CLASS: LT NEET GT – 7 DATE: 27.04.

2023
PHYSICS
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball
point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and this Test Booklet contains 200 questions. Each
question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are
720.
3. In this Test Paper, each subject will consist of two sections. Section A will consist of 35
questions (all questions are mandatory) and Section B will have 15 questions. Candidate can
choose to attempt any 10 question out of these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts more
than 10 questions, first 10 attempted questions will be considered for marking.
4. In case of more than one option correct in any question, the best correct option will be considered
as answer.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses.
6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
7. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator
before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet
with them.
8. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks
on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space in
the Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet.
9. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
SECTION – A
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SECTION – B

36.

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49.

50.

CHEMISTRY
SECTION A
51. , , and atm are the osmotic pressures of 5% (mass/ volume) solutions of urea, fructose,
sucrose and KCl respectively at certain temperature. The correct order of their magnitudes is :
a) > > > b) < < <
c) > > > d) > > >
52. Given the ionic equivalent conductivities for the following ions:
= 73.5 ℎ
= 149 ℎ
= 85.8 ℎ
The Λ for potash alum ( . ( ) . 24 ) is
a) 215. 92 b) 348.3 c) 368.2 d) 394.1
53. The initial rates of reaction
3 + 2 + ⟶ roducts, at different initial concentrations are given below:
Initial rate, [ ] , [ ] , [ ] ,
5.0 × 10 0.010 0.005 0.010
5.0 × 10 0.010 0.005 0.015
1.0 × 10 0.010 0.010 0.010
1.25 × 10 0.005 0.005 0.010
The order with respect to the reactants, A, B and C are respectively
a) 3,2,0 b) 3,2,1 c) 2,2,0 d) 2,1,0
54. Which one of the following order is correct for the bond energies of halogen molecules?
a) > > b) > > c) > > d) > >

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55. Match Column – I with Column – II:
Column -I Column – II
(Molecule) (hybridization; shape)
(A) (p) ;
(B) (q) ; pyramidal
(C) Xe (r) ; distorted octahedral
(D) (s) ; square pyramidal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a) − ( ), − ( ) , − ( ) , −( ) b) − ( ) , − ( ), − ( ), −( )
c) − ( ), − ( ), − ( ), −( ) d) − ( ), − ( ), − ( ), −( )
56. Out of , , and (Z of Ti = 22, co = 27, Cu = 29, Ni = 28), the colourless
species are:
a) b)
c) and d)
57. In the isoelectronic series of metal carbonyl, the CO bond strength is expected to increase in the
order:
a) [ ( ) ] < [ ( ) ]<[ ( ) ] b) [ ( ) ] < [ ( ) ]<[ ( ) ]
c) [ ( ) ] < [[ ( ) ] <[ ( ) ] d) [ ( ) ] < [ ( ) ] <[ ( ) ]
58. Match Column I with Column II.
Column – I Column – II
Cl2/UV light
C 2H 6
(A) C2H5Cl (p) Finkelstein reaction
NaNO 2+HCl/Cu 2 Cl 2
C 6H 5NH 2
(B) (q) Free radical
C6H 5Cl
CH3Cl + NaI
(C) CH3I+NaCl (r) Swarts reaction
CH 3 - Br+AgF
(D) CH 3F+AgBr (s) Sandmeyer’s reaction
a) − ( ), − ( ), − ( ), −( ) b) − ( ) , − ( ) , − ( ), −( )
c) − ( ), − ( ), − ( ), −( ) d) − ( ), − ( ), − ( ), −( )
OH 1
OH 3 OH 4

59. Decreasing order of acid strength of different OH groups is 2 OH

a) 1 > 2 > 3 > 4 b) 1 > 3 > 4 > 2 c) 1 > 4 > 3 > 2 d) 4 > 3 > 1 > 2

9
60. Which of the following species can act as the strongest base?

NO 2
a) b) c) d)
61. Match Column-I with Column – II
Column -I Column – II
Zn - Hg/HCl
R - CH 2 - CH 3
(A) R-CO - CH 3 (p) Friedel – Craft’s reaction
NaOH
C6H5COONa + C 6H 5CH 2OH
(B)2C 6H5CHO (q) Kolbe’s reaction
Anhyd.
C6H 6+CH3COCl C 6H5COCH3
(C) AlCl3 (r) Clemmensen’s reaction
(D) + + → (s) Cannizzaro’s reaction
a) A – (p), B – (q), C – (r), D – (s) b) A – (r), B – (p), C – qr), D – (s)
c) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q) d) A – (s), B – (r), C – (p), D – (q)
NaNO 2
(A) (C) -ve victor meyer's test
HCl
+ve mustard oil test
(B) (D) Blue colour in victor meyer's test
NaNO 2
HCl
62. (A) and (B) are respectively
CH 3 NH 2 CH 3

C NH 2 N CH 3 C NH 2
CH 3 , CH 3 , CH 3

CH 3 Et CH 3
a) b)
CH 3 Et
NH 2

CH CH CH NH , , CH3 CH NH 2
c) 3 2 2 CH 2NH 2 d)
63. Which is not a reducing sugar?

a) b)

c) d)

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 HgSO 4 (1) NH3+HCN
H C C H (A) ; (B) ;
+
64. H 2SO 4 (2) H3O
Product (B) of the given reaction is :
a) Glycine b) Alamine c) Valine d) Leucine

CH 3

C CH 2

CH 3 n
65. Monomer of is
a) 2 – methylpropane b) styrene c) propylene d) ethene
O

C CH 3
O

66. The following compound is used as COOH

a) An anti-inflammatory compound b) analgesic c) hypnotic d) antiseptic

67. Match Column-I with Column-II
Column-I Column-II
(Physical quantity) (Unit)
A) Molarity p) mol
B) Mole q) Unitless
C) Mole r)
D) Molality s) mol
a) A-(r),B-(q),C-(s),D-(p) b) A-(r),B-(p),C-(p),D-(s)
c) A-(r),B-(q),C-(p),D-(s) d) A-(q),B-(r),C-(p),D-(s)
68. If the shortest wavelength of the spectral line of H-atom in the Lyman series is , thenthe longest
wavelength of the line in Balmer series of is

a) 9x b) c) d)

69. Consider the following pairs of electrons

A) a) = 3,1 = 1, , =+
b) = 3,1 = 2, = 1, =+
B) ) = 3,1 = 2, = −2, =−
b) = 3,1 = 2, = −1, =−
C) ) = 4,1 = 2, = 2, =+
b) = 3,1 = 2, = 2, =+
The pairs of electron present in degenerate orbitals is/are

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 a) Only A b) Only B c) Only C d) (B) and (C)
70. Among , , and the correct order of acid strength is
a) < < < b) < < <
c) < < < d) < < <
71. In forming ( ) → ( ) → ; the electrons respectively are removed from:
∗ ∗ ∗ ∗
a) 2 2 ( 2 2 ) b) 2 2 ( 2 2 )
∗ ∗ ∗ ∗
c) 2 2 ( 2 2 ) d) 2 2 ( 2 2 )
72. Which of the following is most appropriate structure of ?

a) b)
c) d)
73. Select the most stable cation
a) b) c) d)
74. The van der Waal’s constant ‘a’ for four gases P,Q,R and S are 4.17,3.59,6.71 and 3.8 atm
respectively. Therefore, the ascending order of their liquefaction is
a) R<P<S<Q b) Q<S<R<P c) Q<S<P<R d) R<P<Q<S
75. The bond dissociation energies of respectively are 360 and 620 k cal . The C-
C bond energy would be
a) 260 k ca/mol b) 180 k cal/mol c) 130 k cal/mol d) 80 k cal/mol
76. The correct relationship between free energy change in a reaction and the corresponding
equilibrium constant, is
a) ∆ = b) −∆ =
c) ∆ = d) −∆ =
77. The solubility of ( ) in water is
[Given: The solubility product of ( ) in water = 5.5 × 10 ]
a) 1.77 × 10 b) 1.11 × 10 c) 1.77 × 10 d) 1.11 × 10
78. 2 +5 +6 →2 +5 +8 . In this reaction Z is
a) 1:1 b) 2:3 c) 3:2 d) 1:3
79. Which one of the following undergoes reduction with hydrogen peroxide in an alkaline medium?
a) b) c) PbS d)
80. Match Column-I with Column-II
Column-I Column-II
A) Borax-bead p) Alum
B)Inorganic benzene q) Diborane

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 C) Antiseptic r) Metaborate
D) Bridged hydrogens s) Borazole
a) A-(p), B-(r),C-(q),D-(s) b) A-(r),B-(s),C-(p),D-(q)
c) A-(s),BB-(r),C-(p),D-(q) d) A-(q),B-(r),C-(s),D-(p)
81. Match List-I with List-II
List List-II
(Si-Compounds) (Si-Polymeric/other products)
A) ( ) (p) Chain silicone
B)( ) ( ) (q) dimeric silicone
C) ( ) ( ) (r) silane
D) ( ) ( ) (s) 2D-Silcone
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
a) A-(r),B-(q),C-(p),D-(s) b) A-(s),B-(p),C-(q),D-(r)
c) A-(q),B-(s),C-(p),D-(q) d) A-(r),B-(s),C-(p),D-(q)
82. Most stable carbocation among the following is
O O- OH O O- OH O O- OH O O-
R R R R

OH OH OH OH
N N N N

a) H b) H c) H d) H

83. Which of the following is most stable?

..

a) b) c) d)
() ,
84. What will be the major product of following sequence of reaction? − −≡ ( ) ,
n-Bu n-Bu

n-Bu C 5H 11
a) H 11C 5 b) n-Bu
C5H 11
H11C5 n-Bu

c) d) n-Bu

HNO 3 Br
A B. The compound B is
H 2SO 4 FeBr 2
85.
NO 2
NO 2
NO 2 NO 2
Br

Br Br
a) Br b) c) Br d)

13
 SECTION – B
86. A substance crystallizes in a face centred cubic (fcc) lattice in which atoms ‘A’ occupy each
corner of the cube and atoms ‘B’ occupy the centres of each face of the cube. Identify the correct
composition of the substance
a) b) c) d) Composition can’t be specified
87. The correct relationship between the boiling points of very dilute solutions of ( ) and
( ), having the same molar concentration is
a) = b) > c) > d) ≥
88. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is :
+ ⟶ + at 298 K
Given, / = 0.15 ,
/ = −0.42 , / = −0.40

a) 10 b) 10 c) 10 d) 10
89. The rate constant of a reaction is 1.5 × 10 at 25 and 2.1 × 10 60 . The activation
energy is
. × × × × .
a) b) c) 2.1 d)
. × . .

90. For the graph below, select correct order of temperature?

a) > > b) > > c) > > d) = =

91. Complexes formed in the following methods are
I. Mond’s process for purification of nickel
II. Removal of lead poisoning from the body
III. Cyanide process for extraction of silver
IV. Froth flotation process for separation of ZnS from galena ore by using depressant
I II III IV
a) [ ( ) ] [Pb(EDTA)] [Ag( ) ] [Zn(CN) ]
b) [ ( ) ] [Pb(EDTA)] [Ag( ) ] [Zn(CN) ]
c) [ ( ) ] [Pb(EDTA)] [Ag( ) ] [Zn(CN) ]
d) [ ( ) ] [Pb(EDTA)] [Ag( ) ] [Zn(CN) ]
92. Match the complex species given in Column-I with the isomerism exhibited in Column – II and
assign the correct code:

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 Column – I Column – II
(Complex species) (Isomerism)
(A) [ ( ) ] (p) optical
(B) cis-[Co(en) ] (q) ionization
(C) [Co( ) ( )] (r) coordination
(D) [Co( ) ][ ( ) ] (s) geometrical
a) − ( ), − ( ), − ( ), −( ) b) − ( ), − ( ), − ( ), −( )
c) − ( ), − ( ), − ( ), −( ) d) − ( ), − ( ), − ( ), −( )
93. The major product of the following reaction is
-
Cl Na - ether Br 2/hv C2H5O /C 2H5OH,
Br

a) b) c) d)
94. The suitable reaction steps to carry out the following transformation are

? ? H

O
(i) BH 3, THF PCC (i) BH 3, THF HIO 4

(ii) H 2O 2, NaOH CH 2Cl 2 (ii) H 2O 2, NaOH

a) b)
H2O 2, H2SO 4 PCC OsO 4 K 2Cr 2O 7, H2SO 4
-
CH 2Cl 2 (CH 3)3CCOOH, OH H2O
c) d)
95. The major product Z obtained in the following reaction scheme is:
NH 2

NaNO 2/HCl Cu 2Br 2 HNO 3

X Y Z
273 - 278 K H 2SO 4
Br
Br

Br NO 2 NO 2
O 2N
Br
Br Br

NO 2 NO 2 Br
a) Br b) c) d) Br
96. Liquid benzene ( ) burns in oxygen according to the equation
2 ( ) + 15 ( ) → 12 ( )+6 ( )
How many litres of at STP are needed to complete the combustion of 39 g of liquid benzene?
(Mol. wt. of = 32, = 78))

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 a) 74L b) 11.2L c) 22.4L d) 84L
97. Match Column-I with Column-II
Column-I Column-II
A) ∆ = − ; ∆ = − p) Reaction will be non-spontaneous at high
∆ =− temperature
B) ∆ = − ; ∆ = − q) Reaction will be non-spontaneous at low
∆ =+ temperature
C) ∆ = + ; ∆ = + r) Reaction will be spontaneous at low
∆ =+ temperature
D) ∆ = + ; ∆ = + s) Reaction will be spontaneous at high
∆ =− temperature
a) A-(q),B-(r),c-(p),D-(s) b) A-(r),B-(p),C-(q),D-(s)
c) A-(r),B-(q),C-(s),D-(p) d) A-(q),B-(s),C-(p),D-(r)
98. Which is not correctly matched
1) Basic strength < < < < of oxides
2) Stability of < < < peroxides
3) Stability of < < < < <
4) Melting point < < <
a) 1 and 4 b) 1 and 3 c) 1 and 2 d) 2 and 3
99. The correct arrangement for leaving tendency among the following group is
-
F , NH 2, H2O, H 3C SO 2O , F 3CSO 2O
V
I II III IV

a) III>I>II>IV>V b) V>IV>III>I>II
c) I>III>II>IV>V d) V>IV>I>III>II
100. Increasing order of rate of Friedel craft reaction in

a) III<II<I b) II<III<I c) I<III<II d) I<II<III

BOTANY
SECTION A
101. What is the total number of ATP directly produced in mitochondrial matrix from one molecule
of glucose without the involvement of electron transport system
a) 6 b) 4 c) 2 d) 32
102. 2NH + 3O → 2NO + 2H + 2H O
2NO + O → 2NO These reactions are the part of
a) Nitrogen fixation b) Ammonification c) Denitrification d) Nitrification

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103. The genetic material found in the causative organism of potato spindle tuber disease is
a) dsDNA surrounded by capsid b) ssDNA surrounded by capsid
c) dsRNA surrounded by capsid d) ssRNA not surrounded by capsid
104. Find the correct combination
a) Chlorophyceae – chlorophyll a,c and starch
b) Phaeophyceae – chlorpphyll a,d Mannitol and Laminarin
c) Rhodophyceae – chlorophyll a,d and Floridean starch
d) Fungi – Chlorophyll a , c Glycogen and Oil drops
105. Sonalika and Kalyan sona are the high yielding and disease resistant varieties of the crop
a) Rice b) Wheat c) Maize d) Jowar
106. In an insulin the chain A and B are linked by
a) Hydrogen bonds b) Ester bonds c) Disulphide bonds d) Peptide bonds
107. RNA interference is a process of gene regulation at
a) Transcription level b) Translation level
c) RNA processing level d) RNA transport level
108. During sexual reproduction dikaryotic mycelium is formed in the members of
a) Club fungi and sac fungi b) Sac fungi and algal fungi
c) Algal fungi and imperfect fungi d) Imperfect fungi and sac fungi
109. Protista includes
a) Hydra, Amoeba, Paramecium b) Nostoc, Euglena, Dinoflagellates
c) Mushroom, Paramecium, Euglena d) Dinoflagellates, Amoeba, Paramecium
110. Match of the column I with II and choose the right option.
Column – I Column –II
A. Morels i. Deuteromycetes
B. Smut ii. Ascomycetes
C. Bread mould iii. Basidiomycetes
D. Imperfect fungi iv. Phycomycetes
A B C D A B C D
a) iii iv i ii b) ii iii iv i
c) iv i ii iii d) iii iv ii i
111. The sporophyte of bryophytes develops after
a) reduction division of zygote b) mitosis in zygote
c) before the formation of zygote d) none
112. Tricarpellary syncarpous, trilocular ovary is seen in a family namely
a) Fabaceae b) Solanaceae c) Asteraceae d Liliaceae
113. Study the following Lists

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 List –I (Protein) List –II (Function)
A) Antibody I) Enables glucose transport into the cells
B) Glut-4 II) Intercellular ground substance
C) Collagen III) Fights infectious agents
D) RUBISCO IV) Abundant protein in biosphere
V) Hormonal function
The correct match is
A B C D A B C D
(a) III I II IV (b) III I IV V
(c) III IV III I (d) III II V IV
114. For production of 2 mol. NH how much ATP is required in biological nitrogen fixation
reaction (i. e.N → 2NH )?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32
115. Who first identified that behavior of chromosomes was parallel to the behavior of genes in
meiosis
a) Morgan and Sturtevant b) Sutton and Boveri
c) Hershy and Chase d) Corren, Hugo de vries, Tshermak
116. In Lac operon, the ‘repressor’ binds to operator in the absence of
a) Regulator b) Inducer c) Promoter d) Inhibitor
117. Which of the following is correct with reference to the Okazaki fragments?
a) Continuously synthesized regions of DNA b) Discontinuously synthesized regions of DNA
c) DNA fragments separated on electrophoresis d) stained DNA fragments on electrophoresis
118. Roquefort cheese is ripened by growing a specific
a) Fungus b) Bacterium c) Virus d) Protozoan
119. Study the following lists
List –I List - II
A) Cyclosporin A I) Monascus purpureus
B) Statins II) Trichoderma polysporum
C) Streptokinase III) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
D) Ethanol IV) Streptococcus
V) Escherichia coli
A B C D A B C D
a) II III IV I b) II I IV III
c) I II III IV d) I II IV V
120. DNA fragments generated by the restriction endonucleases in a chemical reaction can be
separated by
a) Polymerase chain reaction b) Electrophoresis
c) Restriction mapping d) Centrifugation

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121. Interfascicular cambium develops from the cells of ______ in dicot stem
a) Xylem parenchyma b) Endodermis c) Pericycle d) Medullary rays
122. Bolting is associated with physiological function of
a) Gibberelic acid b) Cytokinins c) IAA d) ABA
123. In a C plant sugar synthesis takes place in the
a) Chloroplast of bundle sheath cell b) Cytosol of mesophyll cell
c) Chloroplast of mesophyll cell d) Cytosol of bundle sheath cell
124. In an anaerobic sludge digester, during the digestion process, mixture of gases like
________are produced.
(a) CH , H O, O (b) C H , H S, CO
(c) CH , H O , CO (d) CH , H S, CO
125. Study the following lists
List -II List-II (Digesting enzymes)
A) Bacterial cell wall I) Chitinase
B) Plant cell wall II) Ribonuclease
C) Fungus cell wall III) Lysozyme
D) RNA IV) Cellulase
V) RNA polymerase
A B C D A B C D
a) IV III V II b) III IV I II
c) IV I II V d) V III I IV
126. Enzymes taking part in EMP pathway are found in
a) Mitochondrion b) Cytoplasm c) Nucleus d) Chloroplast

127. Chemiosmotic theory explains production of ATP is due to

a) Electron transport b) break down of proton concentration gradient

c) Photolysis of water d) Substrate level phosphorylation

128. Which of the followings are correct for conifers?

I. Needle like leaves to reduce surface area. II. Thick cuticle on leaves.
III. Sunken stomata to reduce Water loss. IV. The main plant body is gametophyte.

(a) II and III (b) IV only (c) I only (d) I, II and III

129. The haploid content of human DNA is

a) 3.2× 10 bp b) 3.3 × 10 bp c) 4.6 × 10 bp d) 48502 bp

130. Long silky hairs on cob of maize are

a) Anthers b) Style c) Stigma d) Both 2 and 3

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131. Contagium vivum fluidum (infections living fluid) name given to fluid extract from infected
tobacco plant was given by

(a) Ivanowsky (b) Pasteur (c) Whittaker (d) Beijerinek

132. A cross between two tall garden pea plants produced all tall plants. The possible genotypes
of the parents are

I) TT, TT II) TT, Tt III) Tt, tt IV) Tt, Tt

a) I, IV b) I, II c) II, III d) III, IV

133. If the codon GGU is reversed, the resulting codon will code for this amino acid

a) Trp b) Leu c) Thr d) Tyr

134. Study the following lists

List – I List –II

A) Exon I) Site for binding of RNA polymerase
B) Capping II) Coding sequence
C) Tailing III) Lagging strand
D) Promoter IV) Methyl guanosine triphosphate
V) Adenylate residues
The correct match is
A B C D
(a) II IV I V
(b) III I II IV
(c) IV II III I
(d) II IV V I

135. Identify the correct pair of combinations

I) 14C - Disfiction between PS 1 and PS II

II) 15N - Semi conservative replication of DNA
III) 35S – DNA synthesis
IV) 32P & 35S Identification of chemical nature of genetic material

a) II, IV b) I, II c) I, III d) II, III

136. How many Nitrogen atoms are present in adenine?

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6

137. Identify the wrong combination

a) Cycas – Coralloid roots b) Volvox – colonial

c) Marchantia – Pseudo-elaters d) Dryopteris – Rhizome

20
138. Identify the characters of mustard, chilli, cauliflower respectively

a) Whorled phyllotaxy, unilocular ovary, production of flowers at the same node of the
peduncle
b) Hypogynous flower, biocular ovary, corymb
c) Axile placentaion, tricarpellary gynoecium, sessile flowers
d) Inferior ovary, zygomorphic flower, corymb

139. Chromosome number in the endosperm of species ‘A’ and in the gamete cell of species ‘B’
together equal to the chromosome number in the somatic cell of “Apple”. Species A and B
respectively are

a) Rice, Potato b) Rice, fruit fly c) Rice, maize d) Maize , fruit fly
140. Match the following lists
List –I List – II
A) G1phase I) Replication of DNA
B) S phase II) Quiescent stage
C) G2 phase III) Condensation of chromatin
D) G0 phase IV) Protein synthesis
V) Interval between mitosis and initiation of DNA replication
The correct answer is
A B C D
a) V IV I III
b) V I IV II
c) V II III IV
d) III V I II
141. Match the following lists
List –I List –II
A) Golgi apparatus I) Conversion of lipids to carbohydrates
B) Glyoxysomes II) Catabolism of long chain fatty acids
C) Peroxisomes III) Formation of glycoproteins and
glycolipids
D) Endoplasmic reticulum IV) Synthesis of lipids
V) Osmoregualtion
The correct answer is
A B C D
(a) V IV II II
(b) III I II IV
(c) II III V I
(d) IV V I II
142. Which one of the following characters is not found in transverse section of monocot stem?
a) Lysigenous cavity b) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
c) Starch sheath d) Sclerenchymatous bundle sheath
143. Identify the correct pair of statements

21
 I) Functions of sieve tubes are controlled by the nucleus of companion cells
II) Albuminous cells are present in angiosperms
III) In dicot root, the vascular cambium is completely secondary in origin
IV) Cylindrical meristems contribute to the formation of primary plant body
a) III, IV b) I, II c) II, III d) I, III
144. Identify the wrong pair of statements
I) During plant succession, some species colonise in an area and their populations become
more numerous, whereas populations of other species decline and even disappear
II) Both hydrarch and xerach successions lead to mesic conditions
III) Secondary succession is a slow process when compared to primary succession
IV) In the successive serial stages, there is no change in the diversity of species of organisms
a) I, II b) III, IV c) I, III d) II, III
145. Amembranous structures of the animal cell are
A) Ribosomes B) Nucleolus C) Centrosome
a) A only b) A, B only c) A, B, C d) A & C only
146. Following features belongs to
A. Mycelium septate and branched. B. Some members are saprophytes or parasites.
C. Reproduce only by conidia.
(a) ascomycetes (b) deuteromycetes (c) basidiomycetes (d) phycomycetes
147. The minimum and maximum numbers of hydrogen bonds found in a coil of dsDNA respectively
are
(a) 10 and 10 (b) 20 and 20 (c) 30 and 20 (d) 20 and 30
148. Additional sequences on mRNA referred to as ____ are not translated.
(a) VNTRs (b) SNPs (c) STRs (d) UTRs
149. Pure homozygous offsprings in a dihybrid cross in the F2 generation will be
(a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 (c) 1/8 (d) 1/16
150. Electroporation involves
(a) Promotion of seed germination by induced inhibition of water with electric current
(b) Making transient pores in cell membrane to facilitate entry of gene constructs
(c) Purification of saline Water with the help of an artificial membrane
(d) Passage of sucrose through sieve pores by electro-osmosis
ZOOLOGY
SECTION A
151. A unit of classification is :
a) category b) rank c) taxon d) all the above

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152. Assertion (A) : Animals of the phylum Aschelminthes are pseudocoelomates
Reason (R): In Aschelminthes animals the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm, instead the
mesoderm is present as scattered pouches in between the ectoderm and endoderm.
a) Both A and R correct. R is not an explanation for A
b) Both A and R correct. R is a correct explanation for A
c) A is correct R is wrong d) A is wrong R is correct
153. (1) Reptiles are partially cold blooded and partially warm blooded due to the presence of
incompletely divided four chambered heart.
(2) In Neophron, the digestive tract has additional chambers, the crop and gizzard
(3) In Cyclostomes the skin is tough, containing minute placoid scales
Find out no.of correct statement/s:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) None
154. In sponges, the spongocoel and the canals are lined by
a) sponges fibres b) collar cells
c) pinacocytes d) calcareous spicules
155. Chitinous asymmetrical structures, surrounding the male gonopore of cockroach
a) mushroom shaped gland b) spermatophores
c) collateral glands d) phallomeres
156. Statement I : Fusiform muscle fibres are found in striated muscles
Statement II : Moist surface of pharynx is covered by compound epithelium
a) I and II are wrong b) I and II are correct
c) I wrong II correct d) I correct II wrong
157. During the absorption of food transport of water depends upon ____
a) Concentration gradient b) osmotic gradient
c) facilitated transport d) permeability of membrane
158. Identify the incorrect statement /s:
(1) The trachea, primary, secondary and tertiary bronchi and initial bronchioles are supported by
incomplete cartilaginous rings
(2) Respiratory or exchange part of the respiratory system is formed by terminal bronchioles,
alveoli and their ducts
(3) Inspiration occurs when there is a negative pressure in the lungs with respect to the
atmospheric pressure
(4) The solubility of is 20 – 25 times higher the that of C
a) 1 and 3 b) 2 and 4 c) 2 and 3 d) 3 and 4
159. Receptors associated with ___(A)___ and ___(B)___ also can recognize changes in
concentration and send necessary signals to the rhythm centre for remedial action
a) A – pulmonary arch, B – aortic arch b) A – pulmonary arch, B – systemic arch
c) A – aortic arch, B – Carotid artery d) A – carotid artery, B – Coronary artery

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160. Neural signals through ____(A)___ can ____(B)____ the rate of heart beat, the strength of
____(C)_____ and there by increase cardiac output
a) A -sympathetic nerves; B- decreases, C- ventricular contraction
b) A – parasympathetic nerves; B – increases, C – contraction ventricular
c) A- parasympathetic nerves; B – Ventricular contraction C – decreases
d) A – sympathetic nerves; B – increases; C – ventricular contraction
161. The proximity between the ___(A)___ and ____(B)___ , as well as the counter current in them
help in maintaining an increasing osmolarity towards the inner medullary interstitilem
a) A – afferent arteriole; B – DCT b) A – afferent arteriole; B – DCT
c) A – Henle’s loop; b – Vasa recta d) A – Henle’s loop; B – collecting duct
162. Assertion (A) : Each myosin (thick) filament is also a polymerized protein
Reason (R): Many monomeric proteins called tropomyosins constitute one thick filament
a) Both A and R correct. R is an explanation for A
b) Both A and R correct. R is not an explanation for A
c) A is wrong R is correct d) A is correct R is wrong
163. The ___(A)___ and ___(B)__ are the specific receptors of the ___(C)___ responsible for
maintenance of balance of the body and posture
a) A – Saccule ; B- utricle ; C – tectrorial membrane
b) A – crista; B – macula; C-vestibular apparates
c) A – saccule ; B – utricle; C – vestibular apparatus
d) A – cerebellum, B – semicircular canal; C – vestibular apparatus
164. The visual acuity is greated at :
a) fovea centralis b) Macula lutea
c) yellow spot d) Occipital lobe of brain
165. Statement I : The pituitary hormones regulate the growth and development of somatic tissues and
activities of peripheral endocrine glands
Statement II : Epinephrine and norepinephrine increases sweating , pupillary dialation, proteolysis
and lipolysis
a) I and II wrong b) I and II correct
c) I wrong II correct d) I correct II wrong
166. Several groups of neurosecretory cells present in hypothalamus are called __
a) ganglia b) tracts c) nuclei d) neuroglia
167. (1) Invertebrates possess very simple endocrine systems with few hormones where as a large
number of chemicals acts as hormones and provide coordination in vertebrates
(2) Physiological functions are regulated by hormones
(3) Hormones of adrenal cortex are steroid hormones
(4) Inositol triphosphate is a second messenger
Find out the incorrect statement/s from the above:
a) 1 and 4 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 , 3 and 4 d) None

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168. The process of spermiogenesis is helped by some factors present in the secretion of
a) Leydig cells b) Sertolic cells c)Epididymis d) All the above
169. What are essential for maturation and motility of sperms?
a) secretions of epididymis and prostate b) secretions of vas deferens and prostate
c) secretions of seminal vesicle and prostate d) All the above
170. (1) At the end of about 6 months, in foetus, the body is covered with fine hairs, eye lids separate
and eye lashes are formed
(2) Parturition is induced by a complete musculo-endocrine mechanism
(3) All Cells of blastocyst are stem cells
(4) First meiotic division in oogenesis is unequal and second meiotic division is equal
Identify the correct statement/s:
a) 3 b) 1,2 and 3 c) 1 d) 1,3 and 4
171. Amendment in the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act was enacted by the government of
India in the year –
a) 1994 b) 1997 c) 2007 d) 2017
172. Which of the following complications occur due to undetected or untreated STI’s?
(1) Abortions, PID, infertility, cancer of the reproductive tract
(2) Still births, ectopic pregnancies
(3) Abortions, reproductive tract cancers only
(4) PIDs, infertility and abortions only
a) 1 and 2 only b)1 only c) 3 only d) 4 only
173. Statement I : When we describe the story of this world we describe evolution as a process
Statement II : When we describe the story of life on earth we treat natural selection as a
consequence of a process called evolution
a) I and II are correct b) I correct II wrong
c) I wrong II correct d) I and II are wrong
174. (1) Darwinian variations are small and directionless
(2) Hugo devries based on his work on evening primrose mentioned that mutations are not the
non heritable minor variations.
a) both are correct b) I correct II wrong
c) I wrong II correct d) both are wrong
175. Cave paintings by pre-historic humans can be seen at ( ) in ( ) district of ( )

a) A – Shivalic hills, B – Bastar , C – Madhya Pradesh

b) A – Heidelberg rock, B – Baveria , C – Germany
c) A – Bhimbetka rock shelter, B – Raisen, C – Madhya Pradesh
d) A – Bharatpur sanctuary, B – Pulwama, C – Kashmir
176. Chemically diacetylmorphine is ___

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 a) coke b) smack c) crack d) codine
177. Biological response modifiers used in cancer treatment are
a) interleukins b) monoclonal antibodies
c) ∝ − interferons d) vincristen and vinblestin
178. Which cells among the following used as factories HIV for the production of virus particles?
a) macrophages b) T-lymphocytes ( ) c) neutrophilsd) both a and b
179. What type of breeding helps to overcome inbreeding depression?
a) out-crossing b) Cross-breeding
c) interspecific hybridization d) All the above
180. The four levels of biological organization basically concerned by ecology is ____
a) organisms, populations, communities, Ecosystems
b) organisms, populations, ecosystems, landscape
c) organisms, populations, ecosystems, biomes
d) organisms, populations, communities, biomes
181.What is the breeding season for cuckoo?
a) autumn to winter b) summer to autumn
c) spring to summer d) winter to summer
182. Decomposition rate is slower if the detritus is rich in ( ) and ( )

a) A – ligin ; B –sugars b) A – chitin; B – sugars

c) A – chitin ; B – sugars d) A – lignin , B – chitin
183. (1) Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years and thus, had a
long evolutionary time for species diversification
(2) Temperate environments are more seasonal so that they promote niche speciation
(3) More solar energy in the topics, contributes to higher productivity
(4) Alexander Von Humboldt, the great Italian naturalist, explored the wilderness of south
American jungles
Number of Incorrect statement/s from the above:
a) 1 and 3 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
184. Although all the biodiversity hot spots put together cover less than ( ) of the earth’s land
area, the number of ( ) they collectively harbor is extremely high and strict protection of
these hotspots could reduce the ongoing mass extinctions by almost ( )

a) A – 3 %, B – animals , C – 30 % b) B – organisms, A – 2.8 %, C – 30 %

c) C – 20 %, B – species, A – 2 % d) B – species, A – 2 %, C – 30 %
185. Which method remove 99 % of particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power
plant ?
a) Scrubber b) Electrostatic precipitation
c) Catalytic converters d) All the above

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 SECTION – B
186. (1) Biodiversity refers to the number and types of organisms present on earth
(2) Animals, mammals and dogs represent taxa at different levels
(3) NBRI located in Howrah (India)
(4) Flora, manuals, manographs are also help in correct identification
Find the incorrect statement/s:
a) 2 and 3 b) 3 only c) 4 only d) 2,3 and 4
187. Statement I : Alimentary canals is complete with a well developed muscular pharynx is found in
wuchereria
Statement II : Neural system consists of paired ganglia connected by lateral nerves to a double
ventral nerve cord in salamander .
a) I and II are correct b) II correct I wrong
c) II wrong I correct d) I and II are wrong
188. Hormonal control of the secretion of digestive juices is carried out by ___(A)_____
produced by ___(B)___ and ___(C)____
a) A – pituitary hormone; B – gastric; C – intestinal mucosa
b) A - local hormones ; B – gastric ; C – intestinal submucosa
c) A – pancreatic hormones; B – gastric ; C – intestinal mucosa
d) A – local hormones; B-gastric ; C – intestinal mucosa
189. (1) Atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about 40%
(2) Erythroblastosis foetalis is due to Rh incompatibility
(3) Blood normally contains 1,50,000 – 3,50,000 platelets/
(4) The hepatic vein carries blood from intestine to the liver before it is delivered to the systemic
circulation
Correct statement/s from the above are
a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1
190. (1) Bile secreted by liver consists of substances like bilirubin, biliverdin, sterols, enzymes ,
cholesterol, sterols, hydrocarbons and degraded drugs
(2) The ultimate method in correction of kidney failure is hemodialysis
(3) Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed from afferent arterioles, fine branches of renal artery
Identify the correct statement.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) all
191. The skull region particulates with the superior region of the vertebral column with the help of
a) sternum b) Axis c) foramen magnum d) two occipital condyles
192. The characteristics of soil along with the parameters that determine vegetation in any area. The
parameters alone are :
a) soil composition, grain size and aggregation
b) soil pH, mineral composition and topography
c) percolation and water holding capacity of soils d) All the above

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193. (1) In a terrestrial ecosystem, major producers are herbaceous and woody plants
(2) Energy at a lower trophic level is always more than higher trophic level
(3) Saprophytes are not given any place in ecological pyramids even though they play a vital role
in the ecosystem
(4) At any time during primary (or) secondary succession, natural or human induced disturbances
can not convert a particular seral stage of succession to an earlier stage
Find out the correct statement /s:
a) 1,3 and 4 b) 1,2 and 4 c) 1, 2 and 3 d) 2,3 and 4
194. Bacteria, cloth and paper fibres comes under which type of impurities of sewage?
a) Colloidal material b) Dissolved material
c) Suspended solids d) both a & c
195. Assertion (A): The central part of thick filament, not overlapped by thin filaments is called the
‘H’ zone
Reason (R): In a resting state, the edges of thin filaments on either side of the thick filaments
partially overlap the free ends of the thick filaments leaving the central part of the thick filaments
a) Both A and R are correct. R is not the correct explanation for A
b) A is correct R is wrong c) A is wrong R is correct
d) Both A and R are correct. R is the correct explanation for A
196. Olfactory bulbs are the extensions of the brains ____
a) olfactory epithelium b) limbic system
c) corpus callosum d) temporal lobe
197. Which part if present, is highly reduced in cortical nephrons?
a) loop of Henle b) CDT c) Vasa recta d) JGA
198. The digestive wastes, solidified into coherent faces in which part of the large intestine ?
a) descending colon b) sigmoid colon c) rectum d) transverse colon
199. The epididymis leads to vas deferens that ascends to the abdomen and loops over the
a) seminal vesicles b) ureters c) urethra d) urinary bladder
200. Placental wolf: Tasmanian Wolf: placental lemur:
a) spotted cuscus b) Numbat c) Marsupial mouse d) Marsupial mole

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