SSC-JE Syllabus

Transportation Engineering : Highway Engineering – cross sectional elements, geometric design,

types of pavements, pavement materials – aggregates and bitumen, different tests, Design of
flexible and rigid pavements – Water Bound Macadam (WBM) and Wet Mix Macadam (WMM),
Gravel Road, Bituminous construction, Rigid pavement joint, pavement maintenance, Highway
drainage, Railway Engineering- Components of permanent way – sleepers, ballast, fixtures and
fastening, track geometry, points and crossings, track junction, stations and yards. Traffic
Engineering – Different traffic survey, speed-flow-density and their interrelationships,
intersections and interchanges, traffic signals, traffic operation, traffic signs and markings, road
safety

Table of Contents

Sr. Chapter Pages

1. Highway Development and Planning ………………………………………………….…… 1.1 to 1.3

2. Geometric Design …………………..……………….…………………..………………………. 2.1 to 2.19

3. Highway Material Maintenance and Drainage …………………………...…………. 3.1 to 3.8

4. Pavement Design ……………………………….………………..…………………………….…. 4.1 to 4.9

5. Traffic Engineering…………………….……………………………………………………..…... 5.1 to 5.8

6. Railway Engineering………………….……………………………………………………..…... 6.1 to 6.26

7. Bridge Engineering…………………….……………………………………………………..…... 7.1 to 7.7

8. Tunnel Engineering…………………….……………………………………………………..…... 8.1 to 8.4

 M MCQ Questions Q.5 In which of the following road
Q.1 According to the recommendation of construction, the finished surface layer
Nagpur conference the width formation of the pavement is given a cross slope of
of an ideal national highway in hard 1 in 45?
rock cutting is _______. (A) Macadam construction
(A) 8.9 m (B) 7.9 m (B) Telford construction
(C) 6.9 m (D) 6.5 m (C) Tresaguet construction
[SSC JE 2016] (D) Metcalf construction
Q.2 The Road Development Plan for India [SSC JE 2019]
for the period of 1981 to 2001 is also Q.6 Indian Road Congress (IRC) was set up
known as : in the year :
(A) Lucknow plan (B) Nagpur plan (A) 1950 (B) 1978
(C) Bombay plan (D) Kanpur plan (C) 1956 (D) 1934
[SSC JE 2018] [SSC JE 2019]
Q.3 All the specifications for highway
A Assignment Questions
planning and design are given by:
(A) IRC (B) HRB Q.1 The Nagpur road plan formula is
(C) MVA (D) CRRI prepared assuming which road pattern
[SSC JE 2018] (A) Circular pattern
Q.4 Heavy foundation stones are not at all (B) Block pattern
necessary to be placed at the bottom (C) Star and block pattern d
layer of road with sub grade cross slope (D) Star and grid pattern
of 1 in 36. Which of the following [PEB-SUB ER]
methods of construction used this Q.2 Which of the following is a metalled
concept? road?
(A) Telford construction (A) Earthen road
(B) Tresaguet construction (B) Cement concrete road
(C) Macadam construction (C) Bituminous road
(D) Metcalf construction (D) WBM road
[SSC JE 2019] [PEB-SUB ER]
 ®
1.2 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.3 The headquarter of Indian Road P Practice Questions
Congress (IRC) is located at
Q.1 The length of National Highways as per
(A) Kolkata (B) Bangalore
3rd 20 year (Lucknow) road plan is
(C) Mumbai (D) New Delhi
given by
[KPSC-JE]
(A) Area of the country/75
Q.4 Alternate routes for a highway project
(B) Area of the country/50
are suggested by the study of
(C) Area of the country/40
(A) Political map
(D) Area of the country/25
(B) Traffic map
(C) Topographic map Q.2 In 1927, Jayakar committee was set up
to amine and report on road
(D) Road map
development in India, based on which
[TSPSC-AE]
certain institutions were subsequently
Q.5 A committee was appointed by the set up. Which of the following were the
Government with M R Jayaker as direct out come of Jayakar committee
chairman in recommendations?
(A) 1920 (B) 1925 1. Indian Road Congress
(C) 1926 (D) 1927
2. Central Road Fund
[TSPSC-AE]
3. CRRI
Q.6 Give the full form of IRC
4. National Highway Act
(A) Indian Road Concrete
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4
(B) Indian Road Congress
(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) All the above
(C) Indian Rail Congress
Q.3 Consider
(D) India Road Congress
1. Creation of Central Road Fund
[Haryana-JE]
2. National Highway Act
Q.7 Give the full form of CRRI.
3. Formation of Indian Road Congress
(A) Central Road Research Institute
4. Creation of Highway Research
(B) Central Research Road Institute
Board The correct chronological
(C) Central Railway Research Institute
order of these events is
(D) Central Research Railway Institute
(A) 4, 3, 2, 1 (B) 2, 1, 3, 4
[Haryana-JE]
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4 (D) 2, 3, 1, 4
C Conventional Questions Q.4 The semiofficial body set up for
Q.1 Write a critical note on location survey? controlling and standardization of roads
Q.2 What are the general principle of re and bridges in India is
alignment? (A) Highway Research
Q.3 What is the necessity of preparing (B) National Highways Act Committee
project report? Mention the drawings (C) Central Road Fund
which are usually prepared. (D) Indian Road congress
GATE ACADEMY ® Transportation Engineering : Highway Development and Planning 1.3
Q.5 Nagpur road plan has recommended the
use of road pattern type of
(A) Star and circular pattern
(B) Star and block pattern
(C) Star and grid pattern
(D) Star and hexagonal pattern
Q.6 Select the correct statement.
(A) Nagpur road plan formulae take
into account the towns with very
large population
(B) Nagpur road plan has a target road
length of 32 km per 100 square km
(C) Second 20 year plan has provided
1600 km of expressways out of the
proposed National highway
(D) Second 20 year plan allowed
deduction of length of railway track
in the area while calculating the
length

Answers Highway Development and Planning

MCQ Questions
1. B 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. B
6. D
Assignment Questions
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. D
6. B 7. A
Practice Questions
1. B 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. C
6. C


 M MCQ Questions Q.5 The ideal form of the curve for the
summit curve is :
Q.1 For the preparation of highways
(A) Spiral (B) Parabola
(A) Longitudinal sections are required
(C) Circle (D) Lemniscate
(B) Cross-sections are required
[SSC JE 2011]
(C) (A) and (B) are required
Q.6 The camber for hill roads in case of
(D) None of the above
bituminous surface is adopted as:
[SSC JE 2007]
(A) 2.0% (B) 2.5%
Q.2 Camber in the road is provided for:
(C) 3.0% (D) 3.5%
(A) Effective drainage.
(B) Counteracting the centrifugal force. [SSC JE 2011]
(C) Having proper sight distance. Q.7 If the stopping distance and average
length of a vehicle are 18 m and 6 m
(D) All the above.
respectively, then the theoretical
[SSC JE 2011]
maximum capacity (vehicles per hour) of
Q.3 The curve provided at the change of a traffic lane at a speed of 10 m/sec is:
gradient is called :
(A) Horizontal curve. (A) 1500 (B) 2000
(B) Transition curve.
(C) 2500 (D) 3000
(C) Reverse curve.
[SSC JE 2013]
(D) Vertical curve.
Q.8 The centrifugal force on a car moving on
[SSC JE 2011] a horizontal circular curve is proportional
Q.4 The recommended camber for water- to :
bound macadam road is :
Wv 2 Wv
(A) 1 in 40 to 1 in 50 (A) (B)
( gR ) ( gR )
(B) 1 in 33 to 1 in 40
(C) 1 in 25 to 1 in 33 Wv 2 Wv
(C) (D)
( gR 2 ) ( gR 2 )
(D) 1 in 20 to 1 in 25
[SSC JE 2011] [SSC JE 2014]
 ®
2.2 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.9 The ruling minimum radius of the curve Q.14 The cross sections for a highway is taken
for ruling design speed ‘V’ m/sec, at _______
coefficient of friction ‘f’, acceleration (A) Right angle to the center line
due to gravity ‘g’ m/sec2 and
(B) 30 meters apart
superelevation ‘e’, is given by :
(C) Intermediate points having abrupt
(A) V 2 /(e  f ) g
change in gradient
(B) V 2 /( f  e) g (D) All options are correct
(C) V 2 /(e  f ) g [SSC JE 2016]
(D) V 2 /(e  f )2 g Q.15 Pick up the incorrect statement from the
following. The width of the right-of-way
[SSC JE 2014]
is decided to accommodate.
Q.10 Camber in the road is provided for :
(A) Formation width
(A) Counteracting the centrifugal force.
(B) Side slopes
(B) Effective drainage.
(C) Horizontal curve
(C) Having proper sight distance.
(D) Vertical curve
(D) Avoiding overturning.
[SSC JE 2016]
[SSC JE 2014]
Q.11 The absolute minimum radius of curve Q.16 What is the value of the lateral coefficient
for safe operation, for a speed of 110 of the friction as per the IRC?
kmph is : (A) 0.007 (B) 0.01
(A) 110 m (B) 440 m (C) 0.15 (D) 0.3
(C) 220 m (D) 577 m [SSC JE 2017]
[SSC JE 2016] Q.17 Calculate the safe stopping sight distance
Q.12 What is the psychological widening of a (in m) for descending gradient of 3% for
pavement on horizontal curve of radius a design speed of 80 km/h. Taking
230 m for ruling speed 80 kmph? coefficient of friction of 0.35 and total
(A) 0.455 m (B) 0.555 m reaction time as ‘2’ seconds.
(C) 0.186 m (D) 0.136 m (A) 110.82 (B) 123.26
[SSC JE 2016] (C) 108.41 (D) 1092
Q.13 The stopping sight distance depends [SSC JE 2017]
upon _______ Q.18 What will be the shift of transition curve,
(A) Total reaction time of the driver if the length of transition curve is 80 m
(B) Speed of the vehicle and radius of the curve is 300 m?
(C) Efficiency of brakes (A) 0.011 (B) 0.78
(D) all of the given options (C) 0.89 (D) 21.33
[SSC JE 2016] [SSC JE 2017]
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Geometric Design 2.3
Q.19 Which instrument is used for the Q.23 The intermediate sight distance is equal
measurement of the longitudinal to
coefficient of friction? (A) Overtaking sight distance
(A) Bump integrator (B) Stopping sight distance
(B) Both bump integrator and (C) Twice of stopping sight distance
roughometer (D) Twice of over taking sight distance
(C) Roughometer [SSC JE 2017]
Q.24 The ruling design speed on a curve is 100
(D) Speedometer
km/h and the super elevation on the curve
[SSC JE 2017] is 7%. Calculate the ruling design radius
Q.20 Calculate the capacity (vehicle per hour) (m) of the curve. Take coefficient of the
of the road when reaction time of the lateral friction as 0.15.
driver is 2 seconds. The design speed is (A) 129 (B) 189
80 kmph and average length of the (C) 358 (D) 1668
vehicle is 6 m. Take coefficient of [SSC JE 2017]
friction as 0.35. Q.25 Calculate the design rate of super
(A) 600 (B) 653 elevation (%) on a highway in a plain
(C) 687 (D) 724 terrain, if design speed of the highway is
80 kmph and radius of the curve is 400
[SSC JE 2017]
m.
Q.21 Calculate the safe stopping sight distance
(A) 7 (B) 7.11
for a design speed of 60 km/h for two
(C) 8.2 (D) 12.6
way traffic on a single lane road. The
reaction time of driver is 2.5 sec. [SSC JE 2017]
Q.26 Right of way is the summation of the
(A) 82.21 (B) 136.23
width of
(C) 164.42 (D) 674.24 (A) Carriage way and shoulder
[SSC JE 2017] (B) Carriage way, shoulder and road
Q.22 Which of the following is correct margins
statement for the cross-slope of the (C) Carriage way and road margins.
shoulder? (D) Road margins and shoulder
(A) It is 1% flatter than the cross slope [SSC JE 2017]
of pavement. Q.27 Gradient on a highway is 1 in 20. Radius
(B) It’s minimum value is 2%. of the curve is 200 m. After grade
compensation the grade to be provided
(C) It is 0.5% steeper than the cross
should not be less than 4%. Calculate the
slope of the pavement.
grade compensation.
(D) Its value is equal to the cross slope (A) 0.38% (B) 1.15%
of pavement.
(C) 4.63% (D) 5%
[SSC JE 2017] [SSC JE 2017]
 ®
2.4 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.28 A portion of the roadway contiguous Q.33 Extra widening of pavements provided
with the travelled way and is intended for because of off-tracking is known as:
accommodation of stopped vehicle is (A) Psychological widening
called as (B) Mechanical widening
(A) Carriageway width (C) Physical widening
(B) Curbs (D) Frictional widening
(C) Shoulder [SSC JE 2018]
(D) Median Q.34 Cross slope given to the pavement for
safe drainage of water is:
[SSC JE 2018]
(A) Cant (B) Kerb
Q.29 In a highway an ascending gradient of 1
(C) Shoulder (D) Camber
in 100 meets with a descending gradient
of 1 in 80, determine the deviation angle? [SSC JE 2018]
Q.35 A lateral shift in the transition curve is
given by:
9 1
(A) (B) (A) L2 /2.4 R (B) L3 /2.4 R 2
400 400
9 1 (C) L2 /240 R (D) L2 /24 R
(C) (D)
800 800 [SSC JE 2018]
[SSC JE 2018] Q.36 What is the maximum super elevation
Q.30 The length of a transition curve depends that is fixed by Indian Road Congress
on the rate of change of _______. (IRC) for roads in plain and rolling
terrains and in snowbound areas, taking
(A) Centrifugal acceleration
mixed traffic into consideration?
(B) Tangential acceleration
(A) 10.0 % (B) 5.5 %
(C) Speed (C) 4.0 % (D) 7.0 %
(D) Distance [SSC JE 2018]
[SSC JE 2018] Q.37 The radius of a horizontal circular curve
Q.31 For stopping sight distance the eye level is 100 m. The design speed is 50 km/h
should be at: and the design coefficient of lateral
(A) 1.2 m (B) 1.6 m friction is 0.15. Determine the rate of
super elevation to be provided, if full
(C) 0.75 m (D) 1.8 m
lateral friction is assumed to develop.
[SSC JE 2018]
(A) 1 in 26.4 (B) 1 in 10.5
Q.32 The longitudinal coefficient of friction on (C) 1 in 17 (D) 1 in 21.2
highway for calculation of stopping
[SSC JE 2018]
distance in geometrical design is:
Q.38 What should be the maximum length of
(A) 0.3 to 0.34 (B) 0.5 the semi-trailer tractor combination
(C) 0.25 to 0.29 (D) 0.35 to 0.4 vehicle (shown in the given figure) as per
[SSC JE 2018] IRC (Indian Road Congress)?
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Geometric Design 2.5
Q.43 Which of the following curves fulfils the
requirements of an ideal transition curve
in horizontal alignment of the highways,
for such curves radius is inversely
(A) 16 m (B) 12 m proportional to the length and centrifugal
(C) 20 m (D) 10 m acceleration is uniform throughout the
length?
[SSC JE 2018]
Q.39 According to IRC recommendations, (A) Cubic parabolic curve
what shall be the rounded off value of (B) Circular curve
overtaking sight distance, on a two lane (C) Sine curve
highway for the case in which design (D) Spiral curve
speed = 50 km h. time component for [SSC JE 2019]
overtaking manoeuvre and for opposing Q.44 What is the maximum limit of super
vehicle are 10 seconds and 7 seconds, elevation as recommended by IRC on
respectively? hilly roads?
(A) 470 m (B) 235 m (A) 7% (B) 10%
(C) 165 m (D) 340 m (C) 4% (D) 30%
[SSC JE 2019] [SSC JE 2019]
Q.40 Which of the following is taken as the Q.45 Which of the following geometric shape
highest safe speed limit, derived from is NOT used as a transition curve in the
spot speed study, for a highway? alignment of highways?
(A) 80th Percentile speed (A) Semicircle
(B) 90th Percentile speed (B) Lemniscate
(C) 98th Percentile speed
(C) Spiral
(D) 85th Percentile speed
(D) Cubic parabola
[SSC JE 2019]
[SSC JE 2019]
Q.41 For a hill road with the ruling gradient of
Q.46 Two cars are moving in the opposite
6%, what will be the compensated
direction with speeds 25 m s and 20 m s
gradient at a curve of radius 60 m?
respectively. If total reaction time is 2.5
(A) 5.5% (B) 4.5%
seconds and design coefficient of friction
(C) 4.75% (D) 5%
is 0.35. then what must be the minimum
[SSC JE 2019]
sight distance to avoid head on collision?
Q.42 The sight distance is defined as the:
(Take g = 10 m s 2 )
(A) Length of the roadway a driver can
see ahead at any particular time. (A) 112.5 m (B) 34.07 m
(B) Nautical distance for which ships (C) 225 m (D) 258.93 m
can continue signaling [SSC JE 2019]
(C) Length of the runway Q.47 What is the total extra widening required
(D) Total length of road to be traversed for pavement width 7 m on a horizontal
[SSC JE 2019] curve of radius 100 m if the longest
 ®
2.6 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
wheel base expected on the road is 7 m Q.52 What must be radius of a circular curve
and design speed is 50 km h? for railway of chord length 30 m. where
(A) 2 m (B) 4 m the degree of curvature is 2s?
(C) 1 m (D) 3 m (A) 1000 m (B) 1440 m
[SSC JE 2019] (C) 860 m (D) 1720 m
Q.48 The width of carriageway for a two lane [SSC JE 2019]
road with raised kerbs, as recommended
by IRC is : A Assignment Questions
(A) 7.0111 (B) 5.5 Q.1 As per IRC, the camber on cement
(C) 8.5 (D) 7.5 concrete roads should be
[SSC JE 2019] (A) 1 in 50 to 60 (B) 1 in 45 to 60
Q.49 A two-lane road with design speed 60 km (C) 1 in 20 to 24 (D) 1 in 12 to 16
h lies a horizontal curve of radius 400 m. [Punjab-JE]
What will be the super elevation required
Q.2 The ideal form of curve for the summit
to be provided for the mixed traffic
curve is
conditions at the curve as per IRC 38 -
199S? (A) Spiral
(A) 8.7% (B) 6.4% (B) Parabola
(C) 4.0% (D) 7% (C) Circular
[SSC JE 2019] (D) None of these
Q.50 A vehicle has wheel base of 5.5 m. What [Punjab-JE]
is the off tracking negotiation of a curved
Q.3 If National Highway in plain terrain has
path with a mean radius of 31.5 m? (take
a rulling design speed of 100 km per hour
width of pavement as 3.5 m)
with super elevation (e) = 0.075 and
(A) 0.48 m (B) 0.96 m friction coefficient =0.145 then the
(C) 0.14 m (D) 0.087 m rulling minimum radius of such
[SSC JE 2019] horizontal curve is close to
Q.51 Total width of the pavement on a (A) 430 m (B) 360 m
horizontal circular curve = 7.5 m and the (C) 250 m (D) 170 m
super elevation is 0.06 m. Calculate the
[RPSC VPITI]
magnitudes of raising at outer edge of the
pavement with respect to the centre line Q.4 For a vehicle with a speed of V m/s on a
and inner edge, respectively. road surface with the coefficient of
(A) 0.225 m; 0.06 m friction f and acceleration due to gravity
g. braking distance is given by
(B) 0.06 m; 0.45 m
(C) 0.225m; 0.45 m (A) v2/gf (B) v2/2gf
(D) 0.06 m; 0.225 m (C) 2v2/gf (D) v2/4gf
[SSC JE 2019] [RPSC VPITI]
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Geometric Design 2.7
Q.5 As per IRC recommendations the ruling Q.11 What is the crown height with respect to
gradient for plain terrain is the edges to be provided in case of state
(A) 1 in 15 (B) 1 in 20 highway of concrete pavement of width
(C) 1 in 40 (D) 1 in 30 7.0 m and very high rainfall?
[RPSC VPITI] (A) 0.07 (B) 0.035
Q.6 The stopping sight distance depends (C) 0.11 (D) 0.06
upon [PEB SUB ER]
(A) Total reaction time of driver
Q.12 A two-lane road with the design speed of
(B) Speed of vehicle
80 kmph has a horizontal curve of radius
(C) Efficiency of brakes
500 m. What is the rate of super elevation
(D) All of these for mixed traffic?
[RPSC]
(A) 0.07 (B) 0.02
Q.7 The shoulder provided along the road
edge should be (C) 0.057 (D) 0.12
(A) Rougher than the traffic lanes [PEB SUB ER]
(B) Smoother than the traffic lanes Q.13 The length of the road ahead of the
(C) Of same colour as that of the vehicle which is visible to the driver is
pavement called as
(D) Of very low load bearing capacity (A) Sight distance
[RPSC, RPSC-ACF] (B) Safe distance
Q.8 Width of carriage way for a single lane is (C) Clear distance
recommended to be
(D) Invisible distance
(A) 7.5 m (B) 7.0 m
[PEB SUB ER]
(C) 3.75 m (D) 5.5 m
Q.14 The distance between the midpoint of the
[RPSC, Coal India]
long chord to the midpoint of curve is
Q.9 The shape of the camber, best suited for
known as
cement concrete pavements, is
(A) Straight line (A) Cub chord
(B) Parabolic (B) Normal chord
(C) Elliptical (C) Mid ordinate
(D) Combination of straight and (D) Long chord
parabolic [PEB SUB ER]
[RPSC] Q.15 In case of multi lane road, overtaking is
Q.10 The alignment of highways are generally generally permitted from
taken along
(A) Left side only
(A) Along the contour line
(B) Right side only
(B) Across the contour line
(C) Along the valley line (C) Both sides
(D) The ridge line (D) None of the above
[RPSC] [PEB SUB ER]
 ®
2.8 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.16 For a comfortable travel on highways, the Q.21 What is the width of carriageway to be
centrifugal ratio should not exceed adopted for two-lane road with raised
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.2 kerbs?
(C) 0.25 (D) 0.15 (A) 8.0 m (B) 7.5 m
[PEB SUB ER] (C) 7.0 m (D) 5.5 m
Q.17 A curve which consists of a two circular [PEB SUB ER]
arcs of same or different radii having Q.22 The highest point in cross-section) of a
their centers to the different sides of the
curved road surface, commonly at or near
common tangent is called a the center is called as
(A) Simple curve
(A) Cross fall (B) Summit
(B) Compound curve
(C) Crown (D) Peak
(C) Transition curve
[PEB SUB ER]
(D) Reverse curve
[PEB SUB ER] Q.23 Kerbs are necessary in road pavements
because
Q.18 If the radial acceleration of transition
curve is 30 cm/sec', radius is 200 m and (A) They provide strength to the sides of
the velocity is 14 m/sec. The length of the road pavements and avoid lateral
transition curve is displacement of carriageway due to
traffic loads
(A) 46.0 m (B) 46.5 m
(C) 45.0 m (D) 44.5 m (B) In terms of road safety, they serve as
a separation line between footway
[PEB SUB ER]
and carriageway and aid car drivers
Q.19 The minimum length of overtaking zone
in driving safely
should be
(C) They act as a vertical barrier to guide
(A) One and half times safe overtaking
the surface runoff collected in road
distance
pavements to the gullies
(B) Three times the safe overtaking
distance (D) All of the above
(C) Twice the safe overtaking distance [GESCOM-AE]
(D) Four times the safe overtaking Q.24 Consider the following statements
distance 1. An ascending gradient of 1 in 100
[PEB SUB ER] meets an ascending gradient of 1 in
Q.20 What is the ruling minimum radius of 120 to form a valley curve
horizontal curve of National Highway in 2. A falling gradient of 1 in 25 meets a
plain terrain with ruling design speed of falling gradient of 1 in 50 to form a
100 kmph? valley curve
(A) 160 (B) 200 3. The length of valley curve is
(C) 360 (D) 400 determined on the basis of head light
[PEB SUB ER] sight distance
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Geometric Design 2.9
Which one of the statements given above Q.29 A curve having varying radii and
is/are correct? introduced in between a straight and a
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 circular curve is known as
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3 (A) Compound curve
(B) Transition curve
[KPSC-AE]
(C) Vertical curve
Q.25 The stopping sight distance of a vehicle (D) Summit curve
moving with a speed of 50 kmph in a two
[PHED-RAJ, LBS-ASST.PROF]
lane road is ______ m. If the reaction
Q.30 On the horizontal curve, if the pavement
time of driver is 2.3 sec and coefficient of
is kept horizontal across the alignment,
longitudinal f riction is 0.38.
then the pressure on the outer wheel will
(A) 57.84 (B) 35 be
(C) 48 32 (D) 12.43 (A) More than the pressure on the inner
[KPSC-JE] wheel
Q.26 The cumulative vertical undulations of (B) Less than the pressure on inner
the surface recorded per km of the road is wheel
called ______. (C) Same pressure on both the wheels
(D) Zero
(A) Profile
[MPSC]
(B) Cross section
Q.31 Exceptional gradient in plains as per IRC
(C) Unevenness index
(D) Alignment (A) 1 in 90 (B) 1 in 15
[KPSC-JE] (C) 1 in 40 (D) 1 in 30
Q.27 Horizontal curves on highways are [TSPSC-AE]
provided to give Q.32 Layout of centre line of the highway on
the ground-is called as
(A) High speed for vehicles
(A) Setting out (B) Stake out
(B) Restrict speed of vehicles
(C) Alignment (D) Base line
(C) Gradual change in gradient [TSPSC-AE]
(D) Gradual change in direction Q.33 In urban areas, when the volume of cycle
[KPSC-JE] traffic is high, minimum width provided
Q.28 The outer edges of highways are slightly for the cycle track is
elevated with respect to inner edge. This (A) 3.5 m (B) 3.0 m
is called (C) 2.0 m (D) 1
(A) Elevators [TSPSC-AE]
Q.34 The maximum value of super elevation in
(B) Speed breakers
plain and rolling terrain is
(C) Super elevation (A) 7% (B) 10%
(D) Risers (C) 19% (D) 8%
[KPSC-JE] [LBS-ASST.PROF]
 ®
2.10 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.35 The primary aim of providing camber is Q.41 The steepest gradient permitted on roads
(A) Better appearance which in ordinary conditions, does not
(B) Easy drainage exceed, is known
(A) Ruling gradient
(C) Separation of traffic
(B) Limiting gradient
(D) Road safety
(C) Exceptional gradient
[LBS-ASST.PROF] (D) Floating gradient
Q.36 The width of shoulder commonly [ISRO]
adopted for two lane roads in India is Q.42 While calculating the sight distances, the
(A) 1.5 m (B) 1.2 m driver's eye above road surface is
(C) 2.5 m (D) 3 m assumed as
[LBS-ASST.PROF] (A) 60 cms (B) 70 cms
Q.37 The formation width of National & State (C) 80 cms (D) 120 cms
Highways in plain and rolling terrain for [ISRO]
single lane is Q.43 The radius of curvature provided along a
transition curve, is
(A) 12.0 m (B) 6.25 m
(A) Minimum at the beginning and
(C) 14.0 m (D) 8 80 m
maximum at the end
[Haryana-JE] (B) Same throughout its length
Q.38 The rate of rise or fall of road surface (C) Equal to the radius of circular curve
along its length is (D) Varying from infinity at the
(A) Formation level beginning to the radius of circular
(B) Camber curve at the end
(C) Gradient [ISRO]
(D) Sight distance Q.44 The highest point on a carriage way is
known as
[Haryana-JE]
(A) Crown
Q.39 The stopping sight depends upon
(B) Camber
(A) Terrain Category (C) Gradient
(B) Speed of Vehicles (D) Super elevation
(C) Type of Vehicles [Chandigarh-JE]
(D) Type of Roads Q.45 The camber of shoulders in water bound
[Haryana-JE] macadam roads is
Q.40 Proper geometric design will help in (A) Equal to the cross slope of pavement
(B) Less than the cross slope of
(A) Increasing speed of vehicle
pavement
(B) Reduction in gradient
(C) Greater than the cross slope of
(C) Reduction of accident pavement
(D) Reduction of carriage way (D) Zero
[Haryana-JE] [Chandigarh-JE]
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Geometric Design 2.11
Q.46 The slope of the line joining the crown Q.52 The minimum length of a valley curve
and edge of the road surface is known as should be such that the head light beam
[Chandigarh-JE] sight distance is equal to
(A) Cross fall (B) Cross-slope (A) Stopping sight distance
(C) Camber (D) All of these (B) Passing sight distance
Q.47 The camber and gradient on earthen (C) Braking distance
roads should not be more than (D) Chord distance
(A) 1 in 10 (B) 1 in 20 [ISRO]
(C) 1 in 50 (D) 1 in 80 Q.53 The width of carriageway for multi-lane
[Chandigarh-JE] pavements as recommended by the
Q.48 A gradient along which the vehicle does Indian Roads congress is [LMRC]
not require any tractive effort to maintain (A) 3.5 m per lane
a specified speed is known as (B) 3.75 m per lane
(A) Ruling gradient (C) 2.5 m per lane
(B) Pushing gradient (D) 3.65 m per lane
(C) Minimum gradient Q.54 A road stretch is designed for a limiting
(D) Floating gradient speed of 72 kmph and is build with a
material offering coefficient of friction of
[ISRO]
0.40. If the reaction time of the driver is
Q.49 Which situation is not considered in the
2.5 s, and if there is two - way traffic on
design of sight distance?
a single lane road, what is the stopping
(A) Head light sight distance
distance? [LMRC]
(B) Stopping sight distance
(A) 100 m (B) 200 m
(C) Intermediate sight distance
(C) 300 m (D) 150 m
(D) Eye level sight distance
Q.55 Cubic parabola is a type of
[Haryana-JE]
(A) Simple curve
Q.50 As per IRC limiting gradient of
(B) Compound curve
mountainous terrain is
(C) Reverse curve
(A) 7% (B) 5%
(D) Transition curve
(C) 6% (D) 9%
[LMRC]
[HPSC, Haryana-JE] Q.56 The most commonly adopted method to
Q.51 The super elevation is provide super-elevation on roads, is by
(A) Directly proportional to the velocity providing the road surface about the
of vehicles (A) Outer edge so that inner edge is
(B) Inversely proportional to the lowered
velocity of vehicles (B) Crown so that the outer edge is
(C) Directly proportional to the width of raised and inner edge is lowered
pavement (C) Inner edge so that outer edge is
(D) Inversely proportional to the width raised
of pavement (D) Matching level of a nearby road
[ISRO] [GETCL]
 ®
2.12 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.57 Minimum stopping distance for vehicles (A) 0.42 m (B) 0.44 m
on road with a design speed of 80 kmph, (C) 0.52 m (D) 0.49 m
is [AEC]
(A) 80 m (B) 100 m
Q.63 While aligning a hill road with a rulling
(C) 120 m (D) 150 m gradient of 6%, a horizontal curve of
[GETCL, ISRO] radius 60 m is encountered. Find the
Q.58 The amount by which the outer end of the compensated gradient at the curve.
road or outer rail is raised above the inner
(A) 4.5% (B) 4.75%
one is known as
(C) 1.5% (D) 1.25%
(A) Transition curve
(B) Super elevation [AEC]
(C) Deflection Q.64 The ruling design speed on a National
(D) Inclined curve Highway in plain terrain as per IRC
[Haryana-JE] recommendations is
Q.59 If the radius of curve on a road is 600 m (A) 100 kmph (B) 60 kmph
and the allowable speed is 75 kmph. (C) 70 kmph (D) 150 kmph
Then what will be the required super [AEC]
elevation? Q.65 An ideal transition curve is
(A) 0.03 (B) 0.02 (A) Cubic parabola
(C) 0.04 (D) 0.06
(B) Bernoulli's lemniscate
[Coal India]
(C) Clothoid spiral
Q.60 Which of the following curves as usually
NOT adopted for transitioning in (D) Parabola
horizontal alignment? [AEC, RPSC ACF]
(A) Lemniscate Q.66 The shape of the camber best suited for
(B) Spiral cement concrete pavements is a
(C) Cubic parabola (A) Parabola
(D) Reverse (B) Combination of straight and
[Coal India] parabolic
Q.61 The depression between summits is (C) Circle
called as: (D) Straight line
(A) Horizontal cliff
[JAEC]
(B) Vertical cliff
Q.67 For the water-bound macadam roads, the
(C) Overhanging cliff
recommended camber is
(D) Saddle
(A) 1 in 24 to 30
[DMRC]
Q.62 If the length of the vehicle is 6 m, radius (B) 1 in 80 to 120
of the curve is 400 meters and the speed (C) 1 in 30 to 48
is 50 kmph, extra widening required in 4 (D) 1 in 60 to 80
lane carriage will be [AEC]
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Geometric Design 2.13
Q.68 The terrain may be classified as rolling Q.74 Minimum stopping distance as per IRC
terrain if the cross-slope of land is for moving vehicles on road with a
(A) Upto 10% design speed of 80 km/hour is
(B) Between 10% and 25% (A) 80 m (B) 100 m
(C) Between 25% and 60% (C) 120 m (D) 150 m
(D) More than 60% [ISRO]
[RPSC ACF] Q.75 An ideal vertical curve to you two
Q.69 A camber on a pavement is provided by gradients is
(A) Straight line method (A) Cubic (B) Parabolic
(B) Parabolic method
(C) Elliptical (D) Hyperbolic
(C) Straight and Parabolic at crown
(D) All of these [ISRO]
[RPSC ACF] Q.76 Limiting gradient in mountainous area is
Q.70 The pavement width of a road depends recommended as
upon (A) 6% (B) 5%
(A) Area through which road passes (C) 8% (D) 8%
(B) Type of traffic
[HPSC]
(C) Number of lanes
(D) All of the above Q.77 With which of the following curves are
[RPSC ACF] different grades usually joined together?
Q.71 The transition curve used in the (A) Transition (B) Reverse
horizontal alignment of highways as per (C) Compound (D) Vertical
IRC recommendation is
[DDA-JE]
(A) Spiral
Q.78 The travel time per unit length of road is
(B) Lemniscates
proportional to the speed
(C) Cubic parabola
(D) Any of the above (A) Directly
[RPSC ACF] (B) Cubically
Q.72 If the difference in elevation of an edge (C) Inversely
of the pavement 9 m wide and its crown
(D) Logarithmically
is 15 cm, the camber of the pavement is
(A) 1 in 60 (B) 1 in 45 [Coal India]
(C) 1in 30 (D) 1 in 15 C Conventional Questions
[ISRO]
Q.73 The absolute minimum radius of Q.1 Find the widening required in a 4 lane
horizontal curve for a design speed of 60 carriage if the length of the vehicle is 6m,
kmph is nearly radius of the curve is 300 m and the speed
(A) 151 m (B) 210 m is 50 km ph.
(C) 360 m (D) 129 m Q.2 Calculate the sight distance when vehicle
[ISRO] speed is 80 km/hr and f = 0.25.
 ®
2.14 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.3 While aligning a hill road with a ruling Q.8 A vehicle is travelling at 80 kmph
gradient of 6 %, a horizontal curve of 75 Assume the driver’s perception time as
meters is encountered. Find the 1.5 sec and reaction time as 0.5 sec.
compensated gradient at the curve. Calculate the stopping distance the on a
Q.4 Calculated the safe stopping sight dry level concrete pavement for which
distance for design speed of 50 kmph for the coefficient of friction between the
(a) two –way traffic in a two lane road, pavement and the tyre is 0.35. Also,
(b) two way traffic in a single lane road. compute stopping distance if the vehicle
Assume coefficient of friction as = 0.37 is travelling down a 3 percent grade.
and reaction time of driver as 2.5 Assume all other condition are as above.
seconds. Q.9 Find the absolute minimum and desirable
sight distance when the speed of the
Q.5 The radius of horizontal circular curve is
vehicle is 80 km ph.
90 m. The design speed is 50 kmph. The
coefficient of lateral friction is 0.15. Q.10 Calculate the safe stopping distance for a
(i) Calculate the super elevation is full vehicle travelling at 90 kmph on an
lateral friction is called into play. upward gradient of 3 per cent. The
coefficient of friction for the road surface
(ii) Calculate the coefficient of friction
can be assumed to be 0.35.
needed if no super elevation is
provided, and Q.11 Determine the extra widening required
for a pavement of width 7 m on a
(iii) Calculate the equilibrium super
horizontal curve of radius 225 m, if the
elevation if the pressure of inner and
longest wheel base of vehicle expected
outer wheels should be equal.
on the road is 7 meters. The design speed
Q.6 The speed of overtaking and overtaken is 70 kmph. Compare the value obtained
vehicles are 60 kmph and 30 kmph with IRC recommendations.
respectively on a two way road. If the
acceleration of the overtaking vehicle is P Practice Questions
3.6 kmph per second. Q.1 The shape of the camber best started for
(i) Calculate the safe overtaking sight cement concrete pavements. is
distance. (A) Straight line
(ii) Determine the minimum length of (B) Parabolic
the overtaking zone. (C) Elliptical
(iii) Draw a near sketch of the overtaking (D) Combination of straight and
zone and show the position of sign parabolic
posts.
Q.2 For water bound macadam roads in
Q.7 Calculate the total super elevation localities of heavy rainfall, the
required at a road curve of 300 m radius recommended value of camber is
for a vehicle speed of 80 kmph. The
(A) 1 in 30 (B) 1 in 33
width of the road is 5 m and the
coefficient of friction is 0.15. (C) 1 in 48 (D) 1 in 60
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Geometric Design 2.15
Q.3 When the path travelled along the road Q.9 The equilibrium super elevation required
surface is more than the circumferential to counteract the centrifugal force fully is
movement of the wheels due to rotation given by
then it results in V2 V2
(A) (B)
(A) Slipping (B) Skidding 27.5 R 75 R
(C) Turning (D) Revolving (0.75V ) 2 V2
(C) (D)
Q.4 Coefficient of friction is less when the 127 R 127 R
pavement surface is Q.10 The attainment of super elevation by
(A) Rough rotation of pavement about the inner edge
(B) Dry of the pavement
(A) is preferable in steep terrain
(C) Smooth and dry
(B) Results in balancing the earthwork
(D) Smooth and wet
(C) Avoids the drainage problem in flat
Q.5 Compared to a level surface on a
terrain
descending gradient the stopping sight
(D) Does not change the vertical
distance is
alignment of road
(A) Less Q.11 The mechanical extra widening required
(B) More for 10.5 m wide pavement on a horizontal
(C) Same curve of radius R metre is given by
(D) Dependent on the speed l2 2l 2
(A) (B)
Q.6 The desirable length of overtaking zone 2R 2R
as per IRC recommendation is equal to l2 3l 2
(C) (D)
(A) Overtaking sight distance 2R 2R
(B) Two times the overtaking sight Where 7 is the length of wheel base of
distance vehicle in metres.
(C) Three times the overtaking sight Q.12 The maximum design gradient for
distance vertical profile of a road is
(D) Five times the overtaking sight (A) Ruling gradient
distance (B) Limiting gradient
(C) Exceptional gradient
Q.7 If the stopping distance is 60 meters, then
(D) Minimum gradient
the minimum stopping sight distance for
two lane, two way traffic is Q.13 The maximum width of a vehicle as
recommended by IRC is
(A) 30 m (B) 60 m
(A) 1.85 m (B) 2.44 m
(C) 120 m (D) 180 m
(C) 3.81 m (D) 4.72 m
Q.8 The ruling design speed on a National Q.14 Transition curve is provided in horizontal
Highway in plain terrain as per 10 alignment
recommendation is (A) To increase the radius of curvature
(A) 60 kmph (B) 80 kmph (B) To facilitate the application of super
(C) 100 kmph (D) 120 kmph elevation
 ®
2.16 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
(C) To counteract the centrifugal force Q.21 If an ascending gradient of 1 in 50 meets
developed another ascending gradient of 1 in 30
(D) To prevent vehicles from skidding then the deviation angle is
laterally (A) 1\50 (B) 1\75
Q.15 The off-tracking of a vehicle having a (C) 1\ 30 (D) 8\150
wheel base of 6.0 m and negotiating a Q.22 The relationship between the length (L)
curved path of mean radius 25 m is and radius (r) of an ideal transition curve
(A) 0.82 m (B) 0.72 m is given by
(C) 0.65 m (D) 1.44 m (A) L ∞ r
Q.16 The important factor considered in the (B) L ∞ r2
design of summit curves on highways is (C) L ∞ 1/r
(A) Comfort to passenger (D) L ∞ 1/r2
(B) Sight distance Q.23 Width of carriage way for a single lane is
(C) Super elevation recommended to be
(D) Impact factor (A) 7.5 m (B) 7.0 m
Q.17 The ideal form of curve for the summit (C) 3.75 m (D) 5.5 m
curve is Q.24 Stopping sight distance is the minimum
(A) Spiral (B) Parabola distance available on a highway which is
(C) Circle (D) Lemniscates the
Q.18 Transition curves are provided on the (A) Distance of sufficient length to stop
approach to horizontal curves in order to the vehicle without collision
(A) Increase jerk to allowable levels (B) Distance visible to a driver during
(B) Minimize the length of the night driving
horizontal curve (C) Height of the object above the road
(C) Simplify the laying out and surface
construction of the horizontal curve (D) Distance equal to the height of the
(D) Reduce jerk to allowable levels driver's eye above the road surface
Q.19 On sag for valley) curves the available Q.25 The design value of lateral friction
sight distance is determined based on coefficient on highway is
(A) Design speed (A) 1.5 (B) 0.50
(B) Height of obstacle (C) 0.35 (D) 0.15
(C) Height of driver eye Q.26 Camber on highway pavement is
(D) Nighttime driving conditions provided to take care of
Q.20 The reaction time for calculation of (A) Centrifugal force
stopping distance may be assumed as (B) Drainage
(A) 5 secs (B) 25 secs (C) Sight distance
(C) 0.5 secs (D) 10.0 secs (D) Off-tracking
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Geometric Design 2.17
Q.27 In the limiting case of overturning while Q.33 The design speed of a highway is 80 km
traversing a simple circular curve by a per hour. Assuming other data as per IRC
vehicle, pressure below recommendations, which one of the
(A) Outer wheels will be zero following is the approximate adopted lag
distance?
(B) Outer wheels will be maximum
(A) 55.5 m (B) 66.7 m
(C) Outer and inner wheels will be same (C) 61.2 m (D) 44.5 m
(D) Inner wheels will be maximum Q.34 Consider the following steps involved in
the design of super elevation in practice
Q.28 The land width required across the
as recommended by IRC:
alignment of road is
1. Calculation of the allowable speed
(A) Land between buildings lines for maximum 'e' and design value of
(B) Right of way 'f'
(C) Land between control lines 2. Calculation of the super elevation
for 75% of the design speed
(D) Roadway
3. Calculation of the value of 'e' and
Q.29 Road alignment is influenced by recheck
(A) Traffic requirements 4. Calculation of the value of and
recheck
(B) Stability of hill slopes
The correct sequence of these steps is
(C) Number of cross drainage works
(A) 1-2-3-4 (B) 3-4-1-2
(D) All of the above
(C) 2-3-4-1 (D) 4-3-2-1
Q.30 Parabolic camber is preferred for Q.35 In highway geometric design, cumulative
(A) Slow moving vehicle speed distribution is drawn and the
design in checked at which and the
(B) Steel tyre vehicle
design in checked at which percentile?
(C) Fast moving vehicle (A) 85th percentile
(D) All the above (B) 95th percentile
Q.31 Stopping sight distance on a national (C) 100th percentile
highway at a descending gradient of 2% (D) 98th percentile
is Q.36 Which one of the following is taken in to
consideration while determining
(A) 121 m (B) 132 m overtaking sight distance in a two lane
(C) 143 m (D) 154 m highway
Q.32 The compensated gradient provided at (A) Distance covered during reaction
the curve of radius 60 m with a ruling time
gradient of 6 percent is (B) Distance covered during overtaking
operation
(A) 5.25% (B) 4.75%
(C) Reaction distance plus overtaking
(C) 4.5% (D) 3.75% distance
 ®
2.18 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
(D) Distance covered during reaction Q.38 The rate of change of radial acceleration
time plus distance covered during as per IRC recommendations for
overtaking operation plus the computing length of transition curve for
distance covered by the opposing a vehicle with design speed V Lymph is
traffic given by
Q.37 Match List-I (Type of road) with List-II 85
(A) m/sec3
(Recommended camber) and select the 70  V
correct answer by using the codes given 65
below the lists : (B) m/sec3
70  V
List-I 80
A. Water bound macadam (C) m/sec3
70  V
B. Bituminous concrete 72
C. Earth road (D) m/sec3
65  V
D. Rigid pavement Q.39 For the load on inner and outer wheels to
List-II be equal for a vehicle moving at a speed
1. 1 in 72 2. 1 in 60 of 50 kmph about a horizontal circular
3. 1 in 48 4. 1 in 25 curve of radius 100 m will be
Codes : (A) 25/127 (B) 25/225
A B C D (C) 25/125 (D) 25/227
(A) 1 4 3 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 3 2 4 1

Answers Geometric Design

MCQ Questions
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. A 8. A 9. C 10. B
11. B 12. B 13. D 14. D 15. D
16. C 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. B
21. C 22. C 23. C 24. C 25. A
26. B 27. A 28. C 29. A 30. A
31. A 32. D 33. B 34. D 35. D
36. D 37. D 38. A 39. B 40. D
41. C 42. A 43. D 44. B 45. A
46. D 47. C 48. D 49. C 50. C
51. C
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Geometric Design 2.19
Assignment Questions
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. D
6. A 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. A
11. A 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. C
16. C 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. C
21. B 22. C 23. D 24. C 25. A
26. C 27. D 28. C 29. B 30. A
31. B 32. C 33. C 34. A 35. B
36. C 37. A 38. C 39. B 40. C
41. B 42. D 43. D 44. A 45. A
46. D 47. B 48. D 49. D 50. C
51. A 52. A 53. A 54. B 55. D
56. C 57. C 58. B 59. C 60. D
61. D 62. B 63. A 64. A 65. C
66. D 67. C 68. B 69. D 70. C
71. A 72. C 73. D 74. C 75. B
76. A 77. D 78. C
Conventional Questions
61.4 m, 1 1 1
1. 0.53 m 2. 170.3 m 3. 5% 4. 5. , ,
122.8 m 14.29 4.6 4.6
212.32 m,
6. 7. 0.30 m 8. 123.18 mm 9. 250.2 m 10. 70.94 m
106.60 m
0.885 m,
11.
148.56 m
Practice Questions
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B
6. D 7. B 8. C 9. D 10. C
11. D 12. A 13. B 14. B 15. B
16. B 17. C 18. D 19. C 20. B
21. B 22. C 23. C 24. A 25. D
26. B 27. B 28. B 29. D 30. C
31. B 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. D
36. D 37. D 38. C 39. A


 M MCQ Questions Q.5 The penetration test on bitumen is used
for determining its _______
Q.1 Bitumen emulsion is :
(A) Grade
(A) A liquid containing bitumen in
(B) Ductility
suspension
(C) Viscosity
(B) A paint
(D) None of these
(C) Used as anti corrosive paint
[SSC-2016]
(D) All the above
Q.6 Which of the following property of
[SSC-2010] bitumen is related to Pensky-Marten test?
Q.2 In CBR test, the value of CBR is
calculate at (A) Ductility
(A) 2.5 mm penetration only (B) Softening point
(B) 5.0 mm penetration only (C) Flash and fire point
(C) 7.5 mm penetration only (D) Viscosity
(D) Both 2.5 mm and 5.0 mm [SSC-2017]
penetrations Q.7 In the softening point test of the bitumen
[SSC-2011] with the help of ring and ball apparatus,
Q.3 Aggregate impact value indicates which what is the diameter (cm) of the steel
of the following properties of ball?
aggregates? (A) 0.35 (B) 0.65
(A) Durability (B) Toughness (C) 0.95 (D) 1.25
(C) Hardness (D) Strength [SSC-2017]
[SSC-2015] Q.8 Which one of the following tests, is used
Q.4 The ductility value of bitumen is to test aggregate for its abrasion
_______. resistance
(A) Equal to that of tar (A) Deval attrition test
(B) More than that of tar (B) Dorry abrasion test
(C) Less than that of tar (C) Loss angeles test
(D) None of these (D) All option are correct
[SSC-2016] [SSC-2017]
 ®
3.2 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.9 What is the percentage content of asphalt Q.14 What is the approximate bitumen content
in the cut-back asphalt? (expressed in percentage) in the refined
(A) 10% (B) 30% asphalt?
(C) 50% (D) 80% (A) 5 (B) 20
[SSC-2017] (C) 36 (D) 52

Q.10 In which of the following test of bitumen [SSC-2017]

Ring and Ball apparatus is used. Q.15 In A – 30 grade bitumen, A stands for
(A) Ahmedabad
(A) Penetration test (B) Assam
(B) Softening point test (C) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Viscosity test (D) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Flash and fire point test [SSC-2018]
[SSC-2017] Q.16 Identify the test that is NOT commonly
used to measure the strength of soil
Q.11 If the least lateral dimension of aggregate
is less than 0.6 times of its mean subgrade in highway pavement?
dimension, the aggregate is classified as (A) Standard penetration test
_______. (B) Plate bearing test
(A) Angular (B) Flaky (C) Tri-axial compression test
(C) Irregular (D) Rounded (D) California bearing ratio test
[SSC-2017] [SSC-2018]
Q.12 A flaky aggregate is said to be elongated Q.17 While conducting the softening point test
if its length is on bitumen, the result is expressed as:
(A) equal to the mean size
(A) Time (B) Flow
(B) twice the mean size
(C) Temperature (D) Viscosity
(C) thrice the mean size
[SSC-2018]
(D) four times the mean size
Q.18 Which of the following is the function of
[SSC-2017]
the sub base layer in the pavement?
Q.13 The viscous liquid obtained from the
(A) To provide a smooth and uniform
destructive distillation of organic
surface for riding
material is known as _______.
(B) To provide skid resistance surface
(A) Paint
(C) To resist the abrasive forces of
(B) Slag traffic
(C) Tar (D) To minimize the damaging effects of
(D) None of these frost action
[SSC-2017] [SSC-2018]
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Highway Material Maintenance 3.3
Q.19 Deval Attrition Test is used to determine (A) be unpredictable
which of the following? (B) remain unchanged
(A) Aggregate abrasion value (C) decrease
(B) Aggregate impact value (D) increase
(C) Aggregate roughness value [RPSC]
(D) Aggregate crushing value Q.4 What is Bitumen in solid state called?
[SSC-2019]
(A) Petroleum concentrate
Q.20 Which of the following tests is NOT used
(B) Molten tar
to test aggregate for its abrasion
(C) Asphalt
resistance in concrete works?
(A) Dorry abrasion test (D) None of the above
(B) Deval attrition test [KPSC-JE]
(C) Soundness test Q.5 Recommended grade of tar for grouting
(D) Los Angeles test purpose is
[SSC-2019] (A) RT-1 (B) RT-2
(C) RT-3 (D) RT-5
A Assignment Questions
[MPSC]
Q.1 Which one of the following pairs is not
Q.6 The temperature at which bitumen gives
correctly matched for bitumen properties
off vapours which ignite in the presence
(A) Softening point - Between 35°C to
of a flame but do not continue to burn is
70°C
(A) Fire point
(B) Specific gravity of pure bitumen –
0.97 to1.02 (B) Flash point
(C) Pure Bitumen - Completely soluble (C) Ignition point
in carbon tetrachloride (D) Unstable point
(D) Pensky Marten flash point- [LBS ASST.PROF.]
Minimum specified temperature is Q.7 Break point of bitumen is the temperature
500C at which
[RPSC-VPITI] (A) Melting starts
Q.2 What is the standard for testing of road (B) Vaporizing starts
macadam in Aggregate Impact Test (C) Boiling starts
(A) 18 kg wt, 30 cm drop, 20 blows (D) Cracking occurs
(B) 18kg wt, 35 cm drop, 15 blows [LBS ASST.PROF.]
(C) 14 kg wt, 35 cm drop, 20 blows
Q.8 Bitumen is soluble in
(D) 14 kg wt, 38 cm drop, 15 blows
(A) Diesel
[RPSC]
(B) Water
Q.3 In Los Angeles Abrasion Test on
(C) Petrol
aggregates, if the speed of the drum is
increased to 50 rpm then the abrasion (D) Carbon disulphide
value will [NBCC]
 ®
3.4 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.9 The result of ring and ball softening point Q.15 Which of the following grades of
test on asphalts is given in terms of bitumen the most suitable for a 7-day
(A) Viscosity (C) Flow maximum average air temperature of
(B) Time (D) Temperature 15°C?
[Chandigarh-JE] (A) VG 40 (B) VG 10
Q.10 Softening point of bitumen to be used for (C) VG 30 (D) VG 20
road construction at a place where [Coal India]
maximum temperature is 40°C should be Q.16 Ring and ball apparatus is used for which
of the following tests of bitumen?
(A) Less than 40°C (A) Penetration
(B) Greater than 40°C (B) Softening point
(C) Equal to 40°C (C) Ductility
(D) None of the above (D) Malleability
[Chandigarh-JE] [DMRC]
Q.11 Which of the following represents Q.17 As per Indian Road Congress (IRC ) ,the
hardest grade of bitumen? stripping value of aggregates in
(A) 30/40 (B) 60/70 bituminous construction should NOT be
(C) 80/100 (D) 100/120 more than
[Chandigarh-JE] (A) 40% (B) 25%
Q.12 In water bound macadam roads, the (C) 20% (D) 30%
binding material is
[DMRC]
(A) Sand
Q.18 The grade of coal tar is said to be hard if
(B) Crushed aggregate dust its softening point lies in the range of (A)
(C) Cement 45-55 (B) 82-92
(D) Bitumen (C) 70-80 (D) 58-68
[ISRO] [DMRC]
Q.13 The aggregate impact value (%) for Q.19 Rapid curing cutback is produced by
aggregate to be used for surface course of blending bitumen with
a pavement is
(A) Kerosene (B) Benzene
(A) 30 (B) 40
(C) Petrol (D) Diesel
(C) 15 (D) 25
[AEC]
[LMRC]
Q.20 Bitumen of grade 80/100 means
Q.14 Usually what is the maximum
(A) Its penetration value is 8 mm
permissible loss angeles abrasion valid
(%) for dense bituminous macadam (B) Its penetration value is 10 mm
(A) 25 (B) 45 (C) Its penetration value is 8 to 10 mm
(C) 55 (D) 35 (D) Its penetration value is 80 to 100 mm
[Coal India] [RPSC ACF]
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Highway Material Maintenance 3.5
Q.21 The aggregate impact value of aggregate Q.25 VG30 grade of paving bitumen is
used in suitable for 7 days average maximum air
(A) Building concrete is less than 45 temperature (°C) ranging between
(B) Road pavement concrete is less than (A) 38 to 45 (B) 0 to 30
30 (C) 45 to 60 (D) 30 to 38
(C) Runway concrete is less than 30 [DDA-JE]
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above C Conventional Questions
[HPSC-AE] Q.1 Differentiate between the following with
Q.22 Match List-I with List-II and select the reference to bituminous construction
correct answer using the codes given (A) Prime coat and Tack coat
below the lists (B) Bituminous concrete and
List-I Bituminous macadam
A. Penetration test
B. Marshall Test P Practice Questions
C. Ring and ball test Q.1 The ductility value of bitumen for
D. Bankelman Beam Test suitability in road construction should
List-II not be less than
1. Design of bituminous concrete mix (A) 30 cm (B) 40 cm
2. Overlay design (C) 50 cm (D) 60 cm
3. Gradation of asphalt cement Q.2 RC-2, MC-2 and SC-2 correspond to
4. Determination of softening point
(A) Same viscosity
Codes :
(B) Viscosity in increasing order from
A B C D
RC-2 to SC-2
(A) 3 2 4 1
(C) Viscosity in decreasing order from
(B) 3 1 4 2
RC-2to SC-2
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 2 3 1 (D) None of these
[HPSC] Q.3 Matching List-I with List-II and select
Q.23 The flash point temperature (degree C) of the correct answer using the codes given
paving grades of bitumen as per the below the lists :
Indian standard is List-I (Test on Bitumen)
(A) 220 (B) 200 A. Penetration test
(C) 180 (D) 160 B. Float test
[DDA-JE] C. Ring and Ball Test
Q.24 Bitumen is graded by viscosity at T°C, D. Pensky-Martens Test
where T is :
List-II (Properties)
(A) 70 (B) 40
1. Fire point
(C) 60 (D) 50
[DDA-JE] 2. Degree of hardness
 ®
3.6 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
3. Softening point Q.6 The Temperature to be maintained for the
4. Consistency determination of the penetration value of
bitumen is
Codes :
(A) 150C (B) 250C
A B C D
(C) 400C (D) 600C
(A) 2 3 4 1
Q.7 In highway pavements emulsions are
(B) 4 2 3 1
mainly used in
(C) 2 4 3 1
(A) Surface dressing
(D) 2 4 1 3
Q.4 In CBR test surcharge weights are used (B) Patching and maintenance
to (C) Bitumen macadam
(A) Simulate worst natural moisture (D) Asphaltic concrete
conditions
Q.8 Bituminous materials are used in
(B) Increase density of the sample
highway construction primarily because
(C) Simulate the effect of overlying of their
pavement
(A) Cementing and waterproofing
(D) Pavement horizontal movement of
properties
piston during test
Q.5 Match List-I with List-11 and select the (B) Load bearing capacity
correct answer using the code given (C) High specific gravity
below the lists:
(D) Black colour which facilitates road
List-I markings
A. Penetration test
Q.9 Rapid curing cutback bitumen is
B. Marshall test produced by blending bitumen with
C. Ring and ball test
(A) Kerosene (B) Benzene
D. Benkelman beam test
(C) Diesel (D) Petrol
List-II
1. Design of bituminous concrete mix Q.10 Emulsions are used as binder manila
(A) Bituminous macadam
2. Overlay design
(B) Bituminous concrete
3. Gradation of asphalt cement
(C) Surfaces dressing
4. Determination of softening point
(D) Patch work
Codes : Q.11 Seal coat is provided to
A B C D (A) Serve as a thin wearing course
(A) 3 2 4 1 (B) Protect the base course
(B) 3 1 4 2 (C) Water proof the pavement surface
(C) 4 2 3 1 (D) Do all the above
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Highway Material Maintenance 3.7
Q.12 Which one of the following is the correct Q.18 The test used to determine the adhesion
statements Penetration to know bitumen of bituminous binder to an aggregate in
grade is measured in presence of water is
(A) One hundredth of mm (A) Aggregate impact test
(B) One-tenth of mm (B) Los angles abrasion test
(C) One-tenth at an inch (C) Static immersion test
(D) One micron (D) Water absorption test
Q.19 For laying bituminous carpet over water
Q.13 Bitumen grade 80/100 indicates that
bound macadam road surface one has to
under the standard test conditions,
apply a
penetration value of bitumen would vary
(A) Tack coat (B) Seat coat
from
(C) Bitumen grout (D) Surya coat
(A) 0.8 mm to 1 mm
Q.20 One of the probable causes of rutting on
(B) 8 mm to 10 mm flexible the pavements
(C) 8 cm to 10 cm (A) Excessive stripping of binder
(D) 0.08 mm to 0.1 mm materials from the wearing course
Q.14 Which of the following tests measures the (B) Use of any aggregates in the wing
toughness of road aggregates? Course
(A) Crushing strength test (C) Inadequate compaction of
(B) Abrasion test pavement layers
(C) Impact test (D) High wind speeds
(D) Shape test Q.21 An important purpose of prime coat in to
Q.15 The binder normally used in Flexible (A) Promote the bond between the base
pavement construction is and the wearing courses
(A) Cement (B) Promote the adhesion between an
(B) Lime existing wearing surface and a
subsequent wearing surface
(C) Bitumen
(C) Promote the bond between the sub
(D) None of these
base course and the sub-grade
Q.16 Which of the following premix methods
(D) Increase the stability of the sub-
is used for base course?
grade
(A) Bituminous carpet
Q.22 Mud pumping is commonly associated
(B) Mastic asphalt
with
(C) Sheet asphalt
(A) Bituminous penetration macadam.
(D) Bituminous bound macadam
Construction
Q.17 For sandy soils the most common method
of stabilization is (B) Cement concrete pavement on
granular sub-grade
(A) Sail cement stabilization
(B) Mechanical stabilization (C) Premixed bituminous construction
(C) Soil lime stabilization (D) Cement concrete pavement on clay
(D) Soil bitumen stabilization sub-grade
 ®
3.8 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY

Answers Highway Material Maintenance and Drainage

MCQ Questions

1. A 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. A

6. C 7. C 8. D 9. D 10. B

11. B 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. B

16. A 17. C 18. D 19. A 20. C

Assignment Questions

1. D 2. D 3. D 4. C 5. C

6. B 7. D 8. D 9. D 10. B

11. A 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. B

16. B 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. C

21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. A

Practice Questions

1. A 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. B

6. B 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. D

11. C 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. C

16. D 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. C

21. B 22. A


 M MCQ Questions Q.5 Calculate the equivalent radius (cm) of
the resisting section of 20 cm slab, if the
Q.1 Expansion joints are provided if the
ratio of radius of wheel load distribution
length of concrete structures exceeds:
to the thickness of the slab is 2.
(A) More than 10 m
(A) 20 (B) 35.6
(B) More than 15 m
(C) More than 35 m (C) 40 (D) 40.9
(D) More than 45 m [SSC JE 2017]
[SSC JE 2009] Q.6 The value of rigidity factor for design
Q.2 Identify which of the following items is purpose, if the type pressure is greater
not considered while designing rigid than 0.7 MPa is _______.
pavements: (A) Greater than 1 (B) Less than 1
(A) Centre of the panel (C) Equal to 1 (D) Zero
(B) Edge of the panel [SSC JE 2017]
(C) Corner of the panel
Q.7 According to the recommendation of IS
(D) Dowel bar between edges
456 1978, the expansion joints.
[SSC JE 2011]
(A) Are provided where plane changes
Q.3 Bottom most layer of pavement is
abruptly
known as:
(A) Sub base course (B) Sub grade (B) Are provided to ensure minimum
(C) Wearing course (D) Base course resistance
[SSC JE 2012] (C) Are supported on separate columns
Q.4 The construction joints in cement (D) All options are correct
concrete [SSC JE 2015] [SSC JE 2017]
(A) Should not be provided at the Q.8 Construction joints are provided
corners (A) Where B.M. and S.F. are small
(B) Should be spaced at a distance of 3
(B) Where the member is supported by
m apart in case of huge structure.
other member
(C) Should be located where shear
(C) At 18 m apart in huge structure
force is large
(D) Should be located where bending (D) All option are correct.
moment is large. [SSC JE 2017]
 ®
4.2 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.9 Pick up the correct statement from the Q.14 Calculate the ratio of radius of the
(A) Construction joints are necessarily relative stiffness for concrete pavements
planned for their locations if the ratio of their thickness is 1.5:
(B) Expansion joints are provided to (A) 1.106 (B) 1.355
accommodate thermal expansion (C) 1.837 (D) 3.375
(C) Contraction joints are provided to [SSC JE 2017]
control shrinkage and cracks Q.15 The raising of outer edge of pavement
(D) All option are correct with respect to inner edge is known as
[SSC JE 2017] ________.
Q.10 Expansion joints are provided if the (A) Super elevation
length of concrete structures exceeds. (B) Frictional resistance
(A) 10 m (B) 15 m (C) Rolling resistance
(C) 25 m (D) 45 m (D) Kerb
[SSC JE 2017] [SSC JE 2018]
Q.11 Calculate the equivalent radius of the Q.16 When bitumen is allowed to penetrate to
resisting section of 20 cm thick slab, if full depth of stone layer it is called:
the ratio of the radius of wheel load
(A) Full chipping (B) Half grout
distribution to the thickness of the slab
(C) Full grout (D) Semi grout
is 0.5.
(A) 8 (B) 10.16 [SSC JE 2018]
(C) 20 (D) 23.66 Q.17 Which of the following it NOT a critical
parameter to control cracking and
[SSC JE 2017]
rutting in a flexible pavement?
Q.12 The surface where two successive
(A) Tensile strain near the surface close
placements of concrete meet are known
to the edge of the wheel
as:
(B) Vertical sub-base strain
(A) Contraction joint
(B) Expansion joint (C) Vertical subgrade strain
(C) Construction joint (D) Tensile strain at the bottom of
bituminous layer
(D) Both construction and expansion
joint [SSC JE 2019]
[SSC JE 2017] Q.18 Which of the following binders is best
Q.13 A construction joint is provided where suited for repair work of bituminous
pavements during rainy weather?
(A) Bending moment is small
(A) Bitumen emulsion
(B) Shear force is small
(B) Paving grade bitumen
(C) The member is supported by other
member (C) Coal tar
(D) All option are correct (D) Cutback bitumen
[SSC JE 2017] [SSC JE 2019]
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Pavement Design 4.3
Q.19 The interface treatment provided to Q.3 The table below shows marshall mix
plug in the voids of porous surfaces and design criteria for bituminous concrete
to bond loose panicles in bituminous Identify the correct specified value for
pavements is called: the test property
(A) Tack coat Test property
(B) Seal coat P. Marshall Stability, kg
O. Flow value, 0.25 num units
(C) Prime coat
R. Air voids in total mix, Vv%
(D) Surface dressing S. Voids filled with bitumen, VFB%
[SSC JE 2019] Specified value
Q.20 A state highway road is to be 1. 75 to 85
constructed with bitumen concrete 2. 340 (minimum)
pavement of width 7 m wide and a 3. 3 to 5
camber of 1 in 50 is provided. What is 4. 8 to 16
the rise of crown with respect to edges? (A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
(A) 0.05 m (B) 0.06 m (B) P-2, Q-4, R-3, S-1
(C) 0.08 m (D) 0.07 m (C) P 4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
[SSC JE 2019] (D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
[PEB-SUB ER]
A Assignment Questions Q.4 The unite for coefficient of subgrade
Q.1 Which test is performed for quick modulus is
determination of the quality of sub grade (A) kN/m3 (B) kN/m2
soil? (C) kN/m (D) kN.m
(A) Stripping [GESCOM-AE]
Q.5 Which of the following method is
(B) Atterberg limits
recommended by IRC for design of
(C) Shear strength tests flexible pavement?
(D) CBR (A) CBR test
[Punjab-JE] (B) Group index test
Q.2 The position of base course in a flexible (C) Westergaard test
pavement is- (D) Penetration test
[RPSC ACF, KPSC-JE]
(A) Below the sub - base
Q.6 The joint, parallel to center line of the
(B) Over the sub - base
concrete road, are called
(C) Over the sub - grade but below sub (A) Longitudinal joint
- base (B) Transverse Joint
(D) Over the wearing course when (C) Expansion joint
renewal of surface is needed (D) All of these
[RPSC-VPITI] [KPSC-JE]
 ®
4.4 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.7 As per IRC, maximum load of axle of a Q.12 For designing plain cement concrete
vehicle should, not exceed pavement, the critical loading
(A) 810 kg (B) 7500 kg combination is
(C) 8170 kg (D) 7510 kg (A) Load stress + frictional stress +
[MPSC] warping stress
Q.8 As per revised IRC guidelines (IRC 37- (B) Load stress + warping stress
2001) a flexible pavement has been (C) Load stress + frictional stress –
designed as a warping stress
(A) Double layered structure
(D) Load stress - frictional stress +
(B) Three layered structure warping stress
(C) Four layered structure
[LMRC]
(D) Five layered structure
Q.13 Which of the following is not a
[LBS-ASST. PROF.]
component of an expansion joint used in
Q.9 In Burmister's analysis the pavement is jointed plain cement concrete?
considered as a
(A) Dowel bars (B) Joint filler
(A) Single layered system
(C) Joint sealer (D) Tie bar
(B) Double layered system
(C) Three layered system [LMRC]
(D) Four layered system Q.14 Benkelman beam deflection method is
[LBS-ASST. PROF.] used for design of
Q.10 Benkelman beam method measures (A) Flexible overlay over flexible
(A) Deflections under standard wheel pavement
loads (B) Flexible overlay over rigid
(B) Stresses under standard wheel loads pavement
(C) Crack width under standard wheel (C) Rigid overlay over flexible
loads pavement
(D) Bending moment under standard (D) Rigid overlay over rigid pavement
wheel loads [HPSC, LMRC]
[LBS-ASST. PROF.]
Q.15 California bearing ratio is used to find
Q.11 In a CBR test, if the CBR value at 5 mm
(A) The bearing capacity of soil
is greater than that at 2.5 mm
(A) The higher value should be chosen (B) The thickness of a flexible
pavement
(B) The test should be repeated
(C) Average value of the two should be (C) Ratio of ultimate hearing capacity
used to net bearing capacity
(D) None of these (D) Depth of foundation
[NBCC] [GETCL]
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Pavement Design 4.5
Q.16 Which of the following joints are Q.20 A water bound macadam road is an
provided in cement concrete pavements example of
to address shrinkage cracking? (A) Rigid pavement
(A) Construction joints (B) Semi rigid pavement
(B) Pin joints (C) Flexible pavement
(C) Expansion joints (D) None of these
(D) Contraction joints [RPSC ACF]
[Coal India] Q.21 Expansion joints are provided if the
Q.17 Which of the following is NOT a length of concrete structure exceeds
limitation of the California Bearing (A) 10 m (C) 35 m
Ratio (CBR) used for designing flexible (B) 15 m (D) 45 m
pavement? (E) None of the above [HPSC-AE]
(A) Test cannot stress on subgrade Q.22 In the design of highway expansion and
(B) It is an empirical test for assessing contraction joints should respectively as
strength of subgrade provided at
(C) Ease and simplicity (A) 50 m and 32 m
(D) Specified soaking period of 4 days (B) 50 and 10 m
may not be sufficient in some soils (C) 25 m and 10 m
[Coal India] (D) 25 m and 32 m
Q.18 Load capacity of the dowel system of [HPSC]
group is assumed to be Q.23 In the CBR design method
(A) 40% of the design wheel load recommended by the IRC for the design
(B) 10% of the design wheel load of flexible pavement the total thickness
(C) 50% of the design wheel load depends upon
(D) 30% of the design wheel load (A) CBR value of soil only
[AEC] (B) CBR value of soil and magnitude of
Q.19 The main drawback of CBR method is wheel load
that (C) CBR value of soil and number of
(A) Does not consider the strength commercial vehicles per day
characteristics of subgrade soil (D) CBR value of soil and cumulative
(B) Does not give the thickness of standard axle loads
individual layers [HPSC]
(C) Gives the total thickness which Q.24 In a standard California Bearing Ratio
remains the same irrespective of the test (sample height 125 mm) the
quality of material used in the difference between the initial and final
component layers dial gauge readings is found to be
(D) Is a complex method and gives the 0.125mm What is the expansion ratio of
total thickness which is variable the this soil?
with the change in the material used (A) 10 (B) 100
in the component layers (C) 0.1 (D) 1
[AEC] [DDA-JE]
 ®
4.6 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.25 Which of the following strength is most Q.6 The modulus of sub-grade reaction is
important for pavement concrete? evaluated from
(A) Tensile (B) Flexural (A) Plate bearing test
(C) Compressive (D) Shear (B) CBR test
(C) Direct shear test
C Conventional Questions
(D) tri-axial test
Q.1 What are the advantages and limitations Q.7 The load transfer to lower layers in
of traffic signals? flexible pavements is by
Q.2 State the peculiarities of traffic. (A) Bending action of layers
Q.3 How are parking facilities provided? (B) Shear deformation
P Practice Questions (C) Grain to grain contact
(D) Consolidation of sub-grade
Q.1 Critical load position in a rigid
Q.8 A contraction joint is provided in
pavement design is taken as
concrete pavement to
(A) Interior loading (A) Prevent contraction of the pavement
(B) Edge loading (B) Permit cracking at the joint
(C) Corner loading (C) Lower the bending moment in the
(D) Interior edge and corner loading pavement in order to reduce
Q.2 The maximum spacing of contraction pavement thickness
joints in rigid pavements is (D) Lower the temperature gradient
(A) 2.5 m (B) 3.5 m across the depth of the pavement
(C) 4.5 m (D) 5.5 m Q.9 In using the data from a plate bearing
Q.3 The maximum thickness of expansion test for determining the modulus of sub
joint in rigid pavements is grade reaction, the value of settlement to
(A) Zero (B) 25 mm be used to
(C) 50 mm (D) 100 mm (A) 1.25 mm (B) 2.50 mm
Q.4 The most suitable equipment for (C) 3.75 mm (D) 1.75 mm
compacting clayey soils is a Q.10 The total thickness of pavement by CBR
(A) Smooth wheeled roller method depends on the CBR value of
(A) Base course
(B) Pneumatic tyred roller
(B) Surface course
(C) Sheep foot roller
(C) Sub-grade
(D) Vibrator
(D) All layers
Q.5 The position of base course in a flexible
Q.11 The width of expansion joint gap is 2.5
pavement is
cm in a cement concrete pavement. The
(A) Over the sub-base spacing between expansion joint for a
(B) Below the sub-base maximum rise in temperature of 25C
(C) Over the sub-grade but below the (assuming coefficient of thermal
sub-base expansion of concrete as 10 x 10 per C)
(D) Over the wearing course when (A) 5 m (B) 50 m
renewal of surface is needed (C) 100 m (D) 25 m
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Pavement Design 4.7
Q.12 In the plate bearing test. if the load Q.17 In reinforced cement concrete
applied is in the form of an inflated type pavements steel is placed
of wheel, then this mechanism (A) Near bottom
corresponds to
(B) In the middle
(A) Rigid plate
(C) Near the top
(B) Flexible plate
(D) Exactly at neutral axis
(C) Semi rigid plate
(D) Semi-elastic plate Q.18 In cement concrete pavements, tie ban
Q.13 Base course is used in rigid pavements are provided
for (A) Near the top of slab across
(A) Prevention of sub-grade settlement expansion joints
(B) Prevention of slab cracking (B) Near the bottom of slab across
(C) Prevention of purping contraction joints
(D) Prevention of thermal expansion (C) At mid depth longitudinal joints of
Q.14 The standard plate size in a plate bearing slab across
test for finding modulus of sub-grade (D) Near the bottom of slab BOM
reaction (k) value is longitudinal joints
(A) 100 cm diameter Q.19 The sub-grade soil properties of a
(B) 50 cm diameter sample are as follows:
(C) 75 cm diameter
Sol portion passing 0075 mm sieve =
(D) 25 cm diameter 50%
Q.15 Consider the following statements
Liquid limit = 40%
1. In a concrete pavement temperature
Plasticity index = 20%
stress is terrible at bottom during
day time The group index of the soil is
2. In a concrete pavement load stress (A) Zero (B) 4
in compressive at bottom (C) 65 (D) 8
Which of these statements is/are Q.20 Consider the following factors:
correct?
1. Magnitude of load
(A) Only 1
2. Thickness of cement concrete slab
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 3. Temperature distribution in the slab
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Modulus of sub-grade reaction
Q.16 It is customary to design the thickness of which of these should be taken into
cement concrete pavement for reckoning to determine the wheel
(A) Temperature stresses load stress at critical location in a
(B) Load stresses cement concrete pavement?
(C) Load plus temperature stresses (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3
(D) Load plus friction stresses (C) 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4
 ®
4.8 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.21 If me pressure carried by a CBR Q.25 If the load, warping and frictional
specimen at 25 mm penetration is 3.5 stresses in a cement concrete slab are
mm the CBA of the soil is 210 N/mm2 290 N/mm and 10 N/mm
(A) 10% (B) 35% respectively. the critical combination of
(C) 50% (D) 70% stresses during summer mid-day is
Q.22 Consider the following statements the (A) 290 N/mm2 (B) 390 N/mm2
failure of sub-grade of a flexible
(C) 490 N/mm2 (D) 590 N/mm2
pavement is mainly attributed to
1. Inadequate stability Q.26 In the design of highway expansion and
2. Loss of binding action contraction joints should respectively be
3. Loss of base course materials provided at
4. Excessive stress concentration (A) 50 m and 32 m
Which of the statements are correct? (B) 50 m and 10 m
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 4
(C) 25 m and 10 m
(C) 2 and 4 (D) 2 and 3
Q.23 Consider the following statements: in (D) 25 m and 32 m
the design of modern concrete Q.27 In the CBR design method
pavements, tie bars are used: recommended by the IRC for the design
1. As load transfer devices of flexible pavement, the total thickness
2. In expansion joints depends upon
3. In contraction joints (A) CBR value of soil only
4. In warping joints
(B) CBR value of soil and magnitude of
Which of the statements given above wheel load
is/are correct?
(C) CBR value of soil and number of
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 4 only
commercial vehicles per day
(C) 1 only (D) 2 only
Q.24 If the CBR value obtained at 5 mm (D) CBR value of soil and cumulative
penetration is higher than that at 25 mm standard axle loads
then the test is repeated for checking: Q.28 It the radius of wheel load distribution is
and if the check test reveals a similar 30 cm and slab thickness is 15 cm, then
trend, then the CBR value is to be the equivalent radius of resisting section
reported as the is
(A) Mean of the values for 5 mm and
25 mm penetration (A)  1 (30)2  152  0.675 15 cm
 
(B) Higher value minus the lower value
(C) Lower value corresponding to 25 (B)  1 (30)2  152  0.675 15 cm
 
mm penetration
(D) Higher value obtained at 5 mm (C) 30 cm
penetration (D) None of the above
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Pavement Design 4.9
Q.29 The critical combination of stresses for Q.30 Group index method of design of
comer region in cement concrete roads flexible pavement is
is (A) A theoretical method
(A) Load stress + warping stress (B) An empirical method based on
frictional stress physical properties of sub-grade
(B) Load stress + warping stress + soil
frictional stress (C) An empirical method based on
(C) Load stress + warping stress strength characteristics of sub-grade
(D) Load stress + frictional stress soil
(D) A semi-empirical method

Answers Pavement Design

MCQ Questions
1. D 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. C
6. B 7. D 8. D 9. D 10. D
11. B 12. C 13. D 14. B 15. A
16. C 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. D
Assignment Questions
1. D 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. A
6. A 7. C 8. C 9. B 10. A
11. A 12. A 13. D 14. A 15. B
16. D 17. C 18. A 19. C 20. C
21. D 22. B 23. D 24. C 25. B
Practice Questions
1. D 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A
6. A 7. A 8. A 9. A 10. A
11. A 12. B 13. C 14. C 15. B
16. C 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. D
21. C 22. B 23. B 24. D 25. C
26. B 27. C 28. C 29. C 30. B


 M MCQ Questions Q.4 The traffic volume of a roadway is
defined as the multiplication of
Q.1 A flyover seggregates traffic with respect (A) Speed and time headway
to
(B) Speed and distance way
(A) Direction (C) Traffic density and speed
(B) Grade (D) Time head way and distance
(C) Speed headway
[SSC JE 2017]
(D) Class of vehicle
Q.5 In which type of transportation survey,
[SSC JE 2014] the vehicles are stopped on a sampling
Q.2 The shape of the STOP sign according to basis and information is collected on the
IS : 64-2001 is type of vehicle, origin, destination, trip
purpose, etc?
(A) Circular (B) Triangular
(A) Road side interview survey
(C) Rectangular (D) Octagonal
(B) Taxi survey
[SSC JE 2015] (C) Tags on vehicles
Q.3 If L is the length of vehicles in meters C (D) Registration number plate survey
is the clear distance between two [SSC JE 2019]
consecutive vehicles (stopping sight
Q.6 In which type of traffic signal system do
distance), V is the speed of vehicles in km
signals along a given road shows the
per hour, the maximum number N of
same indication (green, red. etc.) at the
vehicles/hour is _______
same time?
1000V LC
(A) N  (B) N  (A) Alternative system
LC 1000V
(B) Flexible progressive system
1000 L 1000V (C) Simultaneous system
(C) N  (D) N 
LC LC (D) Simple progressive system
[SSC JE 2016] [SSC JE 2019]
 5.2 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY ®
Q.7 Select the correct match for the given Q.10 In India, yellow and white colour on a
information. milestone indicates:
1. Regulatory A. Prohibitory signs (A) National highway
signs restriction end signs. (B) Rural road
Stop and give way
(C) State highway
signs. etc.
2 Warning B. Cross road, side road (D) Major district road
signs right, narrow bridge, [SSC JE 2019]
etc. Q.11 How ninny major crossing conflict points
3. Informatory C. Parking signs, flood exist on a right-angled two-lane road
signs gauge, facility intersection with two-way traffic on both
information sign, etc roads?
(A) 1  A, 2  B, 3  C (A) 32 (B) 44
(B) 1  A, 2  C, 3  B (C) 16 (D) 24
(C) 1  A, 2  C, 3  A [SSC JE 2019]
(D) 1  C, 2  A, 3  B
Q.12 For the computation of annual average
[SSC JE 2019]
daily traffic, what is the minimum
Q.8 There are 40 vehicles in a 1 km length of
number of days of continuous traffic
lane of a roadway at a given instant. It is
count made at a location?
[SSC JE 2019]
(A) Practical traffic capacity (A) 2 days (B) 7 days
(B) Traffic density (C) 5 days (D) 3 days
(C) Traffic volume [SSC JE 2019]
(D) Basic traffic capacity Q.13 Regulatory signs are generally circular
Q.9 Red light is used as signal for stop as it is in shape. Identify a regulatory sign which
visible from gr eater distances than other is NOT circular in shape.
colours because of its:
(A) No parking sign
(A) High frequency and small
wavelength compared to any other (B) Restriction Ends sign
colour on visible spectrum (C) Stop sign
(B) Longest wavelength and high (D) Speed limit sign
frequency compared to any other [SSC JE 2019]
colour on visible spectrum
(C) Longest wavelength and low A Assignment Questions
frequency compared to any other Q.1 As per IRC, the maximum width of a
colour on visible spectrum vehicle should be
(D) Smallest wavelength and low
(A) 2 m (B) 2.44 m
frequency compared to any other
(C) 3.8 m (D) 1.58 m
colour on visible spectrum
[SSC JE 2019] [Punjab-JE]
GATE ACADEMY ® Transportation Engineering : Traffic Engineering 5.3
Q.2 An Enoscope is used for measuring (B) Staggered intersection
(A) Running speed (C) Rotary intersection
(B) Time mean speed (D) Skewed intersection
(C) Spot speed [PEB-SUB ER]
(D) Overall speed Q.7 In case of traffic studies PCU stands for
[Punjab-JE, HPSC, PEB-SUB ER] (A) Public Car Union
Q.3 On highways the sign of "Dead slow” is (B) Public Car Unit
a (C) Passenger Car Unit
(A) Regulatory sign (D) Pollution car Unit
(B) Warning sign [MPPSC]
(C) Information sign Q.8 As per IRC, the shape of warning sign is
(D) None of these (A) Round shape
[RPSC-VPITI] (B) Square shape
(C) Diamond shape
Q.4 Traffic capacity is the
(D) Equilateral triangle with one point
(A) Number of vehicles occupying a unit
upward
length of roadway at a given instant
[LBS -ASST. PROF.]
expressed as vehicles/km
Q.9 A street lighting is to be designed The
(B) Ability of roadway to accommodate
street width is 15 m, mounting height is
traffic volume in terms of
75 m and Lamp size is 6000 lumen The
vehicles/hr
coefficient of utilization is 0.36 and the
(C) Maximum attainable speed of
maintenance factor is 0.75. The spacing
vehicles
(m) between light poles will be
(D) Capacity of lane to accommodate
(A) 19.2 (B) 24
the vehicles widthwise (across the
(C) 18 (D) 16
road)
[LMRC]
[RPSC]
Q.10 Which of the following is NOT a method
Q.5 Webster’s method is used for
of conducting Origin & Destination
(A) Road marking
studies?
(B) Marking centerline of the road
(A) Trapezoidal rule method
(C) Determining design traffic volume
(B) Return post card method
(D) Determining optimum signal cycle
(C) Road side interview
[PEB-SUB ER]
(D) Tag on car method
Q.6 The road intersection where all
converging vehicles are forced to move [Coal India]
round a large central island in one Q.11 On a single lane road in one direction, if
direction before they can weave out of the average spacing between vehicles is
traffic flow into their respective 10 m, then what is the density (Veh/km)?
directions radiating from the central (A) 0.1 (B) 1
island is called as (C) 10 (D) 100
(A) Clover leaf [Coal India]
 5.4 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY ®
Q.12 What is the maximum width of all (C) Reduces right angled collisions but
vehicles limited by the Indian Roads may increase rear end collisions
Congress? (D) Reduces rear end collisions but may
(A) 2.0 m (B) 2.8 m increase right angled collisions
(C) 2.5 m (D) 1.75 m [RPSC ACF, AEC]
[Coal India] Q.17 The average spacing between vehicles in
Q.13 An engineer is designing a two-phase a traffic stream is 50 m, then the density
traffic signal system with an all-red time (in vehicle per Km) of stream is
for pedestrian crossing as 15 sec. If (A) 15 (B) 17
Webster’s method is used, then what will (C) 10 (D) 20
be the total lost time?
[AEC]
(A) 19 sec (B) 17 sec
Q.18 The particular places where pedestrians
(C) 13 sec (D) 15 sec
are to cross the pavement which are
[Coal India] properly marked by the pavement
Q.14 The maximum number of vehicles that marking is known as
can pass a given point on a lane or (A) Marked crosswalk lines
roadway during one hour under
(B) Stop lines
prevailing roadway and traffic
conditions, is known as (C) Turn markings
(A) Traffic density (D) Lane lines
(B) Possible capacity [AEC]
(C) Traffic capacity Q.19 The 30 highest hourly volume is
(D) Basic capacity (A) The average of the 30 peak hour
volumes in a month
[AEC]
(B) The hourly volume which is
Q.15 Equivalent factor of passenger car unit
exceeded by only 30 hours in a year
(PCU) for vehicles like motorcycle, and
scooter is (C) The hourly volume which is
(A) 1.5 (B) 1 exceeded by only 29 hours in a year

(C) 0.5 (D) 3 (D) The average of the 30 highest

volume in a year
[AEC]
[HPSC]
Q.16 The provision of traffic signals at
intersections Q.20 For perfectly elastic bodies the value
coefficient of restitution is
(A) Increases night angled and rear end
collisions (A) Zero (B) 0.5
(B) Reduces right angle and rear end (C) 1.0 (D) 1.5
collisions [KPSC-JE]
GATE ACADEMY ® Transportation Engineering : Traffic Engineering 5.5
C Conventional Questions Q.4 Maximum number of vehicles can be
parked with
Q.1 List down the modes of water penetration
(A) Parallel parking
into road structure with a neat sketch.
(B) 30" angle parking
Q.2 Discuss the various causes of
disintegration and the major faults (C) 45° angle parking
occurring in WBM and surface treated (D) 90° angle parking
roads (asphalt roads) Q.5 Moving car observer method is a
procedure
P Practice Questions
(A) To find the traffic flow of traffic
Q.1 Select the correct statement stream road section
(A) Traffic volume should always be (B) To estimate the traffic capacity of a
more than traffic capacity
(C) To carry out origin-destination
(B) Traffic capacity should always be studies
more than traffic volume
(D) To identify accident prone locations
(C) Spot speed is the average speed of a on highways
vehicle at a specified section
Q.6 Desire lines are drawn based on
(D) 85 percentile speed is more than 98th (A) Spot speed studies
percentile speed
(B) Traffic volume studies
Q.2 Which of the following is indicated by a
(C) Accident studies
warning sign?
(D) Origin and destination studies
(A) level crossing
Q.7 The PCU (passenger car unit) value for
(B) no parking
car on an urban road is
(C) end of speed limit
(A) 0.5 (B) 1.0
(D) overtaking prohibited
(C) 3.0 (D) 4.0
Q.3 The entrance and exit curves of a rotary Q.8 As per IRC: 67-2001, a traffic sign
have
indicating the Speed Limit on a road
(A) Equal radial and equal widths of should be of
pavement (A) Circular shape with white
(B) Equal radial but pavement width is background and red border
more at entrance than at exit curve (B) Triangular shape with white
(C) Equal pavemetric widths but radius background and red border
is more at entrance curve than at (C) Triangular shape with red
exist curve background and white border
(D) Different radii and different width of (D) Circular shape with red background
pavement and white border
 5.6 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY ®
Q.9 The speed and delay studies on a defined Q.14 It was noted that on a section of road, the
section of highway are conducted by free speed was 80 kmph and the jam
(A) Radar gun density was 70 vpkm The maximum low
(B) Traffic counters in vph that could be expected on this road
(C) Moving car method is
(D) Enoscope (A) 800 (B) 1400
Q.10 Which one of the following methods of (C) 2800 (D) 5600
O-D traffic surveys is conducted for Q.15 If the normal flows on two approach
comprehensive analysis of traffic and roads at an intersection are respectively
transportation data? 500 pcu per hr and 300 pcu per hour, the
(A) Home interview saturation flows are 1600 pcu per hr on
(B) Roadside interview each road and the total lost time per
(C) Registration number method signal cycle is 16 s, then the optimum
(D) Postcard method cycle time by Webster's method is
Q.11 The lost time due to starting delay on a (A) 72.5 s (B) 58 s
traffic signal is noted to be 3s, the actual (C) 48 s (D) 19.3 s
green time is 25s and yellow time is 3s. Q.16 When two roads with two-lane, two-way
How much is the effective green time? traffic, cross at an uncontrolled
(A) 31s (B) 28s intersection, the total number of potential
(C) 25s (D) 225 major conflict points would be
(A) 32 (B) 24
Q.12 In speed and delay study, it the average
Journey time on a stretch of road length (C) 16 (D) 4
of 3.5 km is 755 minutes and the average Q.17 An Enoscope is used for measuring
stopped delay is 1.8 minutes, the average (A) Running speed
running speed will be, nearly (B) Time mean speed
(A) 36.5 kmph (B) 37.5 kmph (C) Spot speed
(C) 38.5 kmph (D) 39.5 kmph (D) Overall speed
Q.13 When the speed of the traffic flow Q.18 The traffic conflicts that may occur in a
becomes zero, then rotary Intersection are
(A) Traffic density attains its maximum (A) Merging and diverging
value whereas traffic volume (B) Crossing and merging
becomes zero (C) Crossing and diverging
(B) Traffic density and traffic volume (D) Crossing, merging and diverging
both attain respective maximum Q.19 In which of the following traffic signal
values system are the cycle length and cycle
(C) Traffic density and traffic volume division are automatically varied?
both become zero (A) Simultaneous system
(D) Traffic density becomes zero (B) Alternate system
whereas traffic volume attains its (C) Simple progressive system
maximum value (D) Flexible progressive system
GATE ACADEMY ® Transportation Engineering : Traffic Engineering 5.7
Q.20 Traffic volume is equal to Q.25 Assuming a longitudinal coefficient of
(A) Traffic density x traffic speed friction to be 0.4, the resulting retardation
(B) Traffic density/traffic speed of a vehicle being brought to a stop is,
nearly
(C) Traffic speed/traffic density
(D) None of the above (A) 0.98 m/s (B) 1.95 m/s
Q.21 With increase in speed of the traffic (C) 2.90 m/s (D) 3.93 m/s
stream, the maximum capacity of the lane Q.26 The cumulative speed distribution curve
(A) Increase is usually adopted for geometric design
(B) Decrease of highway. The percentile speed
(C) First increases and then decreases adopted for geometric design is
after reaching a maximum value at (A) 85th percentile speed
optimum speed (B) 90th percentile speed
(D) First decreases and then increases
(C) 98th percentile speed
after reaching a minimum value at
optimum speed (D) 99.9th percentile speed
Q.22 When the speed of traffic flow becomes Q.27 Which of the following traffic studies is
zero, then required for deciding the speed limit for
(A) Traffic density attains maximum traffic regulation and control
value whereas traffic volume (A) spot speed
becomes zero (B) speed and delay
(B) Traffic density and traffic volume
(C) origin and destination
both attain maximum value
(D) classified traffic volume
(C) Traffic density and traffic volume
both become zero Q.28 On a highway if the velocity of the
(D) Traffic density becomes zero moving vehicle on a lane is 40 km ph,
whereas traffic volume attains stopping distance is 20 mts and average
maximum value length of vehicles is 5.0 mt., what is the
basic capacity of the lane
Q.23 The most efficient traffic signal system is
(A) 1200 vehicles per hour
(A) Simultaneous system
(B) 1600 vehicles per hour
(B) Alternate system
(C) 2000 vehicles per hour
(C) Flexible progressive system
(D) 2400 vehicles per hour
(D) Simple progressive system
Q.29 In desire-line diagram
Q.24 When a number of roads are meeting at a
(A) Width of desire line is proportional
point and only one of the roads is
to the number of trips in one
important, then the suitable shape of
direction
rotary is
(B) Length of desire line is proportional
(A) Circular (B) Tangent
the number of tripe in both
(C) Elliptical (D) Turbine directions
 5.8 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY ®
(C) Width of desire line is proportional road way under similar conditions had a
to the number of trips in both capacity of 500 vehicles/hr when
directions vehicles of only a particular class plied
(D) Both length and width of desire line on it. The PCU (Passenger Car Unit) of
one proportional to the number of that particular vehicle is
trips in both directions (A) 0.25 (B) 05
Q.30 A roadway had a capacity of 1000 (C) 4 (D) 2
vehicles/hour when there were only
passenger cars playing on it. The same

Answers Traffic Engineering

MCQ Questions
1. B 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. A
6. C 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. A
11. C 12. D 13. C
Assignment Questions
1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. D
6. C 7. C 8. D 9. C 10. A
11. D 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. C
16. C 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. C
Practice Questions
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. A
6. D 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. B
11. C 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. B
16. B 17. C 18. A 19. D 20. A
21. C 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. D
26. C 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. D


 M MCQ Questions Q.5 In plains the minimum length transition
curve is _______ [SSC - JE : 2016]
Q.1 To provide a cant in rails, wooden (A) V 2 /R (B) V 2 /1.5R
sleepers are cut too a slope at rail seat, (C) 2.7V 2 /R (D) V 2 /24R
which is known as : Q.6 The magnitude of super elevation
(A) Coning (B) Cutting provided in Indian railways on broad
(C) Boxing (D) Adzing gauge is (in cm) –
[SSC - JE : 2011] (A) 1.315V 2 /R (B) 0.615V 2 /R
Q.2 If '  ' is the angle of crossing, and then (C) 0.81V 2 /R (D) 0.415V 2 /R
the number if crossing ‘N’ according to
[SSC - JE : 2016]
centre line method is given by :
Q.7 The shift of the transition curve of
1  
(A) cot (B) cot radius 300 m and length 48 m is _____
2 2 2 (A) 0.32 m (B) 0.42 m
1 
(C) cot  (D) cos ec (C) 0.52 m (D) 0.62 m
2 2 [SSC - JE : 2016]
[SSC - JE : 2011] Q.8 The cumulative speed distribution curve
Q.3 Minimum depth of ballast cushion for a is usually adopted for geometric design
broad gauge wooden sleeper of size of highway. The percentile speed
(275  25 13) cm with 75 cm sleeper adopted for geometric design is _______
spacing is : (A) 85th percentile speed
(A) 15 cm (B) 20 cm (B) 90th percentile speed
(C) 25 cm (D) 30 cm (C) 98th percentile speed
[SSC - JE : 2011] (D) 99.9th percentile speed
Q.4 When R is the radius of the curve (in [SSC - JE : 2016]
meters), D is the degree of curve (in Q.9 Due to slipping of the wheels the rail
degrees) and length of the chord is 30 m, forms [SSC - JE : 2016]
then the relation between R and D is : (A) Crushed head
(A) R  5400/D (B) R  1520/D (B) Battered ends
(C) R  1720/D (D) R  4500/D (C) Split head
[SSC - JE : 2014] (D) Horizontal fissure
 ®
6.2 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.10 On horizontal curve if the pavement is Q.14 The conventional sign shown in the
kept horizontal across the alignment, figure below represents a-
then the pressure on the outer wheels
will be?
(A) more than the pressure under inner
wheels
(B) less than pressure under inner
wheels
(C) equal to the pressure on inner wheels
(D) zero (A) Bridge carrying railway below the
[SSC - JE : 2016] road
Q.11 If L is the length of Rail and R is the (B) Bridge carrying road below railway
radius of a curve, the versine h for the (C) Bridge carrying road and railway at
curve is the same level
(A) h  L/4R (B) h  L2 /4R (D) A level crossing
(C) h  L2 /8R (D) h  L2 /16R [SSC - JE : 2016]
[SSC - JE : 2016] Q.15 Widening of gauge is provided if degree
Q.12 The conventional sign shown in the of the curve is
figure below represents a 0 0 1
0
(A) 3 or less (B) 3 to 4
2
0
1
(C) more than 4 (D) none of these
2
[SSC - JE : 2016]
Q.16 If n is the length of a rail in meters, the
number of sleepers per rail length
(A) Road bridge generally varies from
(B) Railway bridge (A) n to (n  2)
(C) Canal bridge (B) (n  2) (n  4)
(D) Aquaduct (C) (n  3) to (n  6)
[SSC - JE : 2016]
(D) (n  4) to (n  5)
Q.13 What does the gauge of a railway line
[SSC - JE : 2016]
define?
(A) Thickness of steel plates used Q.17 Calculate the design rate of super
elevation on a 3 degree horizontal curve
(B) Distance between two parallel rails
for narrow gauge track, if design
of a track
velocity on the curve is 70 km/h
(C) Instrument to measure pressure
(D) Pressure that a railway track can (A) 0.051 (B) 0.07
stand (C) 0.067 (D) 0.112
[SSC - JE : 2016] [SSC - JE : 2017]
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Railway Engineering 6.3
Q.18 What will be the cant deficiency (cm), if Q.23 Maximum allowable grades are lower
maximum safe speed on a 5 degree for railways than for highways. The
curve of a broad gauge track is 110 reason is: [SSC - JE : 2018]
km/h and average speed of train is 85 (A) Trains are longer than vehicles on
km/h? highways
(A) 6.3 (B) 10 (B) Steel wheel on steel rails have lower
(C) 12.6 (D) 18.7 frictional co-efficient than rubber
tyres on pavements
[SSC - JE : 2017]
(C) Steel wheel on steel rails have
Q.19 Calculate the number if sleepers
greater frictional co-efficient than
required for 1 km railway track, if
rubber tyres on pavements
sleeper density is (n  4) for broad
(D) High grade causes discomfort to
gauge and the length of one rail for a passengers
broad gauge is 13 m Q.24 What must be radius of a circular curve
(A) 437 (B) 678 for railway of chord length 30 m. where
(C) 1308 (D) 17000 the degree of curvature is 2s?
[SSC - JE : 2017] (A) 1000 m (B) 1440 m
Q.20 Which of the following is the (C) 860 m (D) 1720 m
CORRECT order for increasing width of [SSC - JE : 2019]
a railway gauge? Q.25 The items given in options pertain to
(A) Broad gauge < light gauge < narrow different aspects or functionalities of
gauge < meter gauge track design in railway engineering.
Select the INCORRECT combination.
(B) Broad gauge < meter gauge < light
(A) Ballast: Granular mattress laid over
gauge < narrow gauge
the earth formation to provide
(C) Light gauge < narrow gauge < meter
suitable bed for the sleepers on
gauge < broad gauge
which they can rest
(D) Narrow gauge < Light gauge < (B) Ruling gradient: Maximum gradient
Broad gauge < meter gauge to which a track may be laid in a
[SSC - JE : 2017] particular section
Q.21 The width (m) of the narrow gauge is (C) Marshalling yard : To separate
_______ goods wagons received from various
(A) 0.762 (B) 1 centers in the order of stations to
(C) 1.435 (D) 1.676 which they are to be sent
[SSC - JE : 2017] (D) Pusher gradient: Rising gradient
which is followed by a falling
Q.22 What is the value of the slope require
gradient and along which the train
for coning of the wheel?
climbs easily due to momentum
(A) 1 in 5 (B) 1 in 10
gained by them over the falling
(C) 1 in 20 (D) 1 in 25 gradient
[SSC - JE : 2017] [SSC - JE : 2019]
 ®
6.4 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY

A Assignment Questions Q.7 Which of the following types of sleepers

is preferred on joints?
Q.1 The standard length of rail for broad
(A) CST-9 sleeper
gauge and meter gauge are respectively
(B) Steel trough sleeper
(A) 12 m and 12 m
(B) 12 m and 12 m (C) Wooden sleeper
(C) 13 m and 12 m (D) Concrete sleeper
(D) 13 m and 13 m Q.8 At points and crossings, the total
Q.2 The purpose of providing fillet in a rail number of sleepers for 1 in 12 turnouts
section is to in broad gauge is
(A) Increase the lateral strength (A) 31 (B) 62
(B) Increase the vertical stiffness (C) 70 (D) 78
(C) Avoid the stress concentration Q.9 The limiting value of cant excess for
(D) Reduce the wear broad gauge is
Q.3 Number of fish bolts per fish plate is (A) 55 mm (B) 65 mm
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 75 mm (D) 100 mm
(C) 5 (D) 6 Q.10 The limiting value of cant deficiency for
Q.4 Fish plate is in contact with rail at meter gauge routes is
(A) Web of rail (B) Fishing plane (A) 40 mm (B) 50 mm
(C) Head of rail (D) Foot of rail (C) 75 mm (D) 100 mm
Q.5 The total gap on both sides between the Q.11 Normally maximum cant permissible in
inside edges of wheel flanges and gauge meter gauge is
faces of the rail is kept as (A) 75 mm (B) 90 mm
(A) 10 mm (B) 13 mm (C) 140 mm (D) 165 mm
(C) 16 mm (D) 19 mm Q.12 The shape of transition curve used by
Q.6 Study the following statements Indian railways is
regarding creep (A) Cubic parabola
(i) Creep is greater on curves than on
(B) Spiral
tangent railway track.
(C) Sine curve
(ii) Creep in new rails is more than that
in old rails. (D) Lemniscate of Bernoulli
(iii)Creep is more on steep gradients Q.13 If R is the radius of a circular curve,
than on level track. then the versine on a chord of length C
is given by
The correct answer is
(A) Only (i) C2 C
(A) (B)
(B) (i) and (ii) 4R 8R
(C) (ii) and (iii) C2 C
(C) (D)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) 8R 4R
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Railway Engineering 6.5
Q.14 The equilibrium superelevation to be Q.20 The correct relation between curve lead
provided on a curve of radius R metres (CL), switch lead (SL) and lead of
and speed of vehicle V kmph is given by crossing (L) is given by
GV 2 GV 2 (A) CL  L  SL
(A) (B)
127 R 160 R (B) L  CL  SL
GC 2 GV 2 (C) SL  L  CL
(C) (D)
147 R 217 R (D) L  (CL  SL) / 2
Q.15 Switch angle depends on Q.21 Heel divergence is
(i) Heel divergence (A) Always less than flange way
(ii) Length of tongue rail clearance
(iii)Flange way clearance (B) Equal to flange way clearance
(iv) Throw of switch (C) Always greater than flange way
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (ii) and (iii) clearance
(C) (ii) and (iv) (D) (i) and (iv) (D) Sometimes greater than flange way
clearance
Q.16 Maximum value of ‘throw of switch’ for
broad gauge track is Q.22 For a sleeper density of (n  5) , the
(A) 89 mm (B) 95 mm number of sleepers required for
constructing a broad gauge railway track
(C) 100 mm (D) 115 mm of length 650 m is
Q.17 Which of the following methods of
(A) 975 (B) 918
designation of crossing is mostly used in
India? (C) 900 (D) 880

(A) Centre line method Q.23 If ‘A’ is the angle formed by two gauge
faces, the crossing number will be
(B) Right angle method
(A) tan A (B) cot A
(C) Isosceles triangle angle method
(C) sec A (D) A rad
(D) None of the above
Q.24 The first railway train in India run
Q.18 Which of the following turnouts is most
between
commonly used for goods train on
Indian railways? (A) Bombay and Thana

(A) 1 in 8 (B) 1 in 12 (B) Howrah and Raniganj

(C) 1 in 16 (D) 1 in 20 (C) Madras and Bangalore

Q.19 Number of switches provided on a (D) Calcutta and Delhi

gaunt-letted track is Q.25 Broad Gauge (in Railways) is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (A) 1676 mm (B) 1524 mm
(C) 3 (D) Zero (C) 1435 mm (D) 1000 mm
 ®
6.6 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.26 The object of double headed rail is to Q.32 Gauge is the
(A) Provide symmetrical section about (A) Centre to centre distance between
both horizontal and vertical axes rails
(B) Use both the flanges for riding (B) Distance between outer faces of rails
(C) Clear distance between the running
(C) Employ chairs to hold the rail
faces of two track rail
(D) Gain more vertical stiffness (D) Distance between inner faces of pair
Q.27 Coning of wheels is provided of wheels
(A) To given dynamic stability of the Q.33 Permanent track is regarded to be
rolling stock (A) Elastic in nature
(B) To prevent lateral slip (B) Semi-elastic in nature
(C) To save materials of wheels (C) Flexible
(D) Viscous foundation
(D) To suit super elevation on curves
Q.34 The materials placed in between the
Q.28 In railway switch is sleepers and the top of the formation is
(A) Tongue rail known as
(B) Stock rail (A) Gauge
(C) Combination of both tongue and (B) Rail
stock rail (C) Ballast
(D) Tongue and stock rail combination (D) Points and Crossing
but separated by flange way [Haryana JE-2018]
Q.35 Staggered rail joints are generally
Q.29 For wooden sleepers, the size of stone
provided
ballast used should be _____.
(A) On curves (B) On tangents
(A) 2 cm (B) 5 cm
(C) On bridges (D) In tunnels
(C) 8 cm (D) 4 cm [ISRO-2015]
[PEB SUB ER.-2017] Q.36 The compulsory test conducted for rails
Q.30 Find out the expansion for sleeper is
density for a BG track if 19 sleepers are (A) Hammer test
used under rail length. (B) Falling weight test
(A) M  6 (B) M  4 (C) Tensile test
(C) M  10 (D) M  2 (D) Both (A) and (B)
[Chandigarh JE-2016]
[PEB SUB ER.-2017]
Q.37 The rails are made of
Q.31 The maximum cant deficiency value for (A) Cast iron
BG track of Indian railway is ______.
(B) Mild steel
(A) 40 mm (B) 75 mm (C) High carbon steel
(C) 50 mm (D) 190 mm (D) High speed steel
[PEB SUB ER.-2017] [Chandigarh JE-2016]
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Railway Engineering 6.7
Q.38 The normal size of the ballast used for Q.43 When two tracks of same or different
points and crossings is gauges cross each other at any angle, the
(A) 10 mm (B) 25 mm crossing provided is
(A) Diamond crossing
(C) 40 mm (D) 50 mm
(B) Scissors crossing
[Chandigarh JE-2016]
(C) Level crossing
Q.39 Creep of rails is measured by (D) Tongue crossing
(A) Creep indicator [ISRO-2017]
(B) Fishing string Q.44 The clear distance between the inner
(C) Anchors faces of narrow gauge is
(A) 1000 m (B) 0.765 m
(D) None of these
(C) 0.700 m (D) 1.676 m
[Chandigarh JE-2016]
[Haryana JE-2017]
Q.40 The railway station at which a track line Q.45 Points and crossing is the special
meets a main line is called arrangement provided on railway track
(A) Way side station to facilitate trains
(B) Junction station (A) To stop on the track
(C) Terminal station (B) To be diverted from one track to
another
(D) Flag station
(C) To slow down the speed of the train
[Chandigarh JE-2016] (D) All of these
Q.41 The reception signal is [Haryana JE-2017]
(i) Outer signal Q.46 Which of the following statements
(ii) Home signal regarding ballast material are correct?
1. Brick ballast has poor drainage
(iii)Starter
characteristics.
(iv) Advanced starter
2. Coal ash is not used as ballast with
(A) (i) and (ii) steel or cast iron sleepers.
(B) (ii) and (iii) 3. Gravel ballast gives better
(C) (iii) and (iv) performance in soft formation.
4. Sand ballast causes excessive wear
(D) (i) and (iv)
on top of rail.
[Chandigarh JE-2016] Select the correct answer using the
Q.42 The longitudinal movement of the rails codes given below.
in a track is technically known as Codes :
(A) Buckling (B) Hogging (A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 4
(C) Creeping (D) Cracking (C) 1 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4
[ISRO-2017] [HPSC-2014]
 ®
6.8 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.47 Wear of rail is maximum in Q.52 Coning of wheels is done for the
(A) Tangent track (B) Sharp curve purpose of
(C) Tunnels (D) Coastal area (A) Reducing contact area between
wheel and rail.
[HPSC-2014]
(B) To prevent slipping or skidding of
Q.48 The sleeper density of a BG track is
wheels while rolling on the curved
(n  6) in metric units. The number of
tracks.
sleepers per 1.024 km length of track is
(C) Reducing the noise due to wheel
(A) 1520 (B) 1630 rolling vibration.
(C) 1720 (D) 1800 (D) To reduce centrifugal force while
[HPSC-2014] travelling on curves.
Q.49 A train is hauled by 2-8-2 locomotive Q.53 Rail section is generally designated by
with 22.5 tonnes load on each driving its
axle. Assuming the coefficient of rail (A) Total weight
wheel to be 0.25, what would be the (B) Total length
hauling capacity of the locomotive?
(C) Weight per metre length
(A) 15.0 tonnes (B) 22.5 tonnes
(D) Area of its cross-section.
(C) 45.0 tonnes (D) 90.0 tonnes
Q.54 The arrangements of rails which permit
[HPSC-2014] trains to cross another track and also to
Q.50 When rails are welded, there is no need divert to the other track, is called
for expansion joint. Still the deformation (A) Diamond crossing
of rails due to thermal stresses are (B) Diamond crossing with single slip
avoided by
(C) Diamond crossing with double slip
(A) Locking effect on longitudinal
(D) Cross over
thermal stresses due to resistance
Q.55 Wing rails are provided
by sleepers, ballast, etc.
(A) Near tongue rails
(B) Welds absorb the thermal stresses.
(B) Near check rails
(C) Thermal stress are lesser than the
weld stress. (C) Near stock rails
(D) In crossing
(D) Thermal stresses are negligible
compared to stresses from high Q.56 Minimum gradient in station yards is
speed trains. generally limited to
Q.51 A runway is aligned such that it is (A) 1 in 1000 (B) 1 in 500
exactly laid along EAST-WEST (C) 1 in 400 (D) Zero
direction. Then for that runway, choose Q.57 A scissors cross over consists of one
the correct pair of RUNWAY Number diamond and
(A) 0-90 (B) 90-180 (A) One turnout (B) Two turnouts
(C) 90-270 (D) 9-27 (C) Three turnouts (D) Four turnouts
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Railway Engineering 6.9
Q.58 The tread of wheels is provided on Q.64 A triangle of railway consists of
outward slope of (A) Three turnouts
(A) 1 in 10 (B) 1 in 15 (B) One turnout and two diamonds
(C) 1 in 20 (D) 1 in 25 (C) Two turnout, one split
(D) One turnout, one split and one
Q.59 An extra 75 cm ballast width is not
diamond
provided on outer side on a curve, if its
degree is, Q.65 The rail section which is not used on
Indian Broad Gauge tracks, is
(A) 60 (B) 50
(A) 35 R (B) 40 R
(C) 40 (D) 30 (C) 45 R (D) 55 R
Q.60 On Indian railways, number of a Q.66 In India the rails are manufactured by
crossing is defined as (A) Open hearth process
(A) Sine of angle of crossing (B) Duplex process
(B) Cosine of angle of crossing (C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)
(C) Tangent of angle of crossing
Q.67 In Indian Railways, the ratio of axle
(D) Cotangent of angle of crossing load and weight of rail, is
Q.61 The check rails are placed opposite the (A) 312 (B) 412
crossing so that (C) 512 (D) 600
(A) It is symmetrically placed opposite Q.68 On Indian Railways, angle of crossing
nose of crossing. between gauge faces of Vee is generally
(B) Its one-third length is ahead of the calculated by
nose of crossing. (A) Cole’s method
(C) Its two-third length is ahead of the (B) Centre line method
nose crossing. (C) Isosceles triangle method
(D) Its three-fourth length is ahead of the (D) Both (A) and (B)
nose of crossing. Q.69 Width of the top portion of a flat footed
Q.62 Check rails are provided on inner side of rail is
inner rails if sharpness of a BG curve, is (A) 69.85 mm (B) 63.50 mm
more than (C) 66.77 mm (D) 136.52 mm
(A) 30 (B) 50 Q.70 Best wood for wooden sleepers is
(A) Chir (B) Deodar
(C) 60 (D) 80
(C) Shesham (D) Teak
Q.63 The grade compensation of BG tracks
Q.71 The type of switch generally used of BG
on Indian Railways, is
and MG tracks, it
(A) 0.02 % (B) 0.03 % (A) Articulated (B) Undercut
(C) 0.04 % (D) 0.05 % (C) Overriding (D) Straight cut
 ®
6.10 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.72 Straggered rail joints are generally Q.78 If S and H are strength and hardness
provided. index of a timber at 12 % moisture
(A) On curves (B) On tangents content, the composite sleeper index, is
(C) On bridges (D) In tunnels H  10S S  10 H
(A) (B)
Q.73 Maximum cant deficiency prescribed on 20 20
Indian Broad Gauge Railways, is 20S  H S  20 H
(C) (D)
(A) 40 mm (B) 50 mm 10 10
(C) 75 mm (D) 100 mm Q.79 If G is gauge in metres, V is speed of
Q.74 Heel of crossing is the line joining trains in km/hour and R is radius of a
(A) Ends of splice rail and point rail curve in metres, the equilibrium super
elevation is
(B) Ends of lead rails butting the
crossing. GV 2 GV 2
(A) (B)
(C) Ends of zing rails H 17 R
(D) Throat and actual nose of crossing GV 2 G 2V 2
(C) (D)
Q.75 Rail tops of a track are placed 127 R 125
(A) At an inward slope of 1 in 20 Q.80 The side of a rail diamond may be
(B) At an outward slope of 1 in 20 obtained by dividing the gauge of track
by
(C) At an inward slope of 1 in 30
(D) At an outward slope of 1 in 30 (A) Sine of acute crossing

Q.76 The gradient on which an additional (B) Cosine of acute crossing

engine is required to negotiate the (C) Tangent of acute crossing
gradient is called (D) Cotangent of acute crossing
(A) Momentum gradient
Q.81 If w is width of sleepers, s is sleeper
(B) Pusher gradient spacing and d is depth of ballast then
(C) Ruling gradient w  2d
(D) Sleep gradient (A) s  (B) s  3d  w
d
Q.77 The lengths of the standard crossing in (C) s  4d  w (D) s  sd  w
Indian Railways for Broad gauge and
Metre gauge tracks is same for Q.82 If n is length of a rail in metres, the
number of sleepers per rail length
1
(A) 1 in 8 BG and 1 in 12 MG generally varies from
2
(A) n to (n  2)
(B) 1 in 12 BG and 1 in 16 MG
1 (B) (n  2) to (n  4)
(C) 1 in 12 BG and 1 in 8 MG
2 (C) (n  3) to (n  6)
(D) 1 in 16 BG and 1 in 12 MG (D) (n  4) to (n  5)
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Railway Engineering 6.11
Q.83 The spread between the point and splice Q.89 Pick up the incorrect statement from the
rails at a distance of 4.25 m is 50 cm. following. Required tilt of 1 in 20 is
The size of the crossing is provided
1 (A) To the tops of rails
(A) 1 in 6 (B) 1 in 8
2 (B) At rail seats in bearing plates
(C) 1 in 12 (D) 1 in 16 (C) All rail seats in chairs
Q.84 Arrangement made to divert the trains (D) All rail seats in metal sleepers
from one track to another is known as Q.90 Wheels of a rolling stock are provided
(A) Railway point flanges on
(B) Railway crossing (A) Outer side (B) Inner side
(C) Turnout (C) Both sides (D) Neither side
(D) Railway junction Q.91 C.T.C. stands for
(A) Critical track control
Q.85 According to Railway Board, no
diamond crossing should be flatter than (B) Critical traffic channeliser
(C) Central track control
1
(A) 1 in 6 (B) 1 in 8 (D) Centralised traffic control
2
Q.92 The phenomenon on misalignment of
(C) 1 in 12 (D) 1 in 16
rails due to temperature changes is
Q.86 If the stock rails are B.H. rails, the type
known as
of switch generally provided is
(A) Hogging (B) Creeping
(A) Articulated (B) Undercut
(C) Buckling (D) Bulging
(C) Overriding (D) Straight cut
Q.93 In a diamond crossing, the number of
Q.87 In railways a triangle is mainly provided noses is
for
(A) 2 (B) 3
(A) Diverting trains from the main line (C) 4 (D) 6
to branch line.
Q.94 A station having lines in 4 directions is
(B) Crossing over between parallel called a
tracks. (A) Crossing station
(C) Changing direction of engines (B) Flag station
through 1800 . (C) Junction station
(D) Shunting wagons in yards. (D) Diamond junction
Q.88 The overall length of a turnout is the Q.95 Any movement of the locomotive in
distance between the end of stock rail different planes, e.g., vertical
and longitudinal, transverse etc., is known as
(A) Heel of crossing (A) Hunting motion
(B) Actual nose of crossing (B) Oscillating motion
(C) Throat of crossing (C) Rolling motion
(D) Toe of crossing (D) Shuttling motion
 ®
6.12 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.96 Sand is used as ballast in case of Q.102 Usually, the dead end of a siding or an
(A) Wooden sleepers end of any track of terminal stations is
not kept bare but a form of stop or
(B) Cast iron sleepers
barrier is provided at the end of the track
(C) Steel sleepers
to prevent the vehicles from running off
(D) Reinforced concrete sleepers. the track. Such a stop is known as
Q.97 The maximum cant deficiency on metre (A) Dead stop (B) End stop
gauge track is (C) Buffer stop (D) Terminal stop.
(A) 3.1 cm (B) 5.1 cm Q.103 Which of the following causes
(C) 6.6 cm (D) 7.6 cm maximum damage to the track ?
(A) Fast moving but light, weight
Q.98 To reduce the intensity of pressure
vehicles
particularly of soft variety of sleepers, a
(B) Slow moving but heavy trains
rectangular plate is introduced between
(C) Accelerating train
the rails and the sleepers. This plate is
(D) Heavy axle load unevenly
known as
distributed.
(A) Bearing plate (B) Saddle plate Q.104 The force which resists the forward
(C) Fish plate (D) Gang plate. movement and speed of train is called
Q.99 Which- one of the following resistance (A) Friction
is independent of speed? (B) Tractive resistance
(A) Track irregularities (C) Hauling resistance
(D) Track modulus.
(B) Frictional resistance
Q.105 In rainy season the dust in the ballast
(C) Resistance due to swaying, becomes mud and comes up by suction
oscillations, etc. from below the rail joint. Such joint is
(D) Resistance due to vertical movement called
of wheels on rails. (A) Blowing joint
Q.100 Which type of crossing requires two (B) Mud joint
cross overs between two tracks? (C) Water joint
(A) Level crossing (D) Pumping joint.
Q.106 In case of broad gauge lines the
(B) Diamond crossing
maximum value of cant deficiency is
(C) Scissors crossing
(A) 150 mm (B) 100 mm
(D) None of the above. (C) 50 mm (D) 40 mm.
Q.101 The yards in which wagons are stored Q.107 The maximum rising gradient which is
and new trains are formed are called provided keeping the power of
(A) Goods yards locomotive in view, is called
(B) Marshalling yards (A) Momentum gradient
(B) Down gradient
(C) Junction yards
(C) Pusher gradient
(D) Station yards (D) Ruling gradient.
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Railway Engineering 6.13
Q.108 A signal of smaller size than the Q.113 If V is the speed of train in km/hour and
ordinary stop signal which is placed R is the radius of curve in metres, than
below the stop signal on the same post the equilibrium super elevation for
so as to be visible to approaching driver broad gauge, is
when the stop signal is hidden by an
V2 V2
obstacle, is known as (A) e  0.60 (B) e  0.80
R R
(A) Warner signal
V2 V2
(B) Co-acting signal (C) e  0.95 (D) e  1.35
R R
(C) Caution signal Q.114 The rectangular pits in which wheels of
(D) Shutting signal. the locomotives are taken out for
Q.109 In which condition of rail surface, the repairs, are known as
coefficient of friction will be the least ? (A) Siding pits (B) Inspection pits
(A) Very wet (C) Drop pits (D) Ash pits.
(B) Very dry Q.115 The gradient which requires one or more
(C) Greasy additional locomotive for hauling the
load over the gradual is called
(D) Average dampness.
(A) Up-gradient
Q.110 The movable end of the tapered rail, by
(B) Sleep gradient
means of which the flange wheels of the
train are diverted from one track to (C) Pusher gradient
another, is known as (D) Momentum gradient.
(A) Stud (B) Heel Q.116 The capacity of a railway track is
(C) Toe (D) Flare (A) the maximum load that it can take
Q.111 The sinuous path taken by an engine as (B) the maximum deflection under the
against the alignment of the track is given load
known as (C) the maximum compressive stress
(A) Rolling motion that the railway can withstand
(B) Nosing motion (D) the hourly capacity of the track to
(C) Hunting motion handle the trains safety, i.e. the
number of trains that can be safely
(D) Shuttling motion. run on a track per hour.
Q.112 The rails of a track are placed Q.117 The bed plates fixed between the stock
(A) At an inward slope of 1 in 10 rail and tongue rail to prevail the lateral
(B) At an inward slope of 1 in 15 bending of the tongue rail, are known as

(C) At an inward slope of 1 in 20 (A) Studs (B) Flares

(D) At an inward slope of 1 in 25. (C) Heels (D) Toes

 ®
6.14 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.118 The semaphore signals located in such Q.123 The maximum cant deficiency allowed
positions from where trains start for in India in B.G. is
their next destination, are known as (A) 38 mms (B) 51 mms
(A) Warner signals (C) 62 mms (D) 76 mms.
(B) Starter signals Q.124 Point is a group of
(C) Repeater signals (A) Switches (B) Stretcher bars
(C) Stock rails (D) Tongue rails.
(D) Router signals.
Q.125 The broad gauge B.G., metre gauge
Q.119 Identify the incorrect statement
M.G. and narrow gauge N.G. meet at the
(A) Slipping of wheels burns the top of station of
the rail (A) Indore (B) Vijayawada
(B) Slipping produces flat spots on the (C) Bangalore city (D) Rampur
wheel treads Q.126 Rails are made of
(C) Slipping occurs due to overload (A) Mn-alloy steel
(D) Slipping occurs due to bad (B) W-alloy steel
application of brakes. (C) H.C.S.
Q.120 The sleepers are (D) Alnico.
I. Wooden sleepers Q.127 The ratio of maximum Cant e and gauge
G in India is about
II. Steel sleepers
(A) 1/100 (C) 1/50
III. Cast iron sleepers
(C) 1/10 (D) 1/25.
IV. Concrete sleepers. Q.128 The tool used for taking out the
The sleepers in order of increasing dogspikes from sleepers is
weight are (A) Cant board
(A) I, II, III and IV (B) Jim crow
(B) I, III, IV and II (C) Claw bar
(C) II, I, III and IV (D) Lighting jack
Q.129 Isolation and distribution of goods
(D) IV, I, II and III.
wagons is done at
Q.121 Fuel storage chamber of a locomotive is
(A) Goods yard
called
(B) Skids
(A) boiler (B) tender
(C) Marshalling yard
(C) fire box (D) grate. (D) None of the above
Q.122 Coning of wheels is done with a taper of Q.130 The value by which actual cant falls
about short of equilibrium cant is known as
(A) 1 in 100 (B) 1 in 60 (A) Cant deficiency (B) Cant
(C) 1 in 40 (D) 1 in 20 (C) Offset (D) Shift.
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Railway Engineering 6.15
2
Q.131 When A is exposed area in m and V the Q.136 Which of the following statement is
wind velocity in kmph, the approximate correct ?
wind resistance is given by (A) The tongue rail should be longer
2 than the stock rail
(A) 0.017 AV
(B) 0.0017 AV2 (B) The tongue rail should be smaller
than rigid wheel base of the vehicle
(C) 0.00017 AV2
(C) Track spacing is the distance
(D) 0.000017 AV2
between the running edge of stock
Q.132 Which of the following terms are not and switch rails at the switch heel
related to rail failure?
(D) Facing points are such places in the
(A) Transverse fissure track where trains first pass over
(B) Split head switches and the over crossings.
(C) Bending Q.137 ‘Crossing clearance’ is the distance
between crossing rail and
(D) Horizontal fissure.
(A) check rail (B) wing rail
Q.133 The bending of rails is done by
(C) tongue rail (D) point
(A) Jun crow
Q.138 Vignoles rails are also known as
(B) Beater
(A) bull headed
(C) Pickaxe (B) double headed
(D) Sledge hammer. (C) flat footed rails
Q.134 Which of the following is not used for (D) rack rail.
preliminary survey Q.139 Form of transition curve commonly
(A) Stroboscope (B) Plane table adopted on Indian Railway is
(C) Dumpy level (D) Theodolite. (A) Froud’s cubic parabola
Q.135 Which of the following statement is (B) Euler's spiral
wrong ? (C) Both of the above
(A) The length of gap at crossing (D) Catenary.
between two noses of a diamond Q.140 Total number of zones in which Indian
crossing increases as the crossing Railways is distributed for
angle decreases administrative purposes
(B) The sand hump is a device lo check (A) 5 (B) 7
the movement of a vehicle (C) 11 (D) 9
(C) The next signal after outer signal Q.141 The maximum allowable superelevation
towards station is a routing signal on B.G. in India is
(D) A stop signal placed at the end of a (A) 76 mms (B) 102 mms
platform is called a starter signal.
(C) 124 mms (D) 165 mms.
 ®
6.16 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.142 The gap moved by two tongue rails is Q.149 The train ‘Place on Wheels’ run
known as between
(A) toe of switch (A) Delhi and Agra via Rajasthan
(B) lead (B) Delhi and Amritsar
(C) throw of switch (C) Jaipur and Agra
(D) heel of switch. (D) Jaipur and Gwalior.
Q.143 TACV (Track Air Cushion Vehicle) Q.150 On B.G. in India maximum allowed
suspended on cushion of air has rail in crossing number is
the shape of (A) 1 in 6 (B) 16
(A) dovetail (B) inverted T (C) 6 (D) 1 in 16.
(C) V (D) Flats. Q.151 The primary function of ballast is to
Q.144 The ratio of wheel diameter D to gauge
(A) maintain the gauge
width B is about
(B) provide elasticity
(A) 0.40 (B) 0.55
(C) prevent growth of vegetation
(C) 0.75 (D) 0.90.
(D) to reduce creep.
Q.145 When angle of switch is 1.42°, the heel
divergence is 120 mm, the length of Q.152 Which of the following is a part of a
tongue rail will be switch in a railway track?

(A) 7.26 m (B) 2.42 (A) Lead rail (B) Splice rail

(C) 9.68 m (D) 4.84 (C) Heel block (D) Wing rail.
Q.146 Rising gradient followed by a following Q.153 Which sleeper will absorb the rolling
gradient is known as vibration most?
(A) ruling gradient (A) Wooden (B) Cast iron
(B) momentum gradient (C) Steel (D) Concrete.
(C) pusher gradient Q.154 Metal sleepers are superior to wooden
sleepers with respect to
(D) angular gradient.
(A) cost
Q.147 The type of rail crossing least preferred
is (B) life
(A) diamond crossing (C) track circuiting
(B) square crossing (D) fastening.
(C) acute crossing Q.155 Carbon content of rail steel is
(D) double crossing (A) 0.055 to 0.068 per cent
Q.148 Goliath is the name of a (B) 0.155 to 0.168 per cent
(A) weigh-bridge (B) crane (C) 0.55 to 0.68 per cent
(C) water-column (D) engine shed. (D) 1.55 to 1.68 per cent.
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Railway Engineering 6.17
Q.156 A monoblock sleeper has Q.163 Which of the following is a part of
(A) square section switch in the railway track?
(B) rectangular section (A) Lead rail (B) Splice rail
(C) trapezoidal section (C) Hing block (D) Wing rail
(D) semi-circular section. Q.164 The switch provided near the-dead end
Q.157 In a hump type marshalling yard the of siding, which derails the vehicle, is
steepest falling gradient is called
(A) 1 in 500 (B) 1 in 250 (A) trap switch
(C) 1 in 125 (D) 1 in 50. (B) scotch block
Q.158 Switch is (C) roundhouse
(A) a tongue rail (D) buffer stop.
(B) a stock rail Q.165 Which of the following statement about
(C) combination of both tongue and bridge sleepers is false?
stock rail (A) They are thicker than the standard
(D) tongue and stock rail combination sleepers
but separated by flange way. (B) They are provided with bearing
Q.159 A ‘hump yard’ is a type of plates
(A) passenger yard (C) They are invariably adazed
(B) marshalling yard (D) They are thicker than the standard
(C) retarder sleepers.
(D) goods yard. Q.166 Maximum permissible gradient for a
Q.160 Which one of the following rail failure station yard is
is caused by loose fish bolts at (A) 1 in 1000 (B) 1 in 400
expansion joints? (C) 1 in 500 (D) 1 in 300.
(A) Crushed head Q.167 Wear of a rail is maximum in
(B) Angular break (A) tangent track (B) sharp curve
(C) Split head (C) tunnels (D) coastal area.
(D) Transverse fissures. Q.168 Cant excess causes
Q.161 A rail section is generally specified by (A) discomfort to riders
(A) cross-sectional area (B) more wear for rolling stock
(B) moment of inertia (C) greater lateral stress
(C) weight per metre (D) more pressure on the inner rail
(D) contours of cross-section. Q.169 When a pair of track converge?
Q.162 Pandrol is provision is made of
(A) a rolling bar (A) absolute block system
(B) a method of elastic fastening (B) fouling mark
(C) rag bolt (C) automatic signal
(D) rail crack detecting device. (D) routing signal.
 ®
6.18 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.170 Steel truss bridges for railway tracks are Q.177 An excess percentage of carbon in steel,
generally suitable for a simple to span of makes the rail
(A) less than 50 m (A) tougher
(B) 100 m to 200 m (B) resistant to wear
(C) 200 m to 500 m (C) resistant to vertical deformation
(D) any length. (D) brittle.
Q.171 Approximate permissible speed in kmph Q.178 Disc signals are provided for the
on a crossing can be calculated from the purpose of
crossing number N, as (A) shunting
(A) 1.2 N (B) 2.4 N (B) dead slow movement
(C) 3.6 N (D) 4.8 N. (C) indicating busy platform
Q.172 The resistance to the movement of trains (D) a possible danger ahead.
is due to
Q.179 During narrowing down of a double
(A) speed of the train track for a short distance, the
(B) gradient and curve arrangement adopted is of
(C) friction and wave action (A) Gauntlet track
(D) all of the above. (B) Herring bone grid
Q.173 Rails are bent to correct curvature if the (C) Double junction track
degree of curve is more than (D) Tandem turnout.
(A) 50 (B) 20 Q.180 The longitudinal movement of the rails
(C) 30 (D) 40 in a track technically known as
Q.174 An engine may be shifted from one (A) buckling
track to a parallel track in restricted (B) hogging
space by (C) creeping
(A) triangle (B) cross over (D) none of the above.
(C) turn buckle (D) traverser. Q.181 While aligning a hill road with a rulling
Q.175 Adzing of wooden sleepers is done to gradient of 6%, a horizontal curve of
provide a cant of radius 75 metres is encountered. The
(A) 1 in 40 (B) 1 in 30 compensated gradient of the curve will
(C) 1 in 25 (D) 1 in 20. be
Q.176 The treadle bar is provided (A) 1.4% (B) 5%
(A) in the middle of the track a little in (C) 1.0% (D) 7%.
front of toes of the tongue rail Q.182 Flange way clearance is the distance
(B) near and parallel to inner side of one (A) between the adjoining faces of the
of the rails running rail and the check rail near
(C) at right angle to the rail the crossing
(D) near and parallel to inner side of (B) between the gauge faces of the stock
both the rails. rail and the tongue rail
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Railway Engineering 6.19
(C) through which the tongue rail moves Q.186 The organisations which provide
latterly at the toe of the switch consultancy services on all aspects of
(D) between outer faces of the running railways from concept to completion, in
rail. India is
Q.183 Consider the following operations (A) AREA (B) IRCON
1. Earth work (C) RITES (D) CRRI.
2. Plate laying Q.187 A duplicate signal provided at a lower
3. Ballasting. level on the same post of a single near a
bridge is called
The correct sequence of activities
constituting the track construction is (A) co-acting signal

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 1 (B) repeating signal

(C) 3, 1 and 2 (D) 1, 3 and 2 (C) calling-on signal

Q.184 Which one of the following statement is (D) none of the above.
correct with regard to the radius of Q.188 In a railway track, the vertical pressure
curvature of an ideal transition curve? will be almost uniform at a depth equal
(A) It is inversely proportional to the to x times the centre to centre spacing of
main circular curve sleepers. The value of x will be

(B) It is inversely proportional to its (A) 1.0 (B) 2.0

distance front point of tangency (C) 3.0 (D) 0.5.
(C) It is constant throughout the length Q.189 Which of the following mechanical
of the curve device(s) is/are used to ensure that route
cannot be changed while the train is on
(D) It is directly proportional to the
the point even after putting back the
longitudinal section of the curved
signal?
portion of the road.
Q.185 Rails are titled inwards while fixing on (A) Lock bar (B) Point lock
the sleepers. Consider the following (C) Detectors (D) Stretcher bar.
statements about this : Q.190 Charles Vignolo inverted which type of
1. Wear and tear of rails is reduced rail section, that is still being used?
2. Internal bending stresses are reduced (A) Double Headed Rail (DHR)
3. Corrugation in rails is reduced (B) Bull Headed Rail (BHR)
4. Gauge is maintained. (C) Flat Footed Rail (FFR)
Out of these statements (D) Rectangular -section.
(A) 1 and 2 are correct Q.191 Pick out the incorrect statement
(B) 1 and 3 are correct (A) For railway tracks, total curve
resistance and gradient resistance
(C) 1 and 4 are correct
should not exceed the resistance due
(D) All are correct
to permissible ruling gradient
 ®
6.20 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
(B) A 4-6-2 locomotive indicates 4 front (B) Sleepers transfer the load of moving
wheels, 6 central wheels and 2 rear train to ballast
wheels (C) Sleepers act as a non-elastic medium
(C) The gauge of railway track is the between rails and ballast
clear minimum perpendicular (D) Sleepers hold rails at pre-specified
distance between centre to centre tilt along the track.
distance of rails
Q.195 Adzing of wooden sleepers is done to
(D) The tractive effort of an engine provide a cant of
balances the air resistance, static
(A) 1 in 40 (B) 1 in 30
friction and the pull on draw bar.
Q.192 Consider the following statements (C) 1 in 25 (D) 1 in 20

1. The tongue rail is connected with the Q.196 Consider the following factors in the
stock rail at the toe of switch movement of a train

2. The distance between the main and 1. gauge 2. gradient

the checks rails is called buffer 3. curve 4. speed.
3. Interlocking improves safety of train The resistance in the movement of the
movement train is due to
Of these, the correct statements are (A) 1, 2 3 (B) 1, 2, 4
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1, 3, 4 (D) 2, 3, 4.
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 3 only Q.197 When semaphore and warnar signals are
Q.193 Which one of the following relates to installed on the same post, than the stop
the Percussion theory for explaining the indication is given when
causes of creep? (A) semaphore arm is lowered but
(A) Pushing the rails forward and warner arm is horizontal
backward during starting and (B) both semaphore and warner arms are
slowing lowered
(B) Import of wheels at the rail end (C) both arms are horizontal
ahead at joints
(D) none of the above
(C) Pushing the rail of the track due to
Q.198 Sleeper density (M + 7) means
the thrust on driving wheels
(A) number of sleepers required per km
(D) Formation of vertical reverse curves
length is 1007.
behind and ahead of wheels.
(B) number of sleepers between any two
Q.194 Which one of the following incorrectly
station = distance in km + 7
represents the function of sleepers in the
layout of rail tracks? (C) number of sleepers per rail length =
length of rail in metres + 7
(A) Sleepers hold the rails at proper
gauge on straight tracks (D) spacing of sleepers = 107 cm c/c.
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Railway Engineering 6.21
Q.199 The pit where wheels of locomotive can Q.207 Sleepers which satisfy all of the
be removed is called requirements and are only suitable for
(A) ash pit track circuiting are
(B) drop pit (A) wooden sleepers
(C) examination pit (B) steel sleepers
(C) cast iron sleepers
(D) loco shed.
(D) R.C.C. sleepers.
Q.200 The width of top portion of a flat footed
Q.208 The size of ballast used on Indian
rail, is
railways for wooden sleepers is
(A) 66.67 mm (B) 69.80 mm
(A) 2.5 cm (B) 3.8 cm
(C) 73.25 mm (D) 75.87 mm
(C) 4.3 cm (D) 5 cm.
Q.201 In coning of wheels, the wheels are Q.209 Creeping of rails can be checked by
given a slope of using
(A) 1 in 20 (B) 1 in 25 (A) chairs (B) bearing plates
(C) 1 in 30 (D) 1 in 40 (C) anchors (D) spikes.
Q.202 To hold the adjoining ends of rails in Q.210 The system of signalling used on single
correct horizontal and vertical planes, line working is
the rail fastenings used are (A) absolute block system
(A) fish plates (B) spikes (B) space interval system
(C) anchors (D) bearing plates. (C) time interval system
Q.203 Stock rails are fitted (D) pilot guard system.
(A) near tongue rails Q.211 No signals are provided in case of
(B) near check rails (A) ruling gradient
(C) against tongue rails (B) momentum gradient
(D) against check rails. (C) pusher gradient
(D) station yards gradient.
Q.204 The rail seat is given a slope of
Q.212 The track from which train diverts is
(A) 1 in 10 (B) 1 in 20
known as
(C) 1 in 30 (D) 1 in 40.
(A) turn out (B) main line
Q.205 For broad gauge track, in Indian (C) crossing track (D) point.
Railways the standard length of rail is
Q.213 On Indian railways, the grade
(A) 10.06 m (B) 10.97 m compensation provided on broad gauge
(C) 11.89 m (D) 12.8 m. curves is
Q.206 For metre gauge track, in Indian (A) 0.02 percent per degree
Railways the standard length of rail is (B) 0.03 percent per degree
(A) 10.06 mm (B) 10.97 mm (C) 0.04 percent per degree
(C) 11.89 mm (D) 12.8 mm. (D) 0.05 percent per degree.
 ®
6.22 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.214 The sleepers in the form of two bowls Q.221 The minimum composite sleeper index
placed under each rail and connected for wooden sleepers used over cross-
together by a tee-bar, are known as overs is
(A) pot sleepers (A) 1352 (C) 1455
(B) box sleepers (C) 1555 (D) 1652.
(C) plate sleepers Q.222 The minimum composite sleeper index
(D) duplex sleepers. for wooden sleepers used over bridge
Q.215 The distance between two adjoining girders, is
axles fixed in a rigid frame is known as (A) 1352 (B) 1455
(A) gauge (C) 1555 (D) 1652.
(B) wheel base distance Q.223 A track is laid over
(C) creep (A) sleepers (B) formation
(D) both (A) and (B). (C) rails (D) ballast
Q.216 In India, for broad gauge track, the Q.224 In case the block system fails then the
maximum height of a loaded goods system used is
wagon is fixed as (A) space interval system
(A) 3.40 m (B) 4.72 m
(B) time interval system
(C) 5.32 m (D) 5.87 m.
(C) pilot guard system
Q.217 A warner signal, which is first seen by
(D) any one of the above.
the driver is known as
Q.225 Which of the following statement is
(A) disc signal (B) home signal
correct ?
(C) outer signal (D) routing signal.
(A) At every change of gauge, the
Q.218 In India, the ruling gradient provided in
passengers have to change their train
plains for one locomotive train, is
(B) The timings of trains at gauge
(A) 1 in 150 to 1 in 200
change points should not coincide
(B) 1 in 200 to 1 in 250
(C) During war times, change in gauge
(C) 1 in 250 to 1 in 300
is convenient to the army for quick
(D) 1 in 300 to 1 in 350. movement
Q.219 Adzing is done in the sleepers to give a (D) If the intensity of traffic becomes
slope of more, it requires smaller gauge.
(A) 1 in 10 (B) 1 in 20 Q.226 Between two rails, a gap provided for
(C) 1 in 30 (D) 1 in 40. free expansion of the rails due to rise in
Q.220 Fish bolts are made of temperature is
(A) cast iron (A) 15 to 3 mm
(B) low carbon steel (B) 3 mm to 6 mm
(C) high carbon steel (C) 6 mm to 9 mm
(D) stainless steel. (D) 9 mm to 12 mm.
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Railway Engineering 6.23
Q.227 To prevent the change in gauge and Q.233 The overall depth of a dog spike is
creep, the steel sleepers are fixed by (A) 12.06 cm (B) 15.95 cm
clips, bolts and (C) 17.59 cm (D) 18.06 cm
(A) one key (B) two keys
Q.234 The type of turn-out in which both the
(C) three keys (D) four keys. turn-out rails are movable is known as
Q.228 On Indian railways, the grade
(A) Wharton safety switches
compensation provided on metre gauge
(B) split switches
curves is
(A) 0.02 percent per degree (C) stub switches
(B) 0.03 percent per degree (D) none of the above.
(C) 0.04 percent per degree Q.235 Which of the following statement is
(D) 0.05 percent per degree. wrong?
Q.229 A curve is represented by the degree of (A) The coning of wheels is provided for
the curvature subtended by a chord of smooth running of trains'
(A) 15 m (B) 20.8 m (B) The coning of wheel prevents the
(C) 30.48 m (D) 40.8 m. wear of the inner faces of rails
Q.230 A track assembly used for diverting (C) If the axle moves laterally towards
train from one track to another is known one rail, the diameter of wheel rim
as increases on that rail
(A) trun-out (D) On curves, the outer wheel has to
(B) crossings travel lesser distance than the inner
(C) junction wheel.
(D) none of the above. Q.236 In order to counteract the increased
Q.231 A three-throw requires lateral thrust on curves, an extra
(A) two sets of switches and two shoulder provided on the outside of
crossings curves is
(B) three sets of switches and two (A) 5 cm (B) 10 cm
crossings (C) 15 cm (D) 20 cm.
(C) two sets of switches and three Q.237 For station yards, Indian railways have
crossings recommended a gradient of
(D) three sets of switches and three
(A) 1 in 100 (B) 1 in 200
crossings.
(C) 1 in 500 (D) 1 in 1000.
Q.232 When train passes on curves which have
no super-elevation, it will give thrust on Q.238 The gradient where extra engine is
the required to push the train is known as
(A) inner rail (A) ruling gradient
(B) outer rail (B) momentum gradient
(C) inner side of inner rail (C) pusher gradient
(D) inner side of outer rail. (D) station yards gradient.
 ®
6.24 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.239 The station where lines from three or Q.245 Minimum packing space provided
more directions meet is called between two sleepers is
(A) crossing station (A) 25 to 30 cm (B) 30 to 35 cm
(C) 35 to 40 cm (D) 40 to 45 cm.
(B) flag station
Q.246 For a new embankments in black cotton
(C) junction station soil, the material used as blanket is
(D) terminal station. (A) sand (B) moorum
(C) coal ash (D) broken stone.
Q.240 At the time of construction of railway in
Q.247 The maximum gradient in which a
India, after long controversy, the gauge
railway track may be laid in a particular
adopted as a standard gauge was
section is known as
(A) 1.435 m (B) 1.524 m (A) pusher gradient
(C) 1.676 m (D) 1.843 m (B) ruling gradient
Q.241 To reduce the wearing of rails, the rails (C) momentum gradient
are placed at an (D) all of the above
Q.248 The device provided to prevent the
(A) inward slope of 1 in 20
vehicles from moving beyond the end of
(B) outward slope of 1 in 20 rails at terminals is called
(C) inward slope of 1 in 30 (A) turn-tables (B) buffer stops
(C) triangles (D) scotch blocks.
(D) outward slope of 1 in 30.
Q.249 Which of the following statement is
Q.242 Gibb and cotters for connecting pot correct?
sleepers are so casted that by (A) Bearing plates are used in the case of
interchanging them gauge is slackened hard sleepers
by (B) Chairs are used for flat-footed rails
(A) 3.18 mm (B) 6.18 mm instead of bearing plates
(C) 8.81 mm (D) 13.8 mm. (C) Spacing of sleepers near the rail
joint is closer
Q.243 On Indian Railways, the number of fish
(D) Spacing of sleepers in the middle of
bolts used to connect one pair of fish
the rail is closer.
plates to the rails are
Q.250 Which of the following statement is
(A) two (B) four correct ?
(C) six (D) eight. (A) The coal ash is used in the initial
stages if new construction of steel
Q.244 The switch angle is the angle subtended
between the gauge faces of the sleepers are used
(B) The broken stone has very poor
(A) tongue rail and check rail interlocking action
(B) stock rail and check rail (C) The gravel ballast has very poor
(C) stock rail and tongue rail drainage property
(D)The sand ballast causes wear of rail-
(D) none of the above.
seats and keys.
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Railway Engineering 6.25
Q.251 A metre gauge rail track is to be laid for Q.252 The required number of fish-plates will
10 kms length. The sleeper density is (n be
+ 4). The quantity of rails needed for the (A) 3,380 (B) 13,430
purpose will be (C) 6,760 (D) 26,860.
(A) 845 (B) 3380 Q.253 Number of sleepers needed will be
(C) 2535 (D) 1690 (A) 26,860 (B) 13,430
Note : Using the information given for (C) 6,760 (D) 0.3,380.
problem Q.251, reply problems Q.252
to Q.253
Answers Railway Engineering
MCQ Questions
1. D 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. C
6. A 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. A
11. C 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. C
16. C 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. C
21. A 22. C 23. B 24. C 25. D
Assignment Questions
1. C 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. D
6. B 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. D
11. B 12. A 13. C 14. A 15. A
16. B 17. B 18. A 19. D 20. B
21. C 22. C 23. B 24. A 25. A
26. B 27. B 28. C 29. B 30. A
31. B 32. C 33. B 34. C 35. A
36. B 37. C 38. B 39. A 40. B
41. A 42. C 43.. A 44. B 45. B
46. D 47. B 48. B 49. B 50. A
51. D 52. B 53. C 54. C 55. D
56. D 57. D 58. C 59. D 60. D
61. C 62. D 63. C 64. C 65. B
66. C 67. C 68. C 69. C 70. D
71. C 72. A 73. D 74. A 75. A
76. B 77. A 78. B 79. C 80. A
81. A 82. C 83. B 84. C 85. B
86. D 87. C 88. A 89. A 90. B
91. D 92. C 93. D 94. D 95. B
96. B 97. C 98. A 99. B 100. C
 ®
6.26 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
101. B 102. C 103. D 104. B 105. D
106. B 107. D 108. B 109. C 110. C
111. B 112. C 113. D 114. C 115. C
116. D 117. A 118. B 119. B 120. A
121. B 122. D 123. D 124. A 125. C
126. A 127. C 128. C 129. C 130. A
131. D 132. C 133. A 134. A 135. C
136. D 137. B 138. C 139. A 140. D
141. D 142. C 143. B 144. C 145. D
146. B 147. B 148. B 149. A 150. D
151. B 152. C 153. A 154. B 155. C
156. C 157. D 158. C 159. B 160. A
161. C 162. B 163. C 164. A 165. C
166. B 167. B 168. D 169. B 170. A
171. D 172. D 173. D 174. D 175. D
176. B 177. D 178. A 179. A 180. C
181. B 182. A 183. A 184. B 185. B
186. B 187. A 188. A 189. A 190. C
191. C 192. D 193. A 194. C 195. D
196. D 197. C 198. C 199. B 200. A
201. A 202. A 203. C 204. B 205. C
206. D 207. A 208. D 209. C 210. B
211. B 212. B 213. C 214. A 215. B
216. B 217. C 218. A 219. B 220. C
221. A 222. B 223. B 224. B 225. A
226. A 227. D 228. B 229. C 230. A
231. C 232. D 233. A 234. A 235. D
236. C 237. D 238. C 239. C 240. C
241. A 242. A 243. B 244. C 245. B
246. B 247. B 248. B 249. D 250. D
251. D 252. A 253. B


 Q.6 The bridge having its floor flush or a
A Assignment Questions little above the bed of the stream which
Q.1 Generally a culvert has a span less than allows flood water always to pass over
its super structure is called as
(A) 4 m (B) 1 m
(A) Vent way (B) Minor bridge
(C) 6 m (D) 10 m (C) Cause way (D) Viaduct
Q.2 A culvert having a length less than1 m is Q.7 The bridge constructed to enable a road
called to pass under another land
(A) Minor bridge (B) Vent way communication route is called an
(A) Under bridge
(C) Culvert (D) Viaduct
(B) Over bridge
Q.3 The heading up of water above its
(C) Sub way
normal level while passing under the
(D) Flyover bridge
bridge is known as
Q.8 The bridge having its floor supported at
(A) Free board the bottom of the main girders is called
(B) Afflux (A) Through bridge
(C) Scour (B) Deck bridge
(D) Artificial water way (C) Semi through bridge
(D) None of the above
Q.4 The free board for a high level bridge
Q.9 The end supports of a bridge super
should not be less than
structure are called as
(A) 60 cm (B) 90 cm (A) Abutment piers (B) Piers
(C) 120 cm (D) 30 cm (C) Abutments (D) Wing walls
Q.5 The bridge having its floor supported at Q.10 The walls constructed on both sides of
the top of structure is known as the abutments to retain the earth of the
bridge approaches are known as
(A) Semi through bridge
(A) Wing wall
(B) Deck bridge
(B) Piers
(C) Through bridge (C) Abutments
(D) Submersible bridge (D) Abutment pier
 ®
7.2 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.11 The drainage structure provided to pass Q.18 The most suitable foundation for a
the natural stream under a canal or river major bridge is
without changing its original bed level is (A) Grillage foundation
called (B) Spread foundation
(A) Cause way (B) Viaduct (C) Well foundation
(C) Vent way (D) Aquaduct (D) Caisson foundation
Q.12 The centre to centre distance between Q.19 When the depth of water in a river is 20
any two adjacent supports of a bridge is m or more then most suitable foundation
called for a bridge is
(A) Span (A) Pile foundation
(B) Economic span (B) Caisson foundation
(C) Clear span (C) Well foundation
(D) None of the above (D) Spread foundation
Q.13 The difference between the highest Q.20 The minimum depth of foundation
flood level and lowest point on the below the scour line in a arch bridge for
under side of the bridge super structure piers and abutment should not be less
is known as than
(A) Head room (B) Water way (A) 1.5 m (B) 1.8 m
(C) Free board (D) Clearance (C) 2.5 m (D) 3.5 m
Q.14 As far as possible the alignment of a Q.21 As per I.R.C. standard the minimum
bridge should be grip length should be of the maximum
(A) Square scour depth for road bridges and one
(B) Curved half of the maximum scour depth for
(C) Skew railway bridges
(D) A combination of any two of the (A) One half (B) One third
above (C) Two third (D) One fourth
Q.15 At bridge site the water way should be Q.22 The floor provided between masonry
least obstructed to avoid walls constructed below river bed is
(A) Scouring (B) Silting known as
(C) Afflux (D) All the above (A) Retaining wall (B) Wing wall
Q.16 For preparing the site plan for a bridge (C) Breast wall (D) Curtain wall
the scale generally adopted is Q.23 At the site of a permanent construction
(A) 1 in 1000 (B) 1 in 100 to prevent the entry of water a
(C) 1 in 10000 (D) 1 in 5000 temporary structure constructed is
Q.17 Most suitable foundation for a culvert is known as
(A) Spread foundation (A) Earthen dam
(B) Pile foundation (B) Caisson
(C) Well foundation (C) Coffer dam
(D) Caisson foundation (D) None of the above
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GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Bridge Engineering 7.3
Q.24 The maximum diameter of a brick wall Q.31 Shallow or fixed plate bearing are
well foundation should be suitable for spans upto
(A) 3.5 m (B) 6.0 m (A) Less than 5 m (B) Upto 12 m
(C) 4.5 m (D) 10 m (C) 15 to 20 m (D) 20 to 25 m
Q.25 The intermediate support in a bridge is Q.32 Deep cast base bearings are suitable for
called spans
(A) Wing wall (B) Bearing wall (A) Upto 12 m
(B) Less than 5 m
(C) Pier (D) Abutment
(C) 12 to 20 mm
Q.26 The difference between the highest
(D) 25 m to 27 m
flood level of a river and top of a pier
should be Q.33 Rocker bearings are suitable for spans
(A) Upto 10 m
(A) 4.0 to 4.5 m (B) 3.0 to 3.5 m
(B) 15 to 20 m
(C) 2.0 to 2.5 m (D) 1.0 to 1.5 m
(C) More than 20 m
Q.27 The top width of the pier should be
(D) Not suitable for any span
equal to square root of span length or
Q.34 If rocker and roller bearing is provided
____ of the span which ever is greater
on one end of a bridge, then the other
1 1 1 1 end will have
(A) to (B) to
3 4 8 10 (A) Fixed and bearing
1 1 1 1 (B) Deep cast base bearing
(C) to (D) to
6 7 2 3 (C) Rocker bearing
Q.28 The projection provided on a pier on its (D) Rocker and roller bearing
down stream side is called Q.35 If a slide plate bearing is provided, the
(A) Offset water movement of the bridge due to
(B) Cut water temperature variations and loading will
(C) Ease water be
(D) None of the above (A) Vertical
Q.29 Splayed wing walls generally are (B) Longitudinal
constructed at an angle of _____ with (C) Angular and longitudinal
abutment and are straight or curved in (D) Angular
plan Q.36 Sliding plate bearings are suitable for
spans
(A) 900 (B) 600
(A) Less than 5 m (B) Upto 12 m
(C) 450 (D) 300
(C) 12 to 20 m (D) 25 to 30 m
Q.30 According to I.R.C. the approaches on Q.37 The useful life of a temporary bridge is
either side of the bridge should be (A) 5 years
straight for a minimum
(B) 5 to 10 years
(A) 20 m (B) 50 m (C) 10 to 15 years
(C) 100 m (D) 15 m (D) 15 to 25 years
 ®
7.4 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.38 The cause ways having one or two vents Q.44 Tee beam bridges are generally
for passing small discharges through constructed as
them are known as (A) Deck bridge
(A) Minor bridge (B) Irish bridge (B) Through bridge
(C) Vent way (D) Viaduct (C) Semi through bridge
Q.39 The longitudinal timber of the bridge (D) None of the above type
which carry the load of the bridge are Q.45 Open bridge floor is suitable for
known as (A) Railway bridge
(A) Wooden joist (B) Road way bridge
(B) Wooden girders (C) Navigable bridge
(C) Road bearers (D) Pedestrian bridge
(D) Cribs Q.46 Which of the following bridge exploits
Q.40 The frame work formed by longitudinal the advantages of superposition of
and cross beams of alternate layers is positive and negative bending moments
known as (A) T beam bridge
(A) Cribs (B) Balanced cantilever bridge
(B) Crates (C) Bow string girder bridge
(C) Pile bents (D) Cable stayed bridge
(D) Timber trestles Q.47 Courbon method of designing is adopted
Q.41 Temporary bridge is provided under the for
condition when (A) Flat slab bridges
(A) Sufficient funds are not available (B) T beam bridges
(B) Time for construction is short (C) Cable stayed bridges
(C) Technical known how is not (D) Balanced cantilever bridges
available
Q.48 As per IRC the bridges on national
(D) All the above are correct highways are designed
Q.42 trussed bridges are usually constructed (A) For IRC class AA loading
as
(B) For IRC class A loading
(A) Semi through bridge
(C) For IRC class A loading and
(B) Deck bridge checked for IRC class AA loading
(C) Through bridge (D) For IRC class AA loading and
(D) Any of the above type checked for IRC class A loading
Q.43 The useful life of permanent type bridge Q.49 The type of loading to be considered
is taken while designing temporary bridges is
(A) More than 100 years (A) IRC class AA
(B) More than 75 years (B) IRC class A
(C) More than 50 years (C) IRC class B
(D) More than 15 years (D) IRC class 70 R
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Bridge Engineering 7.5
Q.50 For designing railway bridges the loads Q.53 The bridges which can be rolled forward
considered are as per and backward is called as
(A) IRC class 70 R (A) Vertical lift bridge
(B) IRC class AA (B) Pontoon bridge
(C) Traversing bridge
(C) Equivalent uniformly distributed
(D) Bascule bridge
load as per bridge rules
Q.54 Match List-I with List-II and select the
(D) IRC class 70 A for designing and
correct answer from the given codes.
class AA for checking
List-I (Type of bearing)
Q.51 Bearings are provided in bridges in A. Sole plate bearing
order to B. Knuckle bearing
1. Distribute the load from super C. Roker bearing
structure on a large area and to List-II (Functions)
transfer to piers. 1. Allows longitudinal as well as
2. Allow the girder of the bridge to angular movements
take free angular movement at the 2. Allows angular movements only
ends when loaded. 3. Allows longitudinal movement only
3. Allow free movement of girders 4. Allows no movement of bridge
due to temperature variations. girders
4. Prevent excessive damage to the Codes :
bridge if any pier sinks slightly. A B C
Of these correct utilities are (A) 4 3 1
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 3 2
(C) 2 4 3
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 3 2 1
Q.52 The total cost of a bridge to be Q.55 If a rocker and roller bearing is provided
minimum at one end of a bridge girder, then the
1. The span of the bridge should be other end will be
equal to economic span. (A) Fixed end
2. The cost of one pier should be (B) Simple support
equal to the cost of main girders. (C) Free end
3. The cost of one pier should be (D) Rocker bearing
equal to the cost of one abutment. Q.56 In case of alluvial streams linear water
4. The cost of one girder should be way is determined by Luceys formula as
equal to the cost of road way slab. L = where Q is discharge and C is
______ depending upon the local
The correct statements are
conditions :
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 2
(A) 1.2 to 2.2 (B) 2.4 to 3.5
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 4 (C) 3.7 t 4.2 (D) 4.5 to 6.3
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7.6 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.57 In preliminary survey cross sections at Q.64 Rocker bearings are suitable for spans
_______ interval should be determined. upto
(A) 20 m (B) 35 m (A) 6 m to 12 m
(C) 50 m (D) 65 m (B) 15 to 20 m
(C) More than 20 m
Q.58 In the design of piers, the water pressure
to be considered is (D) Not suitable for any span
(A) Static pressure Q.65 Slab bridges are used to a maximum
span of
(B) Dynamic pressure
(A) 6 m (B) 9 m
(C) Impact due to cross current (C) 12 m (D) 20 m
(D) All the above Q.66 Temporary bridges are built during
Q.59 Masonry arch bridges are used to span (A) Military operations
(A) Less than 3 m (B) 3 to 15 m (B) Project executions
(C) 15 to 20 m (D) 20 to 30 m (C) Rescue operations
Q.60 Minimum depth of foundation below the (D) All the above
scour line in a arch bridge for piers Q.67 The arrangement made to prevent entry
should not be less than of water at the site of pier construction
is known as
(A) 1.2 m (B) 1.8 m
(A) Caisson
(C) 2.4 m (D) 3.0 m
(B) Cofferdam
Q.61 Movable bridges are built across
(C) Earthen dam
(A) Streams (B) Rivers (D) None of the above
(C) Channels (D) Dry valley Q.68 The bridge having its floor flush with
Q.62 Preliminary survey should be carried out bed of stream is known as
to at least ______ distance on upstream (A) Causeway (B) Culvert
and downstream side. (C) Viaduct (D) Minor bridge
(A) 200 to 500 m Q.69 The cross section of a pier may be
(B) 500 to 1000 m (A) Rectangular
(C) 1000 to 1500 m (B) With triangular edges towards
upstream and downstream sides
(D) 1500 to 2000 m
(C) With curved faces on upstream and
Q.63 RCC piers of the following shapes are
downstream sides
not used
(D) All the above
(A) Rectangular
Q.70 The end supports of a bridge
(B) Dumb-bell type superstructure are known as
(C) Trestle bent (A) Wing walls (B) Piers
(D) T-shape (C) Abutments (D) Bed blocks
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GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Bridge Engineering 7.7
Q.71 The floor provided between masonry Q.73 The most suitable foundation for a
walls below the river bed is known as culvert is
(A) Wing wall (B) Curtain wall (A) Spread foundation
(C) Bed block (D) Kerb (B) Pile foundation
Q.72 The height of concrete pier may be (C) Well foundation
raised by ______ every day during the (D) Caisson foundation
construction.
Q.74 The roadside slope of kerb is
(A) 600 mm (B) 900 mm
(A) 1 in 5 (B) 1 in 8
(C) 1200 mm (D) 1500 mm
(C) 1 in 10 (D) 1 in 15

Answers Bridge Engineering

Assignment Questions
1. C 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. B
6. C 7. A 8. A 9. C 10. A
11. D 12. A 13. C 14. A 15. C
16. A 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. B
21. B 22. D 23. C 24. B 25. C
26. D 27. C 28. C 29. C 30. D
31. B 32. C 33. C 34. C 35. B
36. C 37. C 38. B 39. C 40. A
41. D 42. C 43. D 44. A 45. A
46. B 47. B 48. D 49. C 50. C
51. D 52. B 53. C 54. C 55. D
56. D 57. C 58. D 59. B 60. B
61. B 62. A 63. D 64. C 65. B
66. D 67. B 68. A 69. D 70. C
71. B 72. A 73. A 74. B

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 A Assignment Questions Select the correct answer using the
following codes :
Q.1 White placing concrete for lining in
semicircular or circular tunnel, the lining (A) 1, 6, 5, 3, 4, 2, 7
is first done in (B) 1, 2, 6, 3, 5, 4, 7
(A) Side walls (B) Invert
(C) 1, 6, 2, 5, 4, 3, 7
(C) Overt (D) Roof
Q.2 In “Full face” method of constructing (D) 1, 6, 2, 5, 3, 4, 7
tunnel, the first operation related to Q.5 After lining of tunnels the grouting
(A) Removal of bottom portion process is done to
(B) Excavation of are drift in the centre (A) Seal off the water leakage
(C) Removal of top portion
(B) Have proper bond between the
(D) Excavation being done along the
lining and the tunnel
parameter
Q.3 Drift method of tunneling is used to (C) Fill the space left between the lining
construct tunnels in and the tunnel
(A) Soft ground (D) All the above
(B) Rocks
Q.6 Which are of the following is considered
(C) Self supporting ground to be an advantage of the heading and
(D) Broken grounds benching method of tunnel construction?
Q.4 What is the correct sequence of the
(A) It is suitable for construction is
following events in rock tunneling?
unstable rocks.
1. Marking tunnel profile
2. Loading explosive and blasting (B) In this method it is easy to install
timber support.
3. Checking misfire
4. Mucking (C) Tunneling can be continuous and the
5. Removing foul gas work can be expedited.
6. Setting up and drilling (D) In case of excessive water, it is easy
7. Gunniting to take corrective steps.
 ®
8.2 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.7 Match List-I and List-II and select Q.10 Tunnel alignment is carried by
correct answer using codes given below (A) Surface theodolite traverse
List-I (Shape of tunnel) (B) Triangulation
A. Horse shoe section (C) Compass traverse
B. Circular (D) Aerial photography
C. Egg shaped Q.11 With reference to tunneling, which of the
D. Segmental roof section following factors are to be considered for
deciding the size of the shaft?
List-II (Attribute of preference)
1. System used for hoisting
1. Gives self cleansing velocity even in
2. Size of the muck car
dry weather
3. Quantity of muck to be lifted
2. Suitable for soft rocks
4. Eventual use of the shaft
3. Best suited for non cohesive soils
Select the correct answer using the
4. Suitable for soft materials following codes :
5. Suitable for sub-bays (A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 4
Codes : (C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
A B C D Q.12 For hard rock blasting, generally drilling
(A) 2 3 4 5 pattern adopted is
(A) Horizontal wedge cut
(B) 5 4 1 3
(B) Vertical wedge cut
(C) 3 2 4 1
(C) Pyramid cut or wedge cut
(D) 2 3 1 5
(D) Bottom cut
Q.8 Which one of the following is a
component of a shield for tunneling? (E) Bustard cut
Q.13 For tunnel lining used for carrying sewer
(A) Liner plate
line, the best lining material is
(B) Trench jack
(A) Timber
(C) Stiffener
(B) Line concrete
(D) Cutting edge (C) Cement concrete
Q.9 Which one of the following methods of (D) Brick masonry
tunneling is used in hard rocks?
(E) Steel
(A) Fore poling method
Q.14 Which one of the following is an
(B) Needle beam method essential part of a shield
(C) Heading and benching method (A) Rib (B) Hood
(D) Shield tunneling method (C) Jumbo (D) Timbering
 ®
GATE ACADEMY Transportation Engineering : Tunnel Engineering 8.3
Q.15 The width of flange alround the liner Q.21 Which one of the following statements is
plates is not correct for heading and benching
(A) 5.0 cm (B) 6.5 cm method of tunneling?
(C) 10 cm (D) 8.5 cm (A) Drilling and mucking can be done
Q.16 For every one metre of diameter of the simultaneously
tunnel, the depth of stiffener beam varies (B) Benching provides a platform for
as working on heading
(A) 4.5 cm to 5.5 cm (C) Removal of muck from the heading
(B) 6.2 cm to 7.3 cm is very easy
(C) 1.7 cm to 2.4 cm (D) None of these
(D) 2.5 cm to 4.0 cm Q.22 Pick up the mechanical ventilation
Q.17 Which one of the following explosive is method used for tunnels from the
best for under water blasting following :
(A) Ammonia dynamite (A) Blowing fresh air by ducts to the
(B) Blasting gelatin face of tunnel.
(C) Semi gelatin (B) Exhausting foul air by ducts from
(D) Gelatin dynamite the face of the tunnel and permitting
Q.18 Drifters can be used to drill fresh air through the tunnel
(A) Only up holes (C) Blowing fresh air and exhausting
(B) Only down holes foul air by ducts
(C) Horizontal or up holes (D) All the above
(D) Horizontal down or up holes Q.23 For initial surveys of tunnels, the
Q.19 Circular section of tunnels is not suitable following activities are involved :
for 1. Marking portal point with concrete
(A) Carrying water pillars on the ground.
(B) Non-cohesive soils 2. Marking tunnel obligatory points on
(C) Tunnels driven by shield method the topographical maps
(D) Placement of concrete lining 3. Preliminary setting of the tunnel on
Q.20 A tunnel is found more advantageous as the topographical survey of India
compared to the alternate routes because maps
it : 4. Driving lines between the fixed
(A) Remains free from snow obligatory points.
(B) Reduces the cost by reducing the The correct sequence of the activities is :
route distance
(A) 3, 2, 4, 1 (B) 1, 2, 3, 4
(C) Reduces the maintenance cost
(C) 4, 3, 1, 2 (D) 2, 4, 3, 1
(D) All the above
 ®
8.4 All State-AE/JE & SSC-JE [CE] GATE ACADEMY
Q.24 Which one of the following methods is Q.26 The needle beam method of tunneling
generally adopted for tunneling infirm (i) Is suitable for soils in which roof can
ground stand for few minutes without
(A) Full face method support
(B) Top heading and benching method (ii) Is suitable for brick lining
(C) Drift method (iii) Is suitable for concrete lining

(D) All of the above (iv) Requires large number of trench

jacks
Q.25 Which one of the following methods is
Of these statements
adopted for permanent drainage of
tunnels? (A) Only (i) is correct
(A) Provision of longitudinal drains (B) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct
(B) Continuous open drains (C) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
(C) Concrete lining (D) (i) and (ii) are correct
(D) All of the above

Answers Tunnel Engineering

Assignment Questions
1. A 2. C 3. B 4. B 5. D
6. D 7. B 8. D 9. C 10. A
11. B 12. C 13. D 14. B 15. A
16. D 17. B 18. D 19. D 20. D
21. C 22. D 23. A 24. D 25. D
26. B

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