DR.

THIMMA REDDY GROUP OF INSTITUTION- NEET (SSB,SSG)-09/12/2024

SET: A (a) 7.5 × 10 6

Test Id: 471540 (b) 1.08 × 10 6

(c) 8.4 × 10 6
Part - A Physics (d) 3.6 × 10 6

Section - I: Single Correct 7. The ratio of the density of oxygen nucleus ( 16

8 O) and
helium nucleus ( 42 He) is
This section contains a total of 35 questions.
All questions in this section are mandatory. (a) 2:1 (b) 8:1
For every correct response you shall be awarded 4 marks.
For every incorrect response -1 marks shall be deducted. (c) 1:1 (d) 4:1

1. Photons from the first line of the Lyman series of 8. The binding energy per nucleon for a 6C12 nucleus is
Hydrogen are incident on a metal and photoelectrons
are ejected. The work-function of the metal can be (Nuclear mass of 6C12 = 12.00000 a.m.u.
Mass of hydrogen nucleus = 1.007825 a.m.u
(a) 15 eV Mass of neutron = 1.008665 a.m.u)

(b) 12 eV (a) 2.675 MeV

(c) 16 eV (b) 7.675 MeV
(d) None of the above (c) 0 MeV
2. The atomic mass of 6 C is 12.000000 u and that of 6 C is
12 13
(d) 3.675 MeV
13.003354 u. The required energy to remove a neutron
from 6 C 13 , if the mass of the neutron is 1.008665 u, will 9. The energy equivalent of 1 gram of a substance is:
be:
(a) 11.2 × 10 24 MeV
(a) 49.5 Mev
(b) 5.6 × 10 12 MeV
(b) 62.5 Mev (c) 5.6 eV
(c) 6.25 Mev (d) 5.6 × 10 26 MeV
(d) 4.95 Mev
10. Statement I: Bohr's model is not applicable to a Helium
3. The ratio of the De-Broglie wavelength of an electron in atom.
the 2 nd excited state to the De-Broglie wavelength in the Statement II: Bohr's model is applicable only for single
1 st excited state in a Hydrogen atom is electron species.

(a) 2 : 3 Statement I and Statement II are true and

(a) Statement II is the correct explanation of
(b) 3 : 2 Statement I.
(c) 1 : 1 Statement I and Statement II are true but
(d) 1 : 2 (b) Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I.
4. The ratio of the nuclear radii of 135Cs and 40Ca is (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(a) 1.40 (b) 1.50 (d) Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) 2.750 (d) 3.375 11. Which of the following nuclear fragments corresponding
to the nuclear fission between a neutron ( 10 n) and the
5. Statement I: Nuclear force is not a central force. Uranium isotope ( 235
92 U) is correct?
Statement II: It depends not only on the distance
between the nucleons but also on other factors like their
spin. (a) 144 Ba 89
56 + 36 Kr + 4 10 n

(b)
140 94
56 Xe + 38 Sr + 3 10 n
Statement I and Statement II are true and the
(a) Statement II is the correct explanation of (c) 153
51 Sb + 99
41 Nb + 3 10 n
Statement I.
(d) 144 Ba + 89 Kr + 3 10 n
Statement I and Statement II are true but the
56 36

(b) Statement II is not the correct explanation of 12. An electron rotates in a circle around a nucleus having
Statement I. a positive charge Ze. The correct relation between the
total energy (E) of the electron to its potential energy (U)
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. is:
(d) Statement I and Statement II are false.
(a) E = 2U
6. The speed of an electron in Bohr's 7 th orbit for the
Hydrogen atom is 3.6 × 10 6 m/s. The corresponding (b) 2E = 3U
speed of the electron in the 3 rd orbit, in m/s is (c) E = U

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(d) 2E = U Statement I and Statement II are true but the

(b) Statement II is not the correct explanation of
13. The average binding energy per nucleon in the nucleus Statement I.
of an atom is of the order of
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(a) 100 eV (d) Statement I and Statement II are false.
(b) 1000 eV
The electrons in the hydrogen atom jump from an 19.
excited state (n = 3) to its ground state (n = 1) and the
(c) 0.1 eV
photons thus emitted irradiate a photosensitive
(d) 10 6 eV material. If the work function of the material is 5.1 eV,
the stopping potential is estimated to be (the energy of
14. Consider the following radioactive decay process
the electron in the n th state, E n = − 2 eV)
α β −
γ α β +
γ
13.6
218
−
−
−
−
−
− 84 A → A 1 → A 2 → A 3 → A 4 → A 5 → A 6 n
The mass number and the atomic number of A6 are
given by: (a) 12.1 V
(b) 17.2 V
(a) 210 and 80
(c) 7 V
(b) 210 and 82
(d) 5.1 V
(c) 210 and 84
20. The maximum wavelength in the Balmer series of the
(d) 211 and 80 Hydrogen spectrum is
15. The radius of the electron's second stationary orbit
in Bohr's model is R. The radius of the 3 rd orbit will be: (a) 912 A
∘

(b) 3645 A
∘

(a)
R
3
(c) 6561 A
∘

(b) 2.25R
(d) 8201 A
∘
(c) 9R
(d) 3R 21. Read the following statements:
(A) Volume of the nucleus is directly proportional to the
16. If 1 gm hydrogen is converted into 0.993 gm of helium mass number.
in a thermonuclear reaction, the energy released in (B) Volume of the nucleus is independent of
the reaction is mass number.
(C) Density of the nucleus is directly proportional to the
(a) 63 × 107 J mass number.
(D) Density of the nucleus is directly proportional to the
(b) 63 × 1010 J cube root of the mass number.
(E) Density of the nucleus is independent of the mass
(c) 63 × 1014 J number.
Choose the correct option from the following options.
(d) 63 × 1020 J

17. Statement I: Some amount of energy is required to (a) (A) and (D) only.
separate the electron from the nucleus in hydrogen like (b) (A) and (E) only.
systems.
Statement II: This is a bound system as the total energy (c) (B) and (E) only.
is negative. (d) (A) and (C) only

Statement I and Statement II are true and 22. The De-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the first
(a) Statement II is the correct explanation of Bohr orbit is
Statement I.
(a) Equal to the circumference of the first orbit
Statement I and Statement II are true but the
(b) Statement II is not the correct explanation of (b) Equal to twice the circumference of the first orbit
Statement I.
(c) Equal to half the circumference of the first orbit
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
Equal to one-fourth of the circumference of the
(d)
(d) Statement I and Statement II are false. first orbit

18. Statement I: Nuclear force is a central force. 23. The masses of proton, neutron and helium nucleus are
Statement II: Nuclear force between two protons is respectively 1.0073 u, 1.0087u and 4.0015 u. The binding
repulsive. energy of the helium nucleus is:

Statement I and Statement II are true and the (a) 56.8 MeV
(a) Statement II is the correct explanation of
(b) 28.4 MeV
Statement I.
(c) 7.1 MeV

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(d) 14.2 MeV (d) 10–9

24. Statement I: Binding energy per nucleon is a measure of 30. Statement I: Nuclear density is almost the same for all
the stability of the nucleus. nuclei.
Statement II: The greater the binding energy per Statement II: The radius (r) of a nucleus depends only
nucleon, the greater is the energy required to pull out
on the mass number (A) as r ∝ A 3 .
1

one nucleon from the nucleus.

Statement I and Statement II are true and the

Statement I and Statement II are true and
(a) Statement II is the correct explanation of (a) Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I. Statement I.

Statement I and Statement II are true but the Statement I and Statement II are true but the
(b) Statement II is not the correct explanation of
(b) Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Statement I.
Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I and Statement II are false.
(d) Statement I and Statement II are false.
25. 31. Statement I: Fast moving neutrons do not cause fission
The nuclei 6A13 and 7B14 can be described as of a uranium nucleus.
Statement II: A fast moving neutron spends very little
(a) Isotones time inside the nucleus.

(b) Isobars
Statement I and Statement II are true and the
(c) Isotopes of carbon (a) Statement II is the correct explanation of
Statement I.
(d) Isotopes of nitrogen
Statement I and Statement II are true but the
26. How many alpha and beta particles are emitted when (b) Statement II is not the correct explanation of
Uranium 92 238 238 decays to lead 82 P b 206 ? Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(a) 3 alpha particles and 5 beta particles
(d) Statement I and Statement II are false.
(b) 6 alpha particles and 4 beta particles
(c) 4 alpha particles and 5 beta particles
32. When two nuclei of masses X and Y respectively fuse to
form a nucleus of mass m alongwith the liberation
(d) 8 alpha particles and 6 beta particles of some energy, then

27. Statement I: For a hydrogen atom, the radii of the first (a) X + Y > m
and third stationary orbits are in the ratio 1 : 9.
Statement II: For hydrogen-like species, the2radius of (b) X – Y = m
the nth stationary orbit is given by r = r 0 ( ). (c) X + Y = m
n
Z
(d) X + Y < m
Statement I and Statement II are true and the
(a) Statement II is the correct explanation of
33. The ground state energy of H - atom is –13.6 eV. The
energy needed to ionise H - atom from its second
Statement I. excited state is
Statement I and Statement II are true but the
(b) Statement II is not the correct explanation of (a) 1.51 eV
Statement I.
(b) 3.4 eV
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(c) 13.6 eV
(d) Statement I and Statement II are false.
(d) 12.1 eV
28. In Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom, the ratio between
the period of revolution of an electron in the orbit of n = 34. Two nuclei which are not identical but have the same
1 to the period of revolution of the electron in the orbit n number of nucleons are
= 2 is
(a) Isotones
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
(b) Isobars
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 8
(c) Isotopes
29. The nuclear radius as compared to the atomic radius is (d) None of these
of the order
35. Given below are two statements.
Statement I: Atoms are electrically neutral as they
(a) 10–3
contain an equal number of positive and negative
charges.
(b) 10–5
Statement II: Atoms of each element are stable and emit
(c) 10–7 their characteristic spectrum.
In light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below.

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(a) Both Statement I and statement I are correct. (d) ( )

4 3

(b) Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect.

3

Statement I is correct but statement II is

40. The below plot shows the variation of binding energy per
(c) nucleon Eb, against the nuclear mass M. The different
incorrect.
points shown A,B,C,D and E correspond to different
Statement I is incorrect but statement II is nuclei. In which of the following reactions, the energy
(d)
correct. released (Q) will be positive ?

Section - II: Single Correct - Sec. 2

This section contains a total of 15 questions.
Out of the 15 questions, 10 questions are mandatory.
For every correct response you shall be awarded 4 marks.
For every incorrect response -1 marks shall be deducted.

36. The radius of the third stationary orbit of the electron

for Bohr’s atom is R. The radius of the fourth stationary
orbit will be :
(a) A + B → C

(a)
16
R (b) C → A + B
(c) D + E → F
9

(b)
9
16
R (d) F → D + E

(c)
4
R 41. α-particle consists of:
3
(a) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only
(d)
3
R
4 (b) 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons
37. A radioactive nucleus A Z X undergoes spontaneous decay (c) 2 electrons and 4 protons only
in the sequence A B → Z-3 C → Z-2 D, where Z is the
(d) 2 protons only
Z X → Z-1
atomic number of the element X. The possible decay
particles in the sequence are 42. If Fpp, Fpn and Fnn are the magnitudes of nuclear force
between proton-proton, proton-neutron and neutron-
(a) β + , α, β − neutron respectively, then
(b) β − , α, β +
(a) Fpp = Fpn = Fnn
(c) α, β − , β +
(d) α, β + , β − (b) Fpp < Fpn = Fnn

38. Match List I with List II. (c) Fpp > Fpn > Fnn

(d) Fpp < Fpn < Fnn

43. The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is

−3.4 eV. Its kinetic and potential energies are,
respectively:

(a) −3.4 eV, −3.4 eV

(b) −3.4 eV, −6.8 eV
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(c) 3.4 eV, −6.8 eV
(a) A–II, B–I, C–IV, D–III (d) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV
(b) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I 44. The nucleus A is having mass number 220 and its
binding energy per nucleon is 5.6 MeV. It splits in two
(c) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II fragments B and C of mass numbers 105 and 115. The
(d) A–I, B–II, C–III, D–IV binding energy of nucleons in B and C is 6.4 MeV per
nucleon. The energy released (Q value) per fission will
39. Mass numbers of two nuclei are in the ratio of 4:3. Their be:
nuclear densities will be in the ratio of
(a) 0.8 MeV
(a) 4:3
(b) 275 MeV
1

(b) ( ) (c) 220 MeV

3 3
4
(d) 176 MeV
(c) 1:1
45. The angular speed of electron in the nth orbit of
hydrogen atom is

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(a) Directly proportional to n2 Part - B Botany

(b) Directly proportional to n
Section - I: Single Correct
(c) Inversely proportional to n3
This section contains a total of 35 questions.
(d) Inversely proportional to n All questions in this section are mandatory.
For every correct response you shall be awarded 4 marks.
46. Given below are two statements. One is labelled For every incorrect response -1 marks shall be deducted.
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: The nuclear density of nuclides 51. Natality refers to
10 B, 6 Li, 56 Fe, 20 Ne and 209 Bi can be arranged as
5 3 26 10 83
ρNBi > ρ N
Fe > ρ N
Ne > ρ N
B > ρ N
Li . (a) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
Reason A: The radius R of a nucleus is related to its
(b) Birth rate
mass number A as R = R 0 A 3 , where R 0 is a constant.
1

In light of the above statements, choose the correct (c) Death rate
answer from the options given below:
(d) Number of individuals entering a habitat

Both A and R are true but R is not the 52. Ecology is basically concerned with certain levels
(a) of biological organisation which are ..........
correct explanation of A
(b) A is true but R is false
(a) Tissues, organisms, communities and biomes
Both A and R are true and R is the
(c) (b) Organisms, populations, and biomes
correct explanation of A
(c) Communities and biomes
(d) A is false but R is true
(d) Organisms, populations, communities and biomes
47. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In Rutherford’s model, most of the mass of 53. A population has more young individuals compared to
the atom and all its positive charge are concentrated in the older individuals. What would be the status of the
a tiny nucleus and the electrons revolve around it. population after some years?
Statement II: An atom being a spherical cloud of positive
charges with electrons embedded in it, is a special case
(a) It will decline
of Rutherford’s model.
In light of the above statements, choose the most (b) It will stabilise
appropriate from the options given below. (c) It will increase
(a) Both statement I and statement II are false (d) It will first decline and then stabilise
(b) Both statement I and statement II are true 54. Which of the following statements is incorrect with
regard to 'niche'?
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true Niche includes distinct functional role of an
(a)
organism in an ecosystem
48. Which series of the hydrogen atom lies in the infrared
region? Niche includes the diversity in the resource
(b)
utilization
(a) Lyman Niche includes the range of habitat conditions
(c)
(b) Balmer organism can tolerate

(c) Brackett, Paschen and Pfund Niches of organisms belonging to two coexisting
(d)
species can show complete overlapping
(d) All of these
55. Which of the following options is correct?
49. Which of the following pairs of particles cannot exert
nuclear force on each other?
(a)
Stenothermal organism - Frog, Eurythermal
organism - Lizard
(a) Proton and electron
(b)
Stenothermal organism - Frog, Eurythermal
(b) Neutron and electron organism - Man
(c) Electron and neutron
(c)
Stenothermal organism - Man, Eurythermal
(d) All of these
organism - Lizard
50. In Rutherford’s experiment, the number of particles (d)
Stenothermal organism - Polar bear, Eurythermal
scattered at 90º angle is x per second. The number of
organism - Frog
particles scattered per second at angle 60º is 56. A. Loss of unnecessary sense organs
B. Presence of adhesive organs
(a) x (b) 4x C. Presence of suckers
(c) 8x (d) 16x D. High reproductive capacity
E. Well-developed digestive system
Choose correct option with respect to parasites.

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(a) A, B, C, D, & E are correct 62. Following table summarises the differences between
natality and mortality. Select the incorrect one(s):
(b) A, B, D & E are correct
(c) A, B, C, D are correct
Natality Mortality
It is the number of It is the number of
(d) D & E are incorrect (i) births in a population deaths in a population
per unit time. per unit time.
57. If most individuals in a population are young, why is the
population likely to grow rapidly in the future? It adds new individuals It removes individuals
(ii)
to the population. from the population.
It increases the size of It decreases the size of
(a) Many individuals will begin to reproduce soon (iii)
population. population.
(b) Death rates will be low It increases population It reduces population
(iv)
(c) Immigration and emigration can be ignored density. density.
It is high in
(d) All of these It is high in declining
(v) fluourishing
population.
58. Physiological ecology tries to understand: population.

How different type of organisms interact among

(a) (a) (i) and (v)
themselves
(b) (iii) and (iv)
How different type of ecosystems interact with
(b)
local abiotic factors (c) (iv) only
How different organisms are adapted to (d) (v) only
(c) environments in terms of not only survival but
also reproduction 63. According to Allen's Rule, the mammals from colder
climates have:
How different type of abiotic factors interact
(d)
among themselves and one factor remains limiting
(a) Shorter ears and longer limbs
59. For which of the following cases, population density can (b) Longer ears and shorter limbs
be easily determined by not counting or seeing the
organisms directly? (c) Longer ears and long limbs
(d) Shorter ears and shorter limbs
(a) Fish density
64. Which statements about population attributes given
(b) Density of bacteria in bacterial culture below are correct?
(c) Siberian cranes at Bharatpur wetlands I. Population density is necessarily measured in
numbers.
(d) Tiger census
II. Tiger census is often based on pug marks and fecal
60. Two different species cannot live for long duration in the pellets.
same niche or habitat. This law is called: III. Biomass is not a meaningful measure to know
population size in any ecological scenario.
(a) Allen's law IV. Size of a population for any species is not a static
parameter.
(b) Gloger rule
(c) Competitive exclusion principle (a) I and II

(d) Weismann's theory (b) I and IV

61. Warm blooded animals like mammals from (c) III and IV
colder climates generally have shorter ear and limbs. (d) II and IV
This is an explanation of
65. Darwinian fitness is represented by:
(a) Jordan’s rule
(a) Low r value
(b) Allen’s rule
(b) High r value
(c) Rensch’s rule
(c) High k value
(d) Bergman’s rule
(d) Low k value
66. Which of the following behaviour help(s) the prey species
to defend themselves from predators?

(a) Camouflage
(b) Being highly distasteful
(c) Being poisonous
(d) All of the above

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67. For the Norway rat the 'r' is.........., and for the 71. Select the correct option for the following diagrams. (A,
flour beetle it is .......... B, C, D; P, Q, R, S are species).

(a) 0.018; 0.18

(b) 0.015; 0.12
(c) 0.012; 0.15
(d) 0.15; 0.012
68. Match the column I, II, III and choose correct options:

I Age pyramid II Popu III

lation Characteristic
Triangular Pre-
Declini
(A) pyramid with (i) (1) reproductive =
ng
broad base Reproductive

Pre-
Bell shaped Expan
(B) (ii) (2) reproductive >
pyramid ding
Reproductive

Pre-
Urn shaped
(C) (iii) Stable (3) reproductive <
pyramid
Reproductive

(a) (A, ii, 3) (B, iii, 2) (c, i, 1)

(b) (A, i, 2) (B, iii, 3) (c, ii, 1)
(c) (A, ii, 2) (B, iii, 1) (c, i, 3)
(d) (A, iii, 1) (B, ii, 2) (c, i, 3)
69. The ecological niche of the population is:

(a) The geographical area that it covers

(b) A place where an organism lives
Set of conditions that an organism can tolerate
(c)
and resource it uses
(d) None of these
70. What is sex ratio?

(a) Number of males per 1000 females

(b) Number of females per 1000 males
(c) Number of males per 100 females
(d) Number of females per 100 males

(a) I = A population, II = A community, III = A biome

(b) I = A biome, II = A population, III = A community
(c) I = A community, II = A population, III = A biome
(d) I = A community, II = A biome, III = A population

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72. Identify I, II, III and IV

(a)
Decreases progressively from the poles towards
the equator
(b) Decreases from plains to the mountain tops
It is subzero levels in polar areas and high
(c)
altitudes
(d) > 50°C in tropical deserts in summer
77. Organisms that can maintain a constant internal
temperature are called:

(a) Homoiothermic
(b) Poikilothermic
(c) Oligothermic
(d) Heterothermic
78. Below is the diagrammatic representation of response of
organisms against temperature. Find out the correct
I = Imigration, II - Emigration, III - Natality, IV - match.
(a)
Mortality
I = Mortality, II - Natality, III - Emigration, IV -
(b)
Imigration
I = Emigration, II - Imigration, III - Natality, IV -
(c)
Mortality
I = Imigration, II - Natality, III - Mortality, IV -
(d)
Emigration
73. J-shape growth can be observed for:

(a) Exponential growth

(b) Losgistic growth
(a) A-Plants, B-Birds
(c) Both A and B
(b) A-Birds, B-Mammals
(d) All plant species
(c) C-Mammals, B-Plants
74. Read the following statements (assertion-A and reason- (d) A-Birds, B-Plants
R) and select the correct option:
79. Thick cuticle, sunken and scotoactive stomata, CAM
A: 'Success' of mammals is largely due to their ability to photosynthesis and conversion of leaves into spines are
maintain a constant body temperature and thrive some of the important characters of
whether they live in Antartica or in the Sahara desert.
R: The mechanisms used by most mammals to regulate (a) Desert plants
their body temperature are similar to the ones that we
humans use. (b) Hydrophytes
(c) Mesophytes
Both A and R are true and R is correct
(a) (d) Epiphytic plants
explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct 80. Which of the following organisms breed(s) only once on
(b) their lifetime?
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(a) Pacific salmon fish
(d) Both A and R are false statements
(b) Oysters
75. Several plant and animal species present together at a
(c) Bamboo
place constitute a:
(d) Both A and C
(a) Genus 81. For calculation of the 'r' value, which of the following is
(b) Population required?

(c) Biome
(a) Birth rates
(d) Community
(b) Death rates
76. Which of the following statement is wrong for
(c) Both A and B
temperature?
(d) None of the above

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82. If an osmoconformer animal is shifted from its 87. Match the following:
freshwater to marine environment, it will result in:

(a) Release of renin from JG cells

(b) Increase in level of ADH
(c) Change in osmolarity of body fluids
(d) Both (1) and (2) to regulate osmolarity
83. In some cases, population density is measured in terms
of biomass rather than in terms of numbers because:
(a) A – (i) (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (v)
It is a more meaningful measure when the (b) A – (iii), B – (i) (ii), C – (v), D – (iv)
(a)
considered organisms vary greatly in size
(c) A – (iii), B – (i) (ii), C – (iv), D – (v)
It is more conveninent when population is huge
(b) and counting is impossible or very time (d) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (i) (ii), D – (v)
consuming
88. Characteristics of which of the following determine the
(c) It is a relatively constant measure type of benthic animals that can thrive in aquatic
environment?
(d) Both A and B
84. If N = population density at time t, then population (a) Sediment
density at time t + 1 can be written as
(b) Rainfall

Nt+1 = Nt + [(A + B) – (C + D)] (c) Grazing by animals

(d) Competition among different species
Select the correct option for A, B, C and D in the above
equation.
89. The branch of science which studies the interactions
among organisms and between organisms and physical
environment is called as:
(a) A can be mortality and B can be natality
(b) B can be immigration and C can be natality (a) Epidermiology
(c) C can be mortality and D can be immigration (b) Ecology
(d) A can be natality and D can be emigration (c) Ethology
85. If in a pond there are 20 lotus plants last year and (d) Etiology
through reproduction 8 new lotus plants are added,
then the per capita birth is:
90. The tiger census in our national parks and tiger reserves
is often based on

(a) 0.4 offsprings per lotus per year

(a) Pug marks only
(b) 0.6 offsprings per lotus per year
(b) Fecal pellets only
(c) 0.1 offsprings per lotus per year
(c) Pug marks and fecal pellets
(d) 0.2 offsprings per lotus per year
(d) Actual sightings
91. The tree-less biomes are
Section - II: Single Correct - Sec. 2
This section contains a total of 15 questions. (a) Desert biomes and Temperate forest biome
Out of the 15 questions, 10 questions are mandatory.
For every correct response you shall be awarded 4 marks. (b) Tundra biome and Tropical rain forest biome
For every incorrect response -1 marks shall be deducted. (c) Desert biome and Tundra biome
86. A population of rabbits has an annual per capita birth (d) Tundra biome and Grassland biome
rate of 0.06 and annual per capita death rate or 0.02.
Calculate an estimate of the number of individuals
added (net) to a population of 1,000 individuals in one
year:

(a) 400 individuals added

(b) 20 individuals added
(c) 40 individuals added
(d) 120 individuals added

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92. Prey species have evolved various defenses to lessen the (b) Aestivation
impact of predation, which of the following is/are not
(c) Diapause
defence mechanism(s)?
(i) Some species of insects and frogs are cryptically- (d) Conformation
coloured (camouflaged) to avoid being detected easily by 98. Which of the following are adaptations of xeric plants?
the predator. I. Many desert plants have a thick cuticle on their leaf
(ii) Some predators are poisonous and therefore avoided surfaces and have their stomata arranged in deep pits
by the prey. (sunken) to minimise water loss through transpiration.
(iii) The Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to its II. They also have a special photosynthetic pathway
predator (bird) because of a special chemical present in (CAM) that enables their stomata to remain closed
its body. during day time.
(iv) Thorns are the most common morphological menas III. Some desert plants like Opuntia, have no leaves –
of defence in Acacia and Cactus. they are reduced to spines.
(v) Calotropis plant produces highly piosonous cardiac IV. The photosynthetic function in desert plants is taken
glycosides which protect it from cattle, goats or other over by the flattened stems.
browsing animals.
(vi) Nicotine, caffeine, quinine, strychnine, opium etc.,
extracted from plants, actually provide them defences (a) I, II
against grazers and browsers. (b) I, III, IV
(c) I, II, IV
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(d) I, II, III, IV
(b) (v) and (vi)
(c) Only (ii)
99. Read the following statements:

(d) None of these (i) Temperature ranges from subzero in polar areas and
high latitudes to > 50°C in tropical deserts.
93. Population evolves to maximise their reproductive (ii) In thermal springs and deep sea hydrothermal vents
fitness also called Darwinian fitness with: temperature exceeds 100°C.
(iii) Mango trees can grow in Canada and Germany; tuna
(a) High r value fish are easily available in the tropical ocean.
(iv) Sciophytes grow in shade area.
(b) Low r value
(v) Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) has a range
(c) High K value 400-700 nm.

(d) High value Which of the above statements are correct?

K−N
K
94. The age distribution of a population is determined by: (a) (i) only
(b) (v) only
(a) Number of individuals in pre–repeoductive age
(c) (iii), (iv) and (v)
(b) Number of individuals in post–reproductive age
(d) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
(c) Number of individuals in reproductive age
(d) All of the above
100. Which of the following is not a positive interaction?

95. If there are 50 Drosophila in a laboratory and 3 of these (a) + / +

died in a week, then the per capita death is:
(b) + / 0
(a) 0.06 individuals per Drosophila per week (c) Both A and B
(b) 0.04 individuals per Drosophila per week (d) – / –
(c) 0.05 individuals per Drosophila per week
Part - C Zoology
(d) 0.03 individuals per Drosophila per week
96. Which of the following statements is/are correct? Section - I: Single Correct
This section contains a total of 35 questions.
Geometric growth produces J-shaped population All questions in this section are mandatory.
(a)
growth curve For every correct response you shall be awarded 4 marks.
Logistic growth occurs when resources are For every incorrect response -1 marks shall be deducted.
(b)
limiting
101. If we use normal DNA polymerase in PCR, then what
(c) Equation for exponential growth is Nt = N0ert would happen?

(d) All of these (a) We only obtain 8 - 10 copies of DNA

97. Under unfavourable conditions, many
(b)
We can still obtain millions of copies of desired
zooplankton species in lakes and ponds enter a stage of segment of template DNA
suspended development called as ..........
(c) Amplification will be completed normally
(a) Hibernation (d) We can't obtain any amplification of template DNA

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102. (b) Bacteria pick up rDNA

Foreign gene is added to cloning
(c)
host/prokaryotic cell
(d) More than one option is correct
108. Enzyme 'Taq polymerase' used in PCR, has been
isolated from bacterium:

(a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(b) Thermus aquaticus
(c) Streptomyces albus
(d) Escherichia coli
Identify the correct labels: 109. The given flow chart depicts the steps to transfer a
desirable gene of interest into a plant:
(a) (i) - Motor, (ii) - Culture broth, (iii) - Sterile air
(b) (i) - Culture broth, (ii) - Motor, (iii) - Sterile air
(c) (i) - Motor, (ii) - Sterile air, (iii) - Culture broth
(d) (i) - Sterile air, (ii) - Culture broth, (iii) - Motor
103. Select the option that is incorrect with respect to
traditional hybridisation:

(a) Procedure extensively used in plant breeding

(b) Often leads to inclusion of undesirable genes
Involves selective inclusion and multiplication of
(c)
desired genes only
Enabled qualitative and quantitative improvement
(d)
in food production
104. Optimum temperature required for the extension of a
primer is:

(a) 62°C
Identify the missing steps (A, B and C) with regard to
(b) 37°C following statements and select the correct option:
(c) 94 - 96°C (i) Joining of desirable gene to a suitable cloning vector
using ligases to create a recombinant DNA molecule.
(d) 72°C (ii) Selection of transformed cells.
(iii) Transferring the recombinant DNA molecules to
105. Read the statements:
the target cells.
Statement A : Taq polymerase is essential for
extension of primers in PCR (a) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii)
Statement B : Taq polymerase enzyme is thermolabile
in nature (b) A - (i), B - (iii), C - (ii)
(c) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (i)
(a) Both statements are incorrect
(d) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (ii)
(b) Both statements are correct
110. Which of the following is required for the preparation
(c) Only statement A is correct of rDNA?
(d) Only statement B is correct
(a) Specific restriction enzymes
106. Which among the following is not regarded as a part of
biotechnology? (b) Gene of interest
(c) Vector DNA
(a) Use of X-rays and MRI machines
(d) All of the above
(b) Correction of a defective gene
111. Match the columns w.r.t. insertion of recombinant
(c) Improve algal strains for bio-fuel production DNA into host cell:
(d) Synthesis of gene and its use Column-I Column-II
107. The process of 'Transformation' takes place when: (A) Transformation (i) Animal cell
(B) Biolistics/gene gun (ii) Plant cell
Bacteria replicate and make copies of rDNA within (C) Microinjection (iii) Bacterial cell
(a)
them

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(a) Alkaline phosphatase - Molecular glue

(a) (A) = (i), (B) = (ii), (C) = (iii)
(b) Restriction endonuclease - Molecular knife
(b) (A) = (iii), (B) = (ii), (C) = (i)
(c) Sma-I - Produces sticky ends
(c) (A) = (iii), (B) = (i), (C) = (ii)
(d) Ti plasmid - Animal vector
(d) (A) = (ii), (B) = (i), (C) = (iii)
112. Read the following statements (assertion-A and
119. Read the following statements (assertion-A and
reason-R) and select the correct option:
reason-R) and select the correct option.

A: Chitinase is used for treating the cells of yeast to A: Genetic engineering leads to change in the
phenotype of the host organism.
assist DNA extraction.
R: Yeast cell wall is made of chitin. R: It alters the chemistry of genetic material (DNA and
RNA) which is introduced into the host organisms.

Both A and R are true and R is correct

(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct
explanation of A (a)
explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A (b)
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Both A and R are false statements
(d) Both A and R are false statements
113. Which of the following enzymes is used in case
120. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a powerful
of fungus to lyse cell wall and release DNA with other
technique to:
macromolecules?

(a) Mutate genes

(a) Lysozyme
(b) Amplify genes
(b) Cellulase
(c) Inhibit DNA synthesis
(c) Chitinase
(d) Induce protein synthesis
(d) Amylase
114. Which of the following is a plasmid?
121. Read the following statements (assertion-A and
reason-R) and select the correct option.

(a) pBR322 A: The downstream processing relates to the stages

(b) Pst I after industrial fermentation during which the
concerned product is separated and purified.
(c) Sal I R: The downstream processing and quality control
testing may varies from product to product.
(d) Eco RI
115. Which of the following is not a direct method of gene Both A and R are true and R is correct
transfer? (a)
explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(a) Electroporation (b)
explanation of A
(b) Microinjection
(c) A is true but R is false
(c) Biolistic (d) Both A and R are false statements
(d) Bacteriophage vector
122. After electrophoresis, the separated DNA fragments
116. The Ti-plasmid being used as cloning vector: can be visualised in ethidium bromide gel exposed to
UV light. These DNA fragments appear as what colour
(a) Causes crown gall disease bands?

(b) Is not pathogenic (a) Orange

(c) Is pathogenic (b) Blue
(d) More than one option is correct (c) Silver
117. Which of the following techniques can be used to (d) Green
introduce foreign DNA into cell?
123. Agrobacterium, containing Ti plasmid, provides a
(a) Using disarmed pathogen vehicle for introducing genetically engineered DNA into
plants except in:
(b) Microinjection
(c) Gene gun (a) Wheat, rice, corn

(d) All of the above (b) Pea, potato, sunflower

118. Select the correct match: (c) Gram, bean, potato

(d) Mustard, tomato, cabbage

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124. Exonucleases: 130. Read the following statements (assertion-A and

reason-R) and select the correct option:
(a) Are restriction enzymes which cut DNA internally
A: Piece of DNA transferred into an alien organism
(b) Remove nucleotides from the end of DNA would not be able to multiply itself in the progeny cells
of the organism.
(c) Are absent in bacteria
R: When it gets integrated into the genome of the
(d) Rarely identify nucleotides recipient, it may multiply and be inherited along with
the host DNA.
125. Which of the following is not used to transfer the
recombinant DNA into the host?
Both A and R are true and R is correct
(a)
explanation of A
(a) Microinjection method
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(b) Gene gun method (b)
explanation of A
(c) Bioreactors (c) A is true but R is false
(d) Disarmed pathogen vectors (d) Both A and R are false statements
126. To check the progression of restriction enzyme 131. Identify the DNA segment which is not a palindromic
digestion, .......... is used: sequence:

(a) PCR 5' GGATCC 3'

(a)
(b) Gel electrophoresis 3' GGTACC 5'

(c) DNA fingerprinting 5' GAATTC 3'

(b)
3' CTTAAG 5'
(d) Selectable marker gene
5' GCGGCCGC 3'
127. Which of the following processes/techniques can be (c)
3' CGCCGGCG 5'
included under biotechnology?
5' CCCGGG 3'
(i) Gene cloning (d)
3' GGGCCC 5'
(ii) Synthesis of a gene
(iii) Correcting a defective gene 132. Which of the following is not a desirable feature of a
(iv) Developing a DNA vaccine cloning vector?

(a) (i) and (ii) (a) Presence of single restriction enzyme site
(b) (ii) and (iii) (b) Presence of two or more recognition sites
(c) (iii) and (iv) (c) Presence of origin of replication
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) Presence of a marker gene
128. Plasmids are used in genetic engineering because they 133. Acid/base is added in a bioreactor because:
are
When we culture transformed cells, then
(a)
(a) Easily available byproducts change the pH of medium
(b) Able to integrate with host chromosome Proper pH is necessary for the optimal enzymatic
(b)
reaction
Able to replicate independent of chromosomal
(c)
DNA (c) If pH gets altered, then product yield decreases
Contain DNA sequences coding for drug (d) All of these
(d)
resistance
134. Separation and purification by
129. Read the following statements (assertion-A and filtration, centrifugation of desired compound
reason-R) and select the correct option: produced in bioreactor is a part of:

A: Bacterial cells are made 'competent' to take up DNA (a) Downstream processing only
by treating them with a specific concentration of a
divalent cation, such as calcium. (b) Scaling up and downstream processing
R: Calcium increases the efficiency with which DNA (c) Upstream processing
enters the bacterium through pores in its cell wall.
Screening for recombinants and
(d)
Both A and R are true and R is correct downstream processing
(a)
explanation of A 135. Select the correct statement:
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(b)
explanation of A If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a
(a) heterologous host, it is called a recombinant
(c) A is true but R is false
protein
(d) Both A and R are false statements
The downstream processing and quality control
(b)
testing vary from product to product

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(c)
Bioreactors produce small volume culture of 141. For transformation, micro-particles coated with DNA
desired product to be bombarded with gene gun are made up of:
(d) Both A and B
(a) Silver or platinum

Section - II: Single Correct - Sec. 2 (b) Platinum or zinc

(c) Silicon or platinum
This section contains a total of 15 questions.
Out of the 15 questions, 10 questions are mandatory. (d) Gold or tungsten
For every correct response you shall be awarded 4 marks.
For every incorrect response -1 marks shall be deducted. 142. A - Suitable preservatives are added.
B - These formulations need clinical trials.
136. All the following are the properties of the enzyme Taq C - Quality control testing is uniform for all the
polymerase except: products.
How many of the above statements is/are incorrect?
(a) It is thermostable DNA polymerase
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
It is isolated from a bacterium, Thermus
(b) 143. Primers are:
aquaticus
It is used for amplification of gene of interest
(c) Chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that are
using PCR (a)
complementary to the regions of DNA
(d) It is thermostable RNA polymerase
Chemically synthesised oligonucleotides that are
(b)
137. Nucleic acid is genetic material of: not complementary to the regions of DNA
Chemically synthesised, autonomously replicating
(a) Some organisms (c)
circular DNA molecules
(b) No organism (d) Specific sequences present on recombinant DNA
(c) All organisms without exception 144. The different steps of recombinant DNA technology are
(d) Most organisms with some exception given below randomly:
(i) Isolation of the DNA fragments or genes to be
138. Read the following statements (assertion-A and
cloned.
reason-R) and select the correct option.
(ii) Introduction of the recombinant DNA into a
suitable cell (usually E. coli) called host
A: hnRNA when introduced into bacterial cell does not (transformation).
get translated ot the desired protein.
(iii) Multiplication/expression of the introduced gene
R: hnRNA contains introns along with exons. in the host.
(iv) Selection of the transformed host cells and
Both A and R are true and R is correct identification of the clone containing the desired
(a)
explanation of A gene/DNA fragment.
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (v) Insertion of the isolated gene in a suitable plasmid
(b) vector.
explanation of A
Which of the following represents the correct sequence
(c) A is true but R is false of steps?
(d) Both A and R are false statements
(a) (i) → (iii) → (ii) → (iv) → (v)
139. Recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus
of an animal cell by a method known as (b) (iii) → (ii) → (i) → (v) → (iv)
(c) (i) → (v) → (ii) → (iv) → (iii)
(a) Biolistics
(d) (v) → (i) → (iii) → (iv) → (ii)
(b) Microinjection
145. The following diagram showing restriction sites in E.
(c) Gene gun coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of 'X' and 'Y'
genes.
(d) Disarming
140. Match the following:

(a) A - (i), B - (iii), C - (ii)

(b) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (i)
(c) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (ii)
(d) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii)

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 DR.THIMMA REDDY GROUP OF INSTITUTION- NEET (SSB,SSG)-09/12/2024

The gene 'X' is responsible for resistance

(a) to antibiolics and 'Y' for prolein involved in
the replication of plasmid
The gene 'X' is responsible for controlling the copy
(b) number of the linked DNA and 'Y' for protein
involved in the replication of plasmid
The gene 'X' is for protein involved in replication of
(c)
plasmid and 'Y' for resistance to antibiotics
Gene 'X' is responsible for recognition sites and 'Y'
(d)
is responsible for antibiotic resistance
146. Choose the incorrect statement with reepect
to fermenter or bioreactor.

(a) These have a capacity of 100-1000 litres

A stirred-tank reactor is usually cylindrical or
(b)
with a curved base
Stirrer facilitates even mixing and oxygen
(c)
availability throughout the bioreactor
Sampling ports are absent in bioreactors to
(d)
maintain continued cultures
147. Read the following statements (assertion-A and
reason-R) and select the correct option:

A: Microbe-mediated processes, in vitro fertilization

leading to a 'test-tube' baby, synthesizing a gene and
using it, developing a DNA vaccine or correcting a
defective gene, are all part of biotechnology.
R: Biotechnology is 'the integration of natural science
and organisms, cells, parts thereof, and molecular
analogue for products and services'.

Both A and R are true and R is correct

(a)
explanation of A
Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(b)
explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) Both A and R are false statements
148. The uptake of genetic material from surrounding
medium by a bacterium is termed as:

(a) Transduction
(b) Conjugation
(c) Transformation
(d) Translation
149. The restriction endonuclease breaks bonds between:

(a) DNA-RNA hybrid

(b) Introns
(c) Nucleotides, i.e., breaks the phosphodiester bonds
Pentose sugar and nitrogenous base, i.e., breaks
(d)
N-glycosidic bonds
150. Which one of the following has the ability to transform
normal cells into cancerous cells in animals?

(a) Agrobacterium tumaefaciens

(b) Retroviruses
(c) DNA viruses
(d) Plasmids

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151) → product. The product in the above reaction is
a) b)

c) d)
152) Acetic acid reacts with to form
a) b) c) d)
153) Which one of the following is reduced with zinc-Amalgam & hydrochloric acid to give the
corresponding hydrocarbon?
a) Ethyl acetate b) Acetic acid c) Acetamide d) Butan-2-one

154) [ ] [ ] are

a) b)

c) d)
155) Which of the following would undergo aldol condensation?
a) b) ( ) c) d) HCHO
156) Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Acidity increases with increase in carbon atoms in carboxylic acids.
b) Solubility of carboxylic acid increases with increase in carbon atoms.
c) Boiling points of acids are higher than corresponding alcohols.
d) None of the above.
157) → → ? The product of the reaction is isomeric with

a) b) c) d) All of these
158) The acid formed when propyl magnesium bromide is treated with is:
a) b) c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these

159) The product formed when hydroxylamine condenses with a carbonyl compound is called
a) Hydrazide b) Oxime c) Hydrazine d) Hydrazone
160) Two mole of acetic acid are heated with . The product formed is:
a) 2 mole of ethyl alcohol
b) Formic anhydride
c) Acetic anhydride
d) 2 mole of methyl cyanide
161) Compound when treated with ethyl magnesim iodide in dry ether forms an addition
compound which on hydrolysis form compound . The compound on oxidation form 3-
pentanone. Hence, the compound and are
a) Propanal, 3-pentanol b) Pentanol, 3-pentanol c) Ethanal, pentanal d) Acetone, 3-pentanol
162) Pick out the reaction in which formic and acetic acid differs from each other:
a) Sodium replaces hydrogen from the compound
b) Forms esters with alcohols
c) Reduces solution of ammoniacal silver nitrate or Fehling’s solution of dil. acid
d) Turns red litmus blue
163) What is obtained what acetyl chloride is heated with benzene in presence of anhydrous
a) Acetyl benzoic acid b) Anisole c) Acetophenone d) Chlolorobenzene
164) The acetophenone can be converted to ethylbenzene by reaction with
a) b) c) ⁄ d)

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165) When propionic acid is treated with aqueous sodium bicarbonate, is liberated. The from
comes from
a) Methyl group b) Carboxylic acid group
c) Methylene group d) Bicarbonate
166) The —COOH group in a carboxylic acid can be replaced by ‘H’ by heating the acid with:
a) Zn with HCl
b) in presence of nickel
c) Sodalime
d) Bromine and concentrated aqueous alkali
167) Which factor/s will increase the reactivity of >C=O group?
I. Presence of a group with positive inductive effect.
II. Presence of a group with negative inductive effect.
III. Presence of large alkyl group.
a) Only (I) b) Only (II) c) (I)&(II) d) (II)& (III)

168)
This reaction is called the
a) Cannizaro reaction b) Schrodinger reaction
c) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction d) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
169) ( ) =CHCO can be oxidised to ( ) =CHCO by:
a) Cu at 300 b) c) Chromic acid d) NaOI
170) Methyl ketones are characterised through:
a) The Tollen’s reagent
b) The iodoform test
c) The Schiff’s test
d) The Benedict’s reagent
171) Which of the following substances cannot be used for the replacement of —OH group in
organic compounds by Cl ?
a) b) c) d)
172) In the reaction, → Ester + water
a) Isotopically labeled oxygen ( ) is present in water b) Isotopically labeled oxygen( )is
present with ester
c) shifts from acid to alcohol d) No reaction takes place
173) The ease of hydrolysis with an alkali in the compounds, ( ) ( )
( ) ( ) is of the order
a) I>II>III>IV b) IV>III>II>I c) I>II>IV>III d) II>I>IV>III
174) and can be distinguished chemically by:
a) Tollen’s reagent test b) Fehling solution test c) Benedict test d) Iodoform test
175) Which reaction is used for detecting the presence of carbonyl group?
a) Reaction with hydrazine
b) Reaction with phenyl hydrazine
c) Reaction wit hydroxylamine
d) All of the above
176) Acetaldehyde forms a white crystalline precipitate on mixing with a …..solution of ….
a) Acidic, b) Alcoholic,
c) Saturated aqueous, d) Aqueous,
177) Identify the compound Z. In this reaction sequence
→ → → ;
a) b) c) d)
178) A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with aqueous solution gives
a) Benzyl alcohol and sodium formate b) Sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol
c) Sodium benzoate and sodium formate d) Benzyl alcohol and methyl alcohol

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179)
a) b) — c) HCOOH d) OOC—
180) The main reason for the fact than carboxylic acids can undergo ionization is:
a) Absence of α-H-atom
b) Resonance stabilization of carboxylate ion
c) High reactivity of α-H-atom
d) Hydrogen bonding
181) The weakest acid amongst the following is
a) b) c) d) ()
182) Acetone is treated with excess of ethanol in the presence of hydrochloric acid. The product
obtained is:

a) b)

c) d)
183) Nucleophilic addition reaction will be most favoured in:
a)
b)
c)
d) ( ) =O
184) The identical C—O bond lengths in carboxylate ions are due to:
a) Resonance
b) Presence of carbonyl group
c) Presence of alkyl group
d) None of the above
185) A compound does not react with 2, 4 dinitrophenyl hydrazine, compound is
a) Acetone b) Acetaldehyde c) d)
186) When is reduced with , the compound obtained will be
a) b) c) d)
187) The reaction of HCOOH with conc. gives:
a) b) CO c) Oxalic acid d) Acetic acid
188) —C≡C— → is:

a) b) c) d)
189) Carboxylic acids are the second oxidation product of:
a) Primary alcohols b) Secondary alcohols c) Dihydric alcohols d) Trihydric alcohols
190) The product formed in aldol condensation is:
a) A β-hydroxy aldehyde or a β-hydroxy ketone
b) An α-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
c) An α,β-unsaturated ester
d) A β-hydroxy acid
191) Semicarbazide is:
a) b) — c) d) None of these

192) In Gattermann Koch reaction the product formed is

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 a) b) c) d)
193) The formation of cyanohydrin from a ketones is an example of:
a) Electrophilic addition
b) Nucleophilic addition
c) Nucleophilic substitution
d) Electrophilic substitution
194) Formic acid cannot be halogenated with chlorine in presence of red P, but acetic acid can be
halogenated in the same way, because:
a) Formic acid is weaker than acetic acid
b) Formic acid has no α-H-atom in its molecule
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of the above
195) Which of the following regent can effectively carried out the following conversion?

a) b) c) d) Raney Ni
196) Which of the following has most acidic proton?
a)
b) ( ) =
c)
d) ( )
197) A carbonyl compound reacts with hydrogen cyanide to form cyanohydrin which on hydrolysis
forms a racemic mixture of α-hydroxy acid. The carbonyl compound is:
a) Diethyl ketone b) Formaldehyde c) Acetaldehyde d) Acetone
198) The order or reactivity of phenyl magnesium bromide with the following compound is

a) (II)>(III)>(I) b) (I)>(III)>(II)
c) (II)>(I)>(III) d) All react with the same rate
199) The appropriate reagent for the transformation

is
a) ( ) b) c) d)
200) → → . In the above reactions ‘A’ and ‘B’
respectively are
a) b)
c) d)

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