomes
freely permeable to
(a) Na+ (b) K+
(c) K+ and Cl– (d) Na+ and K+
178. During the propagation of a nerve impulse, the action potential results from the movement of
(a) K+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
(b) Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
(c) K+ ions from extracellular fluid to intracellular fluid
(d) Na+ ions from intracellular fluid to extracellular fluid
179. Saltatory conduction of impulse occurs in
(a) liver cells (b) non-myelinated nerve fibres
(c) myelinated nerve fibres (d) None of the above
180. A nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another through the junctions called
(a) neuromuscular junction (b) neuroreceptor junction
(c) synapse (d) neuroglandular junction

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