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68 views20 pages

Sample Mock DULLB

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© © All Rights Reserved
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National Law Training Institute

NATIONAL LAW TRAINING INSTITUTE

CUET PG (COQP11) MOCK TEST SERIES

SAMPLE MOCK

Details of Name of the Candidate _________________

Test Taker Contact Number _______________________

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES


1. TheTest Paper is for Three Year Law Programme (CUET PG) for 300 marks
containing 75 multiple choice questions.
2. Forevery correct answer 4 marks will be awarded to a candidate. There will be
negative marking for multiple choice objective type questions.1 mark will be
deducted for every wrong answer.
3. No mark will be awarded/deducted for un-attempted questions.

ALL THE BEST!! See you at Faculty of Law, Delhi :)


ENROL NOW:
https://www.clatnlti.com/
Join us on Telegram!
https://t.me/nlti4nlsat24

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ENGLISH LANGUAGE

PASSAGE
In the intricate global tapestry, third-world countries stand at the crossroads of challenges and
opportunities, with a potential for transformative change. Economic disparities, healthcare
inadequacies, and educational barriers are persistent challenges, but a concerted effort towards
empowerment can pave the way for sustainable development. Economic inequality remains a
pressing issue, depriving millions of access to basic necessities. However, targeted efforts to
equally distributing the resources and introducing policies to enhance economic opportunities,
such as microfinance initiatives and entrepreneurship support, can uplift communities, fostering
self- sufficiency and breaking the chains of poverty. Inadequate healthcare exacerbates the
hardships faced by these nations. Addressing this challenge involves not only improving
healthcare infrastructure but also implementing preventive measures and health education
programs. By fostering a healthier population, nations can build a foundation for economic
stability and growth. Education emerges as a key catalyst for change. Access to quality
education is a fundamental right that unlocks doors to a better future. International
collaborations and investments in educational infrastructure can bridge the existing gaps,
empowering individuals to contribute meaningfully to their communities and the global
economy. Political stability is integral to sustainable development. Governance reforms that
tackle corruption and promote transparency strengthen institutions, fostering an environment
to progress. A robust legal and regulatory
framework creates a foundation for economic investments, driving growth and development.
Infrastructure deficiencies, from unreliable power sources to limited transportation networks,
impede progress. Strategic investments in infrastructural development enhance connectivity,
promote trade, and create an environment conducive to economic activities, thereby laying the
groundwork for sustainable growth. In conclusion, third-world countries face challenges that
require comprehensive and collaborative solutions. By empowering communities through
economic opportunities, healthcare, education, and political stability, the global community can
contribute to a more equitable and sustainable world. The path to sustainable development
involves recognizing the potential within these nations and working collectively to build a future
where prosperity knows no borders.
Based on the passage given above answer the following questions:
Q1. What specific strategies are mentioned to address economic inequality and uplifting
communities?
I. Implementing targeted efforts such as microfinance initiatives and entrepreneurship
support.
II. Developing initiatives aimed at eradicating corruption and fostering a culture of
transparency.
III. Introducing comprehensive policies to bridge income gaps by fostering self-sufficiency.
IV. Advocating for equitable distribution of resources and opportunities to uplift
marginalized communities.

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a) Only (I)
b) Both (III) and (IV)
c) Both (I) and (IV)
d) Only (I), (III) and (IV)

Q2. How is political stability linked to sustainable development in the information


provided?
a) Ensuring autocratic rule prioritizes efficiency, fostering streamlined decision-making.
b) Political stability fosters an environment conducive to progress and growth.
c) Guaranteeing equal representation establishes a foundation for inclusive political systems.
d) Opting for isolationism in political stability can lead to reduced international cooperation.

Q3. Which of the following words is suitable to fill the given blank?
a) conducive
b) affective
c) redundant
d) acknowledging

Q4. Which of the following words is synonymous with “fostering”?


a) suppressing
b) overviewing
c) nurturing
d) raising

Q5. Fill in the blanks with the suitable phrasal verb from the options given below.
Everyone comes from all over the town to this market on the weekend, so you never know who
you might .
a) run over
b) run into
c) run by
d) run against

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Direction(Q6.-Q7.): Replace the underlined words with the most suitable one word from
the options given below.
Q6. With 20 kids running around and only two adults to supervise, it was a complete loss of
control.
a) juggernaut
b) rapport
c) obdurate
d) mayhem

Q7. We want students who will take the initiative to lead our MUN team.
a) venal

b) proactive

c) ignoble

d) iridescent

Direction (Q8. – Q10.) Rearrange the following sentences in a proper sequence to form a
meaningful paragraph and then answer the question given below.

Q8.
A. At last, in an old attic, he unearthed a chest filled with heirlooms
B. Grateful, James felt a renewed sense of belonging and cherished the legacy passed down through
generations.
C. Fueled by excitement, he deciphered the riddles and traveled to historic landmarks.
D. A mysterious box arrived at James's doorstep, revealing clues to an undiscovered family treasure.
E. He also found a letter from a long-lost relative, connecting him to a rich family history.
a) BCADE
b) ADCBE
c) DCBAE
d) DECAB

Q9.
A. In lively discussions, exchanging ideas
B. Eager students engaged
C. Curiosity and growth

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D. That sparked intellectual


a) BCDA
b) ADCB
c) BADC
d) CBAD

Q10.
A. Trust and communication
B. Connections between individuals
C. Form the foundation of
D. Integral for personal growth
a) BCDA
b) ACDB
c) BADC
d) CBAD

Direction(Q11.-Q14.) In the following questions, an idiomatic expression has been used,


followed by some alternatives. Choose the one which best expresses its meaning.
Q11. Pinky aced her English test.

a) Pinky felt dizzy during her English test.


b) Pinky did very well in the English test.
c) Pinky failed in the English test.
d) Pinky was just average in her English test.

Q12. I am feeling a bit under the weather.


a) I am walking in bad weather.
b) I am walking in rain.
c) I am walking under clouds.
d) I am feeling a bit ill and lack energy.

Q13. Vikram is a good egg.

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a) Vikram is a person who could be relied upon.


b) Vikram is arrogant
c) Vikram is smart and handsome.
d) Vikram belongs to a noble family.

Q14. Everything is at sixes and sevens here.


a) Ecstatic
b) In a debilitated state
c) In a perfect order
d) In disarray

Q15. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error,
if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Spot the error from the given options.
The ebb and flow (A)/ of the tides are (B)/ now understood (C)/ no error (D).
a) A
b) B
c) D
d) C

Q16. In the following question there is a related pair of words given. Each pair is followed
by four other pairs of words. Choose the pair from the given options that best expresses
the relationship like the original pair.
Blurred : Confused
a) Muddled : Unclear
b) Dangerous : Culprit
c) Cloudy : Clarity
d) Abatement : Significant

Direction(Q17.-Q18.): In the following questions a sentence or a phrase is given which can


be substituted by one word. Choose the most appropriate word explaining the sentence or
the phrase from the given options.

Q17. One who talks while asleep is known as


a) Somnambulist

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b) Somniloquist
c) Somniferous
d) Sleeptalker

Q18. A child secretly changed for another in infancy


a) nipper

b) changeling

c) tiddler

d) tyke

Q19. Which of the following is not correctly matched?


A. Deepika Kumari - Archery

B. Manika Batra - Table Tennis

C. Ashwani Ponappa - Badminton

D. Savita Punia - Long jump

a) A
b) D
c) B
d) C

Q20. ADSL data communications technology uses which of the following for faster data
transmission?
a) Voiceband modem
b) Wireless Modem
c) Copper telephone Lines
d) Sockets

Q21. Which of the following are the features of a Spreadsheet?


a) Layers and Lines
b) Rows and Columns
c) Layers and Planes
d) Height and Width

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Q22. Which of the following is not an official language of the United Nations?
a) French
b) Arabic
c) Chinese
d) German

Q23. Ecomark is issued by?


a) Indian Standard Organisation
b) Bureau of Indian Standards
c) International Standards Organisation
d) The Trade Marks Office

Q24. Which among the following Indian Constitutional Amendments included 4 more
languages in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India?
a) 89th Amendment, 2003
b) 90th Amendment, 2003
c) 91st Amendment, 2003
d) 92nd Amendment, 2003

Q25. Which among the following Vice-Presidents in India resigned from his office to
contest for the post of President?
a) V.V. Giri
b) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
c) N. Sanjeeva Reddy

d) R. Venkataraman

Q26. First Lokpal Bill had been introduced in the Parliament of India in the year?
a) 1962
b) 1964
c) 1966
d) 1968

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Q27. Who presided over the Belgaum session of the Indian National Congress in 1924?
a) Mahatama Gandhi
b) Dada Bhai Naoroji
c) Surendranath Banerjee
d) Gopal Das

Direction(Q28.-Q30.): The following questions consist of two statements, one labeled as


‘Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’(R). You are to examine these two statements carefully
and select the correct answer.
Q28. Assertion (A): Earthquakes generate tsunami by vertical movement of the sea floor as
in normal faulting or trust faulting.
Reason (R): If the sea floor movement is horizontal, tsunamis are generated.
Choose the most appropriate answer.
a) A is false, but R is true
b) A is true, but R is false
c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Q29. Assertion (A): In medical parlance with respect to blood groups, a person with a blood
group of “O” is called Universal Donor.
Reason(R): A person with the “AB” blood group can accept blood of all types.
a) A is false, but R is true
b) A is true, but R is false
c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Q30. Assertion(A): Four strokes engines are more efficient that two stroke engines. Reason(R):
Four stroke engines have lower wastage of petrol in their operation.
a) A is false, but R is true
b) A is true, but R is false
c) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
d) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

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Q31. Which of the following is not a type of virus?

a) Boot sector
b) Polymorphic
c) Multipartite
d) Trojans

Q32. Fill in the blank with the correct answer


infects the master boot record and it is challenging and a complex task to
remove this virus.

a) Boot Sector Virus


b) Polymorphic
c) Multipartite
d) Trojans

Q33. Red Crescent Day is observed on


a) 27 August
b) 8 May
c) 21 October
d) 15 November

Q34. Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to Computer short cut
keys?
a) ALT+CTRL+C is used to make copyright symbol.

b) The shortcut key to switch between open application is Alt + Tab


c) Ctrl+X is used to close a document.
d) To find a text in document one must press Ctrl+F.

Q35. The phrase “Satyameva Jayate” (meaning Truth alone Triumphs) is derived from
which of the following Upanishads?
a) Prasna
b) Mandukya

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c) Mundaka
d) Chandogya

Q36. Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another
through tattooing?
I. Chikungunya

II. Hepatitis- B

III. HIV-AIDS

Choose the most appropriate answer.


a) Only I
b) II and III
c) I and III
d) I, II and III

Q37. Select the country which is not a member of G7.


a) USA
b) India
c) Japan
d) Italy

Q38. A and B, working together can build a wall, 221m long, in 11 1/9 days. If they work
on alternate days, with A starting the work, it takes 22 1/4 days to build the same wall. If A
and B work together and build a similar wall but of twice the length and earn a total of
Rs. 1800 for it, then B's share of the earnings will be:
a) Rs. 750

b) Rs. 800

c) Rs. 900

d) d) Rs. 1,000

Q39. Fresh grapes contain 90% water and dried grapes contain 20% water. From 20 kg of
fresh grapes, how many kgs of dried grapes can be obtained?
a) 2.4 kg

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b) 2.5 kg
c) 2 kg
d) 5 kg

Q40. Ram sold an article at a certain profit. Had he purchased the article for 10% less
than what he actually purchased it for and sold it for 12.5% more than what he actually
sold it for, his profit percentage would have been 2.5 times his actual profit percentage.
Find his actual profit percentage.
a) 20%
b) 25%
c) 33.33%
d) 10%

Q41. Who among the following has not been conferred with the Bharat Ratna in 2024?
a) Chaudhary Charan Singh
b) PV Narasihma Rao
c) Karpoori Thakuri
d) Rizwan Abdul

Q42. Name the phenomenon of light due to which sudden change of direction of light
happens when it passes from one transparent medium to another.
a) Refraction
b) Reflection
c) Diffraction
d) Dispersion

Q43. With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol, Khatu are the names of
a) Glaciers
b) Mangrove areas
c) Ramasar sites
d) Saline Lakes

Q44. Chisha and Pranoy borrow a total sum of Rs. 30,000 from Rahul at 4% per annum

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for 5 years and at 5% per annum for 4 years respectively. Find out the sum borrowed by
Chisha, if her interest is double than that of Pranoy's interest.
a) Rs. 10,000
b) Rs. 20,000
c) Rs. 18,000
d) Rs. 15,000

Q45. Two trains started at the same time, one from A to B and the other from B to A, If
they arrived at B and A respectively 4 hours and 9 hours after they passed each other, the
ratio of the speeds of the two trains was?
a) 1:3
b) 3:2
c) 2:3
d) 3:1

Q46. If (a + b) : (b + c) : (c + a) = 3: 4:5 and a + b + c = 17. Find c.


a) 17/2
b) 17/4
c) 17/3
d) 17/5

Q47. Pointing to a man, Rutuja said, "He is the youngest son of my father-in-law's only
son". How is Rutuja related to this youngest son's father?
a) Daughter

b) Sister

c) Wife

d) Can't be determined

Q48. A family consists of a husband and wife, their three sons and two daughters, three
wives of three sons. How many females are in this family?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7

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d) none of these

Q49. What should come next in the series below? 122343456…


a) 45678
b) 34567
c) 6789
d) none of these

Q50. Choose the correct logical image in the sequence from the options given below?

a) E
b) F
c) A
d) B

Q51. A clock is set right at 8 a.m. The clock gains 10 minutes in 24 hours. What will be
the true time when the clock indicates 1 p.m. on the following day?
a) 48 minutes past 12
b) 46 minutes past 12
c) 45 minutes past 12
d) 47 minutes past 12

Q52. What was the day of the week on March 1, 2010?


a) Sunday
b) Friday
c) Monday

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d) Thursday

Q53. In how many different ways can the letters of the word “THOUGHTS” be arranged
so that the vowels always come together?
a) 2520
b) 2500
c) 2460
d) 2445

Q54. The question given below contain three elements. These elements may or may not be
linked to one another. Each group of elements may fit into one of the diagrams at I, II, III
or IV. You have to indicate the diagram which is most aptly related to the group of
elements.
Opera, Circus and Entertainment.

a) I

b) II

c) III

d) IV

Q55. Shreeja is facing north. She turns 90° in the clockwise direction and then 135° in the
same direction and then 270° anti-clockwise. Which direction is Shreeja facing now?
a) southwest
b) south
c) west

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d) northwest

Q56. The given three statements are followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III, and
IV. From the options given below, choose which of the following conclusion(s) logically
follow from the given statements.
Statements: (A) All mirrors are phones.
(A) Some phones are gadgets.

(B) All gadgets are mirrors. Conclusions: I. Some gadgets are phones.
II. Some gadgets are mirrors.

III. Some gadgets are not mirrors.

IV. Some mirrors are phones.

a) None follows
b) I, II and IV follow
c) Only Il and III follow
d) Either II or IV follows

Q57. The banker's discount on Rs. 1600 at 15% per annum is the same as true discount on
Rs. 1680 for the same time and at the same rate. The time is:
a) 3 months
b) 4 months
c) 6 months
d) 8 months

Q58. Akash, Bimal, Chandni, Deboy, Esha, Feroze and Gaurav are sitting in a row facing
North. Firoze is to the immediate right of Esha. Esha is 4th to the right of Gaurav.
Chandni is the neighbour of Bimal and Deboy. Person who is third to the left of Deboy is
at one of the ends. Who is/are to the left of Chandni?
a) Only Bimal
b) Gaurav and Akash
c) Gaurav and Bimal
d) Firoze and Akash

Q59. A large tanker can be filled by two pipes A and B in 60 minutes and 40 minutes
respectively. How many minutes will it take to fill the tanker from empty state if B is used

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for half the time and A and B fill it together for the other half?
a) 15 minutes
b) 27.5 minutes
c) 20 minutes
d) 30 minutes

Q60. If X= ab² and Y= a²b, where a and b are prime numbers then HCF & LCM of X and
Y (respectively) are:
a) a^2b^2,ab
b) ab, a^2b^2
c) ab,ab
d) ab^2,ab

Q61. A jar contains a mixture of two liquids A and B in ratio 4:1. When 10 litres of the
mixture are replaced with same amount of liquid B, the ratio becomes 2:3. How many
litres of liquid A was present in the jar initially?
a) 25
b) 20
c) 16
d) 18

Q62. Coins are tossed together. What is the probability of getting exactly 2 heads:
a) 1/2
b) 5/16

c) 4/11

d) 7/16

Q63. In the following question, find out the alternative which will replace the question
mark (?) Ecology : Environment :: Histology : ?
a) Fossils
b) History

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c) Tissues
d) Hormones

Q64. The ticket charges at a multiplex cinema hall are reduced by 25%. As a result,
attendance in the cinema hall is increased by 10%. Find the change in the revenue earned
by the cinema hall.
a) 22.2 % increase
b) 17.5 % decrease
c) 15 % decrease
d) 12.5 % increase

Q65. December 10 is celebrated as


a) World Environment Day
b) World Technology Day
c) World Human Rights Day
d) World Women's Day

Q66. Which key should we press to quickly make a copyright symbol?


a) CTRL+SHIFT+C
b) CTRL+C
c) ALT+C
d) ALT+CTRL+C

Q67. Choose the most appropriate option that represents the correct matching of pairs.
1. Makhana: Mithila Region of Bihar

2. Gucchi Mushroom : Western Ghats

3. Isabgol : Southern Rajasthan

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3 only

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Q68. What was India ranked at in the Global Innovation Index 2024?
a) 41
b) 46
c) 39
d) 40

Q69. A person who is excessively anxious about his health is known as

a) Fastidious
b) Hypochondriac
c) Pacifist
d) Chauvinist

Q70. ‘Indian Buddhist Culture and Heritage Centre’ is being constructed in which
country?
a) Myanmar
b) Sri Lanka
c) Nepal
d) Thailand

Q71. Price of a diamond is directly proportional to the square of its weight. If the diamond
breaks into two pieces whose weights are in the ratio of 2:3, then what is the % profit or
loss due to breakage?
a) 48% profit
b) 50 % profit
c) 48% loss
d) No profit, No loss

Q72. Which amongst the under mentioned Indian states do not share border with
Myanmar?
a) Meghalaya
b) Mizoram
c) Arunachal Pradesh

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d) Nagaland

Q73. India’s highest sports honour, “The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award” has been
renamed after which famous personality?
a) Sunil Gavaskar
b) PT Usha
c) Major Dhyan Chand
d) Sachin Tendulkar

Q74. Match List I with the correct options of List II List I (Vitamin) List II(Diseases)
1. Vitamin B I. Night Blindness
2. Vitamin K II. Diarrhoea
3. Vitamin C III.Haemorrhage
4. Vitamin A IV. Scurvy a) 1-I, 2-IV, 3-III, 4-II
b) 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
c) 1-III, 2-IV, 3-II, 4-I
d) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV

Q75. √0.0081 + √0.0064 =?


a) 3.1
b) 1.2
c) 0.09
d) 0.17

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