Dr.

Hussham’s Medical College Admission

Test Preparation Program
DHMCAT NMDCAT Mock Examination Paper -1 2023

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Section I (Biology)
Note: 68 MCQs
1. Thin filaments have a diameter of:
A. 1-2 pm
B. 10 - 60 pm
C. 7 – 8 nm
D. 16 nm

2. Calcium ions bind with the troponin molecule and cause them to:
A. Extend
B. Contract
C. Move slightly
D. Remain in the same position

3. Which of the following is inserted in the ulna?

A. Bicep
B. Brachialis
C. Brachioradilus
D. Tricep

4. Muscles involved in contraction of heart in human.

A. Cardiac muscles
B. Smooth muscles
C. Ciliary muscles
D. Striated muscles

5. All the muscle fibers are innervated by:

A. Single sensory neuron
B. Sensory unit
C. Group of many sensor neurons
D. Same motor nerves
6. Genital herpes is caused by:
A. Retrovirus
B. Virion
C. DNA Virus
D. All of these

7. Fertilization occurs in the proximal part of:

A. Oviduct
B. Uterine Tube
C. Fallopian tube
D. All of these

8. Stimulates ovulation:
A. Testosterone
B. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
C. Progesterone
D. Follicle stimulating hormone

9. In human females, meiosis in oogenesis produces egg(s).

A. 4
B. 2
C. 3
D. 1

10. In human females, eggs at stage is released from ovaries.

A. Secondary oocyte
B. Primary oocyte
C. Mature ovum
D. Oogonium
11. The most common form that does not alter allele frequency, but lessons the
proportion of heterozygote individuals is:
A. Inbreeding
B. Random breeding
C. Cross breeding
D. Breeding

12. In man the vestigial organs are:

A. Ear Muscles
B. Coccyx
C. Nictitating membrane
D. All a, b & c

13. Gene pool consists of all alleles at all gene loci in all individuals of the:
A. Family
B. Population
C. Clan
D. Community

14. Synapse is a microscope gap between:

A. Consective neurons
B. Presynaptic neurons and postsynaptic neurons
C. Axons and Dendrites
D. All of these

15. Which of the following does not act as a neurotransmitter?

A. Acetylcholine
B. Epinephrine
C. Glutamic acid
D. Tyrosine

16. Which part of the human brain is largest?

A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Thalamus
D. Medulla Oblongata
17. Which of the following parts of a neuron is covered by fatty sheath?
A. Axon
B. Dendrite
C. Cyton
D. Node of Ranvier

18. The transmission of nerve impulse in the synaptic cleft is:

A. Chemical and unidirectional
B. Electrical and unidirectional
C. Chemical and bidirectional
D. Electrical and bidirectional

19. Haemophilia C effect both sexes equally because it is:

A. X - Linked recessive trait
B. An autosomal recessive trait
C. X - Linked dominant trait
D. X and Y dominant trait

20. A test cross is carried out to:

A. Predict whether two traits are linked
B. Assess the number of alleles of a gene
C. Determine whether two species or varieties will breed successfully
D. Determine the genotype of a plant at F2

21. In genetics the term locus refers to the of the gene on the chromosome.
A. Position
B. Frequency
C. Copy
D. Inversion

22. is the exact position of a gene on the chromosome.

A. Trait
B. Genotype
C. Centrosome
D. Locus
23. In pea plants,purple flowers are dominant to white flowers. If two white
flowered plants cross, what percentage of their offspring will be white flowered?
A. 0%
B. 50%
C. 25%
D. 100%

24. An example of primary mediators (ones preformed in granules) released by

Mast cells would be:
A. cytokines
B. leukotrienes
C. Platelet activating factor
D. Proteoglycans such as heparin, biogenic amines such as histamine,
enzymes such as chymase, tryptase

25. Mast cells:

A. are bone marrow derived cells
B. are the primary cell involved in type I hypersensitivity reactions
C. release PAF and therefore must activate platelets, and are
inflammatory cells
D. do not phagocytose antigen
E. none of the above is true wrong

26. The __________ from the linings of the respiratory tract, GI tract and genital
tract all contain antibacterial antibodies and enzymes which act as an important
host defense.
A. saliva
B. mucous secretions
C. Enzymes
D. gastric secretions

27. All of the following except __________ are symptoms of inflammation.

A. Redness
B. swelling
C. Nausea
D. pain
28. The principal vasoactive substance in inflammation is:
A. histamine
B. protease
C. Antibody
D. M protein

29. Estrogen, vitamin-D and cholesterol are all examples of:

A. glycolipids
B. lipoproteins
C. terpenes
D. sterols

30. Which term includes all others?

A. Carbohydrates
B. starch
C. monosaccharide
D. polysaccharide

31. The enantiomer of D-Glucose is:

A. D-Galactose
B. L-Galactose
C. both of them
D. none of them

32. Which of the following has a co-enzyme activity?

A. NAD+
B. Ca++
C. c. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
D. None of them

33. The catalytic activity of an enzyme is restricted to its small protein called?
A. Active site
B. Passive site
C. Regulation site
D. Allosteric site
34. Each cell of frog contains autosomes.
A. 18
B. 26
C. 24
D. 48

35. Extra nuclear DNA is found in:

A. Lysosomes
B. Golgi bodies
C. Mitochondria
D. Mesosomes

36. Which of the following is also called bulk transport.

A. Endocytosis
B. Active transport
C. Exocytosis
D. Both a & b

37. Which is present in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

A. Nucleus
B. Mitochondria
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Ribosomes

38. The ribosomes are attached to mRNA through __________ ribosomal subunit:
A. Large
B. Small
C. Both a & b
D. None of these

39. Bacteriophage consist of or made up of:

A. Carbon and nitrogen
B. Proteins
C. Nucleoproteins
D. DNA
40. The bacteriophage contains an enzyme known as:
A. Lysozyme
B. Urease
C. Protease
D. Dehydrogenase

41. The complete mature and infectious particle is known as:

A. Pirion
B. Virion
C. orf virus
D. both b and c

42. Prions are made up of:

A. DNA and carbohydrate only
B. RNA and lipids only
C. Protein and nucleic acid only
D. None a, b and c

43. In HIV viruses, reverse transcriptase converts single-stranded RNA into double
stranded viral DNA. This process is called:
A. Translation
B. Duplication
C. Replication
D. Reverse Transcriptase

44. The complete breakdown of glucose molecule occur only in the presence of:
A. Mitochondria
B. Water
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Oxygen

45. Hens krebs worked out the details of:

A. Glycolysis
B. The oxidation of pyruvate
C. Fermentation
D. The citric acid cycle
46. At the last step of glycolysis which of the following compound is formed:
A. Pyruvate
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Lactic acid
D. Fructose phosphate

47. Photosynthetic pigments in chloroplast are embedded in the membrane of:

A. Thylakoids
B. Chloroplast envelope
C. Matrix
D. Photoglobin

48. The first stable product of calvin cycle is:

A. 3-Phosphoglycerate
B. Glyceraldehyde-3 phosphate
C. 1,3biphosphoglycerate
D. Ribulose-5-phosphate

49. Flagella with single strand and composed of flagellin is found in:
A. Prokaryotes
B. Eukaryotes
C. Both A & B
D. None of the three

50. Leuwenhoeek was the first person to observe bacteria. Who among the
following obtain the pure culture of bacteria for the first time.
A. Lister
B. Ehrenberg
C. Pasteur
D. Koch

51. Some gram negative bacteria have peptidoglycan and an extra layer of:
A. Lipo polysaccharide
B. Lipo protein
C. Protein
D. Both A & B
52. Bacteria with Flagella all over its body is called:
A. Monotrichous
B. Amohitrichous
C. Lophotrichous
D. Myxomycetes

53. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group:

A. Monera
B. Plantae
C. Fungi
D. Animalia

54. One complete heartbeat consist of one systole and one diastole, and lasts for
about.
A. 0.8sec
B. 0.4sec
C. 0.2sec
D. 0.5sec

55. The heart beat cycle starts when electric impulses are generated from:
A. AV node
B. SA node
C. SV node
D. PQ node

56. Granulocytes are:

A. Monocytes, eoisinophils, basophils
B. Neutrophils, eoisinophils, basophils
C. Basophils, macrophages, Neutrophils
D. Monocytes, macrophages, basophils
57. Bicuspid valve control the flow of blood from.
A. Right atrium to Right ventricle
B. Left ventricle to aorta
C. Right ventricle to pulmonary artery
D. Left atrium to Left ventricle

58. Conditions which leads to heart attack.

A. Arteriosclerosis
B. Hypertension
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Obesity

59. Pepsin hydrolyzes proteins to yield.

A. Peptones
B. Polypeptide
C. Amino acids
D. Both A&B

60. Duodenum is about long.

A. 20-22cm
B. 15-25cm
C. 20-25cm
D. 15-22cm

61. Epsinogen is activated to Pepsin by:

A. Active secretin
B. HCL
C. Active Pepsin and HCL
D. Gastrin

62. Emulsification of fat will not occur in the absence of:

A. Lipase
B. Bile pigment
C. Bile salt
D. Pancreatic juice
63. Fatty acids and glycerol are first absorbed by:
A. Lymph vessel
B. Villi
C. Blood capillaries
D. Hepatic portal vein
64. Which is common b/w myoglobin and haemoglobin:
A. Cu
B. Mg
C. Mn
D. Fe
65. Muscles of expiration is called:
A. Dipharagm
B. Internal costal muscles
C. External intercostal muscles
D. Abdominal muscle

66. When blood leaves the Capillary bed most of the carbon dioxide is in the
form of:
A. Carbonate ion
B. Bicarbonate ion
C. Hydrogen ion
D. Hydroxyl ion

67. When you inhale, the diaphragm.

A. Relaxes and moves upward
B. Relaxes and moves downward
C. Contracts and moves upwards
D. Contracts and moves downward

68. With which other systems do specialized respiratory system most closely
interface in exchanging gas b/w the cells and the environment?
A. The skin
B. The excretory system
C. The circulatory system
D. The muscular system
Section II (Chemistry)
Note: 54 MCQs

69.All of the following statements are incorrect for 20 mol of hydrogen

peroxide except:
A. it has 20 mol of hydrogen atoms
B. it has 30 mol of oxygen atoms
C. it has 80 mol of atoms
D. 30 mol of hydrogen atoms

70. Bismark brown is a dye. Its molar mass is 228.3 g/mol. When the dye was
analyzed by a scientist, it was found that it contains 30.68 % nitrogen. How
many nitrogen atoms are there in each Bismark brown molecule?
A. 6
B. 5
C. 4
D. 3

71. A student subtracted 0.00055 from 10.2345678 and reported the result as
10.23401. but his friend told him that the result was wrong. What is the
correct result?
A. 10.234017
B. 10.2340178
C. 10.234
D. 10.23

72.This is a known fact that the molar volumes of different gases at S.T.P are:
A. Little bit greater than the molar volumes of liquids.
B. Little bit less than the molar volumes of solids.
C. About the same as the molar volumes of liquids
D. Much larger than the molar volumes of liquids and solids
73. 10 g CaCO3 gives on strong heating CO2. It gives quicklime (in grams)
A. 5g
B. 4.4 g
C. 5.6 g
D. 4 g

74.If the temperature of the atmosphere is 30 oC then which of the following

will have highest average speed.
A. O2
B. H2
C. Ne
D. N2

75.Which of the following statements about the electron is

A. incorrect?
B. It is negatively charged particle
C. The mass of electron is equal to the mass of neutron.
D. It is a basic constituent of all atoms.
E. It is a constituent of cathode rays.

76.Which of the hydrogen atom, is due to the transition from:

A. fourth Bohr orbit to the first Bohr orbit
B. fifth Bohr orbit to the second Bohr orbit
C. sixth Bohr orbit to the third Bohr orbit
D. seventh Bohr orbit to the third Bohr orbit

77.All of the following substances are crystalline except:

A. Ice
B. Carbon
C. Sucrose
D. Plastic
78. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is correct for an electron
in 4f orbital ?
A. n = 4, l = 3, m = + 1, s = + ½
B. n = 4, l = 4, m = – 4, s = – ½
C. n = 4, l = 3, m = + 4, s = + ½
D. n = 3, l = 2, m = – 2, s = + ½

79.e/m ratio of the canal rays is less than that of cathode rays. The reason is:
A. greater mass of canal ray particles.
B. greater charge of canal ray particles.
C. greater mass and charge of canal ray particles.
D. Actually e/m ratio of canal rays is greater than that of the cathode
rays.

80.Consider the following reaction:

2 He  6 C
9 4 12
4 Be + + 8 1n
The reaction is:
A. chemical reaction
B. nuclear reaction
C. an example of artificial radioactivity
D. an exothermic reaction

81.Which principle/rule limits the maximum no. of electrons in an orbital to

two ?
A. Aufbau principle
B. Pauli's exclusion principle
C. Hund's rule of max. multiplicity
D. Heisenberg's uncertainty principle

82.The size of an atomic orbital is associated with:

A. Principal quantum number
B. Angular momentum quantum number
C. Magnetic quantum number
D. Spin quantum number
83.Which of the following compounds has maximum ionic character?
A. NaCl
B. CsF
C. KBr
D. MgCl2

84.Which of the following best describes the shape and polarity of CS 2

molecule?
A. Bent and polar
B. Linear and non- polar
C. Pyramidal and polar
D. Bent and non- polar

85.The C=C double bond in ethane consists of?

A. Two pi bonds.
B. Covalent bonds
C. Two sigma bonds
D. One sigma and one pi bond

86.Arrange these if order of increasing bond strength.

C-F, C-Br, C-I, C-Cl
A. C-F < C-Cl< C-Br< C-I
B. C-I < C-Br< C-Cl< C-F
C. C-Br < C-l< C-Cl< C-F
D. C-I < C-Br< C-F< C-CI

87.All of the following are state functions except:

A. P
B. V
C. q
D. H
88. All of the following chemical reactions are endothermic except:
A. H2O(S)  H2O(l)
B. 2H2O(g)  2H2(g) + O2(g)
C. H2O(g)  H2O(l)
D. Al2O3(l) + 2Fe(l)  2Al + Fe2O3(s)

89.Element A belongs to Group VII in p-block and element B belongs to Group

I in s-block of the periodic table. Out of the following assumptions, the
correct one is :
A. A and B are metals
B. A and B are non-metals
C. A is a metal and B is a non-metal
D. A is a non-metal and B is a metal

90.The valence shell of element A contains 3 electrons while the valence shell
of element B contains 6 electrons . If A combines with B, the probable
formula of the compound formed will be
A. AB2
B. A2B
C. A2B3
D. A3B2

91.Consider the following spontaneous reaction:

A + 2B+  A2+ + 2B the standard reduction potentials are:
A+2/A - 0.13 V and B+/B +0.80 V , the voltage of this cell will be?
A. 0.26 V
B. 1.6 V
C. 0.67 V
D. 0.93 V
92.In specified conditions the rate of consumption of N2O5 in the reaction is 0.5
mol L-1s-1. The rate of formation of NO2 is:
A. 0.5
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
93. According to the Periodic Law of elements, the variation in properties of
elements is related to their
A. nuclear masses
B. atomic numbers
C. nuclear neutron-proton number ratios
D. atomic masses

94. Variable valency is generally exhibited by

A. representative elements
B. transition elements
C. non-metallic elements
D. metallic elements

95. Highest ionization potential is shown by

A. Alkali metals
B. Transition elements
C. Halogens
D. Inert gases

96. The property which is not characteristic of transistion metals is

A. variable oxidation states.
B. tendency to form complexes.
C. formation of coloured compounds.
D. natural radioactivity.

97. IUPAC name of [Pt(NH3)3 Br (NO2) Cl] Cl is:

A. triamminechlorodibromidoplatinum (IV) chloride
B. triamminechloridobromidonitrochloride- platinum (IV) chloride
C. triamminebromidochloridonitroplatinum (IV) chloride
D. triamminenitrochlorobromoplatinum (IV) chloride
 98. Identify the end product (C) in the following sequence:

99.

In the above reaction, the product D is

A. Propane
B. 2, 3-Dimethylbutane
C. Hexane
D. Allyl bromide

100. Identify X and Y in the following sequence

(a) X = KCN, Y = LiAlH4

(b) X = KCN, Y = H3O+
(c) X = CH3Cl, Y = AlCl3 HCl
(d) X = CH3NH2, Y = HNO2

101.
102. Which of the following overlap is correct?

103. Which of the following accounts for the bond angle of 104° in water
molecule
A. sp3 hybrid state of oxygen
B. high electro negativity of H-atoms
C. low ionisation energy of H-atoms
D. lone pair-bond pair repulsions

104. The nodal plane in the 𝜋 -bond of ethene is located in

A. the molecular plane
B. a plane parallel to the molecular plane
C. A plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which bisects the
carbon-carbon sigma bond at right angle
D. a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which contains the
carbon - carbon 𝜋 –bond

105. Phenol reacts with Br2 in CS2 at low temperature to give

A. o-Bromophenol
B. o-and p-promophenols
C. p-Bromophenol
D. 2, 4, 6Tribromophenol
 106. In the reaction of phenol with CHCl3 and aqueous NaOH at 343 K, the
electrophile attacking the ring is:
A. CHCl3
B. CHCl2
C. CCl2
D. COCl2

107. The correct order of boiling points for primary (1°), Secondary (2°) and
Tertiary (3°) alcohols is
A. 1° > 2° > 3°
B. 3° > 2° > 1°
C. 2° > 1° > 3°
D. 2° > 3° > 1°

108. When Phenol is distilled with zinc dust, it gives

A. Benzene
B. Toluene
C. Benzaldehyde
D. Benzoic acid

109. In the following reaction

A. ethane
B. ethylene
C. butane
D. propane

110. The I.U.P.A.C. name of the ether CH2 = CH-CH2O CH3 is

A. Alkyl methyl ether
B. l-Methoxy-2-propene
C. 3-Methoxy-l-propene
D. Vinyl dimethyl ether
111. Dehydration of alcohol to ethers is catalysed by
A. conc. H2SO4 at 413 K
B. Hot NaOH
C. Hot HBr
D. Hot HNO3

112. Ethers are

A. Neutral
B. Basic
C. Acidic
D. Amphoteric

113. A plot of volume (V) versus temperature (T) for a gas at constant pressure is
a straight line passing through the origin. The plots at different values of
pressure are shown in figure. Which of the following order pressure is correct
for this gas ?

114. An ether is more volatile than alcohol having the same molecular formula.
This is due to
A. intermolecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols.
B. dipolar character of ethers
C. alcohols, having resonance structures
D. intermolecular hydrogen bonding in ethers.
 115. Cyclohexene is best prepared from cyclohexanol by which of the
following:
A. Conc. H3PO4
B. Conc. HCl/ZnCl2
C. Conc. HCl
D. Conc. HBr

116. Acetone reacts with Grignard reagent to form

A. 3° alcohol
B. 2° alcohol
C. ether
D. no reaction

117. During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with cone. H2SO4 the
initial step is
A. formation of an ester
B. protonation of alcohol molecule
C. formation of carbocation
D. elimination of water

118. Which of the following cannot reduce Fehling’s solution?

A. Formic acid
B. Acetic acid
C. Formaldehyde
D. Acetaldehyde

119. The acid which does not contain-COOH group is

A. Ethanoic acid
B. Lactic acid
C. Picric add
D. Palmitic acid
120. Which of the following reagents can be used to prepare ketone from acid
chloride?
A. Grignard’s reagent
B. LiAlH4
C. Dimethyl cadmium
D. Cadmium chloride

121. The functional group which is found in amino acids is

A. COOH
B. -NH2
C. -CH3
D. both (a) and (b).

122. The protein responsible for blood clotting is

A. Albumins
B. Globulins
C. Fibroin
D. Fibrinogen
Section III (Physics)
Note: 54 MCQs
123. Unit of time in FPS units is:
A. Millisecond
B. Minute
C. Hour
D. Second

124. An eagle of mass 4 kg is locked inside a cage of mass 2 kg. If the eagle starts
flying, what will be the mass of the bird and cage assembly?
A. 5 kg
B. 7 kg
C. 2 kg
D. 6 kg

125. Force is a:
A. Vector
B. Scalar
C. Tensor
D. Base quantity

126. If the force of 20 N acts at an angle 60o along horizontal then its vertical
and horizontal components are:
A. 20 N, 0 N
B. 15 N, 10 N
C. 17.32 N, 10 N
D. 10 N, 17.32 N

127. A gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity of 1200 ms-1. The man
holding it can exert a maximum force of 144 N on the gun.
How many bullets can he fire per second at the most?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
128. A man of mass 50 kg on the top floor of a skyscraper steps into an elevator.
Assume g=10 ms-2.What is the man’s weight as the elevator accelerates downward
at a rate of 1.5ms-2?
A. 460 N
B. 325 N
C. 425 N
D. 475 N

129. If kinetic energy increased 4 times then momentum will increase:

A. 3 times
B. 4 times
C. 5 times
D. 2 times

130. Minimum value of kinetic energy is:

A. Infinite
B. Zero
C. Negative constant
D. Minus infinite

131. Two spring having force constant in the ratio of 3 : 4, both the springs are
stretched by equal force F, if elongation in first spring is x then elongation in
second spring is:
A. 3x
B. 4x
C. 3x/4
D. 4x/3

132. A body is undergoing non uniform circular motion, work done by radial force
on the body:
A. Positive
B. Zero
C. Negative
D. Variable
133. Centripetal force is provided by __________ in a frictional road around a
circular path:
A. Friction force
B. Normal force
C. Gravitational force
D. Pseudo forces

134. Radian can be used to measure:

A. Length of line
B. Diameter of circle
C. Side of triangle
D. Arc length

135. The quantity used in angular measurement is:

A. Parameter
B. Area
C. Circumference
D. Volume

136. Earth covers its one revolution around sun in:

A. 24 hours
B. 7 days
C. 12 months
D. 60 minutes

137. The distance between adjacent fringes will increase, if we use:

A. Red light
B. Blue light
C. Lowest order
D. Highest order

138. The velocity of sound in vacuum at 0 degree centigrade:

A. 332 m/s
B. 344 m/s
C. 330 m/s
D. 0 m/s
139. The unit of frequency is:
A. Hertz
B. Decibel
C. Ampere
D. Radian

140. Example of mechanical waves is:

A. Transverse wave
B. Longitudinal wave
C. Both transverse and longitudinal wave
D. Compressional waves

141. Microwave is:

A. An electromagnetic wave
B. Sound wave
C. Longitudinal wave
D. Standing wave

142. Pitch depends upon:

A. Frequency
B. Timbre
C. Loudness
D. Amplitude

143. The property of musical sound which differentiate between grave and shrill
sound is called?
A. Pitch
B. Intensity
C. Beats
D. Quality

144. Unit of heat capacity is:

A. J/K
B. J/K.mole
C. J/K.kg
D. Joule
145. Molar heat capacity is defined as heat required to raise the temperature by 1
degree of substance.
A. 2 mole
B. 2 kg
C. 1 kg
D. 1 mole

146. Specific heat of a gas in isothermal process is:

A. Infinite
B. Zero
C. Negative
D. Remains constant

147. Electrical potential energy between two charges at distance “r” is given by:
A. (k*q1*q2)/r
B. (k*q1*q2)/r^2
C. k*q1*q2
D. k*q1*q2/2r

148. Consider an isolated parallel plate capacitor. Both plates have charge +Q and
-Q and filled with a dielectric with dielectric constant K. We pull out the dielectric
material, if the charges on the plates do not change, how does the energy in the
capacitor changes?
A. It increases
B. It decreases
C. It remains same
D. Insufficient data

149. Which of the following could not be the units of electric intensity?
A. Joule per coulomb per meter
B. Joule per coulomb
C. Volt per metre
D. Newton’s per coulomb
150. Direction of electric force and electric field intensity for a positive charge is:
A. Parallel to each other
B. Perpendicular to each other
C. Opposite to each other
D. Random

151. The change in potential energy per unit charge between two points in an
electric field is called:
A. Potential difference
B. Absolute potential
C. Electric intensity
D. Permittivity

152. The electric flux through the surface of the sphere is directly proportional to
the:
A. Surface area of the sphere
B. Radius of the sphere
C. Charge at the centre of the sphere
D. Nature of charge

153. Electric Flux through the surface of a sphere which has constant charge at its
centre depends on:
A. The radius of the sphere
B. The surface area of the sphere
C. The amount of charge inside the sphere
D. The amount of charge outside the sphere

154. Current is a __________ physical quantity:

A. Scalar Quantity
B. Vector Quantity
C. Variable Quantity
D. Constant Quantity

155. Steady current does not change with respect to .

A. Conductor
B. Source
C. Time
D. Potential Difference
156. Ohm’s Law is applicable only when temperature is:
A. Changing
B. Absolute Zero
C. Constant
D. Decreasing

157. Resistivity of a substance is defined as the resistance of a __________ of that

substance.
A. Meter
B. Meter Square
C. Meter Cube
D. Centimeter

158. Resistance of a conductor depends upon:

A. Temperature
B. Nature of a conductor
C. Length
D. Color

159. Terminal potential difference of a cell:

A. Increases with increase in its internal resistance
B. Decrease with increase in internal resistance
C. Is independent of its internal resistance
D. Varies exponentially with resistance

160. Study of magnets is called:

A. Electromagnetism
B. Magnetism
C. Electrostatics
D. Current electricity

161. If the current in wire is doubled then magnetic field would be:
A. Half
B. Remain same
C. Triple
D. Double
162. The magnetic flux density is:
A. Magnetic field lines per unit area
B. Magnetic field lines per unit volume
C. Electric field lines per unit area
D. Electric field lines per unit volume

163. Current produced by moving coil is called:

A. Induced current
B. Direct current
C. Polarized current
D. No current

164. Self inductance of a coil does not depends upon:

A. Length
B. Current
C. Number of turns
D. Area of coil

165. The negative sign in Lenz’s law indicates that the induced emf opposes the
rate of change of:
A. Electric flux
B. Magnetic flux
C. Electric field
D. Magnetic field

166. The mechanical energy of our hand used to push the magnet towards or away
from the coil results into:
A. Heat energy
B. Potential energy
C. Electrical energy
D. Mechanical energy

167. In step down transformer, current in secondary coil is __________ than

current in primary coil:
A. Equal
B. Less
C. Greater
D. Unchanged
168. Transistors can be used as:
A. Half wave rectifier
B. Full wave rectifier
C. Photocell
D. Switch

169. Among the following four spectral regions, which photon has the highest
energy?
A. Infrared
B. Violet
C. Blue
D. Ultraviolet

170. A three dimensional image is achieved by scanning the surface with a focused
beam of electrons:
A. Sem
B. Tem
C. Xrd
D. Stem

171. Planck’s constant is analogous to:

A. Inertia
B. Wave nature
C. Angular momentum
D. Linear momentum

172. The units for absorption power is:

A. Meter
B. Second
C. Henry
D. No Units
173. X rays are also known as:
A. Low energy Invisible Photons
B. High energy Visible Photons
C. High energy Invisible Photons
D. Low energy Visible Photons

174. The x-rays used in medical field have _ intensity:

A. High
B. Low
C. Medium
D. Very high

175. The ordinary TV screen made of cathode tube emits:

A. Cathode rays
B. Anode rays
C. Gamma rays
D. It emits no radiation

176. What is the relationship between half-life of radioactive isotope and its
wavelength?
A. They are equal in magnitude
B. They are directly proportional
C. They are inversely proportional
D. No relation
Section IV (English)
Note: 18 MCQs
Choose a word that means the same as the underlined word.
177. Is he the sole man in the team who can play as a forward?
A. angry
B. soul
C. only
D. substitute

178. While on vacation, the group of boys roamed the country side on their bikes.
A. rounded
B. rocked
C. wandered
D. inhabited
179. Even the richest nations will eventually have to adapt to smaller, more
economical automobiles.
A. Never
B. reluctantly
C. gradually
D. sooner or later
180. Stock-market analysis monitors a great variety of financial indicators.
A. come up with
B. look into
C. keep track of
D. take charge of
181. The Kangal, the national dog of Turkey, has a keen sense of smell.
A. Sharp
B. outstanding
C. aggressive
D. enviable
Spot the error (if any) in the following sentences.
182. Everyone who was injured (A)/ in the accident (B)/ were taken to the
hospital (C)/ No error (D)
183. The officer is angry on the clerk (A)/ for not completing the job (B)/ on
time. (C)/ No error (D)
184. We have already seen the movie (A)/ so we refused and (B)/ went to the
stadium instead. (C)/ No error (D)
185. The short story (A)/ should not exceed (B)/ more than two hundreds words.
(C)/ No error (D)
186. These poisonous gases (A)/ will effect(B)/ our health.(C)/ No error (D)

Sentence completion
187. As a result of a(n) ________ with her landlord, she was evicted.
A. contusion
B. alternative
C. conflagration
D. altercation
E. aggression

188. The service at the restaurant was usually very attentive, but on this one
occasion the waiter seemed to __________ the diners.
A. applaud
B. urge
C. ignore
D. restrain
E. fulfill
189. Alan waited __________ for his turn, relaxing in an easy chair with his eyes
closed.
A. impatiently
B. eagerly
C. warily
D. calmly
E. tensely
190. Through his ____________ he managed to cheat his partners out of their
earnings.
A. inefficiency
B. ineptness
C. machinations
D. regime
E. dealings

191. If Peter continues to skip classes and fail to complete homework assignments,
he will soon find that he has been ___________the University.
A. dismissed from
B. invited to
C. trapped in
D. warned about
E. reminded of

Sentence Corrections
192. Karim’s father does not like him hanging around with rowdy boys who cause
trouble.
A. does not like his hanging around
B. does not like him hang around
C. does not like his hang around
D. does not like he hanging around
E. No correction required
193. Getting to hire as the assistant to a pastry chef seemed like a dream come
true.
A. Get to hire
B. Getting to be hired
C. Getting hired
D. Having got hired
E. No correction required
194. He went to work despite of his illness.
A. to
B. despite
C. of
D. for
Section V (Logical Reasoning)
Note: 6 MCQs
195.

196.

197.
198.

199.

200.