SL.

NO:1359 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE17

VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE - MODERN MANUFACTURING METHODS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 State piezoelectric effect.

2 State the working principle of the Electrical Discharge machining process.
3 List out the applications of EDM process.
4 State the working principle of EBM.
5 List the unconventional machining process which uses mechanical energy.
6 Summarize the Conventional Machining Processes.
7 Show the unique benefits offered by WJM process.
8 Predict the principle behind the abrasive jet machining.
9 Predict the limitations of EBM.
10 Illustrate the characteristics of Laser beam.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a.
Explain with neat diagram the working principle of piezoelectric transducer.

OR
b. Explain with neat diagram the working principle of PAM.

12 a.
Briefly explain the unconventional machining processes and list out the Limitations and Advantages.

OR
b.
Compare between the conventional and unconventional machining processes.

13 a. Demonstrate the construction and working principle of USM.

OR
b. Demonstrate elaborately about process parameters in USM.
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14 a. Demonstrate the process parameters affecting the MRR in AJM.
OR
b. Demonstrate the working principle of Wire cut EDM with neat diagram.
15 a. Illustrate in detail about tool material and tool wear in EDM.
OR
b. Predict the features of the wire cut EDM.

16 a. Explain with neat diagram the working principle of ECH.

OR
b. Illustrate with neat diagram the working principle of ECG.

17 a. Predict the advantages, disadvantages and applications of ECH.

OR

b. Examine the similarities and differences of ECM, ECG and ECH.

18 a. Predict the advantages, disadvantages and applications of PAM.

OR

b. Determine the principle of LASER beam production.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )

19 a. Explain the reasons for the development of unconventional machining process. Discuss about the
criteria recommended in the selection of these processes.
OR

b. Determine the effect of operating parameters on material removal rate. List out the applications of
USM.

20 a. Demonstrate the principle of electrochemical grinding with a suitable sketch. State the process
capabilities and applications.
OR

b.
Determine about the process parameters of PAM and its influence in machining quality.

*****

SL.NO:1359
SL.NO:1357 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE32
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE - COMPOSITE MATERIALS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Name few Fibers used in FRP

2 Define Whisker.
3 Define closed mold process of composites.
4 List the effects of environmental properties on FRP.
5 Name few Failure theories.
6 State what will happen when a Composite is stressed.
7 List the Stresses within a Cross-ply Laminate
8 Define Hasselman-Johnson model.
9 Describe wet winding.
10 Identify how to define composite material properties in FEA.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Compare the longitudinal and transverse unidirectional composites.
OR
b. Determine the Micro-mechanics of behavior of Lamina.

12 a. Explain the any two methods of producing the MMC.

OR
b. Explain the processing and production techniques of CMC.
13 a. Describe re-inforcement. Explain the characteristics of the materials used for
reinforcement.
OR
b. Explain with a neat sketch the working principle of Spray up technique.
14 a. Explain with a neat sketch the working principle of autoclave technique of manufacturing
in composites.
OR
b. Explain with a neat sketch the working principle of pultrusion method. (p.t.o)
 2
15 a. Explain two Selection of fiber-matrix.
OR
b. Explain the effects of thermal properties on FRP.
16 a. Explain the effects of environmental properties on FRP.
OR
b. Explain the asymmetric structure on FRP.

17 a. Explain the fracture of composites.

OR

b. Explain the Shear lag model used in composite materials.

18 a. Explain the model for Models for E2..

OR

b. Explain Failure under Multi axial Stress States (Plane Stress) - Tsai-Hill.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Determination of Longitudinal Modulus unidirectional composites.
OR

b. Explain the working principle and advantages of dry winding.

20 a. Explain the working principle and advantages of wet winding.

OR

b. Explain and derive the Eshelby’s models used in composite materials.

*****

SL.NO:1357
SL.NO:1361 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC17
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

AUTOMOTIVE ENGINEERING

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 State the function of a bumper.

2 Identify the function of valve guides.
3 Name the function of fuel supply system.
4 Name the sensors used in ECU.
5 State the function of a free wheel unit.
6 List the function of a rear axle.
7 List the requirements of a automobile brakes.
8 Mention the major constituents of natural gas and LPG.
9 Name the two types of LPG used for automotive engine fuel.
10 Classify the various steering gear bores commonly used.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Discuss in detail the functions of a chassis frame and the loads to which a chassis frame is
subjected.
OR
b. Ilustrate with necessary sketches explain a rear Engine rear Wheel Drive system. Also tell
about the advantages and disadvantages.

12 a.
Explain a Four Wheel Drive Vehicle with a neat sketch of its layout.
OR
b. Ilustrate with the help of a neat sketch explain any gasoline injection system.
13 a.
Explain Electronic Control of Diesel Injection with a neat diagram.
OR

(P.T.O)
 2
b.
Draw circuits of electronic ignition system and name its components.

14 a.
Explain the functions of solenoid coil in electronic injection system in detail.
OR
b. Explain with necessary sketches the construction and operation of constant mesh gear box.
15 a.
Discuss about the construction and working of an Overdrive arrangement.
OR
b. Sketch the general arrangement of a live axle and label the various loads that it has to
withstand. Explain them.

16 a.
What is the necessecity of the suspension system and explain about the suspension systems.
OR
b.
Describe the concepts of Oversteer, Understeer, Cornering power and Slip Angle.

17 a. With the help of a neat and labeled sketches, describe a type of mechanical brake used in
automotive practice.
OR
b. Discuss in detail the performance and emission characteristics of CNG as engine fuel.

18 a. What are properties of hydrogen gas? Discuss the potential of using hydrogen as a fuel for
automotives.
OR

b. Describe the construction and operating principle of a turbocharger with neat sketch.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Explain the construction and working principle of two stroke Internal Combustion Engine with
neat sketch.
OR
b. Explain rotary Diesel Injection with a neat sketch.

20 a. Explain with a neat sketch the operation of differntial unit.

OR
b. Explain the working construction of air brake system with neat diagram.
*****

SL.NO:1361
S.No.1349 SUB CODE:17CMES02
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
COMMON TO CIVIL ,CSE,ECE,EEE, BME & MECH
BASICS OF CIVIL AND MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
(Candidates admitted under 2017 Regulations-SCBCS)
Time : 1 1/2 Hours Maximum Marks:50 Marks
CIVIL ENGINEERING

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (5 x 2 =10 Marks)

1 What do you mean by plane surveying?

2 What are the instruments used in chain surveying?
3 What is meant by frog in the bricks?
4 List out the Methods of curing.
5 What are the classification surveying based on instruments?

Answer ALL questions

Part-B (2 x12 =24 Marks)
6 a. How survey has been classified? Explain each survey briefly.
OR
b. Explain the characteristics of good Building stone.

7 a. Compare stone masonry and brick masonry.

OR
b. Explain the types of cement concrete.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (1 x 16 = 16 )
8 a. Briefly explain the types of Floors.
OR
b. Explain the types of Bridges.

*****

P.T.O
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MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
(Candidates admitted under 2017 Regulations-SCBCS)
Time : 1 1/2 Hours Maximum Marks:50 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (5 x 2 =10 Marks)

1 Define casting and foundry.

2 Name the three characteristics of foundry sand.
3 Name the sources of energy for a welding.
4 List out the different types of arc welding.
5 What is the standard specification of an electrode?

Answer ALL questions

Part-B (2 x12 =24 Marks)
6 a.
Explain submerged arc welding in detail.
OR
b. Compare Petrol Engine and diesel engine.

7 a. Describe the construction and operation of a Simple Carburetor.

OR
b. Compare two stroke and four stroke engines.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (1 x 16 = 16 )
8 a. With the help of neat sketch explain in details and the construction and working of different
engine components.
OR
b. Construct with a neat diagram and briefly explain the fuel supply system in a diesel engine.

*****

S.No.1349
SL.NO:1343 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC12
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

COMPUTER INTEGRATED MANUFACTURING

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 List the role of computers in Manufacturing.

2 List the benefits of concurrent engineering.
3 List the types of parametric modeling.
4 List any four post processor statements in APT.
5 Indicate when the GT is applied in manufacturing industry.
6 Write down the three categories of parts classification systems.
7 Define in-line layout in FMS.
8 Name the types of voice recognition system.
9 Describe shortly about DNC.
10 Classify the GT manufacturing cells.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Explain topological consistency with examples. Discuss the rules to be followed to get
Geometrical valid solid models.
OR
b. Develop a program for taper turning using Box Turning cycle.

12 a. With the help of flow diagram, explain the Pahl and Beitz model.
OR
b. Explain the general guidelines to be followed in DFM.
13 a. Compare the conventional product cycle with computer aided product cycle.
OR
b. Explain the various stages in Ohsuga model.
(p.t.o)
 2
14 a. Classify the graphics standards. Name some important standards used in plotting and CAD
data exchange.
OR
b. With suitable examples, explain how solid models are generated using Boolean operation.

15 a. Explain the various features of solid modeling packages.

OR
b. Explain the methods used for position and velocity feedback in CNC machines.
16 a. Discuss in detail about tooling for CNC machines.
OR
b. Explain the MICLASS system of parts classification and coding.

17 a. Explain about part manufacturing attribute in Group Technology.

OR

b. Describe shop floor control. List the functions of SFC.

18 a. Explain the FMS components in detail.

OR

b. Explain in detail about automatic identification methods.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Explain in detail about Generative type CAPP for a process.
OR

b. With neat sketch, explain in detail about the wire frame modeling.

20 a. With the help of block diagram, explain the closed loop control system in CNC machines.
OR

b. Explain the various techniques used in factory data collection system.

*****

SL.NO:1343
SL.NO:1338 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC14
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

HEAT AND MASS TRANSFER

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)
1 Define overall heat transfer co-efficient.
2 State the applications of fins.
3 Define unsteady state conduction.
4 Write down the expression for Characteristic length of Slab.
5 Name the advantages and limitations of dimensional analysis.
6 Define Grashoff number (Gr).
7 Define emissive power.
8 Describe about parallel flow heat exchanger.
9 Define convective mass transfer.
10 Define steady state diffusion.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a.
A hollow cylinder 5cm inner radius and 10cm outer radius has an inner surface temperature of
200°C and outer surface temperature of 100°C. If the thermal conductivity is 70W/m K, find
heat transfer per unit length
OR
b.
A hot steam pipe having an inside surface temperature of 250 °C has an inside diameter of 80
mm and a wall thickness of 5.5mm. It is covered with a 90 mm layer of insulation having
thermal conductivity of 0.5 W/m K followed by a 40 mm layer of insulation having thermal
conductivity of 0.25 W/m K. The outside surface temperature of insulation is 20 °C. Calculate
heat loss per meter length. Assume thermal conductivity of the pipe as 47 W/m K.

12 a.
A hollow sphere 1.2 m inner diameter and 1.7m outer diameter is having a thermal
conductivity of 1W/m K. The inner surface temperature is 70 K and outer surface temperature
300 K. Determine heat transfer rate and Temperature at a radius of 650mm.

(P.T.O)
 2

OR
b. An aluminum cube 6cm on a side is originally at a temperature of 500 °C. It is suddenly
immersed in a liquid at 10 °C for which h is 120 W/m²K. Determine the time required for the
cube to reach a temperature of 250 °C. For aluminum ρ = 2700 kg/m3, Cp = 900 J/kg K, k
=204 W/m K.

13 a. A large concrete high way initially at a temperature of 70 °C and stream water is directed on
the high way so that the surface temperature is suddenly lowered to 40°C. Determine the time
required to reach 55°C at a depth of 4cm from the surface.
OR
b. A copper rod of outer diameter 20 mm initially at a temperature of 380 ºC is suddenly
immersed in water at 100 ºC. Determine the time required for the rod to reach 210 ºC. Take
convective heat transfer co-efficient is 95 W/m2K.

14 a. An aluminum slab of 5 cm thick initially at a temperature of 400 ºC. It is suddenly immersed in

a water at 90 ºC.Calculate the mid plane temperature after 1 minutes and also calculate the
temperature inside the plate at a distance of 10 mm from the mid plane. Take h = 1800 W/m2
K.
OR
b.
Atmospheric air at 300K with a velocity of 2.5m/s flows over a flat plate of length L=2m,
width W=1m maintained at uniform temperature of 400K. Calculate the local heat transfer co-
efficient at 1m length and average heat transfer coefficient from L=0 to L=2m. Also find the
heat transfer.
15 a.
Air at pressure of 8kN/m2 and a temperature of 250°C flows over flat plate 0.3m wide and 1m
long at a velocity of 8 m/s. If the plate is to be maintained at a temperature of 78°C,Determine
the rate of heat to be removed continuously from the plate.

OR
b.
Air at 30°C, 0.2 m/s flows across a 120 W electric bulb at 130°C.Find heat transfer and power
lost due to convection if bulb diameter is 70mm.

16 a. A furnace wall emits radiation at 2000K. Treating it as black body radiation, calculate (i)
monochromatic radiant flux density at 1 μ m wavelength.
(ii) Wavelength at which emission is maximum and the corresponding emissive power. (iii)
Total emissive power.

(P.T.O)
SL.NO:1338
 3
OR
b. 800 W/m2 of radiant energy is incident upon a surface, out of which 300 W/m2 is absorbed,
100 W/m2 is reflected and the remainder is transmitted through the surface. Calculate the
following (i) Absorptivity (ii) Reflectivity (iii) Transmissivity.

17 a. In a counter flow double pipe heat exchanger, oil is cooled from 85°C to 55°C by water
entering at 25°C.The mass flow rate of oil is 9,800 kg/hr and specific heat of oil is 2000 J/kg
K. The mass flow rate of water is 8,000kg/hr and specific heat of water is 4180 J/kg K.
Determine the heat exchanger area and heat transfer rate for overall heat transfer co-efficient of
280W/m2K.
OR

b. Gaseous hydrogen is stored in a rectangular container. The walls of the container area of steel
having 25 mm thickness. At the inner surface of the container, the molar concentration of
hydrogen in the steel is 1.2 kg mole/m3 while at the outer surface of the container the molar
concentration is zero. Calculate the molar diffusion flux for hydrogen through the steel. Take
diffusion coefficient for hydrogen in steel is 0.24 x 10-12 m2/s.

18 a. An open pan 210 mm in diameter & 75 mm deep contains water at 25°C & it is exposed to dry
atmospheric air. Calculate the diffusion co-efficient of water in air. Take the rate of diffusion
of water vapour is 8.52x10-4 kg/h.
OR

b.
Air at 30 ºC and atmospheric pressure flows in a 12 mm diameter tube of 1 metre length with a
velocity of 2.5 m/s. The inside surface of the tube contains a deposit of naphthalene. Determine
the average mass transfer co-efficient. Take diffusion co-efficient, Dab = 0.62 x 10-5 m2/s.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Derive the general heat conduction equation in Cartesian co-ordinates.
OR
b. A long steel cylinder 12 cm diameter and initially at 20 ºC is placed into furnace at 820 ºC with
h = 140 W/m2 K.Calculate the time required for the axis temperature to reach 800 ºC. Also
calculate the corresponding temperature at a radius of 5.4 cm at that time. Physical properties
of steel are k = 21 W/m K , α = 6.11 x 10 -6 m2/s.

(P.T.O)
SL.NO:1338
 4

20 a. When 0.6 kg of water per minute is passed through a tube of 2 cm diameter, it is found to be
heated from 20 ºC to 60 ºC. The heating is achieved by condensing steam on the surface of the
tube and subsequently the surface temperature of the tube is maintained at 90 ºC. Determine
the length of the tube required for fully developed flow.
OR

b.
CO2 and air experience equimolar counter diffusion in a circular tube whose length & diameter
are 1 m & 50 mm respectively. The system is at a total pressure of 1atm & a temperature of
25°C. The ends of the tube are connected to large chambers in which the species concentration
are maintained at fixed values. Partial pressure of CO2 at one end is 190 mm of Hg while at the
other end is 95 mm Hg. Estimate the mass transfer rate of CO2 & air through the tube.
*****

SL.NO:1338
SL.NO:1331 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC05
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

MECHANICAL BEHAVIOUR OF MATERIALS AND METALLURGY

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Discuss about solid solution hardening.

2 Tell the required properties of a tool steel.
3 List the advantages of the equilibrium diagrams.
4 Define hardenability.
5 Define Fretting corrosion.
6 Describe about precipitation hardening.
7 Discuss how to prevent the creep fractures.
8 Discuss about season cracking of brass.
9 Discuss a note on Dezincification.
10 Discuss about sintering.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Illustrate with a neat sketch of (i) Flame hardening (ii) induction hardening

OR
b. List the methods of corrosion protection and explain why each method is effective.

12 a. Illustrate with neat diagram and explain how to conduct fatigue test for the engineering materials.

OR
b. Describe with neat sketch of TTT diagram and mark the phases.

13 a. Illustrate with suitable treatment of age hardening process.

OR
b. Predict and explain in detail about the factors influencing corrosion.

14 a. Illustrate with neat sketch about the filament winding with its application.
(P.T.O)
 2
OR
b.
Describe the process of powder metallurgy method that used to produce automobile parts.

15 a.
Discuss the composition, properties and applications of aluminium based alloys.
OR
b. Explain the applications of Composite materials in various fields.

16 a. Explain the mechanisms of plastic deformation.

OR
b. Describe the mechanisms of plastic deformation of metals by slip and twinning.

17 a. Describe in detail the following (i) Full annealing (ii) stress relief annealing

OR

b. Describe strain hardening mechanism used to strengthen the steel.

18 a. Explain in detail about the mechanism of corrosion.

OR

b. Briefly explain about the term (i) Blending (ii) Compaction (iii) Sintering.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Discuss why powder metallurgy manufacturing method is very important for manufacturing
components in industries and compare with casting process.

OR

b. Determine in detail the corrosive protection method of Chemical Vapour Deposition (CVD).

20 a. List the purpose of heat treatment and briefly explain assess various stages of heat treatment process.

OR

b. Discuss about dezincification. Explain its cause and remedial measures.

*****

SL.NO:1331
SL.NO:1326 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC11
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

GAS DYNAMICS AND JET PROPULSION

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Write down the Stagnation enthalpy in terms static enthalpy and velocity of flow.
2 Give the relation between M* and M.
3 What is choked flow through nozzle?
4 Draw the variation of Mach number along the length of convergent and divergent duct when it
acts a venture meter.
5 What is Rayleigh line and Fanno line?
6 Write the expression for T0/T0*?
7 What is the Normal shock and Oblique shock?
8 Define specific Impulse.
9 Define the term: JATO and RATO.
10 Mention any two differences between compressible fluid and incompressible fluid.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Air flows in a duct with velocity of 210m/s. The temperature of air measured at a point along
the duct is 30°C and the air pressure is 5 bar. Determine (i) Stagnation Pressure (ii) Mach
number at that point.
OR
b. A plane travels with a velocity of 1,600km/h at an altitude where the pressure and temperature
are 40kPa and -35°C. Find mach angle and Mach number.

12 a. The area of cross section at the entry of a diffuser is 0.24 m2. Mach no. is 1.5 and temperature
of air 340 K. If the exit mach no. is 0.78, determine the velocity and temperature of air and the
area of cross section at exit for isentropic flow.

(P.T.O)
 2
OR
b. The Mach number and pressure at the entry of a subsonic diffuses are 0.9 and 4.165 bar.
Determine the area ratio required and the pressure rise of 17, the mach number at the exit of
diffuser is 0.2. Assume isentropic diffusion of air.

13 a. The conditions of a gas in a combustion chamber at entry are M1 = 0.28, T01 = 380 k, P01 = 4.9
bar. The heat supplied in the combustion chamber is 620 kJ / kg. Determine Mach number,
pressure and temperature of the gas at exit and also determine the stagnation pressure loss
during heating. Take γ = 1.4, CP = 1.22 kJ/kgK

OR
b. A circular duct passes 8.25 Kg/s of air at an exit Mach number of 0.5.the entry pressure and
temperature is 3.5 bar and 38°C respectively and coefficient of friction is 0.005. If the Mach
number at entry is 0.15,determine a) Diameter of the duct, b) Length of the duct, c) Pressure
and Temperature at the exit, d) Stagnation pressure loss

14 a. The Mach number of exit combustion chamber is 0.9 and ratio of stagnation temperature at
exit and entry is 3.74. If the pressure, temperature of gas at exit are 2.5 bar and 1000°C.
Determine a) Mach no at entry, b) Pressure and Temperature at entry, c) Heat supplied per kg
and maximum heat that can be supplied.
OR
b. A Convergent –Divergent Nozzle is designed to expand air from a reservoir in which the
pressure is 800Kpa and Temperature is 40 ºC, to give a mach number at exit of 2.5. The throat
area is 25cm2. Find (i) Mass flow rate (ii) Exit area (iii) When a normal shock appears at a
section where the area is 40cm2 .Determine Pressure and temperature at exit.

15 a. A Turbojet aircraft flies at 870 Km/hr at an altitude of 10000m. Diameter of the air inlet
section=0.74m, velocity of the gases at exit of the jet pipe =505m/s, Pressure at the exit of the
jet pipe=0.28 bar and the Air-fuel ratio=40. Calculate the following. (a) Air flow rate through
the engine, (b) Thrust, (c) Specific thrust, (d) Specific impulse, (e) Thrust power.

OR
b. Air is flowing into an insulated duct with a velocity of 150m/s. The temperature and pressure
at the inlet are 280°C and 28 bar respectively. Find the temperature at a section in the duct,
where the pressure is 15.7 bar. If the duct diameter is 15 cm and the friction factor is 0.005.
Find the distance between two sections.

16 a. Explain the various regions of flow with neat sketch.

OR

(P.T.O)
SL.NO:1326
 3
b. Derive the expression for mass flow rate in terms of Mach number.

17 a. Derive the relation for Sonic speed ratio.

OR

b. Explain the principle and operation of Pulsejet engine and write merits and demerits with
suitable diagram.

18 a. Compare solid and liquid propelled rocket systems. Also explain how a solid propellant engine
works.
OR

b. Derive the expression for Acoustic velocity in terms of temp of fluid.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. A CD Nozzle has an area ratio of 2 (Exit area to Throat). The air enters a nozzle at 7 bar and
100°C (stagnation conditions). The throat area is 6.5cm2. Determine Mass flow rate, Exit temp,
Exit Pr, Exit Mach no and Exit velocity for the following conditions.
a)      Sonic velocity at throat (consider a nozzle passage of Diverging section)
b)      Sonic velocity at throat (consider a Diffuser passage of Diverging section)

OR

b. An aircraft flies at 800 km/hr at an altitude of 11000 m (T = 216.65 K, P = 0.226 bar). The air
is reversibly compressed in an inlet diffuser. If the mach number at the exit of the diffuser is
0.35. Determine (a) entry of the Mach number (b) velocity, pressure and temperature of air at
the diffuser exit.

20 a. Air flows adiabatically in a pipe. A normal shock wave is formed. The Pressure and
Temperature of air before the shock are 150kN/m2 and 25 ºC respectively. The Pressure just
after the normal shock is 350kN/m2. Calculate (i) Mach number before the shock (ii) Mach
number, static temperature, velocity of air after the shock wave (iii) Increase in density of air
(iv) Loss of Stagnation Pressure of air (v) Change in Entropy.

OR

b. Derive the Equation for Rankine –Hugoniot equation

*****

SL.NO:1326
SL.NO:1319 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC03
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ENGINEERING MECHANICS
(Candidates admitted under 2017 Regulations-SCBCS)
Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Define Engineering mechanics.

2 Explain the equivalent forces
3 List the conditions where the roller supports are used.
4 Discuss the equilibrium of a rigid body in space.
5 Define centre of gravity
6 Explain perpendicular axis theorem.
7 Define friction.
8 Explain Coulomb’s law of friction.
9 Define displacement, velocity, and acceleration.
10 Define kinetic energy.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Two cables are tied together at ‘N’ and loaded as shown in figure.
Determine the tension in cables MN and ON,

O
60°

N
20°
M
500N

OR
P.T.O
 2
b. A fine light string ABCDE whose extremity ‘A’ is fixed, has weights W1 and W2 attached to
it at B and C. It passes round a small smooth pulley at D carrying a weight of 40 kg at the free
end E as shown in fig

12 a. The following forces act at a point O.

a. 10 N inclined 20˚ towards north east
b. 15 N towards north
c. 15 N towards north west and
d. 20N inclined at 30˚ towards south west
Find the magnitude and the direction of the resultant force by Analytical method.
OR
b. A smooth circular cylinder of weight 1000N and the radius 100 mm rests in a right-angled
groove whose sides are inclined at an angle of 300 and 600 to the horizontal as shown in the
fig. Determine the reaction RA and Rc at the points of contacts.

13 a. An overhanging beam carries the load as shown in the fig. Calculate the reaction at the both
the ends

OR
P.T.O
SL.NO:1319
 3
b. A plane truss is loaded and supported as shown in the fig. Determine the reaction at supports A
and B.

14 a. Determine the centroid of the shaded area shown in the fig. (All dimensions are in mm)

OR
b. Determine the centroid of the given area shown in the fig. (All dimensions are in mm

15 a. The pitch of a screw of a jack is 10mm and the mean diameter of the thread is 60mm and
length of the lever is 500mm. Calculate the effort required to lift a load of 10KN. Take µ =
0.08.
OR
b. A screw jack carries a load of 4000 N. The mean diameter of the screw rod is 50mm and the
pitch of the square threads is 20mm. If the Co-efficient of friction is 0.22, Calculate the torque
required to raise the load, and the efficiency of the machine.
16 a. A car accelerates uniformly from a speed of 30 km/h to a speed of 75 km/h in 5 seconds.
Determine the acceleration of the car and also the distance travelled during 5 seconds.
OR
P.T.O
SL.NO:1319
 4
b. A body starts with an initial velocity of 6 m/s and moves with a uniform acceleration of 1.5
m/s². Find the velocity of the body after 10 seconds. Also find the distance covered by the
body in 10 seconds.

17 a. A projectile is projected at angle of 45º with the horizontal. The horizontal range of particle is
2 km. Find i) the velocity of projection, ii) the maximum height attained by the projectile.
OR

b. A body of weight 500N is lying on a rough plane inclined at an angle of 35° with the
horizontal. It is supported by a force, P parallel to the plane as shown in figure. Determine the
minimum and maximum values of P, for which the equilibrium can exist, if the angle of
friction is 20º

18 a. Determine the co-odinates of centroid of the shaded area shown in figure.

OR

b. Determine the resultant of system of forces acting as shown in Fig.

P.T.O
SL.NO:1319
 5
Answer ALL questions
PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Two identical rollers each weighting 200N are placed in a trough as shown in fig. assuming all
the surface of contact are smooth, find the reactions developed at the point of contact surfaces.

OR

b. A simply supported beam of length 6 m, carries the uniformly increasing load of 1500 N/m at
one end to 4500 N/m at the other end, as shown in the fig. determine the reactions at the
supports.

20 a. Evaluate the moment of inertia of a T-section shown in the fig .about the X-X and Y-Y axis
passing through C.G of the section. All dimensions are in mm

OR
b. A 6m long ladder weighing 180 N is placed at 60º to the ground and is resting a vertical wall.
The man weighs 700 N. The co-efficient of friction between the ladder and ground is 0.4 and
that between the ladder and the wall is 0.25. How far the man can climb so that the ladder
does not slip.
*****

SL.NO:1319
SL.NO:1310 SUBJECT CODE:17PHBS08
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

FUNDAMENTALS OF NANO SCIENCE

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Differentiate SEM and TEM.

2 Restate about Quantum dots.
3 Describe multi-layered materials.
4 Explain the contamination time arise in Attritor milling.
5 Discuss sputtering and its types.
6 Describe about the pattern transferring in lithography.
7 Describe briefly about dip-pen lithography.
8 Discuss chemical contamination.
9 Discuss characterization of Nanomaterials.
10 Discuss the principle of SIMS.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Demonstrate the applications of Nanomaterials in various fields.
OR
b. Demonstrate the properties, synthesis methods and applications of multi-layered materials.

12 a. Demonstrate electro-deposition method for synthesis of nanostructures.

OR
b. Describe the sputtering technique in nanoparticle synthesis.

13 a. Illustrate the facilities and service required for the nano research laboratory.
OR
b. Demonstrate the construction and working of Scanning Probe Microscopy (SPM) with a neat
sketch.
P.T.O
 2
14 a.
(i) Discuss the term Nano scale materials.(ii) Cite the characteristics of Nano scale materials.
OR
b. Explain how the Optical, Thermal and Magnetic properties of Nanomaterials vary with
geometry.

15 a. Explain in detail about the implications of Nanoscience and technology for Biology and
Engineering.
OR
b. Give an overview of photolithography.

16 a. Discuss e-beam lithography.

OR
b.
Differentiate wet and dry etching in lithography.

17 a.
Discuss in brief about the preparation environment of Clean room.
OR

b. Describe various factors that influence the selection of vibration isolators.

18 a. Discuss the working of ESCA with its applications and give its advantages and disadvantages.
OR
b. Summarize the modes of Scanning Near field Optical Microscopy (SNOM) and its
applications.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. (i) Classify Nanostructured materials with suitable examples. (ii)Analyze the effects of
nanotization on the properties of materials.
OR

b. Demonstrate the optical/UV lithography method of device fabrication.

20 a. Explain the properties, synthesis methods and applications of (i) Ultra-thin films (ii) Multi-
layered materials.
OR

b. Explain in detail various factors to be considered for a Clean room. Based on the above,
provide the safety measures.
*****

SL.NO:1310
SL.NO:1300 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC09
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

DESIGN OF MACHINE ELEMENTS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Identify the alloying element which improves the Hardenability of steels.

2 Describe shortly about Spindle.
3 List out the requirements of a shaft coupling.
4 Define a Turn buckle and where it is used.
5 Name the various types of springs.
6 Define Bearing.
7 Define Flywheel.
8 Summarize the classifications of machine design based on methods.
9 Describe shortly about the specification of couplings.
10 Summarize the required properties of bearing materials.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. An unknown weight falls from a distance of 15mm on to a collar rigidly attached to the lower end of a
vertical bar 2.5m long and 500 mm2 cross section. The maximum instantaneous extension is 2 mm
.Determine the corresponding stress and the value of the weight falling. Take E=2x105 N/mm2.

OR p.t.o
 2
b. Consider a plate subjected to a force of 60000N. The width of the plate is 60mm and diameter of the
holes is 10mm. Determine the thickness of the plate, if the stress is not to exceed 150N/mm2.

12 a. Determine maximum principal stresses and maximum shear stresses for a crankshaft loaded as shown
in fig.

OR
b. A factory line shaft is 4.5m long and is to transmit 75kW at 200rpm. The allowable stress in shear is
49MPa and the maximum allowable twist is 1ο in a length of 20 diameters. Determine the required
shaft diameter.

13 a. A flat plate of width 60mm has a central hole of 10mm diameter .If the plate is subjected to an axial
tensile load of 10KN. Determine the thickness of plate. Assume the yield point stress 300Mpa and
factor of safety as 2.5.

OR
b. Calculate the basic dimensions of a protective type flange coupling for the following requirements:
Power to be transmitted = 10kw, Speed of shaft =960 rpm. Select suitable materials.

14 a. The cover of a pressure vessel is held in place by ten M20 bolts. The pressure is 1.4 Mpa and the
effective area of the exposed cover is 0.2 m2.Ratio of bolt stiffness to parts stiffness is 1/4. Each bolt is
tightened initially before the pressure is applied to 27 KN. Determine whether the joints will separate.

p.t.o
 3
OR
b. A steel bolt M16x2 is 300mm long and carries an impact load of 5000N-mm.if the thread
stops adjacent to the nut and E=2.1x105Mpa, Determine a).The stress is root area
b).The stress if shank area is reduced to root area. What can be inferred from above case?

15 a. Calculate the size of the weld for the connection shown in figure below; if the tensile load P
acting on the connection is 120kN. Assume permissible shear stress on the weld is 75Mpa.

OR
b. A plate 60mm wide and 10mm thick is welded to another plate by two parallel fillet welds as
shown in fig. Determine the safe load that the weld joint can carry. The allowable working
stress in shear for weld material is 75N/mm2.

16 a. A spring made from a wire of 1.25mm diameter and 750N/mm2 as its yield strength has a
mean diameter of 12.5mm and 14 active coils. Calculate (i) Stiffness of spring (ii) Solid height
assuming that the ends are squared and ground. Take the modulus of rigidity as 0.85×105
N/mm2
OR
b. A torsion spring is made of 6mm monel metal wire wound with an inside diameter of
45mm,Assuming a safety factor, Calculate the (a)maximum force which can be applied with a
55mm leverage and (b) the corresponding deflection in degrees if spring has 4.5 coils.
p.t.o
 4
17 a. Calculate the dimensions of a cantilever leaf spring to absorb 600N-m energy without
exceeding a deflection of 150mm and a stress of 800 N/mm2 .The length of the spring is
600mm.The material of the spring is steel.

OR

b. Calculate the dimensions of a suitable ball bearing to support the overhung countershaft. The
shaft is 60mm diameter and rotates at 1250rpm.The bearings are to have 99% reliability
corresponding to a life of 4000hrs.The bearing is subjected to an equivalent radial load of
6000N.

18 a. Determine the maximum tensile stress in the thin rim of a steel flywheel rotating at 600rpm.
The mean radius of rim is 1500mm. The flywheel rim is 200mm thick and 300mm wide. The
area of the cross section of the rim is 0.06m2 and each of the six spokes is constant in cross
section area of 0.01m2. Also find the stress in each spoke.

OR

b. A bolt is subjected to a tensile load of 25 KN and a shear load of 10 KN. Determine the diameter of the
bolt according to:
A. Maximum principal stress theory
B. Maximum principal strain theory
C. Maximum shear stress theory
Assume factor of safety as 2.5, yield point stress in simple tension = 300N/mm2 Poisson’s ratio = 0.25.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Determine the maximum stress induced in the following cases taking stress concentration into account.
Case 1. A rectangular plate of 10mm thick and 50mm width with a hole of 20mm diameter under an
axial load of 10 kN.
Case 2. A circular shaft with a step under a bending moment of 50 Nm.

OR

b. A cast iron cylinder head is fastened to a cylinder of 500mm bore with 8 stud bolts. The maximum
pressure inside the cylinder is 2MPa. The stiffness of part is thrice the stiffness of the bolt. Determine
the initial tightening load so that the point is leak proof at maximum pressure? Also choose a suitable
bolt for the above application.

p.t.o
 5

20 a. Determine the dimensions of a leaf spring for a truck to the following specifications.
Total load on the springs = 140kN
Span of spring- =1000mm
Number of springs- = 4
Maximum number of leaves=10
Permissible tensile stress = 600N/mm2
Permissible deflection- = 80mm
Young’s modulus of the spring = 200kN/mm2
Material for spring =Chromium Vanadium Steel

OR

b. The speed of a C.I flywheel is limited to 5 m/s at mean radius .The flywheel runs at 50rpm and
supplied 12000 N-m energy during punching .The actual punching times occupies 30°rotations
of wheel and speed drops by 20%. Determine the cross section of the rim and check the same
for maximum induced stress.

*****

SL.NO:1300
SL.NO:1293 SUBJECT CODE:17MEEC22
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE - WASTE ENERGY CONVERSION

TECHNOLOGIES

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 How the wastes are separated?

2 Define MSW.
3 What are the types of composting methods?
4 State anaerobic composting.
5 What is pyrolysis?
6 Define the concept of recycling the waste.
7 What is MSW?
8 What is natural gas?
9 How the waste does harmful to environment?
10 What are the rules and regulations for BMW in India?
Answer Any FIVE questions
Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Explain in detail about the sources, types and composition of waste.
OR
b. What are the types of waste and explain its presence in pie chart.

12 a. Discuss about recycling processes solid waste.

OR
b. Explain the methods adopted in minimizing and recycling of MSW.
13 a. What are the types of incinerators and explain any one type in detail.
OR
b. Discuss in detail about methods and sitting considerations of landfilling process.

14 a. Discuss in detail about medical and pharmaceutical waste incinerations.

OR
b. Explain the advantages and health impacts of incineration process in detail.
p.t.o
 2
15 a. Compare between pyrolysis and incineration processes explain in detail.
OR
b. Discuss in detail about the recycling process from waste.

16 a. Explain in detail about anaerobic digestion of sewage.

OR
b. Describe about refuse-derived fuel and industrial waste.

17 a. Describe about production and utilization of landfill gas.

OR

b. Discuss in detail of any one case study of commercial waste to energy plants.

18 a. Describe in detail about the eco-technological alternatives for waste to energy conversions in
India
OR

b. Explain the rules and regulations formulated for handling and disposal of BMW in India

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Draw and explain in details with a neat flow chart about waste processing methods.
OR

b. Explain with diagram on methods, sitting considerations, layout and preliminary designs of
landfill.

20 a. Describe about the strategies involved in reducing the environmental and health impacts of
incineration and pyrolysis process.
OR

b. Discuss in detail about biogas production from anaerobic digesters and with a neat sketch
explain any two types of biogas digesters.
*****

SL.NO:1293
SL.NO:1288 SUBJECT CODE:17MBHS09
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY RIGHTS AND ALTERNATE DISPUTE

RESOLUTION

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Mention the essentials characteristics of an industrial design

2 List four types of intellectual properties.
3 Define intellectual property in technology
4 Define patents.
5 What are the infringement actions
6 What rights does a patent provide?
7 Is a patent valid in every country?
8 How does copyright differ from patent and trademark law?
9 What is trade secret and how is it protected?
10 What do you understand by IPR strength in India

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Illustrate the following i) Copyright ii) Trademarks
OR
b. Demonstrate briefly International Treaties and Conventions on IPRs

12 a. Formulate and explain IPR in India and abroad and its limitations. Outline the steps in nature
of IP.
OR
b. Discuss various IP rights.

13 a. Explain the procedure to select and evaluate trademarks

OR
b. Explain the Digital Content Protection
(p.t.o)
 2
14 a. Elucidate in which way does WTO deffer from WIPO with suitable example.
OR
b.
Explain the trading norms of WTO towards IPR

15 a. Explain the differences between Trademark and Geographical Indication Act.

OR
b. Discuss the principles of Copyright Act.

16 a. Eloborate the role of IPR in protection against unfair competition

OR
b. Describe the following: i) Copyright ii) Patent iii) Trademark

17 a. Explain the evolution of IP regime in India with suitable examples.

OR

b. Discuss International Patent Law

18 a. Discuss the patent ownership.

OR

b. Discuss on Design Act.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Define patent and the application process in detail with illustration

OR
b. Campare and contrast the emerging issues of IPR and discuss new devlopments and
International Patent Law

20 a. Write examples for TRIPs agreement and Summerize enforcement measures in IPR with
suitable example
OR

b. Explain the evolution of IP regime in India and formulate the structure of IP licensing and
Indian competition law with examples
*****

SL.NO:1288
SL.NO:1276 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC15
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

FINITE ELEMENT ANALYSIS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Define Global co-ordinates?

2 Name any Four FEA software’s.
3 Define finite element analysis?
4 Define Traction Force (T).
5 Define shape function.
6 State Glaerkin's method.
7 Define LST element.
8 Define temperature effects.
9 What do you mean by higher order element?
10 List the purpose of isoparametric elements?

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. A linear elastic spring is subjected to a force of 1000N as shown in Fig.
Calculate the displacement and the potential energy of spring.

OR
b. Solve following system of equations using Gauss elimination method.
x1 – x2 + x3 = 1
-3x1 + 2x2 – 3x3 = -6
2x1 – 5x2 + 4x3 = 5

(P.T.O)
 2

12 a. Solve following system of equations using Gauss elimination method.

2X1+4X2+2X3=15
2X1+X2+2X3=-5
4X1+X2-2X3 = 0
OR
b. The following differential equation is available for a physical phenomenon.
d2y/dx2 + 50 = 0 , 0< x <10
Trial function is , y = a1 x (10 – x )
Boundary conditions are, y (0) = 0
y (10) = 0
Find the value of the parameter a1 by the following methods:
(i). Point collocation (ii) Least squares

13 a. Determine the shape functions N 1, N 2, and N3 at the interior point P for the triangular element
shown in fig.

OR
b. 1

Evaluate the integral by using Gaussian quadrature ∫

−1
x 2 dx.

14 a. 1
x
Evaluate the integral by applying 3 point Gaussian quadrature.
∫ cos 2dx
−1

OR
b. Evaluate the Cartesian co-ordinate of the point P which has local co-ordinates e =0.6 h = 0.8 as shown
in fig

(P.T.O)
SL.NO:1276
 3

15 a. For the Isoparametric four noded quadrilateral element shown in fig. Determine the Cartesian co-
ordinates of point P which has local co-ordinates e =0.5 and h = 0.5.

OR
b. Derive the temperature distribution in circular pin (ᴓ=1mm and length=50mm) one end at
300°C and end is free . Assume K= 200W/M²°C and Tα=30°C

16 a. A steel rod of diameter d=2cm, length l= 5cm and thermal conductivity k=50 W/m°C is
exposed at one end to a constant temperature of 320°C . The other end is in ambient air of
temperature 20°C with a convection coefficient h=100 W/M²°C. Determine the temperature at
the midpoint of the rod.
OR
b. Calculate the temperature distribution in a one dimension fin with physical properties given in the fig.
The fin is rectangular in shape and is 120mm long and 40 mm wide and 10 mm thick. Assume that
convection heat loss occurs from the end of the fin. Use two elements. Take k=0.3W/mm² °C, h=
1x10¯³ W/mm²°C, T α=20 °C

17 a. A metallic fin, with thermal conductivity K = 360 W/m°C, 0.1 cm thick and 10 cm long,
extends from a plane wall whose temperature is 235°C. determine the temperature distribution
and amount of heat transferred from the fin to the air at 20°C with h=9 W/m2°C. take width of
the fin to be 1m.
OR

b. Derive stress strain relationship matrix for two dimensional elements.

18 a. Explain in detail: Weighted residual methods.

OR

b. Extend the expression for the stiffness matrix in finite element method.

(P.T.O)
SL.NO:1276
 4

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Consider a bar as shown in fig. An axial load of 200 kN is applied at point P. Take A1 = 2400 mm2, E1
= 70 x 10 9 N / m2, A2 = 600 mm2 E2 = 200 x 10 9 N / m2.
Calculate the following: (a) The nodal displacement at point P. (b) Stress in each material.(c)Reaction.

OR

b. The following differential equation is available for a physical phenomenon.

d2y/dx2 + 500x2 = 0 , 0< x <1
Trial function is , y = a1 (x-x3 )+a2 (x-x5)
Boundary conditions are, y (0) = 0
y (10) = 0
Find the value of the parameter a1 by the following methods:
(i) Subdomain collocation; (ii) Galerkin method.

20 a. A four noded rectangular element is shown in fig. Determine the following.

i. Jacobian matrix ii. Strain-Displacement matrix; iii. Element stresses.
Take E = 2 x 105 N/mm2; γ = 0.25 u = [ 0, 0, 0.003, 0.004, 0.006, 0.004, 0, 0]T e =0and h = 0.
Assume plane stress condition

OR

b. Consider the isoparametric quadrilateral element with nodes 1 to 4 at (5,5), (11,7), (12,5) & (4,10)
respectively. Estimate the jacobian matrix
*****

SL.NO:1276
SL.NO:1269 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC08
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

DYNAMICS OF MACHINES

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Examine what is the equivalent spring stiffness?

2 Define the term Co-efficient of fluctuation of speed.
3 Define tractive force.
4 State how governors are classified?
5 Define power of governor
6 Define controlling force.
7 Differentiate a flywheel from a governor.
8 Summarise the methods for force balancing of linkages?
9 Determine the principle of Rayleigh’s method of finding natural frequency of vibrations?
10 State the conditions for dynamic balancing.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a.
The crank and connecting rod of a reciprocating engine are 200 mm and 700mm respectively. The
crank is rotating in clockwise directions at 120 rad/sec. Find with the help of Klein’s constructions: 1.
Velocity and accelerations of the piston, 2. Velocity and accelerations of the mid point of the
connecting rod and 3. Angular velocity and angular accelerations of the connecting rod, at the instant
when the crank is at 30o to I.D.C.

OR
b.
A single cylinder vertical engine has a bore of 300mm and a stroke of 400mm. The connecting rod is
1000mm long. The mass of reciprocating parts is 140Kg.On the expansion stroke with the crank at 30°
from the TDC, the gas pressure is 0.7MPa. If the engine runs at 250rpm determine (i) Net force acting
on the piston (ii) Resultant load on the gudgeon pin (iii)Thrust on the cylinder walls (iv) The speed
above which other things remaining same the gudgeon pin loads would be reversed in direction

(P.T.O)
 2
12 a.
A single cylinder internal combustion engine working on the four stroke cycle develops 75 KW at 360
r.p.m. The fluctuation of energy can be assumed to be 0.9 times the energy developed per cycle. If the
fluctuation of speed is not to exceed 1% either way from the mean speed and the maximum centrifugal
stress in the flywheel is to be 5.5 MPa, estimate the mean diameter and the cross-sectional area of the
rim. The material of the rim has density of 7.2 Mg/m³.

OR
b.
Four masses m1, m2, m3 and m4 are 200Kg, 300Kg, 240Kg and 260Kg respectively. The
corresponding radii of rotation are 0.2m, 0.15m, 0.25m and 0.3m respectively and the angles between
successive masses are 45°, 75° and 135°. Find the position and magnitude of the balance mass required
if its radius of rotation is 0.2m.

13 a.

A single cylinder reciprocating engine has speed 240rpm , Stroke 300mm ,mass of reciprocating parts
50Kg, mass of revolving parts at 150mm radius and 37Kg.If two- third of the reciprocating parts and
all the revolving parts are to be balanced, find 1. The balance mass required at a radius of 400 mm, and
2. The residual unbalanced unbalance force when the crank has rotated 60° from TDC.
OR
b.
A four cylinder vertical engine has crank 150 mm long. The planes of rotation of the first, second and
fourth cranks are 400 mm, 200 mm and 200 mm respectively from the third crank and their
reciprocating masses are 50 kg, 60 kg and 50 kg respectively. Find the mass of the reciprocating parts
for the third cylinder and the relative angular positions of the cranks in order that the engine may be in
complete primary balance.

14 a. Describe with line sketch a universal dynamic balancing machine indicating how balanced masses
use found out.
OR
b.
A shaft of diameter 10 mm carries at its centre a mass of 12 kg. It is supported by two short bearings,
the centre distance of which is 400 mm. Find the whirling speed: (a) Neglecting the mass of the shaft,
and (b) considering the mass of the shaft. The density of shaft material is 7500 kg/m3. Take E=200
GN/m2.

15 a.
A vibrating system consists of a mass of 8 kg, spring of stiffness 5.6 N/mm and a dashpot of damping
coefficient of 40 N/m/s. Find: (a) the critical damping coefficient, (b) the damping factor, (c) the
natural frequency of damped vibration, (d) the logarithmic decrement, (e) the ratio of two consecutive
amplitude, and (f) the number of cycle after which the original amplitude is reduced to 20 percent.

(P.T.O)
SL.NO:1269
 3
OR
b.
A machine 100kg has a 20kg rotor with 0.5mm eccentricity. The mounting springs have S= 85×103
N/m. The damping ratio is 0.02. The operating speed is 600 rpm and the unit is constrained to move
vertically. Find: dynamic amplitude of the machine and the force transmitted to the supports.

16 a.
A mass of 50 Kg suspended from a spring produces a statical deflection of 17mm and when in motion
it experiences viscous damping force of value 250N at a velocity of 0.3m/s. Calculate the periodic time
of damped vibration. If the mass is then subjected to a periodic disturbing force having a maximum
value of 260N and making 2cycles/s, find the amplitude of ultimate motion.

OR
b.
A body of mass 20 Kg is suspended from a spring which deflects 15mm under this load. Calculate the
frequency of free vibrations and verify that a viscous damping force amounting to approximately
1000N at a speed of 1m/s is just sufficient to make the motion a periodic.

17 a.
An industrial machine weighing 445kg is supported on a spring with a statically deflection of 0.5cm.If
the machine has rotating imbalance of 25kg-cm; determine the force transmitted at 1200 r.p.m and the
dynamic amplitude at the speed.

OR

b.
A Proell governor has equal arms of length 300mm. The upper and lower ends of the arms are pivoted
on the axis of the governor. The extension arms of the lower links are each 80mm long and parallel to
the axis when the radii of rotation of the balls are 150mm and 200mm.The mass of each ball is 10kg
and the mass of the central load is 100kg.Determine the range of speed of the governor.

18 a.

An aero plane makes a complete half circle of 50 meter radius to the left, when flying at 200 km/hr.
The rotary engine and the propeller of the plane has a mass of 400kg and radius of gyrations of 0.3 m..
The engine rotates at 2400 r.p.m clock wise when viewed from the rear. Find gyroscopic couple on the
aircraft and state its effect on it. Show gyroscopic couple effect by sketch.
OR

b.
An engine flywheel has a mass of 6.5 tonnes and the radius of gyration is 2m. If the maximum and
minimum speeds are 120rpm and 118rpm respectively find the maximum fluctuation of energy.

(P.T.O)
SL.NO:1269
 4

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a.

The lengths of crank and connecting rod of a horizontal reciprocating engine are 200 mm and 1.0 m
respectively. The crank is rotating at 400 r.p.m. When the crank has turned 30º from the inner dead
centre, the difference of pressure between the cover end and piston end is 0.4N/mm2. If the mass of the
reciprocating parts is 100kg and cylinder bore is 0.4m, then calculate: (i) Inertia force, (ii). Force on
piston, (iii). Piston effort, (iv) Thrust on the sides of cylinder walls, (v) Thrust in the connecting rod,
(vi) Crank effort and (vii) Turning moment on the crank shaft. Neglect the effect of piston rod diameter
and frictional resistance.
OR

b.

A two cylinder uncoupled locomotive has inside cylinders 0.6 m apart. The radius of each crank is 300
mm and is at right angles. The revolving mass per cylinder is 250 kg and the reciprocating mass per
cylinder is 300 kg. The whole of the revolving and two-third of the reciprocating masses are to be
balanced and the balanced masses are to be placed, in the planes of rotation of the driving wheels a
radius of 0.8 m. The driving wheel is are 2 m in diameter and 1.5 m apart. If the speed of the engine is
80 km/hr, determine hammer blow, maximum variation in tractive force, and maximum swaying
couple.

20 a. The flywheel of an engine driving a dynamo has mass of 180 kg and has a radius of gyration of
30mm. The shaft at the flywheel end has an effective length of 250 mm and is 50 mm
diameter. The armature mass is 120 kg and has a radius of gyration of 22.5mm. The dynamo
shaft has a diameter of 43mm and an equivalent length of 200 mm. neglecting the inertia of the
shaft and coupling, calculate the frequency of the torsional vibrations and position of node.
The modulus of rigidity for the shaft material is 80 G/Nm2.

OR

b. A single cylinder vertical petrol engine of total mass 300kg is mounted upon a steel chassis
frame and caused a vertical static deflection of 3.4 mm. The reciprocating parts of engine have
a mass of 15kg and move through a vertical stroke of 150 mm with S.H.M. A dashpot is
provided, the damping resistance of which is directly proportional to the velocity and amounts
to 1000 N/m/s. Determine :(a). the speed of the driving shaft at which resonance will occur,
and (b). the amplitude of steady state forced vibrations when the driving shaft of the engine
rotates at 400 r.p.m.

*****

SL.NO:1269
SL.NO:1265 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC07
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

THERMAL ENGINEERING

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 List the different components of a steam power plant working on Rankine cycle.
2 List out the effects of friction on the flow through a steam nozzle.
3 List the factors that affect air standard efficiency of a Diesel cycle.
4 Define Cetane number. List its significance.
5 List four significant properties of a good refrigerant.
6 List the various components used of a simple vapour absorption system.
7 State the general comfort conditions during summer and winter.
8 What is dry air and moist air?
9 Indicate the application of reciprocating compressors in industry.
10 When do the dry bulb, wet bulb and dew point temperatures become equal?

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
A steam power plant is supplied with dry saturated steam at a pressure of 12 bar and exhausts
11 a.
into a condenser at 0.1 bar. Calculate the Rankine efficiency.
OR
In an Otto cycle, air at 1 bar and 290K is compressed isentropically until the pressure is 15 bar.
The heat is added at constant volume until the pressure rises to 40 bar, calculate the air
b.
standard efficiency and the mean effective pressure for the cycle, take Cv =0.717 kJ/kgK and
Runiv= 8.314 kJ/kg mole K.

A closed cycle gas turbine unit operating with maximum and minumum temperatures of 700°
12 a.
C and 15° C has a pressure ratio of 8:1. Calculate the ideal cycle efficiency and the work ratio.
OR
b. Derive the expression of COP of reversed Carnot cycle.
p.t.o
 2
The sling psychrometer in a laboratory test recorded the following readings :
Dry bulb temperature = 35°C : Wet bulb temperature = 25°C.
Calculate the following :
(i) Specific humidity (ii) Relative humidity.
13 a.
(iii) Vapour density in air (iv) Dew point temperature.
(v) Enthalpy of mixture per kg of dry air.
Take atmospheric pressure = 1.0132 bar.

OR
Which type of air – conditioner system is suitable for your college auditorium? Why? Explain
b.
with details.

14 a. Explain the method of pressure compounding in a steam turbine. What are its benefits?
OR
b. Compare between Impulse turbine and Reaction turbine.

15 a. Compare Otto, Diesel and Dual Cycles and distinct them.

OR
b. Describe the working principle of simple carburetor, with a neat sketch

16 a. Explain lubrication system of an internal combustion engine.

OR
b. Explain the construction and working of a sliding vane compressor and axial flow compressor.

How does the practical vapour compression refrigeration cycle differ from ideal basic vapour
17 a.
compression refrigeration cycle? Explain it.
OR
b. Describe vapour absorption refrigeration in Ammonia –water system with neat sketch.

18 a. Describe the working of a winter air-conditioning system.with a neat sketch.

OR
b. Explain the different types of Air Distribution systems.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
In a Rankine cycle, the steam at inlet to turbine is saturated at a pressure of 35 bar and the
exhaust pressure is 0.2 bar. Determine :
19 a.
(i) The pump work, (ii) The turbine work, (iii) The Rankine efficiency, (iv) The condenser heat
flow, (v) The dryness at the end of expansion. Assume flow rate of 9.5 kg/s.
OR
Derive an expression for the volumetric efficiency of reciprocating air compressors and
b.
explain why it is less than unity.
p.t.o
 3
The moist air is at 45°C dry bulb temperature and 30°C wet bulb temperature.
Calculate:
a) Vapour pressure
b) Dew point temperature
c) Specific enthalpy
20 a.
d) Relative humidity
e) Degree of saturation
f) Vapour density
g) Enthalpy of mixture.

OR
Explain with the help of neat diagram a Regenerative cycle with double feed heaters. Also
b.
derive the expression for its thermal efficiency.
*****
SL.NO:1265
SL.NO:1258 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC04
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

MANUFACTURING TECHNOLOGY

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Tell the use of back rake angle cutting tool.

2 Define tool life.
3 List the significance of a semi automatic lathe.
4 List the speciality of a slotter in comparison to a shaper.
5 List the various broaching operations.
6 Define center less grinding.
7 Define truing.
8 Differentiate orthogonal and oblique cutting.
9 Discuss sensitive hand feed.
10 Differentiate band saw and reciprocating saw.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Illustrate the nomenclature of a single point cutting tool with sketches.
OR
b. Examine the factors affecting tool life in detail.

12 a. Demonstrate the working principle of swiss type automatic lathe with suitable sketch
OR
b. Illustrate work holding devices applicable in lathe with a neat sketch.

13 a. Illustrate the various milling operations. Explain any four with neat sketch.
OR
b. Demonstrate the various types of gear finishing operations.

14 a. Illuatrate with neat sketch, the working principle of circular saw.

OR
b. Illustrate the process of reconditioning of grinding wheels in detail.

15 a. Explain the properties of good cutting fluid. p.t.o

 2
OR
b. Explain the nomenclature of twist drill and define the various elements of twist drill.

16 a. Differentiate and contrast the shaper with planer.

OR
b. Discuss the classification of a broaching operation and explain in detail.

17 a. List the various broach tools? Explain with neat sketches.

OR
b. Explain the lapping process in detail.

18 a. Explain the various types of chucks with neat sketch.

OR
b. Explain the different types of cutting tools used in lathe.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Demonstrate the working principle of turret lathe with a neat sketch.
OR
b. Differentiate different types of continuous broaching machine and explain with neat sketch.

20 a. Demonstrate the with neat sketch, the working of principle of gear hobbing process.
OR
b. Discuss with neat sketch, the working of vertical boring machine.
*****
SL.NO:1258
SL.NO:1242 SUB CODE: 17MABS11
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
COMMON TO MECHANICAL AND AUTO

NUMERICAL METHODS FOR MECHANICAL SCIENCES

(Candidates admitted under 2017 Regulations-SCBCS)
Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1
What is meant by diagonally dominant?

2
Write Gauss elimination method to solve AX = B .

3
When Bessel’s formula is to be used?

4
Write the second order divided difference formula.

5 1
Write the basic principle for deriving Simpson’s Rule.
3

6
What is the Truncation error in Trapezoidal rule?

7
dy
Mention modified Euler algorithm to solve = f ( x, y ) , y ( x o ) = y o at x = x 0 + h
dx

8
dy
Write down Euler algorithm to the differential equation = f ( x, y )
dx

9
∂ 2u 1 ∂u
Write Bender-Schmidt scheme to solve =
∂x 2 α 2 ∂t

10 What is point wise solution of a differential equation?

P.T.O
 2

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a.

Solve e x − 4 x = 0 by Newton’s Method.

OR
b.
Find a real root of x3 − 9 x + 1 =0 that lies between 2 and 3 by the Method of False position, correct
to 3 decimal places.

12 a.
Solve the following system of equations by Gauss Jacobi method
10 x − 2 y + z = 12
x + 9 y − z = 10
2 x − y + 11z = 20

OR
b.
Using Newton’s Divided Difference Formula to find the value of log10 656 . Given
log10 654 = 2.8156, log10 658 = 2.8182, log10 659 = 2.8189, and log10 661 = 2.8202 .

13 a.
From the following table values of x and f ( x ) , determine y(42)

x 20 25 30 35 40 45
f ( x) 354 332 291 260 231 204

OR
b.
Apply Lagrange’s formula inversely, to obtain the root of the equation f ( x ) = 0 given that
f ( 0 ) = −4, f (1) = 1, f ( 3) = 29 and f ( 4 ) = 52.

P.T.O
SL.NO:1242
 3

14 a. Identify first and second derivatives of the function y at the point

x = 1.2 using the following data.

x 1 2 3 4 5
y 0 1 5 6 8

OR
b.
Identify the first two derivatives of y at x = 54 from the following data.
x 50 51 52 53 54
y 3.6840 3.7084 3.7325 3.7563 3.7798

15 a.
1
dx
Use of Romberg’s method, to compute I = ∫ correct to 4 decimal places. Hence find log e 2 .
0
1+ x

OR
b.
dy
Solve + y − x 2 = 0, y (0.2) = 0.8213, Find y (0.3) correct to four decimal places by using
dx
Modified Euler’s method.

16 a.
Use the Taylor series method, to find approximate values of y and z corresponding to x = 0.1,
dy dz
given that y (0) = 2, z (0) = 1 by solving = x + z and = x − y 2 .
dx dx
OR
b.
dy dz
Apply the Runge-Kutta method, tabulate the solution of the system = x + z, = x − y,
dx dx
y (0) = 0, z (0) = 1, h = 0.1. Find y (0.1), z (0.1)

17 a.
Solve the equation y′′ − xy =
0 given y (0) =
−1, y (1) =
2 by finite difference method taking n=2.

P.T.O
SL.NO:1242
 4
OR

b.
∂u ∂ 2u
Solve= , 0 ≤ x ≤ 1, t ≥ 0 with u ( x,0) = x(1 − x), 0 < x < 1 and
∂t ∂x 2
u (0, t ) = 0 = u (1, t ), ∀ t > 0 using explicit method with ∆x =0.2 for three steps.

18 a.
Solve numerically utt = 4u xx with boundary conditions u (0, t )= 0= u (4, t ), ut ( x,0) = 0 and
= x(4 − x)
u ( x,0)

OR

b.
2 2
1
Using the Simpson’s rule, evaluate ∫ ∫ x + y dxdy by dividing into two equal sub intervals.
1 1

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )

19 a.
Using Gauss – Jordan method to solve the following system.
x + 2y + z = 3
2 x + 3 y + 3z =10
3x − y + 2 z = 13

OR

b.
Given the data
x 0 1 2 3 4
y 2 3 12 35 78
Construct the cubic polynomial of x, using Newton’s Backward Interpolation formula.

P.T.O
SL.NO:1242
 5

20 a.
Identify the first, second and third derivatives of f ( x ) at x = 1.5 if
x 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0
f ( x ) 3.375 7.000 13.625 24.000 38.875 59.000

OR

b.
dy 2 2
Using Modified Euler method, Find y (0.1) , y (0.2), given =
x + y , y (0) =
1.
dx

*****

SL.NO:1242
SL.NO:1241 SUBJECT CODE:17MEEC31
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE-ENGINEERING MECHANICS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 List the conditions of equilibrium of a particle in plane.

2 Define moment of inertia of a body.
3 Define principal moment of inertia.
4 Define the efficiency of the screw jack.
5 Write the equation relating angular displacement and linear displacement.
6 Define particle in space.
7 Explain equilibrium conditions for rigid bodies.
8 Three concurrent forces are acting on body. Discuss the condition for static equilibrium.
9 Explain open and cross belting.
10 Discuss the type of thread is used in screw jack

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. The resultant of the two forces when they act at right angles is 10kN, whereas they act at an
angle of 600, the resultant is 12kN. Determine the magnitude of the two forces.
OR
b. A force has components Fx = 100 N; Fy = 65 N ; Fz = -80 N. Find the magnitude of the
resultant force and the angle θx, θy and θz from the axis X, Y and Z.
p.t.o
 2
12 a. The five forced F1, F2, F3, F4 and F5 are acting at a point on a body as shown in fig. And the
body is in equilibrium, if F1 = 18 N, F2 = 22.5 N, F3 = 15 N and F4 = 30 N, find the forces F5
in magnitude and direction.

Q 20°
30°

40
P

kg
OR 450N

b. Determine the resultant of system of forces acting as shown in Fig.

13 a. An overhanging beam carries the load as shown in the fig. Calculate the reaction at the both
the ends

OR
b. Solve the A simply supported beam of length 5 m, carries the uniformly distributed load and
the two point load as shown in the fig. calculate the reactions RA and RB.

p.t.o
 3
14 a. Determine the reaction at supports A and B of the truss as shown in the fig.

OR
b. Determine the centroid of the shaded area shown in the fig. Assume circle is in centre of the
rectangle (All dimensions are in mm)

15 a. Determine the centroid of the given section shown in the fig. (All dimensions are in mm)

OR
b. Determine the co-odinates of centroid of the shaded area shown in figure.

p.t.o
 4
16 a. A pulley is driven by a belt in clockwise direction as shown in the fig. If the tension in the belt
on the tight side is 800 N, find the tension in the belt on the slack side. Also find the torque
exerted by the belt on the pulley. Take µ =0.3

OR
b. A belt is wound over a pulley as shown in fig. If the tension in the belt on one end is 3000N,
what is the necessary tension on the other side of the belt to resist? Take µ =0.25

17 a. A pulley is driven by a flat belt running at a speed of 600m/min. the co-efficient of friction
between the pulley and the belt is 0.3 and the angle of lap is 1600. If the maximum tension in
the belt is 700N. Find the power transmitted by the belt.

OR

b. A car starts from rest and attains a velocity of 40 km/hr in 3 minutes with uniform acceleration.
Calculate i) acceleration of car, ii)distance travelled in 3 minutes, iii) time required to reach
velocity of 25 km/hr.

18 a. A stone is dropped into a well and heard the sound to strike the water after 4 seconds. Find the
depth of the well, if the velocity of sound is 350 m/sec.

OR

b. A car is moving with a velocity of 12 m/sec. The car is brought to rest by applying breaks after
6 seconds. Find, i) retardation of the car after apply the brakes, ii) distance travelled by the car
after applying brakes.

p.t.o
 5
Answer ALL questions
PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. A beam AB of span 6m is hinged at A and supported on rollers at end B and carries the load as
shown in the fig. Determine the reaction at A and B.

OR

b. A beam AB of span 1.7 m is hinged at A and supported on rollers at end B and carries the load
as shown in the fig. Determine the reaction at A and B.

20 a. Determine the moment of inertia about its centroidal axis of the Z section shown in the fig.

OR

p.t.o
 6

b. A body weighing 200 N is pushing up a 30º plane by a force of 400 N acting parallel to the
plane. If the initial velocity of the body is 1.5 m/sec and µ = 0.2, what velocity will the body
have after moving 5 m?
N
400
N
200

30°

*****

SL.NO:1241
SL.NO:1239 SUBJECT CODE:17MTCC01
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHATRONICS

PROGRAMMABLE LOGIC CONTROLLER

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Compare the analog and digital I/O modules.

2 Which is the most popular language for programming PLCs? Why?
3 State the output control devices.
4 Define programming languages
5 Name and draw the symbol for Retentive timer
6 Explain coil formatted Counter instruction
7 Give the merits of basic PLC instruction.
8 Draw the ladder logic diagram for EX-OR gate.
9 Define process control system.
10 Mention the sensors used in Automatic car washing machine.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Explain in detail about the block diagram of Programmable Logic Controller.
OR
b. Explain in detail about the basic circuit of discrete I/O module and also its applications

12 a. Illustrate the PLC vs. Computers

OR
b. Illustrate the operating principle of an electromagnetic control relay.

13 a. Describe the construction and working principle of contactor.

OR
b. Explain the operation of output control devices commonly used in PLC installations.

14 a. Explain in detail the switches commonly used in PLC installations.

OR
b. Describe in detail the various types of timer instructions.

15 a. Discuss the functions of PLC counter instructions. p.t.o

 OR
b. Write a detailed note on down counter with an example.

16 a. Illustrate in detail about the various math instructions

OR
b. Name and draw the symbol for five different types of data compare instructions.

17 a. Explain the purpose of the bit distribute instruction.

OR
b. Discuss the PID controller with merits and demerits

18 a. Illustrate various types of process control Applications with examples

OR
b. Describe briefly about the motor driven analog proportional control valve.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Explain in detail the Process memory organization in PLC.
OR
b. Explain in detail the various sensors and Transducers used in industries with example.

20 a. Write a program to control traffic lights in two direction

OR
b. Outline how a typical data acquisition and control system operates
*****
SL.NO:1239
SL.NO:1231 SUBJECT CODE:17MABS04
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

MATHEMATICS FOR MECHANICAL SCIENCES

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

p.t.o
2
9

10

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a.

OR
b.

12 a.

OR
b.

13 a.

OR
b.

14 a.

OR p.t.o
 3
b.

15 a.

OR

b.

16 a.

OR
b.

17 a.

OR
b.

18 a.

OR p.t.o
 4
b.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a.

OR
b.

20 a.

OR
b.

*****
SL.NO:1231
SL.NO:1213 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC02
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ENGINEERING THERMODYNAMICS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Define an isolated system. Give examples.

2 Show the expressions for the COP of heat pump and refrigerator.
3 Define PMM of second kind.
4 Define Avogadro’s law.
5 Differentiate macroscopic and microscopic characteristics of a system.
6 Differentiate between point function and path function with example.
7 Interpret assumption made in kinetic theory of gases
8 Interpret a triple point line in a p-v diagram for water.
9 Differentiate the vander waals equation from the ideal gas equation of state.
10 Interpret heating value of fuel.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Describe Van der Waals Equation for a real gas. Also derive the constants a and b.
OR
b.

12 a. A certain gas of volume 0.4 m³, pressure of 4.5 bar and temperature of 130 ºC is heated in a
cylinder to 9 bar when the volume remains constant. Calculate (1) Temperature at the end of
the process, (2) The heat transfer, (3) Change in internal energy (4) Work done by the gas (5)
Change in enthalpy. Assume Cp = 1.005 kJ/kgK, Cv = 0.718 kJ/kg K

OR
(p.t.o)
 2
b. A cylinder contains 1 m³ of gas at 100 kPa and 100 0C, the gas is polytropically compressed to
a volume of 0.25 m³. The final pressure is 600 kPa. Determine a) Mass of the gas, b) The value
of index “n” for compression, c) Change in internal energy of the gas and d) heat transferred
by the gas during compression. (Take R = 0.287 KJ / kg K , γ=1.4).

13 a. In a steady flow of air through a nozzle, the enthalpy decreases by 50 kJ between two
sections. Assuming that there are no energy changes than the kinetic energy, determine the
increases in velocity at section 2. If the initial velocity is 90 m/s.
OR
b. 0.2 kg of air at 1.5 bar and 27°C is compressed to a pressure of 15 bar according to the law
PV1.25 = C. Determine work done on or by air, heat flow to or from the air, increase or
decrease in entropy.
14 a. A single stage air turbine is to operate with air inlet pressure and temperature of 1 bar and
600K. During the expansion the turbine losses are 20 kJ/kg to the surroundings which is at
1bar and 300K. For one kg of mass flow rate, determine (i) decrease in availability, (ii)
maximum work, (iii) the irreversibility.
OR
b.

15 a. 1 kg of steam at a pressure of 700 kPa and 0.6 dry is heated at constant pressure until it
becomes dry saturated. Determine change in internal energy and work done.

OR
b. A nozzle is supplied with steam of 1 MPa at 200°C with a velocity of 100 m/s. The expansion
takes place to a pressure of 300 kPa. Assuming isentropic efficiency of nozzle to be 90%,
calculate the final velocity.
16 a.

OR
b. Calculate the specific volume of steam at 0.9 bar and 550K using Vander waals equation. Take
critical temperature of steam is 647.3K and critical pressure is 220.9bar
(p.t.o)
SL.NO:1213
 3
17 a.

OR
b.

18 a. Describe the Characteristics and Properties of fuel.

OR
b. Describe about the gaseous fuels and its advantages.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )

19 a.

OR

b.

20 a. Prove that the difference in specific heat capacities equal

to Cp – Cv = R and Cv = (TVβ2 ) / Kt
OR

b. Describe about the Internal energy and Enthalpy formation.

*****

SL.NO:1213
SL.NO:1208 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC16
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

INDUSTRIAL AUTOMATION

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 List the disadvantages of Automation.

2 List the role of robotics in industrial automation.
3 What is a check valve?
4 What is meant by a 4/3 DC valve?
5 State the Programmable Logic Controller (PLC).
6 List the Advantages of PLC.
7 State the material transport system.
8 List the factors to be considered in the selection of transfer devices.
9 Draw the hydraulic symbol for the following.
(i) Fixed displacement bidirectional pump.
(ii) Variable displacement unidirectional pump.

10 Compare the method by which the process control operation is changed in a relay-based
system to the method used for a PLC-based system.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Analysis the major factors that contribute to Overall Production Time.
OR
b. Examining none of automated system makes a significant application of Industrial IT?

12 a. Create the circuit diagram for the automatic cylinder reciprocation.

OR
b. Describe Economy of Scale in detail.

13 a. Explain the construction and working of internal gear pumps.

OR
b. Explain the spring loaded simple pressure relief valve with a neat sketch.

14 a. Explain any one of hydraulic pressure control valve. p.t.o

 2
OR
b. Discuss the difference between NO and NC switches. Sketch both switches with
corresponding pneumatic symbols.

15 a. Where the limit switches are used? Discuss its construction in detail with help of a simple
diagram.
OR
b. Explain the functions of ON delay timers with suitable circuit in detail.

16 a. Describe the similarities and differences between PLCs and PCs.

OR
b.

Draw the PLC wiring diagram and the appropriate ladder logic, when a start push button is
pressed, the pneumatic cylinder shown in Fig extends, remains extended for 5 seconds and
then returns.

17 a. Describe the various electric and electronic control elements used in automation.
OR
b. Discuss in detail transfer devices and feeders.

18 a. Differentiate between manual and automated assembly lines in detail.

OR
b. Describe any one type of job rotating devices.
Answer ALL questions
PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Explain the construction and working of double acting cylinder with neat sketch.
OR
b. Draw and explain hydraulic cylinder sequence circuit.
20 a. Discuss the direct and indirect control of electro-pneumatics for controlling double acting
cylinder by using 5/2 DC valve with double solenoid.
OR
b. Draw the ladder diagram and list the truth tables for the AND, OR , NOT, NAND, and NOR
logic gates.
*****
SL.NO:1208
SL.NO:1185 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC18
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

MANUFACTURING ENGINEERING

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Name the various sands that are normally encountered in foundry practice.
2 Mention the merits of runner and riser in a casting process.
3 Recall the principle of oxy-fuel gas cutting.
4 Tell the applications of welding process.
5 List out the unconventional machining process which uses mechanical energy.
6 What is meant by blending?
7 Mention the advantages of injection moulding process.
8 Define sintering.
9 For what kind of applications, punching operation is performed?
10 Explain the lancing process and state few applications.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Illustrate with neat sketch explain the CO2 moulding.
OR
b. Identify the types of welding processes. Explain in detail.

12 a. Illustrate with a neat sketch explain the working of MIG welding.

OR
b. Make use of the applications, advantages of injection moulding.

13 a. Explain the different types of pattern material with its advantages and disadvantages.
OR
b. Explain the desired properties of moulding sand in detail.

14 a. Explain any two types of moulding processes with neat sketch.

OR
b. Show with a neat sketch of spot welding process in detail.

15 a. Discuss in detail thermit welding process with a neat sketch. p.t.o

 2
OR
b. Describe with neat sketch of crank and slotted quick return mechanism used in shaper.

16 a. Explain the working principle of grinding machine with a neat sketch.

OR
b. Discuss in detail about the working of Electric discharge machining with a neat sketch.

17 a. Illustrate with neat sketches explain extrusion process in detail.

OR
b. Explain transfer moulding process with neat sketches.

18 a. Explain the various types of cold rolling process with neat sketches.
OR
b. Describe explosive forming process with a neat sketch.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Construct the plasma arc welding process with its advantages, disadvantages and applications.
OR
b. Explain the different types of pattern with neat sketch.

Describe the injection moulding process in detail. Also mention its advantages and
20 a.
disadvantages.
OR
b. Show the metal spinning process in detail with its advantages, disadvantages.
*****
SL.NO:1185
SL.NO:1186 SUBJECT CODE:17MEES01
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

MANUFACTURING ENGINEERING

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 What is the main use of flux in melting metals and alloys?

2 When do you select sand casting process.
3 List the various flames obtain during gas welding.
4 How do you classify a lathe machine.
5 Define LASER.
6 Write down the principle of AJM.
7 What is a compounding material?
8 Define Extrusion.
9 What is the special forming process?
10 Compare between brazing and soldering.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Relate the advantages and disadvantages of plastics in detail.
OR
b. Ilustrate with a neat sketch explain the working of TIG welding.

12 a. Illustrate with a neat sketch explain the working principle of ECG process.
OR
b. Illustrate with neat sketches explain thermoforming process in detail.

13 a. Identify the classification of unconventional machining processes.

OR
b. Explain the desired properties of moulding sand in detail.

14 a. Explain any two types of moulding processes with neat sketch.

OR
b. Explain with neat sketch the components of oxy-acetylene gas welding.

15 a. Describe about the soldering process with neat sketches. p.t.o

 2
OR
b. Describe with neat sketch of crank and slotted quick return mechanism used in shaper.

16 a. Compare between conventional and unconventional machining processes in detail.

OR
b. Discuss in detail about the working of Electric discharge machining with a neat sketch.

17 a. Demonstrate any three types of forging operation with neat sketch.

OR
b. Explain the various types of hot rolling process with neat sketches.

18 a. Discuss in detail about the Peen forming process with a neat sketch.
OR
b. Describe explosive forming process with a neat sketch.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Analyze the procedure of green sand moulding with neat sketches.
OR
b. Discuss in detail about Shell moulding process with neat sketches.

20 a. Explain with a neat sketch the construction and working of abrasive jet machining with its
advantages, disadvantages and applications.
OR
b. Show the metal spinning process in detail with its advantages, disadvantages.
*****
SL.NO:1186
SL.NO:1184 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE08
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE-PRODUCT DESIGN AND DEVELOPMENT

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 What is meant by Product design?

2 Define Production Ramp-up.
3 Define product specification.
4 Define product planning.
5 What is meant by tree approach in concept generation?
6 What are the needs of industrial design?
7 What is meant by concept scoring?
8 Mention any two advantages in assessing quality of industrial design.
9 What is a geographical indication? Elucidate with an example.
10 What is copyright? What is the term of copyright for an author ?

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Write a short note on product specification related to customer needs
OR
b. Write a short note on Patents.

12 a. State the influence of project selection & importance of allocation of resources. Explain it.
OR
b. Explain the phases of Product design and development.

13 a. Discuss about Concept testing and its importance.

OR
b. Explain the role of competitive bench marking in product planning.

14 a. Enumerate the steps involved in Establishing Target specification and discuss the relative importance
of product needs.
OR
b. Discuss in detail about Product development Economics.
p.t.o
 2
15 a. Explain the relative advantages and disadvantages of involving actual customers in the concept
generation process.
OR
b. Illustrate the procedure for internal problem search and mention its limitations.

16 a. Explain the steps to measure customer response.

OR
b. List out the measurement technique involved in concept selection. Explain it.

17 a. What are the selection criteria needs to be fulfilled for the concept? Explain in detail.
OR
b. Write a short note on comparison of concepts in decision making. Explain its advantage and
limitations.

18 a. Discuss in detail about the steps involved in Patent application filing process.
OR
b. What is meant by Design for Environment and discuss the legal compliance? Explain it.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Describe about Project planning and Project selection and mention its importance.
OR
b. Discuss in detail robust design of the product.

20 a. Discuss about i) Idea clarification ii) Exploring the output iii) Change management
OR
b. Explain in detail ISO system of Intellectual property rights.
*****
SL.NO:1184
SL.NO:1173 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC10
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ENGINEERING METROLOGY AND MEASUREMENTS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Summarize any four sources of error.

2 Summarize any four desirable characteristics of a sensor.
3 State the properties of thermoelectric materials.
4 List the classifications of resistance strain gauges.
5 State the most common using methods for measuring the pitch measurements.
6 Interpret any two angular measuring instruments used in metrology
7 Paraphrase the remedies to eliminate vibrations.
8 Write shortnotes on Linear Displacement Measurement.
9 What are the various methods used for measuring the gear tooth thickness?
10 What is meant by “Best size wire” in screw thread measurement?

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. With neat sketch, the working principle of liquid filled thermometer.
OR
b. Summarize the working principle of Floating carriage micrometer with neat sketch.

12 a. Interpret the working principle of Vernier Bevel Protractor with neat sketch.
OR
b. Explain the working principle of micrometer with neat sketch.

13 a. Explain the working principle of Angle Decker with a neat sketch.

OR
b. Explain the various types of Mechanical tachometer.
P.T.O
 2
14 a. Explain the working principle of D.C Tachogenerator.
OR
b. Discuss about the Non Contact type Displacement Transducer.

15 a. Discuss about the working principle of Thermistors.

OR
b. Illustrate with a sketch the working principle of rotometer.

16 a. With neat sketch explain the working principle of Thermo-electric pyrometer.

OR
b. Illustrate the working principle of Hydraulic load cell

17 a. With a neat sketch, the working of Torsion Bar dynamometer.

OR

b. Explain briefly proving rings.

18 a. Explain about the errors in Screw thread.

OR

b. Describe the Parkinson's Gear Tester with a neat sketch.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Briefly explain the modes of operation and applications of measurement system.
OR

b. With neat sketch explain the construction and working principle of LVDT. Write the advantages aned
Disadvantages of the LVDT.

20 a. Explain the various types strain gauge Measurements.

OR

b. Summarize the working principle of Tool makers microscope with a neat sketch.
*****

SL.NO:1173
SL.NO:1170 SUBJECT CODE:17MBHS04
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
COMMON TO BTE,EEE,PHARMA , CSE & MECH

TOTAL QUALITY MANAGEMENT

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 List down the any four advantages of fish-bone diagram.

2 Why is FMEA important?
3 Mention any four features of check sheet.
4 State the responsibilities of Management Representative for implementing quality systems.
5 List any four characteristics of a quality policy statement.
6 Define the term “parameter” in statistics.
7 Define the term maintenance.
8 Define the term “PDSA”.
9 Write short notes on product benchmarking.
10 Give a note on environmental policy.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Explain the roles and responsibility of quality council & senior management for implementing
quality in an organisation.
OR
b. Outline the benefits and pitfalls of benchmarking.

12 a.
Explain, in what way, the concept of ISO 14000 differs from ISO 9000 series of quality system.
OR
b. Discuss in detail about the dimensions of quality with your own example.

13 a. Enumerate the cost of quality and discuss its components in detail with respect to the service based
industry.
OR
b. Discuss the important elements to achieve customer/supplier partnering relationship.
P.T.O
 2

14 a. Write notes on:

(a) Differentiate matrix diagram and matrix data analysis diagram.
(b) Differentiate tree diagram and decision tree diagram.
OR
b. The following table shows the number of point defects on the surface of a bus body on August
2019.

a) Compute the value of Cand its control limits.

b) Draw C – chart
c) Compute value of Cand control limits for the future use, if you
deem it necessary.

15 a. Describe the term quality statements with suitable illustrations for service organisation.
OR
b. Is customer complaint necessary for an Organization? If yes, list the various tools used for
collecting customer complaints.
16 a. Is quality management an issue only for management? Do you agree or not. Justify your
answer.
OR
b. Describe the Trilogy Cycle of Joseph Juran with neat diagram.

17 a. Define quality audit. enlighten the features and types of quality audit
OR

b. What is meant by Operating Characteristics (OC) Curve? Explain it with the neat diagram.
P.T.O

SL.NO:1170
 3

18 a. Summarize the advantages and limitations of benchmarking.

OR

b. What are the objectives of implementing TPM? Also describe in detail the concept of TPM.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )

19 a. Describe seven new tools of quality management with neat diagram of each.
OR

b. Elaborate the Japanese 5S concept as applicable to services and manufacturing company.

20 a. Write the step by step procedure for implementing FMEA of a product.

OR

b.
Describe the various elements of ISO 9000 systems.
*****

SL.NO:1170
SL.NO:1165 SUBJECT CODE:17MABS01
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
HUMANITIES & SCIENCES

ENGINEERING MATHEMATICS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

10

(p.t.o)
 2

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a.

OR
b.

12 a.

OR
b.

13 a.

OR
b.

14 a.

OR
(p.t.o)
Sl.No.17MABS01
 3
b.

15 a.

OR
b.

16 a.

OR
b.

17 a.

OR

b.

18 a.

OR

(p.t.o)
Sl.No.17MABS01
 4
b.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a.

OR
b.

20 a.

OR

b.

*****

SL.NO:1165
SL.NO:1161 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC34
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

HYDRAULIC AND PNEUMATIC SYSTEMS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)
1 Why gear pump cannot be used as variable displacement pump?
2 Show the hydraulic symbols for telescoping cylinder.
3 What is a check valve?
4 What is the function of “bleed off” circuits?
5 Name three different types of separator-type accumulators
6 What is the purpose of I/O module in a PLC.
7 Define bulk modulus.
8 Draw the hydraulic symbol for the following.
(i) Unloading valve
(ii) Counter balancing valve
9 What is cylinder cushion? What is its purpose?
10 Mention any two roles of pneumatic systems in low cost automation.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Show where the hydraulics highly prefered.
OR
b. Show where the pneumatics are prefered.

12 a. List any ten applications of pneumatics and detail any two of them.
OR
b. Discuss the low cost automation.

13 a. What are the basic laws that are important in applying fluid power and what its significance?
OR
b. Describe the various pneumatic symbols.

14 a. Explain the construction and working of gerotor pump.

OR
b. With the help of neat sketch explain the working of air regulator p.t.o
 2
15 a. Explain compound relief valve with a neat sketch.
OR
b. Draw a schematic of 3/2 DCV that is manually operated and briefly explain its function

16 a. Explain the operation of tandem-type cylinder and mention its applications

OR
b. With the help of a neat sketch, explain the pump-unloading circuit

17 a. Explain the working principle of fail safe circuit with overload protection
OR
b. Draw and explain hydraulic cylinder sequence circuit

18 a. Explain the ladder logic diagram with example?

OR
b. Draw a neat sketch of a pneumo-hydraulic for sequencing drilling and clamping cylinders

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Discuss about the various Hydraulic fluids.
OR
b. Discuss about the properties of fluids.

20 a. With the help of neat sketch explain the working of air filter.
OR
b. Draw and explain the hydraulic circuit for the following sequence.
a. Clamping the work piece b. Drilling the work piece c. Unclamping the work piece

*****
SL.NO:1161
SL.NO:1162 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC01
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

BASIC MANUFACTURING PROCESS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 State the differences between green sand mold and dry sand mold.
2 How is pressure die casting different from gravity die casting?
3 What is filler material?
4 Why is the tungsten inert-gas welding preferred for welding aluminum plates?
5 What are the different ways by which defects occur in forging?
6 List out the various tools used in sheet metal operation.
7 What is meant by trimming?
8 Name any five tools used in sheet metal hand operations.
9 List out the types of moulding of plastics.
10 Define Polymerization.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Describe the different types of electrodes and it applications.
OR
b. What are the different welding defects? How the defects are eliminated?

12 a. Write short notes on (a). Two High Roll Mill (b). Three High Roll Mill.
OR
b. In detail describe the choice of materials available for making patterns.

13 a. Explain the CO2 moulding process. State its advantages and application.
OR
b. Describe the working principle of Oxy-acetylene gas welding process with help of neat sketch.

14 a. With necessary sketches explain submerged arc welding.

OR
b. Describe the process of seam welding and list the applications.
p.t.o
 2
Explain the operational steps of Rolling of square sections, rounds, plate, sheet and strip from
15 a.
a stock. Draw sketches wherever necessary.
OR
b. Explain the method of making seamless tubes.

16 a. Illustrate with sketch explain a wire drawing process.

OR
b. What is embossing? Explain the process of embossing. Mention its applications.

17 a. Briefly explain various types of bending operations with a neat sketch.

OR
b. Explain the working principle of injection moulding.

18 a. Explain the working principle of transfer moulding with neat sketch.

OR
b. Explain with a neat sketch the working of ultrasonic welding of plastics.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Explain with neat sketches steps involved in Sand casting process.
OR
Explain the process of Metal Inert Gas (MIG) welding with necessary sketches. List the base
b.
metals commonly welded by MIG welding.

Explain the method of manufacturing of different components of chains used in transmission

20 a.
system.
OR
b. Describe the lamination process with a neat sketch.
*****
SL.NO:1162
SL.NO:1152 SUBJECT CODE:17MEEC23
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE-RAPID PROTOTYPING AND TOOLING

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Give in own about STL file?

2 Discuss about the functions of part support structure.
3 Discuss photo polymerization in Stereo lithography.
4 List out applications of Stereo lithography process.
5 What are the benefits of Three Dimensional Printing
6 Examine weaknesses of Laser Engineered Net Shaping (LENS)
7 Write a short note on direct rapid tooling process.
8 Examine the benefits of aluminum filled epoxy tooling.
9 Define Point Processing.
10 Define contact type and non-contact type.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Explain in detail the process chain of Rapid Prototyping.
OR
b. Describe the impact of on rapid prototyping product development.

12 a. Explain the various demands on CAD system used in rapid prototyping

OR
b. Describe with a neat sketch of Solid Ground Curing process.

13 a. Explain in detail the Fused Deposition Modeling

OR
b. Examine the strength, Weakness and applications of Solid Ground Curing?

14 a. Examine the strength, Weakness and applications of Multi Jet Modeling System.
OR
b. What are the applications of direct shell production casting and explain its working principle.
p.t.o
 2
15 a. Use with neat sketch explain the working principle of Direct Metal Deposition
OR
b. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of selective laser sintering.

16 a. Explain in detail about Shape Deposition Manufacturing.

OR
b. Explain in detail the working principle of Reaction Injection Moulding

17 a. Illustrate the need and application rapid tooling.

OR
b. Discuss about Digitizing techniques for Reverse Engineering.

18 a. Discuss on STL files and define slicing relevant to CAD.

OR
b. Describe how reverse engineering will be applied to rapid prototyping techniques

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Explain the benefits and applications of rapid prototyping in different sectors.
OR
Illustrate with neat sketch and explain the operation principle and its applications of Solid
b.
Ground Curing.

Describe the follwing on indirect tooling techniques (i) Epoxy Tooling ii) Powder Metal
20 a. Forging

OR
Write short on following. (i) Influence of building orientation. (ii) File exchange errors.
b. (iii) Errors in STL files. (iv) Part building errors.
*****
SL.NO:1152
SL.NO:1141 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC13
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

DESIGN OF TRANSMISSION SYSTEMS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Name the four types of belts used for transmission of power.

2 When do we use worm-gears
3 Define progression ratio.
4 When does a brake become self-locking?
5 List the examples for radial and axial brakes.

6 Distinguish between short link and long link chains.

7 Summarize the Lewis equation for beam strength.
8 Write the expression for beam strength, dynamic load, and limiting wear load for bevel gears
9 Classify the four types of gear box.
10 Define R20 series

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. A flat belt is required to transmit 35 kW from a pulley of 1.5m effective diameter running at
300 r.p.m. The angle of lap is 165º and μ = 0.3. Determine the width of the belt taking
centrifugal tension into account. Belt thickness is 9.5 mm, density of material is 1.1Mg/m³ and
the related permissible working stress is 2.5MPa

OR
b. A pinion with 25 teeth and rotating at 1200rpm drives a gear which rotates at 200rpm and
module is 4mm.calculate the center distance between the gears.

P.T.O
 2
12 a. A parallel helical gear set consists of a 19-teeth pinion driving a 57-teeth gear. The pinion has
a left-hand helix angle of 20º, a normal pressure angle of 14 ½ º, and a normal diametral pitch
of 0.4 teeth/mm. Find:
[a] The normal, transverse, and axial circular pitches.
[b] The transverse module and the transverse pressure angle.
[c] The pitch diameter of the two gears

OR
b. A helical gear with 30 degree helix angle has to transmit 35kW at 1500 rpm with a speed
reduction ratio 2.5. If the pinion has 24 teeth determine the necessary module, pitch diameter
and face width for 20 degree full depth teeth. Assume 15Ni2Cr1Mo15 material for both pinion
and wheel.

13 a. Design a cast iron bevel gear drive for a pillar drilling machine to transmit 1875W at 800
r.p.m. to a spindle at 400 r.p.m. The gear is to work for 40 hours/week for 3 years. Pressure
angle is 20º.
OR
b. A hardened steel worm rotates at 1440 rpm and transmits 12 KW to a phosphor bronze gear.
The speed of the worm wheel should be 60 ± 3% rpm. Design the worm gear drive if an
efficiency of at least 82% is desired.

14 a. Design a worm gear drive to transmit 10 KW at 1440 rpm with a gear ratio of 12. Use steel
worm and cast iron wheel.
OR
b. The minimum and maximum speed of a six speed gear box are to be 160 and 500 rpm.
Construct the kinematic arrangement and the ray diagram of the gear box.
15 a. A gear box is to be designed to provide 12 output speeds ranging from 160 to 2000 rpm. The
input speed of motor is 1600 rpm. Choosing a standard speed ratio, construct the speed
diagram and the kinematic arrangement.
OR
b. A machine tool gear box is to have 12 speeds. With the output speeds ranging from 63 to 2800
r.p.m. Construct the speed diagram and the kinematic layout for 2(1) 2(2) 3(4) scheme.

16 a. A single plate Clutch transmits 25 KW at 900 r.p.m. The maximum pressure intensity between
the plate is 85 KN/m2. The ratio of radii is 1.25. Both the sides of the plate are effective and
the coefficient of friction is 0.25. Determine (i) the inner diameter of the plate, and (ii) the
axial force to engage the clutch. Assume theory of uniform wear.
OR
b. A single block brake, the diameter of drum is 250 mm and the angle of contact is 90º, the
operating force of 700 N is applied at the end of lever which is at 250 mm from the center of
the brake block. Determine the torque that may be transmitted. Fulcrum is at 200 mm from the
center of brake block with an offset of 50 mm from the surface of contact. The coefficient of
friction is 0.35.
P.T.O
SL.NO:1141
 3
17 a. Explain the different types of flat belt drive and their application.
OR

b. Explain the design procedure of Wire Rope.

18 a. Illustrate with a neat sketch, explain the working of a single plate clutch.
OR

b. Derive an expression for the torque to be transmitted by clutch assuming (i) Uniform pressure
condition (ii) Uniform wear condition.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )

19 a. Design a spur gear drive required to transmit 45 KW at a pinion speed of 800 r.p.m. The
velocity ratio is 3.5:1. The teeth are 20 º full depths involute with 18 teeth on the pinion. Both
the pinion and gear are made of steel with a maximum safe static stress of 180 N/mm².
Assume medium shock conditions.

OR

b. Design a bevel gear drive to transmit 12 KW at 1400 rpm for the following data: Gear
ratio=3; Material for pinion is steel; Material for wheel is cast iron; and life 10,000 hours.

20 a. Design a 9 speed gear box to give output speeds between 280 and 1800 rpm. The input power
is 5.5 KW at 1400 rpm. Draw the kinematic layout diagram and the speed diagram. Determine
the number of teeth on all gears and the length of all the shafts.

OR

b.
A car engine has its rated output of 12 KW. The maximum torque developed is 100 N-m. The
clutch used is of single plate type having two active surfaces. The axial pressure is not to
exceed 85 KN/m2. The external diameter of the friction plate is 1.25 times the internal
diameter. Determine the dimensions of the friction plate and the axial force exerted by the
springs. Coefficient of friction = 0.3.
*****

SL.NO:1141
SL.NO:1131 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE41
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE-MAINTENANCE MANAGEMENT

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Define Failure Density.

2 Define availability.
3 List out some condition based monitoring techniques.
4 Recall about equipment health monitoring.
5 Recall running in Failures.
6 Give an example of an overstress failure mechanism.
7 Recall the various steps in autonomous maintenance.
8 Define how does remote maintenance differ from e‐maintenance.
9 Explain why is it necessary to replace a machine.
10 Exprss the relationship between reliability and safety.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Analyse various techniques of spare parts management.
OR
b. Discuss different types of maintenance strategies.

12 a.
Explain the importance of understanding failure mechanisms for sound maintenance practice.
OR
b. Illustrate a comprehensive design for maintainability of various machines and equipment.

13 a. Illustrate non‐repairable item, What types of Preventive Maintenance policies are appropriate
for this type of item?
OR
b. Explain the functions of maintenance.

14 a. Explain fixed time maintenance.

OR
b. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of breakdown maintenance.
 p.t.o
2
15 a. Explain how availability can be improved through reliability and maintainability.
OR
b. Discuss spare parts management.

16 a. Explain in detail about maintenance outsourcing.

OR
b. Write a brief notes on Maintenance Capacity Planning.

17 a. Describe, using a flow chart, the steps involved in FMEA.

OR
b. Describe about maintenance logistics, Explain the main elements of maintenance logistics.

18 a. Write short notes on 1. Planned Maintenance 2. Quality Maintenance

OR
b. Explain reliability centered maintenance and total productive maintenance in detail.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Explain the effect of material on failure mechanisms.
OR
b. Determine the different types of organizations are in use in Indian industries.

20 a. Explain briefly the process involved in condition monitoring.

OR
b. Explain the general structure of computerized maintenance management system.
*****
SL.NO:1131
SL.NO:1130 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE34
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE-FAILURE ANALYSIS OF MATERIALS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 List any two hardness tests

2 How metal suface appears when it fails in a brittle manner ?
3 Creep is a --------- temperture phenomenon
4 Creep rate in ternary stage is associated with __________ and fracture
5 Cold working------------ fatigue strength
6 Which of the following law is applicable for the fracture event -------law of thermodynamics

7 List the relationship between surface energy and crack propagation

8 Compare Mode I and Mode III
9 Compare K- IC and K- II C
10
Grain boundary sliding occurs, When the ------- of the grain is more than that of grain boundary

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Illustrate various modes of loading with neat diagrams
OR
b. Compare SN curves of aluminium and steel with examples

12 a. Compare Toughness and fracture toughness

OR
b. Compare fatigue behaviour of stainless steel and cast iron

13 a. Compare creep test and fatigue test with example

OR
b. Explain various metallographic aspects of fracture

14 a. Explain strain energy release rate with examples

OR
b. Explain Paul - Paris law with examples p.t.o
 2
15 a. Expalin various factors which affect the ductile to brittle transition
OR
b. Explain slip band crack growth

16 a. Explain wood mechanism of fatigue with examples

OR
b. Explain micro and macro features of ductile fracture

17 a. Expalin Izod Impact test in detail with example

OR
b. Explain why, fractured ceramic specimens are coated with gold before fractography

18 a. Compare optical microscopy and scanning electron microscopy used for failure analysis
OR
b. Expalin , creep behaviour plays role in the selection of materials

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Compare creep resistant alloys with thoria dispersed nickel
OR
b. Explain fractography in detail

20 a. Explain in detail about the fractogrpahy with example

OR
b. Explain design procedures which will improve fatigue crack growth resistance
*****
SL.NO:1130
SL.NO:1129 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE29
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE-REFRIGERATION AND AIR-CONDITIONING

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 What are the various types of refrigerators?

2 Define wet compression in vapour compression refrigeration and show it on a chart
3 Define entrainment nozzle efficiency in steam jet refrigeration system?
4 Explain the process of heating and humidification.
5 Write the meaning of fresh air handling unit (FAHU)?
6 Define room sensible heat factor (RSHF).
7 What are the desirable requirements of a Refrigerant - Absorption pair?
8 Which parts replace the function of compressor in absorption system?
9 Explain the concept of greenhouse effect.
10 State the classification of condenser used in refrigeration system?

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Explain working principle of evaporative condenser with neat sketch.
OR
b. Define by pass factor and the function of airwasher and its types.

12 a. Describe with a neat sketch the working of lithium Bromide (two shell) water absorption
system.
OR
b. Explain the vapour compression cycles system with the help of P-h diagram.

13 a. Explain how you would detect whether a refrigerant is under charged or over charged.
OR
b. Explain the various desirable properties of ideal refrigerants.

14 a. Describe the working principle and basic components steam jet refrigeration system.
OR
b. List out the various psychrometric properties of air and explain each.
p.t.o
 2
15 a. What is meant by sensible heating and sensible cooling? Explain these processes with neat
sketches.
OR
b. Describe about comfort airconditioning and its requirements.

16 a. Explain the thermal exchange mechanism of human body with environment?

OR
b. Explain winter air conditioning system with sketch and also represent the conditions on P-H
chart.

17 a. With a neat sketch explain the working principle of Li Br-water absorption refrigeration
system.
OR
b.
Explain with neat sketch Domestic Electrolux Refrigerator, with the functions of hydrogen,
ammonia and water in the three fluid refrigeration system.

18 a. Mention the chemical formula and the refrigerant number of following refrigerents: (i)
Dichloro difluoro methane, (ii) Dichloro tetrafluoro ethane, (iii) propylene, (iv) ethlylene and
(v) sulphur dioxide
OR
b. In a steam jet refrigeration plant, steam enters the thermocompressor at 0.01 bar and with
dryness fraction of 0.09, make up water enters the flash chamber at 180C. Determine i)Quality
of steam leaving the flash chamber. ii) COP of the plant based on heat input from motive steam
.Assume isentropic efficiency n of turbine =90%: Nozzle efficiency=90%: Entrainment
efficiency =65%: Thermocompressure efficiency= 65%

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. The design conditions for an air conditioned hall is Inside condition 24°C DBT and 60% RH
Outside condition 38°C DBT and 28°C WBT Sensible heat gain 167040 kJ/hr Latent heat gain
41760kJ/hr Infiltrated air 20CMM Coil ADP 10°C 60% of total air is recirculated and mixed
with conditioned air after cooling coil. Determine i) The condition of air before entering the
hall ii) The condition of air leaving the conditioner coil iii) BPF of cooling coil iv)
refrigeration load on cooling coil.
OR
b. Describe the phenomena of global warming potential and ozone depleting potential, state the
values for typical refrigerants.

20 a. Explain the principle of various dehumidification methods.

OR
b. Describe the working of steam jet refrigeration system with a neat sketch.
*****
SL.NO:1129
SL.NO:1128 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE23
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE-MICRO AND NANO MACHINING

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 What is the need for micro machining?

2 What are all the problems occurred during micro machining?
3 What is micro turning?
4 Mention the types of back rake angle.
5 List the applications of EDM.
6 List the advantages of Magnetorheological Abrasive Flow Finishing.
7 What is MEMS?
8 Mention different dry etching techniques.
9 Give the examples for thermal energy methods.
10 Mention some features of 3-D packaging in MEMS.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Explain the challenges to manufacturing technology for adopting nano maching methods.
OR
b. Explain all the fabrication tools used in micro machining.

12 a. Explain the commercial tool materials used in nano machining.

OR
b. Expalin the advantages and disadvantages of nano machining.

13 a. Explain the orthogonal cutting and oblique cutting with its neat sketches.
OR
b. Explain the construction and working of micro drilling with neat sketch.

14 a. Explain the construction and working of precision grinding with neat sketch
OR
b. Explain the construction and working principle of USM.

15 a. Explain with neat diagram the construction and working principle of EBM. p.t.o
 2
OR
b. Explain with neat diagram the working principle of IBM.

16 a. Discuss the advantages, disadvantages and application of AFF.

OR
b. Comapare Magnetorheological Finishing and Magnetorheological Abrasive Flow Finishing.

17 a. Comapare EEM and Magnetic Float Polishing.

OR
b. Briefly discuss about deep reactive ion etching (DRIE) process.

18 a. Give short notes on diffusion process used in MEMS industry.

OR
b. Deduce the limitations in micromachining in MEMS.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Describe any two commercial cutting fluids used in micromachining with its advantage and
disadvantage in detail.
OR
b. Explain the construction and working of micro drilling with advantage, diadvantage and
application.

20 a. Briefly explain the types of abrasive basec micro machining.

OR
b. Explain with neat diagram the construction and working principle of Magnetorheological
Abrasive Flow Finishing process.
*****
SL.NO:1128
SL.NO:1127 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE14
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE-REVERSE ENGINEERING

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Write a brief note on meshing.

2 What are the different types of meshing?
3 Write a short note on 3D scanning.
4 Illustrate structured lighting system with an example.
5 What is meant by Re-Engineering in Automotive sector?
6 What is meant by Copyright infringement?
7 Write a short note on Geometric modelling.
8 Define Forward Engineering.
9 What is meant by Stereoscopic Imaging system?
10 Write a short note on radical re-design.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Discuss the role of value analysis in Reverse Engineering.
OR
b. Briefly explain the “X-Ray Tomography in Re-Engineering system.

12 a. Briefly explain about contour model.

OR
b. Describe the techniques for converting a point cloud data to a 3D surface.

13 a. Distinguish between Forward Engineering and Reverse Engineering.

OR
b. Briefly discuss the merits and demerits of Re-Engineering in Medical Industry.

14 a. How will you define reverse engineering as a quality function?

OR
b. Describe the steps involved in Cloud point Generation.

15 a. Briefly explain the design Parameters of reverse engineering tool. p.t.o

 2
OR
b. What are the legal issues encountered in RE process? Explain in detail.

16 a. Briefly explain the Edge Detection techniques in Reverse Engineering.

OR
b. Briefly explain the risk involved in failure of Reverse Engineering.

17 a. With a block diagram, discuss the steps involved in Conceptualization to Integration with Rapid
prototyping.
OR
b.
With a block diagram, Explain the process of Integration of an Additive Manufacturing Machine.

18 a. Explain on Process planning strategy in Re-Engineering.

OR
b. Discuss the patent law related to Re-Engineering.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Explain the process of Internal measurement and discuss the steps involved.
OR
b. Discuss the Engineering Ethics to be followed in Developing a Re-Engineering Product.

20 a. List and explain in detail the various tools for reverse engineering.
OR
b. Explain in detail pre-screening and preparation for the four stage process of RE.
*****
SL.NO:1127
SL.NO:1126 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE02
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE-ENERGY CONSERVATION AND MANAGEMENT

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 What is meant by energy policy?

2 What is the main objective of energy management for electrical loads?
3 How do you you meant by di‐electric heating.
4 List the green energy .
5 Discuss the few important technical feasibility parameters that one should consider during analysis of
energy conservation opportunities.
6 Summerize the features of the energy accounting software.
7 Discuss the need for energy conservation.
8 List any four important factors involved in deciding final cost of purchased electricity.
9 Discuss the need for managerial skills in energy management.
10 Explain,how do you understand by plant energy performance (PEP).

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Explain the various inductions heating type melting process.
OR
b. State and explain the factors that influence thermal performance of the buildings.

12 a. Give a typical energy audit reporting format

OR
b. Define energy management. State the basic principles and benefits of energy management.

13 a. Explain in detail about classification of waste heat recovery systems.

OR
b. State the different energy saving tips in fan & compressors.

14 a. With a neat sketch explain Gas turbine co-generation plant.

OR
b. Explain the various steps in designing an energy management program p.t.o
 2
15 a. Explain the four general categories of energy saving.
OR
b. Explain about surveying energy uses and losses.

16 a. Explain the various aspects of Cool storage systems.

OR
b. With a numerical example explain Load cycling of motors.

17 a. Discuss in detail the major objectives and fundamental principles in green

building concept.
OR
b. Explain in detail about Energy storage in batteries

18 a. Explain in detail about Electrical energy management in residential buildings.

OR
b. Discuss the sources of waste heat and its potential application.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Discuss the various aspects of space heating.   
OR
b. Discuss about energy audit report writing as per prescribe format in detail.

20 a. Explain Immediate-term, Medium-term and long –term strategies used for energy.
OR
b.
Explain a) Plant energy performance b) Production factor c) Reference year equivalent energy use.
*****
SL.NO:1126
SL.NO:1119 SUBJECT CODE:17PHBS05
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
COMMON TO ALL

SMART MATERIALS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Demonstrate, how the Metallic glasses can be used for transformer core materials?
2 Explain briefly about transformation temperature in SMA.
3 Distinguish between Type I and Type II Superconductors.
4 Interpret unit cell.
5 Demonstrate top-down and bottom-up approach for producing nanoparticles.
6 Interpret any two techniques for the synthesis of nanophase materials.
7 Explain briefly about top-down approach.
8 Describe coercivity and retentivity.
9 Explain briefly about soft magnetic materials.
10 Identify the reason, why the superconductor exhibits the property of diamagnetism?

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Categorize metallic glasses? Give examples. Mention the properties of metallic glasses.

OR
b. Draw the unit cells of SC, BCC, FCC and HCP structures

12 a. Examine the effects of temperature, magnetic field and current on the superconductivity.
OR
b. Schedule the following for SC, BCC, FCC and HCP structures
(i) di i b (ii) i di (iii) i ki f
13 a. Explain the properties of diamagnetic materials with neat diagram.
OR
b. Explain two characteristics of SMA with neat diagrams.

14 a. Explain the properties of Ni-Ti alloy. p.t.o

 2
OR
b. Express the outline of magnetic and electrical properties of metallic glasses. Mention any two
applications of metallic glasses.

15 a. Describe the following (i) unit cell (ii) coordination number (iii) nearest neighbour distance
(iv) packing factor

OR
b. Explain the advantages, disadvantages and applications of ball milling method.

16 a. Explain Carbon Nano Tubes? How are they classified? Explain.

OR
b. Explain in detail about any one of the methods of fabrication of CNT.

17 a. Differentiate the properties of dia, para and ferromagnetic materials

OR

b. Discuss the properties of superconductors.

18 a. Describe about Type – I super conductor. Write down its characteristics.

OR

b. Discuss Isotope Effect and Meissner effect.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Categorize hard and soft magnetic materials? Mention their applications.
OR

b. Generalize the properties of metallic glasses.

20 a. Illustrate sol-gel method of preparing nanophase materials and mention its advantages.
OR

b. Illustrate hysteresis on the basis of domain theory.

*****

SL.NO:1119
S.No.1118 SUB CODE:17PCBS02
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E.DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB - 2022
COMMON TO ALL
PHYSICAL SCIENCES
(Candidates admitted under 2017 Regulations-SCBCS)
Time : 1 1/2 Hours Maximum Marks:50 Marks
PART A - ENGINEERING PHYSICS

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (5 x 2 =10 Marks)

1 Tell about population inversion.

2 Schedule any two applications of laser in industrial field.
3 Report about step index fiber.
4 Tell about the characteristics of graded index multimode fiber.
5 Interpret about X-ray Fluoroscopy.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (2 x12 =24 Marks)
6 a. Predict the applications of laser in communication, military and chemical fields.
OR
b. Recognize the following terms: population inversion, pumping process and laser action.

7 a. Express the various types of fibers based on refractive index profile.

OR
b. Express the characteristics of penetrant.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (1 x 16 = 16 )
8 a. Demonstrate the construction and working of semiconductor laser with necessary diagram.
OR
b. Illustrate the working of X-ray radiography.

*****

P.T.O
 2
PART A - ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY
(Candidates admitted under 2017 Regulations-SCBCS)
Time : 1 1/2 Hours Maximum Marks:50 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (5 x 2 =10 Marks)

1 Brief the terms electrolytic and electrochemical cell.

2 What is helmholtz’s electrical double layer?
3 Show the structure of EDTA and Ca-EDTA complex.
4 Mention the causes of boiler corrosion
5 Write a note on solar energy

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (2 x12 =24 Marks)
6 a. Explain standard electrode potential in detail.
OR
b. Calculate the emf of the cell Mg/Mg //Cd (aq) /Cd(s) at 250C where, [Cd2+]=0.7M, [Mg2+]
2+ 2+

=1.0M and E0cell =1.97 V.

7 a. Discuss in detail dry corrosion with mechanism.

OR
b. Describe producer gas in detail.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (1 x 16 = 16 )
8 a. Explain the working principle of H2-O2 fuel cell with reactions.
OR
b. Elaborate the non-conventional energy sources.

*****
S.No.1118
SL.NO:1111 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE46
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE - WORK DESIGN AND ERGONOMICS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Define product.
2 Define standard time.
3 Mention some work measurement equipment.
4 What is meant by Special allowance time?
5 State the principles of salary.
6 Why is a human factor important?
7 What is the role of the human factors coordinator (HFC)?
8 How will measure the Somatotypes?
9 How is anthropometry used today?
10 What is the use of stadiometer?

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. What are the various symbols of process chart? Explain in detail.
OR
b. Explain the steps involved in conducting the method study.

12 a. Explain with suitable example the significance, construction and applications of the multiple activity
charts.
OR
b. What is the difference between micro and macro motion charts? Explain it.

13 a. List out the various steps in conducting a stop watch time study. Explain in detail.

OR
b. Explain the systematic procedure of time study.

14 a. What do you understand by PMTS? Explain its importance in time study.

OR
b. Discuss in detail about Taylor's Differential Piece Rate Plan (p.t.o)
 2
15 a. Describe in detail about Merrick's Multiple Piece Rate Plan
OR
b. Discuss in detail about the following:
1. MTM 2.MOST

16 a. How can human factors contribute in ergonomics? Explain in detail.

OR
b. Explain the various stages of human system design and development in detail.

17 a. Discuss the process of muscle metabolism in human beings during work.

OR

b. Discuss in detail about the anthropometric division of body types.

18 a. Discuss in detail about static anthropometry with neat sketch.

OR

b. Illustrate with a neat sketch, explain in detail about Sitting postures anthropometry.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Solve – A job has been sub-divided into 4 elements. The time for each element and t i respective
rating are given below :

Calculate the normal time and standard time for each element and for the job if the allowance is 5%.

OR

b. Describe in detail about Output-based incentive plans.

20 a. Discuss in detail about Man-Machine Systems: Design, Characteristics and Classification.

OR

b. Discuss in detail about the anthropometric division of body types.

*****

SL.NO:1111
SL.NO:1110 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE31
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE - TURBOMACHINERY

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 List out the fluid flowing methods in turbo machines.

2 Define Nozzle.
3 List out the types of turbines.
4 Define degrees of reaction.
5 Define throat.
6 What is the function of diffusers in a centrifugal compressor?
7 What is low reaction stage?
8 Define transonic flow.
9 What is windagelosses?
10 What is zero reaction stage?

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a.
The impeller tip speed of a centrifugal compressor is 370 m/s, slip factor is 0.90, and the radial
velocity component at the exit is 35 m/s. If the flow area at the exit is 0.18m² and compressor
efficiency is 0.88, determine the mass flow rate of air and the absolute Mach number at the
impeller tip. Assume air density = 1.57 kg/m³ and inlet stagnation temperature is 290 K.
Neglect the work input factor. Also, find the overall pressure ratio of the compressor.
OR
b. An axial flow compressor stage has the following data:
Air inlet stagnation temperature: 295K
Blade angle at outlet measured from the axial direction: 328
Flow coefficient: 0:56
Relative inlet Mach number: 0:78
Degree of reaction: 0:5
Find the stagnation temperature rise in the first stage of the compressor.

(p.t.o)
 2
12 a. A small inward radial flow gas turbine operates at its
Design point with a total-to-total efficiency of 0.90. The stagnation pressure and temperature
of the gas at nozzle inlet are 310 kPa and 1145K respectively. The flow leaving the turbine is
diffused to a pressure of 100 kPa and the velocity of flow is negligible at that point. Given that
the Mach number at exit from the nozzles is 0.9, find the impeller tip speed and the flow angle
at the nozzle exit.
Assume that the gas enters the impeller radially and there is no whirl at the impeller exit. Take
Cp =1:147 kJ/kgK; g = 1:333:

OR
b. Explain the operation and construction of Jet pump.

13 a.
Compare the turbo machines with positive displacement machines for their features.
OR
b. Define turbo machine. What are the main differences between incompressible and compressible flow
machines?

14 a. Describe the industrial applications of Gas turbines, Compressors and low pressure fans
Understand
OR
b. Illustrate with a neat sketch explain about the Fan performance in detail.
performance in detail.

15 a. Explain the various losses of fans in detail.

OR
b.
Demonstrate briefly with the aid of illustrative sketch of centrifugal blower.

16 a. Explain the terms “slip factor” and “power input factor” in detail.
OR
b. Explain the phenomenon of stalling, surging and choking in centrifugal compressors.

17 a.
What is an airfoil? Explain with a sketch, the various terms used in airfoil geometry
OR

b. Explain the Reaction ratio equation in detail.

18 a. Illustrate with a neat sketch explain the multistage velocity-compound turbine.

OR

b. Discuss in detail about the single impulse turbine with a neat sketch.
(p.t.o)
 SL.NO:1110
3

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )

19 a. In a three stage turbine the pressure ratio of each stage is 2 and the stage efficiency is
75%,.Calculate the overall efficiency and the power developed if the air is initially at a
temperature of 6000C flows through it at the rate of 25kg/sec. Find reheat factor.

OR

b. Air flows through a blower , its total pressure is increased by 15 cm of water head. The inlet
total pressure and temperature are 105 KPa and 15° C . The total –to –total efficiency is 75%.
Evaluate:
1) Exit total pressure and temperature and
2) Isentropic and actual change in total head enthalpy. Assume 50% reaction.

20 a. An axial compressor stage has mean diameter 600 mm and runs at 250rps . The actual
temperature rise is 30° C and the pressure ratio is developed is 1.35. Initial pressure is 35°C
andthe temperature rise in the rotor is 20°C. Mass flow is 50 kg/sec and the mechanical
efficiency is 85% , determine,
a) Power required to drive the compressor
b) Loading co-efficient
c) Degree of reaction
d) Stage efficiency
OR

b.
The blade speed of an axial flow turbine is 300m/sec. The mass flow rate is 2.5kg/sec. The gas
temperature at turbine inlet and outlet are 5000C and 3000C respectively. The fixed blade
outlet angle is 700.Axial velocity remains constant at 200m/sec, Draw the velocity triangle and
determine the power developed, degree of reaction and blade efficiency. Assume CP of gases
1.05J/Kg0K
*****

SL.NO:1110
SL.NO:1109 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE05
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022

ELECTIVE : WASTE ENERGY CONVERSION TECHNOLOGIES

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 How the waste is classified?

2 What is LCA for MSW?
3
How long does it take to decompose for plastic?
4 What are the classifications of landfills?
5 What is pyrolysis?
6 Why should we recycle the waste?
7 What are the four types of biomass that can be converted to energy?
8 What is refuse-derived fuel (RDF)?
9 What is meant by briquetting?
10 What are the rules and regulations for MSW in India?

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Discuss in detail with a flow chart on how the wastes are collected and transported.
OR
b. Explain the methods of processing the waste.

12 a. Describe about the characterization of biomedical waste

OR
b. What are the common methods of waste disposal and explain each in detail.

13 a. What are the types of incinerators and explain any one type in detail.
OR
b.
Illustrate with a neat sketch, explain aerobic and anaerobic composting of municipal solid waste.
(p.t.o)
 2
14 a. Explain in detail about layout and preliminary designs of landfill.
OR
b. Define pyrolysis and explain in brief with a neat diagram of any one pyrolysis process.
15 a. Discuss in detail about the environmental impact of incineration process.
OR
b. Explain in detail about the benefits of waste to energy, utilization of bottom ash from incineration
process.
16 a. Explain in detail about anaerobic digestion of municipal waste.
OR
b. Discuss in detail on industrial waste and agro waste.

17 a. How the waste to energy can be implemented in villages? Explain in detail.

OR

b. Explain the methods of implementing the energy conversion in cities.

18 a. Explain the rules and regulations formulated for handling and disposal of MSW in India
OR

b. Explain the rules and regulations formulated for handling and treatment of BMW in India

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )

19 a. Explain and discuss in detail about the characterization of municipal solid waste, Industrial waste
and Biomedical waste.
OR

b. What are the types of incinerators and explain any three types in brief.

20 a. Explain in detail about the anaerobic digestion of sewage and municipal waste.
OR

b. Explain the rules and regulations formulated for handling, treatment and disposal of Biomedical
Waste in India
*****

SL.NO:1109
SL.NO:1117 SUBJECT CODE:17MEEC13
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE - INDUSTRIAL SAFETY

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Analysis the Environmental Assessment using GIS?

2 Analysis the importance of electricity act.
3 Analysis the importance of IBA.
4 Define trauma. Give its importance.
5 Define thermal pollution.
6 What is the relation between safety and productivity.
7 Discuss about frequency rate.
8 Summarize any two toxic gases and chemicals.
9 Illustrate the names of any two material handling equipment’ s.
10 Categorize the safety guidelines while selecting eye protective equipment.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Show the various safety measures in material handling and storage.
OR
b. Infer the various first aid procedures for fire accident victims.

12 a. Examine various safety measures in ensuring road safety.

OR
b. Categorize various causes of occupational diseases.
13 a. Outline about the Factory act 1948.
OR
b. Determine the various industrial pollution controls.
14 a. Breakdown the various personal protective equipment’s.
OR
b. Analyze the industrial Hygiene.
(p.t.o)
 2
15 a. Discuss in detail about the functions of safety management.
OR
b. Summarize various types and levels of safety committee.
16 a. Explain safety and productivity including the cost elements involved.
OR
b. Explain the various safety measures in gas furnace safety operation.

17 a. Discuss about the hot metal operations and safety measures.

OR

b. Explain various safety measures in Machine shop.

18 a. Interpret the various safety measures in Grinding and explain grinding operation elaborately.
OR

b. Classify the salient features of Indian Boiler Act.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Show the various safety measures in material handling and storage.
OR

b. Determine the general recommendations for physical control of the hazards in your choice of
personnel protective equipment.

20 a. Summarize the objectives of safety committee? When do we conduct safety audit? Explain the
performance measurement and motivation taken by the organization to implement safety
programs?
OR

b. Summarize the detailed check list for ensuring the safe operation of vertical machining center.

*****

SL.NO:1117
SL.NO:1108 SUBJECT CODE:17MABS16
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

NUMERICAL METHODS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Define transcendental equation

2 When Gauss-Elimination method may fail?

3 When Bessel’s formula is to be used?

4 State Inverse Lagrange’s Interpolation Formula.

5 Explain Numerical Differentiation.

6 How will you improve the accuracy in the Trapezoidal Rule?

7 How many prior values are required to predict the next value in Adam’s method?

8 Write the third order Runge-Kutta method algorithm to find the numerical solution of the first order
differential equation.

9 What is different methods for solving Boundary Value Problem.

10 Solve xy ' + y =0, y(1) = 1, y(2) = 2 with h = 0.5

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Evaluate 12 to four decimal places by Newton - Raphson method

OR
b. 8x + y + z = 8
Solve the following system of equations by Gauss Seidel method 2 x + 4 y + z = 4
x + 3 y + 5z = 5
(p.t.o)
 2
12 a. Using Newton’s Divided Difference Formula to find the value of log10 656 . Given
log10 654 = 2.8156, log10 658 = 2.8182, log10 659 = 2.8189, and log10 661 = 2.8202 .

OR
b.

13 a. 6
dx 1 3
Solve ∫ 1+ x
0
2
by using Simpson’s
3
and rule by dividing interval into 6 equal parts.
8

OR
5
b. dx
Using Gaussian three-point formula , evaluate ∫x 1

14 a. dy y 2 − x 2
Apply the Runge-Kutta method of fourth order, to find y ( 0.2 ) , given = with y (0) = 1,
dx y 2 + x 2
h = 0.2 .

OR
b. Apply the Runge-Kutta method of fourth order, to find y (0.1), y(0.2) , given
dy 1
= (1 + x) y 2 , y (0) =
1.
dx 2
15 a. Solve the equation y′′ − xy =
0 given y (0) =
−1, y (1) =
2 by finite difference method taking n=2.

OR
b. d2y
Solve by finite difference method, the boundary value problem − y = 0 with y(0) = 0 and
dx 2
y(2) = 4 choosing ∆x = 0.5

2 2
16 a. 1
Using the Simpson’s rule, evaluate ∫ ∫ x + y dxdy by dividing into two equal sub intervals.
1 1

OR
1
b. Use of Romberg’s method, to compute dx
I =∫ correct to 4 decimal places. Hence find log e 2 .
0
1+ x

(p.t.o)
Sl.No.1108
 3
17 a. 2 1 1
 
Find the inverse of a matrix 3 2 3 by Gauss Jordan method
 
1 4 9
OR
b. Solve dy= x + y, given y(1) = 0, Find y(1.1) and y(1.2) by Taylors series method
dx

dy 1
18 a. Solve = ( x + y ) , given y (0) = 2 , y (0.5) = 2.636 , y (1) = 3.595 and y (1.5) = 4.968 by
dx 2
using Milne’s method find to y (2)

OR
b.
Solve the Laplace equation u xx + u yy = 0 for the following square mesh with boundary values as
shown.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Using Gauss – Jordan method to solve the following system.
x + 2y + z = 3
2 x + 3 y + 3z =10
3x − y + 2 z = 13
OR
b.

(p.t.o)
Sl.No.1108
 4

20 a. dy 2 2
Using Modified Euler method, Find y (0.1) , y (0.2), given =
x + y , y (0) =
1.
dx

OR

Solve y − y = x , x ∈ (0,1) given y (0) =y (1) =0, using finite differences dividing the interval
b. ''

into 4 equal parts.

*****
SL.NO:1108
SL.NO:1101 SUBJECT CODE:17MEPI03
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE - NOISE, VIBRATION AND HARSHNESS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Define resonance.
2 List the vehicle noises that are usually tested as per regulation.
3 Define the structure borne sound.
4 List Difference between vibration and Noise.
5 Name the standards in noise measurement.
6 Define traffic noise.
7 Explain the different types of vibrations.
8 Explain about geartrain noise
9 Discuss about noise measurement transducers.
10 Explain about various acquisition techniques adopted.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. A harmonic exiting force of 25N is acting on a machine part which is having a mass of 2Kg
and vibrating in viscous medium. The exciting force causes resonant amplitude of 12.5mm
with a period of 0.2sec.

OR
b. Explain about Truck Intake and Exhaust Noise.

12 a. Deduce the expression for the free longitudinal vibration in terms of spring stiffness, its inertia
effect and suspended mass.
OR
b. Derive the expression for torsional vibration.
13 a. Explain the different types of vibration isolation methods.
OR
b. List the approachs of diesel engine system design to NVH?
14 a. Explain about piston slap noise and piston assembly dynamics modeling for piston slap.
OR (p.t.o)
 2
b. Explain the Following sound Measuring instruments.
a) Microphones b) Noise Dosimeters
15 a. Illustrate with neat sketch explain the sound level meter.
OR
b. What is meant by Transmissibility? Explain the various types.
16 a. Discuss about the importance of vibrations
OR
b. Summarize the different types of vibration monitoring techniques.

17 a. Describe about procedure to stationary vehicle test and list the equipments used.

OR

b. Explain different types of Vibration and Noise Measurement Transducers.

18 a. Explain about passenger car noise.

OR

b. Give Short Notes About-a) Tire Noise And Their Control Methods,b)Brake Noise.c)Noise
Control Strategy

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. The support of a spring mass system is vibrating with amplitude of 6 mm and a
frequency of 1200 cycles/min. If a mass is 95 kg and the spring has a stiffness of 1950 N/m,
determine the amplitude of vibration of the mass.
If a damping factor of 0.2 is include, what would be the amplitude?

OR

b. Explain the Engine Noise with suitable reasons.

20 a. Discuss in detail about Vehicle and powertrain noise, vibration, and harshness
(NVH).
OR

b. Explain the working of various types of transducers with neat sketch used in
vibration and noise measurement.
*****

SL.NO:1101
SL.NO:1097 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE39
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE-LEAN MANUFACTURING SYSTEMS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Give the various principles of lean manufacturing.

2 What is meant by value added activity?
3 What is meant by Seiketsu?
4 Define overall equipment effectiveness.
5 State the merits of JIT system.
6 State the limitations of VSM
7 Give some examples for poka yoke systems.
8 What do you understand by special cause variation.
9 What are the activities of quality circles?
10 What is meant by SWOT analysis?

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Compare and contrast the lean manufacturing system with conventional manufacturing system.

OR
b. Explain the origin of lean production system in detail.

12 a. Enumerate the advantages and limitations of lean manufacturing system.

OR
b. Illustrate Work Combination Chart for any process and explain it in detail.

13 a. What is meant by cell layout? Explain the various types of layouts with neat diagram.
OR
b. Explain the Jishu Hozen and office TPM with illustrations.

14 a. Outline the following 1.Autonomous maintenance 2.Planned maintenance 3.Quality maintenance

OR
b. Discuss the purpose of value stream mapping p.t.o
 2
15 a. Explain the significance of pull system over the push system in lean manufacturing.
OR
b. Discuss about the merits and limitations of VSM.

16 a. Discuss about the implementation of Jidoka.

OR
b. Explain the Mistake proofing device and Critical condition device with an example.

17 a. Explain the implications and advantages of implementing Poka-Yoke system.

OR
b. Describe the procedure for implementing Poka Yoke system.

18 a. What is strategic planning? Explain in detail.

OR
b. Classify the different types of kaizen activities. Explain in detail.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Describe the pillars of TPM with illustrations.
OR
b. Enumerate the elements of JIT manufacturing system.

20 a. Explain the different types of Poka Yoke system.

OR
b. Enumerate the various aspects of lean culture.
*****
SL.NO:1097
SL.NO:1096 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE24
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE-COMBUSTION ENGINEERING

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 List the types of fuels.

2 Define octane number?
3 Define product of combustion.
4 Define steady flame.
5 State Arrhenius equation.
6 Identify chain branching reaction.
7 Define flammability.
8 List some practical examples of premixed laminar flames.
9 Write a short note on NOx emissions.
10 Tell about laminar jets.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Differentiate between laminar flame and turbulent flame. Explain in detail.
OR
b. Discuss about the presence of a catalyst that influences reaction rates.

12 a. Discuss the effect of equivalence ratio on flame speed? Explain briefly.

OR
b. Discuss the effects of NOx emissions.

13 a. Discuss about the relationship between incomplete combustion and the atmosphere?
OR
b. Discuss, How would you calculate rate constant? Give an example and explain them briefly.

14 a. Summarize short notes on (i) flame velocity (ii) flame thickness.

OR p.t.o
 2
b. Illustrate neat sketches and explain the following
(i) laminar flame (ii) turbulent flame

15 a. Discuss the structure of diffusion flame from laminar jets? Explain in detail.
OR
b. Explain primary fuels with examples.

16 a. Illustrate with a neat sketch Explain premixed flame

OR
b. Describe combustion stoichiometry with an example.

17 a. Differentiate between enthalpy and entropy in detail.

OR
b. Summarize a short note on the following. (i) Chemical kinetics (ii) Reaction rates

18 a. Explain droplet combustion. Discuss in detail about evaporation of droplet.

OR
b. Differentiate between premixed turbulent flame and diffusion turbulent flame? Explain in
detail.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Discuss the effects of pollutants in detail.
OR
b. Illustrate with neat sketches explain the structure of different premixed flames.

20 a. Describe the fractional distillation process with a neat sketch.

OR
b. Describe a simple model for evaporating and burning droplet.
*****
SL.NO:1096
SL.NO:1095 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE18
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE-METAL FORMING AND JOINING PROCESS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Define Workhardening.
2 Define Cold working.
3 What is closed die forging?
4 List the types of extrusion.
5 What is arc welding?
6 What is the purpose of flux?
7 List the advantages of SAW welding.
8 What is stainless steel?
9 Define hot cracking.
10 Classify the types of electrodes.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Explain any one Cold working process with suitable sketch.
OR
b. Explain detailed about the warm hardening process.

12 a. Discuss in detailed about the work hardening.

OR
b. Explain recrystallization process in metal forming.

13 a. Explain the direct extrusion process with neat sketch.

OR
b. Describe hydrostatic extrusion process.

14 a. Explain hot extrusion and its types with a neat sketch.

OR
b. Explain the Gas Tungsten Arc welding with a neat sketch.

15 a. Explain the Gas cutting with a neat sketch. p.t.o

 2
OR
b. Briefly explain flame characteristics of gas welding process with a neat sketch.

16 a. Describe friction welding with a neat sketch.

OR
b. Describe about upset and flash butt welding process.

17 a. Enumerate in detail about the advantages and disadvantages, Applications of laser beam
welding.
OR
b. Describe in detail about seam welding process and discuss its advantages.

18 a. Briefly explain the process of joining martensitic materials.

OR
b. Explain the sensitisation process.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Discuss hot working of metals with a neat sketch.
OR
b. Explain the Rolling process in detail.

20 a. Discuss Electro gas welding with neat sketch.

OR
b. Expain in detail about cold cracking process with neat sketch.
*****
SL.NO:1095
SL.NO:1094 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE13
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE-GEOMETRIC MODELLING

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Define Computer Graphics.

2 What is homogeneous coordinate representation?
3 Define “Concatenation of transformations”.
4 What are synthetic curves?
5 State the advantages of B-rep.
6 Define control polygon of a curve.
7 Mention any two surface removal algorithm.
8 List out some entities for design of solids.
9 How the visual realism of images can be enhanced?
10 Show the line entities in 2D drafting.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Describe Graphical Primitives with a neat sketch used for Computer graphics.
OR
b. Summarize short notes on Parallel line algorithm.

12 a. Extend about the area fill algorithm.

OR
b. Outline the following i) Rendering & ii) Shading in computer graphics.

13 a. Explain Orthographic projection in detail.

OR
b. Describe 2D reflection with the Matrix.

14 a. Compare between Parallel and Perspective Projection in detail.

OR
b. Demonstrate the properties of B-Spline curve.

15 a. Summarize a short note on Knot vector generation. p.t.o

 2
OR
b. Summarize a short note on sub-division of Bezier curve

16 a. Summarize a short note on “16 point form” in design of surfaces.

OR
b. Describe construction of “Coons patch”.

17 a. Explain briefly about surface of revolution.

OR
b. Explain computer animation and its applications.

18 a. Briefly explain about animation and design application.

OR
b. Describe the various light sources with example.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Explain DDA algorithm in generation of a line.
OR
b. Explain de Casteljau's algorithm in evaluation of polynomial.

20 a. Describe the CSG model with suitable example.

OR
b. Describe ‘Pseudo code’ algorithm for 2D animation.
*****
SL.NO:1094
SL.NO:1093 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE04
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE-RENEWABLE SOURCES OF ENERGY

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 What is diffuse radiation?

2 List the basic components of solar water pump.
3 What is the minimum wind speed required for generating electricity in a wind mill?
4 List the various forms of renewable energy.
5 How much methane content (in %) available in bio gas?
6 What is Bio-mass?
7 List the basic types of water turbines.
8 Define energy.
9 List the two important new energy sources.
10 Identify the wind power equation.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Discuss about the applications of solar photo-voltaic system in Rural Areas.
OR
b. Discuss the economic benefits of bio gas utilization.

12 a. Discuss the main environmental impacts of OTEC-like technologies relation.

OR
b. Explain the solar thermal power plant with neat sketch.

13 a. Explain briefly about solar water pump with the help of a neat sketch.
OR
b. Describe in detail about the principle of liquid flat plate solar collector.

14 a. Explain the essential features of probable site for a wind form.

OR
b. Explain the “Nearly constant speed - constant frequency” system.

15 a. Discuss about hybrid system in wind power. p.t.o

 2
OR
b. Explain briefly about the material requirement for construction of Bio gas production.

16 a. Explain the details of down-draught and cross-draught gasifier.

OR
b. Explain the Applications of GIS in geo-sciences.

17 a. Explain the Factors affecting the tidal power plant.

OR
b. Explain the Life cycle analysis of renewable energy.

18 a. Explain the National energy policy.

OR
b. Describe the thermo-chemical method of hydrogen production.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Explain the principles of operations of different types of solar collectors, with neat sketch.
OR
b. Discuss the hydrogen generation, storage methods and its transportation and utilization.

20 a. Explain briefly about wind farm and draw with neat diagram about how the wind farm is located?

OR
Explain in detail about different energy storage methods and with a neat sketch explain any one in
b.
detail.
*****
SL.NO:1093
SL.NO:1086 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE49
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE- PROCESS PLANNING AND COST ESTIMATION

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 What is meant by “SIMO” chart?

2 List the objectives of the study of ergonomics.
3 What is meant by process planning?
4 What are the two general approach of process planning?
5 What do you mean by a realistic estimate?
6 What are the components of cost?
7 Define multiple cost method.
8 Discuss the various causes of depreciation.
9 Define Cutting speed.
10 What is shrinkage allowance?

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. A manufacturing firm has total overheads of Rs.1, 20,000 and total prime cost Rs.2.5 lacs for
the year 2002-03. Find out the share of overheads to be allocated to products A and B by
proportional to prime cost method using the following data.
Product A Product B
Direct material cost Rs. 900 Rs.1000
Direct labour cost Rs. 700 Rs.600
Direct other expenses Rs. 300 Rs.250

OR
b. A 3 cm deep slot is to be milled with a 8 cm diameter cutter. The length of the slot is 30 cm.
What will be the total table travel to complete the cut? If the cutting speed is 20 meters/min
and feed per tooth is 0.2 mm, examine the milling time. The cutter has 24 teeth and one cut is
sufficient for the slot.

p.t.o
 2
12 a. A 15 cm long M.S bar is to be turned from 4 cm dia in single cut in such a way
that for 5 cm length its dia is reduced to 3.8 cm and remaining 10 cm length is
reduced to 3.4 cm. Estimate the total time required for turning it assuming cutting speed as 30
m/min., feed as 0.02 cm/revolution and time required for setting and Mounting of the job in a
three jaw chuck is 30 sec. Neglect the tool setting time.Examine the time required for knurling
5 cm length at 20 m/min and feed 0.03 cm/rev.?

OR
b. Estimate the planning time for a casting 1.25m long and 0.5m wide which is machined on a
planner having cutting speed of 12m/min and a return speed of 30m/min. Two cuts are
required, one roughing with a depth of 3.125mm and a feed of 0.1mm/rev and other finishing
with a depth of 0.125mm and using a feed of 0.125mm.

13 a. What are the various symbols of process chart? Write and explain briefly.
OR
b. List out the various steps in conducting a stop watch time study. Explain briefly.

14 a. Draw and explain cyclograph and chronocyclegraph.

OR
b. Explain in detail the activities of process planning.

15 a. Explain the factors to be considered for selecting machines and materials.

OR
b. Explain Retrieval approaches process planning with suitable example.

16 a. What is the purpose of costing? Explain “Why costing is essential to industrial control”.
OR
b. Explain about various methods of costing.

17 a. Explain the constituents of estimation.

OR
b. Name the various elements of cost? Explain each element in detail giving suitable example.

18 a. Explain the procedure for Estimation of Material cost.

OR
 b. Estimate the machining time required to produce one piece of the component
shown in Fig. starting from 25 mm bar. The following data is available

For turning:
Cutting speed = 40 m/min. Feed = 0.4 mm/rev. Depth of cut = 2.5 mm/per pass
For thread cutting:
Cutting speed = 8 m/min

p.t.o

3
Answer ALL questions
PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. A factory has a capacity to produce 1000 shapes/annum. But at present it is working at its 70%
capacity. The sales income at this level is Rs 52,50,000. The fixed cost of the factory is Rs
20,00,000 and variable cost per piece is Rs 2500. There is a proposal for mechanization but
this will increase the fixed cost by Rs 40,000 and will reduce the variable cost by Rs 500 per
unit. Estimate (a) whether the proposal is economical, (b) If a reduction in selling price by Rs
200 per unit makes the factory to run at 85% of its full capacity, would this be a better
proposal than the first one.
OR
 b. Two plates each 1.2 mm long and 8 mm thick are to be welded. A 60° Vee is prepared by
means of gas cutting before welding is to be commenced. The cost of oxygen is Rs. 9/m3 and
of acetylene Rs. 45/ . The labor charges are Rs. 4 per hour. The filler metal costs Rs. 11/kg.
Using rightward technique, find the cost of cutting and welding. Take density of filler metal as
10 gm/cc. The following data is also available :
For cutting (for 10 mm thick plate):
Cutting speed = 20 m/hr
Consumption of oxygen = 2 m3/hr
Consumption of acetylene = 0.2 m3/hr
Data for rightward welding (for 8 mm thick plate):
Consumption of oxygen = 0.78 m3/hr
Consumption of acetylene = 0.8 m3/hr
Diameter of filler rod used = 4 mm
Rate of welding = 2.25 m/hr
Filler rod used per meter of weld = 3.4 m

20 a. Justify the importance of process planner to have a good knowledge of materials used in
manufacturing.
OR
b. For manufacturing a milling machine, the expenditure is tabulated in table
Sl.No. Particulars Expense in Rs.
1 Material consumed 46,000
2 Indirect factory wages 7,000
3 Directors fees 2,500
4 Advertising 8,000
5 Net profit 11,750
6 Depreciation on sales department’s car 900
7 Printing and stationary 350
8 Depreciation on plant 4,200
9 Direct wages 59,000
10 Factory rent 5,750
11 Telephone and postal charges 250
12 Gas and electricity 400
13 Office salaries 2,000
14 Office rent 600
15 Show room rent 1,200
16 Salesman’s commission 1,850
17 Sales department car expenses 1,200
Find out (a) prime cost, (b) Factory cost, (c) Total cost of production
(d) cost of sales and (e) selling price.

*****
SL.NO:1086
SL.NO:1085 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE35
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE-NANOSTRUCTURED MATERIALS AND ITS APPLICATIONS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Discuss briefly about implication of nanotechnology in Chemistry.

2 Mention the operation of planetary ball mill process.
3 Define quantum dots.
4 Describe porous silicon is useful in electronics.
5 Define sol-gel method.
6 Define lithography.
7 Express the advantages of X-ray lithography.
8 Distinguish lithography and etching.
9 Outline the process of inert gas condensation
10 Mention the various kinds of plasma assisted CVD techniques.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Write a note on thin films and multilayered materials. Discuss any two methods of thin film
deposition techniques in detail.
OR
b. Explain the classification of nanostructures materials in the context of Quantum confinement
in detail.

12 a. Describe the recent trends in nanoscience and technology in the field of textile, agriculture and
medicine.
OR
b. Discuss the effect of size reduction on the various properties of a material with examples.

13 a. Draw suitable illustration and explain about the classification of nano materials.
OR
b. Illustrate Physical Vapour Deposition technique with a neat diagram.

14 a. Illustrate the method of growing thin film using evaporation technique.

OR p.t.o
 2
b. Determine the various factors which cause toxic and biohazards

15 a. Describe the principle of dry etching process and explain about plasma etching.
OR
b. Illustrate the two classes of etching process in detail.

16 a. Illustrate the process of electron beam lithography with neat sketch.

OR
b. Discuss mechanical property of CNT with an example.

17 a. Explain briefly the principle of nano-drug delivery.

OR
b. Explain briefly the principle of nanomagnatic data storage.

18 a. Write about molecular nano technology. Explain in detail.

OR
b. How to prepare nano fluid? Explain any three methods for producing nanofluids.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Illustrate the method of growing a thin film using Molecular Beam Epitaxy with its advantages.
OR
b. Illustrate etch resists method and mention its applications.

20 a. Explain the Sol-gel method of synthesizing nanoparticles in detail with its advantages and
disadvantages.
OR
b. Describe in detail about the principle, construction, working and application of MOMBE.
*****
SL.NO:1085
SL.NO:1077 SUBJECT CODE:17MEP104
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE-NON DESTRUCTIVE TESTING

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Summarize the filters in radiographic testing.

2 Discuss list of ultrasonic inspection techniques in UT.
3 Interpret the sections of the characteristics curve of X-ray film.
4 Define the term "Crompton effect".
5 Examine the factors affecting mechanical properties of materials.
6 Define Bore scope.
7 What is liquid penetrant testing?
8 List various steps involved in magnetic particle testing.
9 List the characteristics of Infrared waves.
10 Define the principle of hall effect

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Examine with a case study discuss the applications of material characterization.
OR
b. Examine the factors influencing the selection of NDT methods.

12 a. Explain the following: (i) Application of visual inspection. (ii)     Advantages and
disadvantages of visual inspection.
OR
b. Discuss about the physical principles of liquid penetrant testing with neat sketch. Also bring
out the advantages and limitations of the liquid penetrant testing.

13 a. (i) Explain about various types of developers.

(ii) List out various characteristics of developers.

OR
b. Discuss about water washable and post emulsifiable-hydrophilie methods in liquid penetrant
testing using process flow diagram.
p.t.o
 2
14 a. Explain about dry and wet particle inspection techniques with neat diagram
OR
b. Describe in detail about the elements of infrared detection system with block diagram

15 a. Describe classification of Infrared sensors and explain with neat sketch about working
principle of IR sensors.
OR
b. Discribe about Contact and Non-Contact inspection methods in Thermography with neat
sketch.

16 a. Explain with neat sketch about the arrangement of Acoustic emission testing setup
OR
b. Discuss the following Ultrasonic inspection technique with neat sketch. (i) Straight beam
ultrasonic inspection method (ii) Angle beam ultrasonic inspection method.

17 a. Explain the principle of Acoustic emission test with neat sketch and List the applications of
Acoustic emission test.
OR
b. Explain in detail about Xerography techniques with suitable sketch.

18 a. Describe radiographic imaging techniques with suitable sketch.

OR
b. Discuss the components of X-ray generator with suitable sketch.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Explain the following with suitable sketch:
(i) Elasticity (ii) Hardness (iii) Brittleness (iv) Ductility (v) Malleability
OR
b. Associate the procedure of corrosion detection in Eddy current testing of Non destructive
testing.

20 a. Explain about various parameters involved in Acoustic Emission Testing method of Non
destructive testing.
OR
b. Summarize the components of Acoustic emission test.llustrate with neat sketch about the
arrangement of Acoustic emission testing setup.
*****
SL.NO:1077
SL.NO:1067 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE38
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE - INDUSTRIAL ENGINEERING

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 What is the purpose to increase the productivity for workers?

2 Write two applications of flow process chart.
3 State the principle of material handling.

4 What do you meant by plant location?

5 What do you understand by the term scheduling?
6 What is meant by sequencing?
7 What are the benefits of MRP?
8 What is the different phase of bench marking?
9 State break- even point.
10 List out any three recruitment tests used in selecting employees

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Explain the various factors are considered for the selection of a site for a plant.
OR
b. Explain the various principles of material handling.

12 a. What are the various phases involved in plant layout procedure? Explain in detail.
OR
b. Explain the combination and fixed position layout with suitable example and sketch.

13 a. Classify the Forecasting Techniques. Explain with suitable example in any two techniques.
OR
b. Explain the Dispatching procedure, and also explain the centralized and decentralized (p.t.o)
dispatching. Give the advantages, disadvantages and applications
 2
14 a. What do you understand by production planning and control? Discuss its main elements or
functions
OR
b. Explain the MRP system. Discuss different inputs and outputs of MRP.

15 a. Explain the significance of ABC analysis. How is it helpful in the inventory control.
OR
b. What do you understand by inventory control? Explain the purpose of maintaining inventory in
any production unit
16 a. Describe the following
a. Limited Partner
b. Minor partner

OR
b. Explain the Quantitative methods in decision making.

17 a. Explain the steps involved in break even analysis. What are the advantages and
Limitations of break even analysis?

OR

b. What are the factors affecting productivity? Explain in detail.

18 a. List out the various steps in conducting a stop watch time study. Explain.
OR

b. Write notes on the following

i. Design of man machine systems and
ii. Design of working environment

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Discuss briefly the evolution and importance of industrial engineering.
OR

b. Describe the purpose and uses of merit rating.

20 a. Write short notes on i) loading chart , ii)route card , iii) material requisition
OR

b. Differentiate EMQ and EOQ.

*****
SL.NO:1066 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE27
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE - POWER PLANT ENGINEERING

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Name few accessories of thermal power plant.

2 What are the advantages of bin or central system.
3 What is nuclear fission?
4 List out any two disadvantages of hydro electric power plant.
5 List few characteristics of Diesel power plant.
6 What are the different methods of producing electricity with tides?
7 What are the components of tidal power plant?
8 What are the power cycles employed in solar thermal power generation?
9 What is meant by cost analysis?
10 Define plant use factor.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. The air enters the compressor of an open cycle constant pressure gas turbine at a pressure of 1
bar and temperature of 20ºC. The pressure of the air after compression is 4 bar. The isentropic
efficiencies of compressor and turbine are 80% and 85% respectively. The air fuel ratio used
is 90:1. If the flow rate of air is 3.0 kg/S, find the Power developed. Assume Cp=1.0kJ/kg K
and γ=1.4 for air and gases;Calorific value of fuel = 41800 kJ/kg.
OR
b. Determine the annual cost of diesel power station from the following data:
Capital cost = Rs 60x 105
Salvage value =6%
Life = 20 years
Annual repair and maintenance cost = Rs 32000
(p.t.o)
 2
12 a. The output of a generating station is 12 MW and annual load factor is 0.58. The annual cost of
a fuel for running the plant is Rs 12 x105 and the annual wages and taxes are Rs 10x105. The
capital cost of the plant is Rs 700x105and interest and depreciation charges are made 10% of
capital cost per annum. Determine the cost of generation.
OR
b. Explain about Hydrograph in detail.

13 a. Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of hydro electric power plant briefly.
OR
b. Explain pressurised water reactor with a neat sketch.

14 a. Explain the factors to be considered for Nuclear power plant site selection.
OR
b. Explain the common rail injection system in detail.

15 a. Explain "Turbo Charging" and "Gas Generator".

OR
b. What is supercharging? Explain the methods of supercharging diesel engines.
16 a. Discuss the principle of OTEC power plant with a neat sketch.
OR
b. Explain the solar pond technology.

17 a. Explain the electrical equipment layout with neat sketch.

OR

b. What are the different types of pulverizing mills? Explain any one.

18 a. Explain pulverized coal firing system.

OR

b. Illustrate the different types of coals.

(p.t.o)
Answer ALL questions
PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )

3
19 a. The following data pertain to a power plant:
Installed capacity = 200MW
Capital cost = Rs.350 x 107
Annual cost of fuel, taxes and salaries = Rs.55 x 107
Rate of interest = 5% of the capital
Rate of depreciation = 6% of the capital
Annual load factor = 0.65
Capacity factor = 0.56
Energy used in running the plant auxiliaries = 4% of total units generated.
Determine (a) The cost of power generation (b) The reserve capacity.

OR
b. Explain the stages in Coal handling process.

20 a. Explain the different factors to be considered while selecting a site for Hydro Electric power
plant.
OR

b. Explain the vertical axis wind machines. Mention the advantages and disadvantages.
*****
SL.NO:1065 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE10
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE - DESIGN FOR MANUFACTURING AND ASSEMBLY

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Define Tolerance stack.

2 Define casting process.
3 State the need for reduction of machined area.

4 Illustrate how the machined areas can be reduced.

5 List out the factors considered for assembly methods.
6 Define bill of material.
7 Write a short note about process capability.
8 State the design factors in DFMA.
9 What is meant by amalgamation process.
10 Define interface in assembly.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Develop various evaluation methods used for manufacturability in DFMA.
OR
b. Describe with neat sketch about the manufacturing datum, functional datum & change in datum in
DFM.

12 a. Explain in detail about the material selection process.

OR
b. Describe the design principle for manufacturability in DFMA.

13 a. List out the design rules for form design of welded member with neat sketch.
OR
b. Discuss about the doweling procedure and counter sunk screws.

14 a. List out the design rules for form design of forging member with neat sketch. (p.t.o)
 2
OR
b. Summarize about minimizing the core requirements in casting process with example.

15 a. Describe in detail about the design for economy.

OR
b. Describe in detail about design features to facilitate machining, drills and milling cutters.

16 a. Explain the concept of self automation.

OR
b. Explain the design guidelines for robotic assembly.

17 a. List the factors of demand and supply and explain it.

OR

b. Write a short note on redesign of components for casting.

18 a. Briefly explain about the rules and requirement in forging consideration.

OR

b. Explain in detail about inspection method in GT.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )

19 a. Develop the possible solution for material selection in form design.

OR

b. Compare and contrast the economical consideration between casting and forging process

20 a. Explain briefly Computer modelling of casting processes.

OR

b. Explain the various factors that determines the choice of material

*****
)
SL.NO:1064 SUBJECT CODE:17MESE07
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB -2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE - NUCLEAR POWER ENGINEERING

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Define fusion.
2 Mention the use of coolants in Moderators?
3 Define the chemical properties of Zirconium
4 How long does the spent nuclear fuel remain radioactive?
5 Define mixer
6 Mention the important reducing agents.
7 Define defense nuclear waste.
8 How do you dispose the nuclear waste?
9 List the types Radioactive wastes.
10 Describe about the heavy water.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Analyze how to balance Redox reactions using Ion exchange method.
OR
b.
List out the materials need to prepare the control rods? Explain it’s properties also

12 a. Discus the world thorium resources What are the possibilities is there for replacing uranium to
thorium
OR
b. Draw a small mixer setters and explain the working principle of settlers.

13 a. Draw a neat sketch and explain the centrifuge separation.

OR
b. Draw with neat sketch and explain the electro refining of Plutonium (p.t.o)
 2
14 a. Explain in detail the liquid waste disposal
OR
b. Discuss the safety measures at nuclear power plants

15 a. Discuss the geological formations of nuclear wastes

OR
b. Illustrate radioactive decay ? Explain in detail

16 a. Draw a neat diagram of nuclear reactor and explain the components of reactors
OR
b. Explain in detail how the cladding materials prevent the fuel from corrosion

17 a. Compare the properties of stainless steel and Zirconium for use the reactor fuel element cladding

OR

b. Draw a line diagram of Aqueous Head processing? Explain in detail.

18 a. List out the industrial applications of isotopes.

OR

b. Explain with neat sketch the gaseous waste disposal system

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Explain with neat sketch of Gas cooled reactor
OR

b. List are the methods used to prepare heavy water? Explain it’s economic considerations

20 a. Explain the of Isotope separation for the following method

(a) (a)Liquid thermal diffusion
(b) (b)Gaseous diffusion

OR

b. Discuss with the help of diagrams, the methods used for treating the medium and high
Radioactive wastes

*****
SL.NO:1027 SUBJECT CODE:17MEEC21
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB - 2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELE-BIO ENERGY TECHNOLOGY

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 List the Necessary requirements to start a briquette production unit

2 List the types of biogas plants
3 Define combustion
4 Define the term stoichiometric combustion
5 Recall the applications of Pyrolysis
6 Recall some Most Important Alcohols Used in Biodiesel Production
7 Recall the types of substrates are used for ethanol production:
8 Define Degree of mixing
9 Discuss about excess air
10 Define Cold Starting

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Discuss the effect of biogas on engine performance
OR
b. Illustrate with sketch about fluid Bed combustion

12 a. Illustrate the operations in the SVO production process

OR
b. Relate Alcohol-Catalyst Mixing of Biodiesel Production Process in detail.

13 a. Recall the advantages of Biomass Energy

OR
b. Recall about the various possible feed stocks

14 a. List out the various factors that affects the combustion process.
OR
b. List the Advantages of the carbonization products
p.t.o
 2
15 a. Explain about carbon neutrality
OR
b. Explain about gasification process

16 a. Describe about physio chemical process of energy conversion process

OR
b. Describe about power generation process using biogas.

17 a. Explain with sketch the fixed Bed combustion

OR
b. Explain with neat sketch of Entrained Flow Gasifier

18 a. Discuss in detail about the Carbonization products

OR
b. Describe the following (i) Bio-ethanol (ii) Vegetable Oils

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Illustrate with neat sketch about Indirect Co-firing and Parallel Combustion process and also
write the advantages , challenges of co-firing .
OR
b. Interpret the General procedure for production of ethanol from Sugarcane with its applications

20 a. Discuss in detail about the construction and working of Floating drum biogas plant with its
advantages and disadvantages.
OR
b. Discuss in detail about Biomass carbonization process
*****
SL.NO:1027
SL.NO:1014 SUBJECT CODE:17MEEC24
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB - 2022
AUTOMOBILE ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE - INDUSTRIAL ROBOTICS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Show the functions of actuators.

2 Where the robots are need?
3 List few objects can be handled by vacuum grippers.
4 Define the term "dynamics".
5 List any two position sensors.
6 Describe shortly about the classification of grippers.
7 Describe pneumatic gripper. Where it is used?
8 Describe rotation matrix.
9 Describe the “Reliability” of a sensor.
10 Define “Series assembly system”.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Illustrate any two types of robot control with an example.
OR
b. A vector v = 25i+10j+20k, it is translated by a distance of 8 in the x direction, 5 in the y direction and 0
in the z direction. Write the translated transformation of the given vector.

12 a. If axyz = (6,4,3)T and bxyz = (8,4,6)T are the coordinates with respect to the reference coordinate system,
deteminr the corresponding points auvw , buvw with respect to the rotated OUVW coordinate system if it
has been rotated 90˚ about OZ axis.
OR
b. Given Pxyz = [2 3 4] , determine Puvw when OUVW is rotated about Z-axis by 90˚
T

13 a. Explain the sensors in Robotic Arc Welding.

OR
b. Model the Cam actuation in the gripper.

14 a. Derive the inverse transformation equation of the RR robotic arm in 2D space. p.t.o
OR
 2
b. Explain the working principle of polar configuration system robots with reference to the work volume
with suitable sketch.

15 a. Explain the working principle of jointed arm configuration system robots with reference to the work
volume with suitable sketch.
OR
b. Discuss the working principle of a stepper motor with neat sketch.

16 a. Explain with a neat sketch the construction and working of the two fingered gripper
OR
b. Describe three fingered gripper. Where it is used? Detail its construction with a neat sketch.

17 a. Briefly explain capacitive proximity sensor with sketch.

OR
b. Explain analog sensor with neat sketch.

18 a. Discuss the problems for Robots in arc welding.

OR
b. Explain robot assembly system configurations.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Derive the reverse transformation of the 2-Degree of freedom arm.
OR
b. List the difference between forward kinematics and inverse kinematics. Explain.

20 a. Explain limited and intelligent robot control with suitable examples.

OR
b. Explain the application of Robot in assembly operation like part mating and part joining.
*****
SL.NO:1014
SL.NO:1009 SUBJECT CODE: 17MEEC11
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB - 2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

ELECTIVE- INDUSTRIAL ROBTICS

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Predict the few application of “End effector”.

2 Show the Gear and rack method of actuating in the gripper.
3 Define “Spatial Resolution”.
4 Define the term "statics".
5 List few transfer operations done by the robots.
6 Describe the “Accuracy” of a robot.
7 Describe the screw actuation in the gripper.
8 Classify the links. Show any one link with help of neat diagram.
9 Expand RCC. State its applications.
10 Discuss the two approaches used with vision sensors for arc welding.

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Show the industrial robots drive systems briefly.
OR
b. Given two points auvw =(4,3,2)T and buvw =(6,2,4)T with respect to the rotated OUVW coordinate
system, determine the corresponding points axyz , bxyz with respect to the reference coordinate system if
it has been rotated 60˚ about the OZ axis.

12 a. Given two points auvw =(5,4,3)T and buvw =(4,2,4)T with respect to the rotated OUVW coordinate
system, determine the corresponding points axyz , bxyz with respect to the reference coordinate system if
it has been rotated 90˚ about the OZ axis.
OR
b. Write the rotation matrix for a rotation of 30˚ about OZ axis, followed by a rotation of 60˚ about OX
axis, followed by a rotation of 90˚ about OY axis.

13 a. Explain the sensors in Robotic Arc Welding.

OR
b. Model the Cam actuation in the gripper. p.t.o
 2
14 a. Describe the types and classifications of the robot.
OR
b. Explain the working principle of polar configuration system robots with reference to the work volume
with suitable sketch.

15 a. Explain the working principle of cylindrical configuration system robots with reference to the work
volume with suitable sketch.
OR
b. Explain the robot anatomy.

16 a. Explain with a neat sketch the construction and working of the two fingered gripper
OR
b. Explain the linkage actuation in the gripper.

17 a. Briefly explain the triangulation sensing principle.

OR
b. Discuss about optical proximity sensor.

18 a. Briefly explain features of the welding robot.

OR
b. Explain robot assembly system configurations.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. Explain the application of Robot system in “Die Casting”.
OR
b. List any two Position Sensors used in robots and explain with the help of neat sketches.

20 a. Discuss the commercially available industrial robots drive systems?

OR
b. Detail the forward and inverse kinematic solutions in robotics. Compare them with an example

*****
SL.NO:1009
SL.NO:10005 SUBJECT CODE:17MECC06
VINAYAKA MISSIONS RESEARCH FOUNDATION
(Deemed to be University)
B.E./ B.TECH DEGREE EXAMINATIONS- FEB- 2022
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

KINEMATICS OF MACHINES

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks:100 Marks

Answer ALL questions

Part-A (10 x 2 =20 Marks)

1 Discuss the rubbing velocity at pin joint.

2 Define is higher pair.
3 Define relative velocity of two bodies.
4 Define pitch point of a cam.
5 Define pressure angle of a cam mechanism and state the best value of the pressure angle.
6 List out the advantages of epicyclic gear train.
7 Define co efficient of friction.
8 Discuss degree of freedom for a kinematics pair.
9 Describe disadvantages of cam mechanisms.
10 Discuss axial pitch of a helical gear?

Answer Any FIVE questions

Part-B (5 x10 =50 Marks)
11 a. Two involute gear of 20º pressure angle are in mesh. The number of teeth on pinion is 20 and
the gear ratio is 2. If the pitch expressed in module is 5 mm and the pitch line speed is 1.2 m/s.
assuming addendum as standard and equal to one module, find: 1. The angle turned through by
pinion when one pair of teeth is in mesh: and 2. The maximum velocity of sliding.

OR
b. The following data relate to a pair of 20º involute gear in module=6mm, number of teeth on
pinion=17, number of teeth on gear=49; Addenda on pinion and gear wheel =1 module. Find
(i). The number of pair of teeth in contact, (ii).The angle turned through by the pinion and the
gear wheel when one pair of teeth is in contact, and (iii).The ratio of sliding to rolling motion
when the tip of a tooth on the large wheel just making contact.

p.t.o
 2
12 a. A 30 kW engine develops a maximum torque of 200 N-m and is driving a car having a single
plate clutch of two active surfaces. Axial pressure is not to exceed 0.95bar. External diameter
of friction plate is 1.25 times internal diameter. Assume uniform wear and coefficient of
friction = 025. Determine dimension of friction plate and axial force exerted by the springs.

OR
b. In a four bar chain ABCD, AD is fixed and is 150mm long. The crank AB 40mm long and
rotates at 120r.p.m. clockwise, while the link CD = 80mm oscillates about D. BC and AD are
of equal length. Calculate the angular velocity of link CD when angle BAD=60º.

13 a. The crank and connecting rod of a theoretical steam engine are 0.5m and 2m long respectively.
The crank makes 180 r.p.m. in the clockwise direction. When it has turned 45º from the inner
dead centre position, Determine: (i). Velocity of piston, (ii). Angular velocity of connecting
rod by the instantaneous centre method (i) Find the number of instantaneous centres for a six
link mechanism.

OR
b. The following data relate to a cam profile in which the following moves with uniform
acceleration and deceleration during ascent and decent. The minimum radius of the
cam=25mm, Roller radius=7.5mm, Lift=28mm, Offset of follower axis= 12mm towards right,
Angle of ascent=60˚, Angle of descent=90˚, Angle of between ascent and descent=45˚, Speed
of the cam=200r.p.m. Draw the profile of the cam and determine the maximum velocity and
the uniform acceleration of the follower during the outstroke and the return stroke.

14 a. In a symmetrical tangent cam operating a roller follower, the least radius of the cam is 30 mm
and roller radius is 17.5 mm. The angle of ascent is 75° and the total lift is 17.5 mm. The speed
of the cam shaft is 600 r.p.m. Calculate: 1. the principal dimensions of the cam; 2. the
accelerations of the follower at the beginning of the lift, where straight flank merges into the
circular nose and at the apex of the circular nose. Assume that there is no dwell between ascent
and descent offset by 10 mm to right.
OR
b. Explain the different types of constraints with suitable sketch
15 a. Explain with neat sketch any two inversions of a double slider crank chain.
OR
b. Explain the following: (i). Snap action mechanism (ii).Ratchet and escapement mechanism

16 a. Explain the different types of links in detail.

OR p.t.o
 3
b. Describe the use of Instantaneous centre method in kinematic analysis. (ii) Crank of a slider
crank mechanism rotates clockwise at a constant speed of 300 rpm; crank and connecting rod
are of lengths 150 mm and 600 respectively.

17 a. (i) Discuss the advantages of involute gear tooth profile.

(ii) Describe the advantages and applications of helical, bevel and worm gears.

OR

b. Discuss in detail about compound and reverted gear trains.

18 a. Discuss the functions of clutches in automobiles.

OR

b. Explain the uses of brakes in automobiles.

Answer ALL questions

PART-C (2 x 15 = 30 )
19 a. (i) Analyze interference in gears and discuss the measures to eliminate the same.
(ii) An epicyclic train has a pinion A having 15 teeth, centrally located and rigidly connected to
shaft of driving motor. Another gear B having 20 teeth is gearing with A and also with annular
fixed wheel D. Gear C is integral with B and meshes with another annular wheel E which is
keyed to the shaft of driven unit. The arm rotates about driving shaft and carries compound
gear B & C. Sketch the arrangement and determine speed of machine for a motor speed of
1000 rpm. Also determine torque on machine shaft for a motor torque of 100 N-m.

OR

b. An automotive single plate clutch consists of two pairs of contacting surfaces. The inner and p.t.o
outer radii of friction plates are 120 mm and 250 mm respectively. The coefficient of friction is
0.25 and the total axial force is 15KN. Calculate the power transmitting capacity of the clutch
plate at 500 r.p.m. using.
(i) Uniform wear theory and
(ii) Uniform pressure theory.

20 a. Sketch and describe the working of two different types of quick return mechanism. Give p.t.o
examples of their application. Derive an expression for the ratio of time taken in forward and
return stoke for one of this mechanism.

OR
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b. Draw the profile of a cam to give following motion to a flat faced reciprocating follower. (1)
Follower to have a stroke of 20 mm during 120° of cam rotation. (2) Follower to dwell for 30°
of cam rotation (3) Follower to return to initial position during 120° of cam rotation. (4)
Follower to dwell for remaining 90° of cam rotation. The base circle radius is 40 mm and the
follower axis coincides with cam axis of rotation.

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