11-09-2024

6201CMD30300124008-PH1TO4 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1) Statement-1 : Weight and normal reaction on a block when placed over a horizontal surface form
action-reaction pair.
Statement-2 : Action and reaction pair must act on the same object.

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true

(2) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is false

2)

Match the Column for given block :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Normal reaction (P) 12 N

(B) Force of limiting friction (Q) 16 N

(C) Actual frictional force acting (R) 20 N

(D) Acceleration of block (S) 3.6 m/s2

(1) A – R, B – Q, C – S, D – P
(2) A – P, B – Q, C – R, D – S
(3) A – R, B – Q, C – P, D – S
(4) A – S, B – R, C – Q, D – P

3) A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a certain velocity. Neglecting air resistance, identify the
wrong statement(s) regarding the motion of the ball.
(A) During the upward motion net force on the ball acts upwards.
(B) During the downward motion net force on the ball acts downwards.
(C) At the highest position no force acts on the ball.
(D) The net force on the ball always act in the downward direction.
(1) A, B
(2) B, C
(3) B, D
(4) A, C

4)
Statement I:- When applied force F exceeds (fs)max (limiting friction), the body begins to slide on the
surface.
Statement II:- When relative motion has started frictional force decreases from (fs)max.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement-I is correct.
(4) Only statement-II is correct.

5) Assertion (A) :- The force of tension on a body always acts away from the body.
Reason (R) :- friction force always opposes the motion of a body.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

6) A particle moves from position to due to a force . If

the displacement is in centimeter then work done will be :

(1) 1 J
(2) 2 J
(3) 3 J
(4) 2.5 J

7) A body is sliding down an inclined plane (angle of inclination 45°). If the coefficient of friction is
0.25 and g = 10 m/s2. then the approximate downward acceleration of the body in m/s2 is :-

(1) 7
(2) 14
(3) 3.5
(4) 5.4
8)
When a body of mass 'm' just begins to slide down as shown, match list-I with list-II :
List-I List-II
(a) Normal reaction (i) P
(b) Frictional force (fS) (ii) Q
(c) Weight (mg) (iii) R
(d) mgsinθ (iv) S
Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

9) Statement I: The rate of change of linear momentum of a body is directly proportional to

external force.
Statement II: To every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

10) Match the Column-I with Column-II and select the correct answer.

Column-I Column-II

For every action there is

A P Friction
equal and opposite

B Rate of change of velocity is Q Force

C Rate of change in momentum is R Acceleration

Force that opposes Relation

D motion between two contact S Reaction
surfaces is
(1) A - P, B - Q, C - R, D - S.
(2) A - S, B - R, C - Q, D - P.
(3) A - Q, B - P, C - R, D - S.
(4) A - R, B - S, C - P, D - Q.

11) Following figure shows a block of mass 2 kg kept on the floor. The coefficient of static friction is
0.4. If a force F of 2.5 Newtons is applied on the block, then what will be the frictional force between
the block and the floor?

(1) 10 N
(2) 7.84 N
(3) 5 N
(4) 2.5 N

12) Force acting on a particle is and its displacement is . Angle between and is θ. Column I
represents value of θ and Column II represents corresponding work. Match the Column II from
Column I.

Column I Column II

A. θ=0 P. Zero

B. θ = 60° Q.

C. θ = 90° R.

D. θ = 120° S. FS
(1) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q
(2) A-S, B-R, C-Q, D-P
(3) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
(4) A-P, B-R, C-S, D-Q

13) A block of mass 0.1 kg is held against a wall applying a horizontal force of 5 N on the block. If
the coefficient of friction between the block and the wall is 0.5, the magnitude of the frictional force
acting the block is :-

(1) 2.5 N
(2) 0.98 N
(3) 4.9 N
(4) 0.49 N

14) Find normal reaction between 2 kg and 4 kg :-

(1) 7 N
(2) 28 N
(3) 37 N
(4) 36 N

15) In Fig, tension in the string that connects the masses A and B is T1 and that in the string
connecting B and C is T2, then T1/T2 is :
(1) 2
(2) 0.5
(3) 4
(4) 0.25

16) If system is in balance condition. Find out tension T1 and T2 :-

(1) 100N, 100N

(2) 200N, 100N
(3)
(4)

17) Three block are connected as shown in fig. , on a horizontal frictionless table and pulled to the
right with a force
T3 = 60N. If m1 = 10 kg. m2 = 20 kg. and m3 = 30 kg. then tension T2 is -

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 60 N
18) A constant force acting on a body of mass of 5 kg change it's speed from 5 ms–1 to 10 ms–1 in 10 s
without changing the direction of motion. The force acting on the body is :-

(1) 1.5 N
(2) 2 N
(3) 2.5 N
(4) None of these

19) A book is lying on the table. What is the angle between the action of the book on the table and
the reaction of the table on the book:-

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 45°
(4) 180°

20) A block of mass m is lying on an inclined plane. The coefficient of friction between the plane and
the block is . The minimum force (F1) required to move the block up the inclined plane will be: -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21) If force F = 12t2 + 5N, then find change in momentum from t = 0 to t = 2 sec.

(1) 53 kg m/sec
(2) 43 kg m/sec
(3) 42 kg m/sec
(4) 29 kg m/sec

22) Find out acceleration of the blocks

(1) 2.5 m/sec2

(2) 5 m/sec2
(3) 10 m/sec2
(4) Zero

23) Find acceleration of block of mass 5kg if following forces are acting on it :

(Smooth surface)

(1) 16 m/s2
(2) 4 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 20 m/s2

24) A cricket player catches a ball of mass 10–1 kg, moving with a velocity of 25 ms–1. If the ball is
caught in 0.1 s, the force of the blow exerted on the hand of the player is

(1) 4N
(2) 25 N
(3) 40 N
(4) 250 N

25) Force-time graph for the motion of a body is shown in fig. Change in linear momentum between
0 to 8 s is :-

(1) Zero
(2) 4 N-s
(3) 8 N-s
(4) 6 N-s

26) The ratio of the weight of a man in a stationary lift and when it is moving downward with
uniform acceleration 'a' is 3 : 2. The value of 'a' is (g-acceleration due to gravity on the earth)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) g

27) A body is at rest under the action of three forces, two of which are , the
third force is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28) A body moves a distance of 10 m along a straight line under the action of a force of 5 newton. If
the work done is 25 joule, the angle which the force makes with the direction of motion of the body
is :-

(1) 0°
(2) 30°
(3) 60°
(4) 90°

29) A body which is constrained for move along y-direction is acted upon by a force

. The work done by this force in displacing the body by 10m along y-axis is-

(1) 105
(2) 150
(3) 250
(4) 100

30) A position-dependent force F = 7 – 2x + 3x2 newton acts on a small body of mass 2 kg and
displaces it from x = 0 to x = 5 m. The work done in joule is

(1) 70
(2) 270
(3) 35
(4) 135

31) A force F acting on the object varies with distance x as shown here. The force is in N and x in m.
The work done by the force in moving the object from x = 0 to x = 6m is:-

(1) 18.0 J
(2) 13.5 J
(3) 9.0 J
(4) 4.5 J

32) The mass of ship is 2 × 107 kg. On applying a force of 25 × 105 N, it is displaced through 25m.
After the displacement. The speed acquired by the ship will be:

(1) 12.5 m/s

(2) 5 m/s
(3) 3.7 m/s
(4) 2.5 m/s

33) Essential characteristic of equilibrium is :-

(1) Momentum equals zero

(2) Acceleration equals zero
(3) K.E. equals zero
(4) Velocity equals zero

34)

A body of 5 kg weight kept on a rough inclined plane of angle 30° starts sliding with a constant
velocity. Then the coefficient of friction is (assume g = 10 m/s2)

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

35) A ball weighing 10 gm hits a hard surface vertically with a speed of 5m/s and rebounds with the
same speed. The ball remains in contact with the surface for 0.01 sec. The average force exerted by
the surface on the ball is :

(1) 100 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 1 N
(4) 150 N

SECTION - B

1) A block slides with a velocity of 10 m/s on a rough horizontal surface. It comes to rest after
covering a distance of 50 metres. If g is 10 m/sec2, then the coefficient of dynamic friction between
the block and the surface is:

(1) 0.1
(2) 1
(3) 10
(4) 5

2) A block is placed on a rough horizontal surface as shown in the figure. The frictional force acting

on the block is

(1) 25 N
(2) Zero
(3) 5 N
(4) 50 N

3) Find the ratio T1/T3 for the system in equilibrium shown in the figure.

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 9 : 4
(4) 3 : 1

4) A 20 kg block is initially at rest on a rough horizontal surface. A horizontal force of 75 N is

required to set the block in motion, a horizontal force of 60 N is required to kept the block moving
with constant speed. The coefficient of static friction is

(1) 0.38
(2) 0.44
(3) 0.52
(4) 0.60

5) The force of kinetic friction does not depend on

(1) The relative velocity of the two surfaces in contact.

(2) Nature of the surfaces in contact.
(3) Normal reaction on the moving body
(4) all of the above

6) Three blocks of masses mA = 2 kg, mB = 4 kg, mC = 5 kg are drawn by some external force (F) on a
frictionless surface, then the ratio of tensions in string between blocks B and C, and blocks A and B.

(1) 3 : 1
(2) 6 : 5
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 6 : 4

7)

A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in the figure.

The coefficient of static friction between the block and the cart is μ. The acceleration of the cart
that will prevent the blocks from falling satisfies

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A block placed on a smooth inclined plane has acceleration 5 m/s2, then angle of inclination will be
-

(1) 90°
(2) 60°
(3) 37°
(4) 30°

9) Two particles A and B are having momenta as shown in the graph. If mass of A is 2 kg and mass of

B is 4 kg calculate the ratio of acceleration of A is to B.

(1) 6 : 1
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 1

10) If a force of 250 N acts on a body, the momentum acquired is 125 kg-m/s. What is the period for
which force acts on the body:

(1) 0.2 s
(2) 0.5 s
(3) 125 × 250 s
(4) 0.25 s

11) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A standing bus suddenly accelerates. If there were no friction between the feet of a
passenger and the floor of the bus, the passenger would move back.
Reason (R): In the absence of friction, the floor of the bus would slip forward under the feet of the
passenger.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) (A) is false but (R) is true

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false

12) A body of weight 50 N is placed on a horizontal surface. A force of 28.2 N is applied on it as

shown in diagram. The frictional force and normal reaction on the body are

(1) 2N, 3N
(2) 5N, 6N
(3) 10N, 15N
(4) 20N, 30N

13) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Static friction can be smaller than limiting friction

(2) Limiting friction is directly proportional to normal reaction
(3) Friction opposes the relative motion
(4) Co-efficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length

14) A block of mass 10 kg is kept on horizontal rough surface as shown. Maximum friction that can
act on block is :

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 40 N

15) Identify the correct statement.

(1) Static friction depends on the area of contact.

(2) Kinetic friction depends on the area of contact.
(3) Coefficient of kinetic friction does not depend on the surfaces in contact.
(4) Coefficient of kinetic friction is less than the coefficient of static friction.

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1) The correct order of extent of overlapping is

(1) 2s – 2s > 2p – 2p > 2s – 2p

(2) 1s – 1s > 2p – 2p > 2s – 2p
(3) 1s – 1s < 2s – 2s < 3s – 3s
(4) 3s – 3s > 3s – 3p > 3p – 3p

2) Hybridisation of 2nd and 3rd carbon in are respectively

(1) sp and sp2

(2) sp3 and sp2
(3) sp2 and sp
(4) sp2 and sp2

3) The correct match is:

(a) Expanded octet (p) H2SO4

(b) Odd e– molecule (q) NO

(c) Incomplete octet (r) CH4

(d) Complete octet (s) BeH2

(1) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p
(2) a-p, b-q, c-s, d-r
(3) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r
(4) a-p, b-r, c-q, d-s

4) The percentage of p-character in the hybrid orbitals of central atom of BCl3 is

(1) 75%
(2) 50%
(3) 66.66%
(4) 10%

5) Assertion:- BF3 is planar while NF3 is non-planar molecule.

Reason:- B-F bond is more polar than N–F bond.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

6) Which of the following is called negative overlap?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Predict the correct decreasing order of repulsion among the following

(1) lone pair - lone pair > bond pair-bond pair >lone pair - bond pair
(2) bond pair - bond pair > lone pair - bond pair > lone pair - lone pair
(3) lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair >lone pair - lone pair
(4) lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair

8)

Which of the following molecules has the longest nitrogen-nitrogen bond?

(1) N2H4
(2) N2
(3) N2F2
(4) All have equal bond lengths

9) Assertion (A) : Bond energy has order like C – C < C = C < C ≡ C.

Reason (R) : Bond energy increases with increase in bond order.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

10) The compound containing co-ordinate bond is

(1) H2SO4
(2) H2CO3
(3) SO3
(4) Both 1 and 3

11) What is the average formal charge on each oxygen atom in phosphate ion

(1) 0.75
(2) -0.75
(3) -0.57
(4) 0.57

12) Statement-1: Superoxide is paramagnetic where as peroxide ion is diamagnetic.

Statement-2: Superoxide ion has one unpaired electron where as peroxide ion has no unpaired
electron.

(1) Both the statements are true and statement-2 is correct explanation of statement-1.
(2) Both the statements are true, but statement-2 is not correct explanation of statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true

13) Which molecule does not exist?

(1) H2O
(2) HF
(3) He2
(4) B2

14) The F–F bond is weak because

(1) The repulsion between the nonbonding pairs of electrons of two fluorine atoms is large
(2) The ionization energy of the fluorine atoms is very low
(3) The length of the F–F bond much large than the bond lengths in other halogen molecules
The F–F bond distance is small and hence the internuclear repulsion between the two F atoms is
(4)
very low

15) The correct increasing order of C-O bond length among CO, is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) Which of the following order of energies of molecular orbitals of N2 is correct?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) Among the following, the molecule that is linear is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) Which of the following species is not diamagnetic:

(1) N2
(2) F2
(3) Li2
(4) O2

19) The maximum number of angle possible between X-M-X bond for compounds
with and hybridisation respectively are:

(1) 3, 3
(2) 3, 1
(3) 1, 3
(4) 3, 0

20) Which condition favours the bond formation:

(1) Maximum attraction and maximum potential energy

(2) Minimum attraction and minimum potential energy
(3) Minimum potential energy and maximum attraction
(4) None of the above

21) The d-orbital involved in hybridisation is:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) Identify the incorrect structure

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23)

N2 and O2 are converted into monoanions, N2– and O2– respectively. Which of the following
statements is wrong ?

–
(1) In N2 , N-N bond weakens as compared to N2
–
(2) In O2 , O-O bond order increases as compared to O2
–
(3) In O2 , O-O bond order decreases as compared to O2
–
(4) N2 becomes paramagnetic as compared to N2

24) In which of the following molecule all bond length are same :

(1) SF4
(2) C2H4F2
(3) PCl5
(4) SiF4

25) Which of the following does not have zero dipole moment ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

26) If x-axis is internuclear axis then σ bond can be formed by overlapping of :-

(1) px + py
(2) px + px
(3) py + py
(4) s + py

27) The correct order for O–O bond length in given species is I. H2O2 II. O2 III. O3

(1) I < II < III

(2) II < I < III
(3) II < III < I
(4) III < I < II

28) Which element do not have valency equals to its group number (old group number)

(1) Sodium
(2) Aluminium
(3) Oxygen
(4) Carbon

29) The most covalent halide is:-

(1) AlF3
(2) AlCl3
(3) AlBr3
(4) AlI3

30) Which specie does do not exists:-

 –3
(1) AℓF6
(2)
–2
(3) BeF4
–2
(4) CCℓ6

31) How many electron pairs are present in valence shell of oxygen in water molecule

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

32) The intermolecular force in hydrogen fluoride is due to

(1) Dipole-induced dipole interactions

(2) Dipole-dipole interactions
(3) Hydrogen bond
(4) Disperson interaction

33) XeF2 is isostructural with :-

(1) SnCl2
(2) TeF2
–
(3) ICl2
(4) SbCl3

34)

The electronic structure of four element a, b, c, and d are

a = 1s2
b = 1s22s22p2
c = 1s22s22p63s2
d = 1s22s22p6
The tendency to form electrovalent bond is greatest in

(1) a
(2) b
(3) c
(4) d

35)

Among the increasing covalent character follows the order

(1) CCℓ4 < BCℓ3 < BeCℓ2 < LiCℓ

(2) LiCℓ < BeCℓ2 < BCℓ3 < CCℓ4
(3) CCℓ4 < LiCℓ < BeCℓ2 < BCℓ3
(4) BCℓ3 < LiCℓ < BeCℓ2 < CCℓ4

SECTION - B

1) Statement-I : CCl4 is a non-polar molecule.

Statement-II : CCl4 has polar bonds.

(1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.

2) Covalency of chlorine in second excited state will be

(1) 1
(2) 5
(3) 7
(4) 3

3) Which of the following molecule contains net bond only?

(1) O2
(2) N2
(3) C2
(4) F2

4) Which of the following molecular orbital have two nodal plane?

(1) σ
(2) σ*
(3) π
(4) π*

5)

The molecule having smallest bond angle is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

6) When two atomic orbitals combines, it forms :-

(1) One molecular orbital

(2) Two molecular orbital
(3) Two bonding molecular orbitals
(4) Two anti bonding molecular orbitals

7) The number of unpaired electrons in a paramagnetic diatomic molecule of an element with atomic
number 8 is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) A diatomic molecule is stable only when :

(1) Number of bonding and antibonding molecular orbitals are equal

(2) Number of electrons in bonding and antibonding molecular orbitals are equal
Number of electrons in bonding molecular orbitals is greater than that of in antibonding
(3)
orbitals
(4) The bond order is Zero

9) Match List-I (Molecules) with List-II (Bond order) and select the correct answer using codes given
below lists:

List-I List-II

I. Li2 A. 3

II. N2 B. 1.5

III. Be2 C. 1.0

IV. O2 D. 0

E. 2
(1) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-E
(2) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-E
(3) I-D, II-A, III-E, IV-C
(4) I-C, II-B, III-E, IV-A

10) Which of the following species exhibits the diamagnetic behaviour?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) NO

11) Assertion : Sulphur compounds like SF6 and H2SO4 have 12 valence electrons around S atom.
Reason : All sulphur compounds do not follow octet rule.
(1) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason is a correct explanation for Assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, Reason is correct; Reason is not a correct explanation for Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, Reason is correct

12) Which P-orbital overlapping would give the strongest bond ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R) .
Assertion (A) : AgCl is more covalent than NaCl.
Reason (R) : Polarising Power of Ag+ is greater than Na+ ion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) (A) & (R) both are incorrect.

(2) (A) & (R) both are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) & (R) both are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

14) According to VSEPR theory, the most probable shape of the molecule having 4 electron pairs in
the outer shell of the central atom is

(1) Linear
(2) Tetrahedral
(3) Hexahedral
(4) Octahedral

15) Based on VSEPR theory, the number of 90 degree F–Br–F angles in BrF5 is

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 0
(4) 1
 BOTANY

SECTION - A

1) Select the correct match w.r.t. five kingdom system of classification.

Nuclear membrane
(1) Fungi
absent in some

Cell wall present in

(2) Protista
some

Loose tissue body

(3) Animalia
organisation

(4) Monera Cellulosic cell wall

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

2) Chlamydomonas, Chlorella, Amoeba and Paramoecium were placed together in the which
kingdom by Whittaker?

(1) Plantae
(2) Monera
(3) Animalia
(4) Protista

3) Read the following statements and select the correct option.

Statement A: Tetanus and cholera are bacterial diseases.
Statement B: Bacteria are helpful in making curd from milk, Production of antibiotics.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

4) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. cyanobacteria.

(1) They often form blooms in non-polluted water bodies

(2) They are characterised by the presence of a rigid cell wall
(3) Some have chlorophyll-a similar to green plants
(4) Colonies of some members are generally surrounded by gelatinous sheath

5) Mycoplasma
(a) Lack cell wall.
(b) Can survive without oxygen.
(c) Are primitive organisms responsible for production of biogas.
(d) Are smallest living organisms.

(1) Only (a) and (b) are correct

(2) Only (a) and (d) are correct
(3) Only (c) is incorrect
(4) Only (a) and (d) are incorrect

6)

Identify the A, B and C shown in this figure?

(1) A - Cell wall, B - DNA, C - Cell membrane

(2) A - DNA, B - Cell membrane, C - Cell wall
(3) A - Cell membrane, B - DNA, C - Cell wall
(4) A - DNA, B - Cell wall, C - Cell membrane

7) Chemosynthetic autotrophic mode of nutrition can be observed in:

(1) Some members of kingdom Monera

(2) Most of the members of kingdom Monera
(3) Some members of kingdom Monera and Protista
(4) Some members of kingdom Monera, Protista and Fungi

8) What is/are true about cyanobacteria?

(a) N2-fixation.
(b) Biogas production.
(c) Mycorrhizal association.
(d) Oxygenic photosynthesis.

(1) Only a
(2) Only a and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) b, c and d

9) Fill in the blanks by selecting the correct option.

(i) __________ bacteria are helpful in fixing nitrogen in legume roots.
(ii) _________ gave five kingdom classification.
(iii) _________ bacteria play a great role in recycling nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, iron and
sulphur.

(i) (ii) (iii)

(1) Heterotrophic Aristotle Photoautotrophic

(2) Chemoautotrophic Carl Woese Heterotrophic

(3) Autotrophic Linnaeus Chemoautotrophic

(4) Heterotrophic R.H.Whittaker Chemoautotrophic

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

10) In which fungi, conidia and sporangiospores are produced respectively?

(1) Trichoderma and Colletrotrichum

(2) Alternaria and Penicillium
(3) Aspergillus and Mucor
(4) Mucor and Rhizopus

11) How many among the following diseases are caused by bacteria and virus respectively?
(i) Typhoid (ii) Citrus canker
(iii) Herpes (iv) Mumps
(v) AIDS (v) Influenza.

(1) Three and three

(2) Four and two
(3) Two and four
(4) Five and one

12) Slime moulds

(1) Are multicellular prokaryote

(2) Form plasmodium under unfavourable conditions
(3) The spores are dispersed by water currents
(4) Produce spores resistant to extreme conditions

13) A parasitic protozoan that has flagella is

(1) Gonyaulax
(2) A malaria causing organism
(3) Amoeba
(4) Trypanosoma

14) Which kingdom forms a link with members of plants, animals and fungi according to
R.H.Whittaker's classification?
(1) Protista
(2) Archaebacteria
(3) Monera
(4) Fungi

15) In diatoms

(1) Cell wall has stiff cellulosic plates

(2) Cell walls are indestructible due to silica deposition
(3) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition is present
(4) Fruiting bodies are formed in unfavourable condition

16) Under favourable conditions, slime moulds form ___A___ while under unfavourable conditions
they form ___B___. Complete the above statement by choosing the correct option for A and B.

(1) A - Fruiting bodies, B - Spores

(2) A - Plasmodium, B - Fruiting bodies
(3) A - Fruiting bodies, B - Plasmodium
(4) A - Spores, B - Plasmodium

17) Which of the following forms shows fruiting bodies like fungi, lack chlorophyll and have
saprophytic or phagotrophic mode of nutrition and a wall less vegetative body?

(1) Chrysophytes
(2) Slime moulds
(3) Protozoans
(4) Euglenoids

18) All are multicellular fungi, except

(1) Penicillium
(2) Puccinia
(3) Agaricus
(4) Saccharomyces (Yeast)

19) Which of the following is not edible fungi?

(1) Aspergillus
(2) Puccinia
(3) Morels
(4) Truffels

20) The sex organs are absent but plasmogamy is brought about by fusion of two vegetative or
somatic cells in

(1) Phycomycetes
(2) Albugo
(3) Deuteromycetes
(4) Basidiomycetes

21) Select the correct statement w.r.t. the members of phycomycetes.

(1) Hyphal wall contains chitin only

(2) All of them are found in terrestrial habitat
(3) The mycelium is multinucleate and aseptate
(4) Zoospores are non-motile

22) Mycorrhiza is an association between

(1) Roots of higher plants and fungi

(2) Algae and fungi
(3) Roots of higher plants and algae
(4) Algae and cyanobacteria

23) A fungus with coenocytic mycelium develops on moist bread is

(1) Rhizopus
(2) Albugo
(3) Puccinia
(4) Alternaria

24) All are sexual spores of fungi, except

(1) Oospore
(2) Zoospore
(3) Ascospore
(4) Basidiospore

25) Alternaria reproduces by

(1) Zoospores
(2) Ascospores
(3) Asexual spores called conidia
(4) Sexual spores only

26) Which among the following is not a member of Deuteromycetes?

(1) Alternaria
(2) Colletotrichum
(3) Trichoderma
(4) Claviceps
27) A fungus was previously placed in class Deuteromycetes but by further studies on this fungus, it
has been shifted in class Ascomycetes. The main reason behind this must be

(1) Formation of asexual spores

(2) Occurence of sexual stage
(3) Aseptate branched mycelium
(4) Formation of sexual spores exogenously

28) Assertion (A): In the members of phycomycetes the mycelium is septate and branched.
Reason (R): Members of phycomycetes are commonly called sac fungi.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

29) Kingdom Fungi is divided into various classes on the basis of all, except

(1) Mode of spore formation

(2) Mode of nutrition
(3) Morphology of mycelium
(4) Types of fruiting bodies

30) In which organism the cell wall forms two thin overlapping shells which fit together as in a soap
box?

(1) Diatoms
(2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Desmids
(4) Entamoeba

31) Consider the following figure and choose the correct option.
(1) It can infect both plant and animal
(2) It consists of ssRNA
(3) Label 'A' represents a part between head and sheath
(4) The structure labelled as 'B' is made up of carbohydrate

32) Which one of the following is correctly matched?

Parasitic fungus on
(1) Albugo Basidiomycetes
mustard

Sexual spores are

(2) Claviceps Ascomycetes
produced endogenously

Both sexual and asexual

(3) Trichoderma Deuteromycetes
stages are present

Branched and septate

(4) Neurospora Phycomycetes
mycelium
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

33) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy in cattles is the most notable diseasee caused by

(1) Viroids
(2) Bacteria
(3) Prions
(4) T4 bacteriophage
34) Nucleic acid is absent in a

(1) Virus
(2) Viroid
(3) Prion
(4) Bacterium

35) Outer protein coat of viruses is called

(1) Envelope
(2) Capsid
(3) Capsomere
(4) Glycocalyx

SECTION - B

1)

Which unicellular, photosynthetic eukaryote lacks cell wall:-

(1) Mycoplasma
(2) Amoeba
(3) Euglena
(4) Slime mould

2) Generally, the viruses that infect plant have ____A____ and the viruses that infect bacteria
have ____B____, as genetic material.
Select the option to correctly fill in the blanks.

(1) A - dsRNA, B - dsDNA

(2) A - dsDNA, B - ssRNA
(3) A - ssDNA, B - dsRNA
(4) A - ssRNA, B - dsDNA

3) Choose the incorrectly matched pair.

(1) Yeast - Used to make bread

(2) Penicillium - Unicellular fungus
(3) Neurospora - Used extensively in biochemical work
(4) Puccinia - rust fungus

4) Consider the following statements and state them as true or false and choose the correct option.
(A) The fungi which grow on dung are called coprophilous.
(B) Members of Deuteromycetes reproduce by sexual spores only.
(C) Conidia are asexual spores generally found in Basidiomycetes.
(D) In most of the fungi cell wall is made up of chitin.
 A B C D

(1) F T F T

(2) T F F T

(3) T T F F

(4) F F T T
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

5) According to R.H.Whittaker, all of the following are common characteristics among fungi and
plantae, except

(1) Presence of cell wall

(2) Presence of nuclear membrane
(3) Presence of autotrophic mode of nutrition
(4) Multicellular body organisation

6) __________ classified animals into two groups based on presence and absence of RBC. Select the
correct option to fill in the blank.

(1) Linnaeus
(2) Carl Woese
(3) Aristotle
(4) R.H.Whittaker

7) In which class of fungi, sexual spores are exogenously produced after karyogamy followed by
meiosis?

(1) Ascomycetes
(2) Dueteromycetes
(3) Phycomycetes
(4) Basidiomycetes

8) Match the column I with column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II

(a) M.W.Beijerinek (i) Discovered agent smaller than viruses

(b) W.M.Stanely (ii) Contagium vivum fluidum

(c) D.J.Ivanowsky (iii) Showed that virus could be crystallised

(iv) Recognised the causative organism of the

(d) T.O.Diener
mosaic disease of tobacco
(1) a - i, b - ii, c - iv, d - iii
(2) a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i
(3) a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i
(4) a - iv, b - ii, c - iii, d - i

9) Consider the following statements and choose the correct option.

Statement A: Some members of monera synthesise their own food from inorganic substances.
Statement B: Bacterial structures are very complex but they have very simple behaviour.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect

10) Which among the following statements is correct for dinoflagellates?

(1) They are mostly marine and are heterotrophic

(2) They appear only red in colour
(3) Their cell wall has stiff cellulosic plates on the outer surface
(4) They have only one flagellum

11) Which among the following spores are not involved in asexual reproduction of fungi?

(1) Conidia
(2) Zoospores
(3) Sporangiospores
(4) Ascospores

12) Select the incorrect statement for fungi-

(1) They show only heterotrophic mode of nutrition

(2) They are cosmopolitan
(3) All members show multicellular body organisation
(4) Its nucleus is surrounded by nuclear membrane

13) Match the following column I with column II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II

(a) Flagellated (i) They have cavity that opens to

protozoan outside of the cell surface

(b) Ciliated (ii) It has false feet to capture its

protozoan prey

(c) Amoeboid (iii) They parasitic form cause

protozoan diseases, like sleeping sickness
 (iv) It includes organism that have
(d) Sporozoan
infectious spore like stage
(1) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii
(2) a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii
(3) a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv
(4) a - ii, b - iii, c - iv, d - i

14) In which among the following fungi, hyphae are continuous tubes filled with multinucleated
cytoplasm?

(1) Penicillium
(2) Claviceps
(3) Neurospora
(4) Albugo

15)

Which of the following is true for protozoa?

(1) They all are included in Protista

(2) All protozoans are heterotrops
(3) Marine forms of amoeboid protozoans have silica shells on their surface
(4) All of the above

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A

1) Which of the following is correct as regard to cockroach?

(1) Nocturnal, monoecious, coelomate

(2) Omnivorous, dioecious, coelomate
(3) Omnivorous, monoecious, coelomate
(4) Omnivorous, monoecious, pseudocoelomate

2) Exoskeleton of cockroach is formed of-

(1) Keratin
(2) Amino acids
(3) Chitinous cuticle
(4) Non-chitinous cuticle

3) The dorsal sclerites and ventral sclerites are called -

(1) Sternites and tergites respectively

(2) Tergites and sternites respectively
(3) Sternites and pleurites respectively
(4) Tergites and pleurites respectively

4) The head of cockroach consists of fusion of __________ segments-

(1) 6
(2) 10
(3) 14
(4) 18

5) In cockroach, a pair of antennae arises from membranous socket. Antennae are -

(1) Without any sensory receptors

(2) Many segmented
(3) Sensory receptors that help in monitoring the environment
(4) (2) and (3) are correct

6) In cockroach mouth part consists of a labrum, a pair of mandibles, a pair of maxillae and a labium.
Labrum and labium act as -

(1) Upper and lower jaws respectively

(2) Lower and upper jaws respectively
(3) Upper jaw and lips respectively
(4) Upper and lower lips respectively

7)
The above figure is related with mouth parts of cockroach. Identify A to E-
 A B C D E

(1) Maxilla Hypo-pharynx Labium Mandible Labrum

(2) Mandible Labium Maxilla Labrum Hypo-pharynx

(3) Labrum Mandible Hypo-pharynx Maxilla Labium

(4) Labium Hypo-pharynx Labrum Maxilla Mandible

(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

8) Which of the following statements are correct about the forewings in cockroach?

(1) They are mesothoracic

(2) They are opaque, dark and leathery and cover hindwing when at rest
(3) They are not used in flight
(4) All

9) In female cockroach, 7th sternum together with 8th and 9th sterna forms -

(1) A brood/genital pouch

(2) Anal cercus
(3) Anal style
(4) None

10) Assertion (A): Cockroaches can perceive multiple images of an object through the use of several
ommatidia, known as mosaic vision.
Reason (R): Mosaic vision provides increased sensitivity but higher resolution.

(1) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect

(2) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)

11) The gizzard or proventriculus has an outer layer of thick muscles and thick inner cuticle forming
_________ highly chitinous plates called teeth -

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 12

12) Male cockroach has -

(1) Dorsal anus, ventral genital pore and gonapophysis

(2) Ventral anus, dorsal genital pore and gonapophysis
(3) Dorsal anus, ventral genital pore but no gonapophysis
(4) Dorsal anus, ventral genital pore, gonapophysis but not anal styles

13) A ring of 6 - 8 blind tubules called hepatic / gastric caecae are present at -

(1) Fore gut

(2) Hindgut
(3) Midgut
(4) Junction of foregut and midgut

14)
Identify structures A to D -

A B C D

Hepatic Malpighian
(1) Gizzard Crop
caecae tubules

Hepatic Malpighian
(2) Crop Gizzard
caecae tubules

Malpighian Hepatic
(3) Crop Gizzard
tubules caecae

Malpighian Hepatic
(4) Gizzard Crop
tubules caecae
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

15) Which of the following is false about the heart of cockroach?

(1) It is differentiated into funnel shaped chambers with ostia on either side
(2) It is 14 chambered heart
(3) Blood from sinuses enter the heart through ostia and is pumped anteriorly to sinuses again
(4) Alary muscles are related to heart

16) Which of the following is correct?

(1) In cockroach, blood vessels are poorly developed and open into haemocoel
(2) In cockroach, visceral organs located in haemocoel are bathed in blood (haemolymph)
(3) The haemolymph consists of colourless plasma and haemocytes
(4) All

17) Number of spiracles in cockroach are -

(1) 10 pairs
(2) 7 pairs
(3) 9 pairs
(4) 6 pairs

18) The blood of cockroach contains no respiratory pigment. It means that -

(1) Respiration is anaerobic

(2) Cockroach has no respiration
(3) Oxygen goes into tissues with H2O from outside
(4) Oxygen goes directly into tissues through tracheal system

19) Go through the paragraph - "It is lined by glandular and ciliated cells. It absorbs nitrogenous
waste products from haemocoel and convert them into uric acid which is excreted out through the
hindgut". The above functions are related to which of the following structures in cockroach?

(1) Trachea
(2) Hepatic caecae
(3) Terga
(4) Malpighian tubules

20) The nervous system in cockroach -

(1) Is spread throughout the body

(2) Is represented by segmentally arranged ganglia and ventral nerve cord
(3) Both (1) and (2) are correct
(4) Consists of supra-oesopharyngeal ganglia in head and dorsal nerve cord
21) If the head of cockroach is cut off, it will still live for as long as one week. It is because of -

(1) Body is covered with a hard chitinous exoskeleton

(2) Head holds a bit of nervous system
(3) Head is of no use
(4) Food capturing apparatus is found elsewhere

22) In cockroach, supra-oesopharyngeal ganglion supplies nerves to -

(1) Compound eyes

(2) Antennae
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Abdomen area

23) In male cockroach, a pair of testis are located one on each lateral side in the abdominal segment
-

(1) 6th - 10th

(2) 6th - 8th
(3) 4th - 6th
(4) 10th - 12th

24) In male cockroach, from each testis arises a thin vas deferens, which open into ________ through
seminal vesicle -

(1) Anal cercus

(2) Caudal style
(3) Collateral gland
(4) Ejaculatory duct

25)
Identify A to F in above diagram-

A B C D E F

Collateral Ejaculatory Anal Caudal

(1) Testis Pseudopenis
gland duct cercus style

Collateral Ejaculatory Caudal

(2) Testis Terga Pseudopenis
gland duct style

Phallic Ejaculatory Anal Caudal

(3) Testis Pseudopenis
gland duct cercus style

Phallic Ejaculatory Caudal Anal

(4) Testis Pseudopenis
gland duct style cercus
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

26) During copulation, cockroach transfers male gametes in the form of -

(1) Sperms
(2) Spermatophore
(3) Seminal vesicles
(4) Spermatid

27) In male cockroach, mushroom gland, acting as an accessory reproductive gland, is situated in
the abdominal segments -

(1) 4th - 5th

(2) 6th - 7th
(3) 7th - 8th
(4) 8th - 10th

28) Development of Periplaneta americana is -

(1) Ametabolous
(2) Paurometabolous
(3) Hemimetabolous
(4) Holometabolous

29) Figure refers to reproductive system of female cockroach. The correct labellings indicated by
alphabets are respectively -
(1) A - Spermatheca, B - Collateral glands, C - Gonapophyses
(2) A - Phallic gland, B - Collateral glands, C - Gonapophyses
(3) A - Spermatheca, B - Seminal vesicle, C - Gonapophyses
(4) A - Spermatheca, B - Collateral glands, C - Tegmina

30) Collateral glands of cockroach help in -

(1) Fertilization
(2) Formation of ootheca
(3) Copulation
(4) Formation of oothecal chamber

31) Frogs belonging to class ________ of phylum chordata are _______ animals and show hibernation
__________ and aestivation in ____________.

(1) Hemichordata, poikilothermic, winter, summer

(2) Amphibia, poikilothermic, summer, rainy season
(3) Amphibia, poikilothermic, winter, summer
(4) Amphibia, warmblooded, winter, summer

32) Which of the following is false about the frog?

(I) Eyes are bulged out and covered by a nictitating membrane that protects them while in water.
(II) On either side of the eyes a membranous tympanum (ear) receives sound signals.
(III) The forelimbs and hind limbs help in swimming, walking, leaping and burrowing.
(IV) The hind limbs end in five digits and they are larger and muscular than fore limbs that end in
four digits.
(V) Feet have webbed digits that help in swimming.
(VI) Frogs exhibit sexual dimorphism.

(1) Only I and VI

(2) Only III
(3) Only IV and V
(4) None

33) Frog has -

(1) 5 fingers in forelimb and 5 toes in hindlimb

(2) 5 fingers in forelimb and 4 toes in hindlimb
(3) 4 fingers in forelimb and 5 toes in hindlimb
(4) 6 fingers in forelimb and 5 toes in hindlimb

34) One of the main function of frog's skin is -

(1) Diffusion of respiratory gases

(2) Absorption of ultraviolet rays to produce vitamin D
(3) Storage of excess food in the form of subcutaneous fat
(4) Excretion of nitrogenous waste in the form of uric acid

35) Which of the following is false about the respiration of frog?

(1) Frogs respire on land and in water by the same method

(2) In water, skin acts as aquatic respiratory organ (Cutaneous respiration)
(3) Dissolved oxygen in water is exchanged through the skin by diffusion
(4) On land, the buccal cavity, skin and lungs act as respiratory organs

SECTION - B

1) Which one is correct about the respiration of frog?

(I) In frog, cutaneous and pulmonary respiration are found.
(II) A pair of elongated pink hollow lungs are found in thorax.
(III) Atmospheric Nostril Buccal cavity Lungs.
(IV) During aestivation and hibernation, gaseous exchange takes place through skin.

(1) All
(2) I, II, III
(3) III
(4) None

2) In frog, ventricle opens into __________ on the __________ side of heart

(1) Sinus venosus, dorsal

(2) Sinus venosus, ventral
(3) Conus arteriosus, ventral
(4) Conus arteriosus, dorsal

3) Which of the following special venous system is present in frog?

(1) Hepatic portal system

(2) Renal portal system
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Neither hepatic nor renal portal system is present

4)
The above figure is associated with diagrammatic representation of internal organs of frog. Identify
A to E

A B C D E

Gall
(1) Lung Ovary Testis Rectum
bladder

Gall Fat
(2) Lung Testis Rectum
bladder bodies

Gall
(3) Lung Testis Kidney Rectum
bladder

Gall Fat
(4) Lung Kidney Rectum
bladder bodies
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

5) In frog, how many pairs of cranial nerves are found?

(1) 10
(2) 12
(3) 8
(4) 31

6) The medulla oblongata passes out through -

(1) Foramen magnum
(2) Foramen obutarator
(3) Foramen of Magentie
(4) None of the above

7) Frog has sense organs like sensory papillae (for touch), taste buds, nasal epithelium (smell), eyes,
tympanum with internal ear (for hearing) out of these, which of the following is well-organised
structure?

(1) Eyes and internal ears

(2) Eyes and sensory papillae
(3) Internal ears and taste buds
(4) Taste buds and sensory papillae

8) Frog shows sexual dimorphism. Male frog can be distinguished from female one in having -

(1) Sound producing vocal sac

(2) Copulatory pad on the first digit of the fore arm
(3) Cloaca
(4) Both (1) and (2)

9) Mesorchium in frog refers to -

(1) Fold of peritoneum between kidney and testis

(2) Internal tissue of kidney
(3) Internal tissue of testis
(4) Capsule of kidney

10) Bidder's canal is meant for passage of -

(1) Ova
(2) Urine
(3) Sperms
(4) All of these

11) For female frog, which of the following is false?

(I) One pair of ovaries is situated near kidneys.
(II) Ovary has functional connection with kidney.
(III) Convulated, tubular, ciliated oviduct arises from ovary and opens into cloaca.
(IV) Oviduct and ureter open separately into the cloaca.
(V) A female frog can lay 2500 - 3000 ova at a time.

(1) I and III

(2) Only II
(3) I and IV
(4) IV and V
12)
The above figure is related with female reproductive system of frog. Identify A to D -

A B C D

(1) Ovary Ureter Oviduct Ovisac

Urinogenital Bidder's
(2) Ovary Ovisac
duct canal

Urinogenital
(3) Ovary Ovisac Oviduct
duct

Urinogenital Bidder's
(4) Ovary Oviduct
duct canal
(1) (1)
(2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

13)

Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frog:-

(1) Testes Vasa efferentia Kidney Seminal vesicle Urinogenital duct Cloaca
(2) Testes Vasa efferentia Bidder's canal Ureter Cloaca
(3) Testes Vasa efferentia Kidney Bidder's canal Urinogenital duct Cloaca
(4) Testes Bidder's canal Kidney Vasa efferentia Urinogenital duct Cloaca

14) Which of the following is correctly stated as happens in the common cockroach?

(1) The food is grinded by mandibles and gizzard

(2) Malpighian tubules are excretory organ projecting out from the colon
(3) Oxygen is transported by haemoglobin blood
(4) Nitrogenous excretory product is urea

15) Frogs differ from humans in possessing:

(1) Paired cerebral hemispheres

(2) Hepatic portal system
(3) Nucleated red blood cells
(4) Thyroid as well as parathyroid
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 4 1 2 1 4 3 1 2 4 3 2 3 1 4 3 3 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 1 2 2 1 2 4 3 2 4 2 4 2 1 2

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 2 3 1 1 1 3 4 1 2 1 4 4 4 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 1 2 3 2 3 4 1 1 4 2 1 3 1 3 1 1 4 2 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 2 4 3 2 3 3 4 4 1 3 3 3 2

SECTION - B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 2 3 4 3 2 2 3 2 1 3 3 2 2 3

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. (2) 4 3 1 3 4 1 2 (4) 3 3 4 4 1 2 2 2 4 2 4
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 1 1 2 3 4 2 4 2 1 3 (2) 3 3 2

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 2 (2) 3 3 4 3 1 3 4 3 3 4 4

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 3 2 1 4 4 (3) 4 1 1 2 1 4 (2) 2 4 1 4 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 3 3 4 (3) 2 2 2 1 2 3 4 3 1 1

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 1 3 3 (4) 1 1 1 4 1 3 2 (1) 3 1 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

3) Force of gravity acts always vertically downward.

6)

= (44 + 11 + 45) × 10–2 = 1 J

7)

a = g sin θ – μg cosθ

= 5.35 m/s2

8)

Q = Normal reaction
P = mg sinθ
R = Friction force
S = Weight (mg)
(a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv) and (d)-(i)

9)

(Newton's second law)

(ii) Newton's third law.

11)

Given, applied force = 2.5 N and

Limiting friction = = 0.4 × 2 × 9.8 = 7.84 N
For the given condition in the problem, applied force is very smaller than limiting friction.
 Static friction on a body = Applied force = 2.5 N

12)

w = FS cos θ

13)

f = 0.98 N

14) 36 = 9a

for 2 kg

16)

18)

21)

24)

25) Area under F - t graph = change in momentum.

27)

28)

W=

30)
 = 7(5) – (5)2 + (5)3
= 35 – 25 + 125 = 135 J

32) WF = (25 × 105) × 25

= 625 × 105 J
From WET
W = ΔKE

v = 25 × 10–1 = 2.5 m/s

33) Fnet = 0, a = 0

34)

N = mg cos 30° =

f = mg sin 30° = mg

µN = mg

µ=

35) =

= = |–10|
= 10 Newtons

36)

Force of friction, F = µR = µmg

Retardation due to friction, |a| = = µg

Now, u = 10 ms–1, s = 50 m, v = 0,
a = – µg, g = 10 ms–2
Now, v2 = u2 + 2as
(0)2 = (10)2 + 2(–10µ)(50)
∴ µ = 0.1

37)

If applied force on the block is zero, then frictional force will be zero.

38) T1 = (2 + 3 + 4) × g N = 90 N
T3 = 4 × g N = 40 N

⇒9:4

39)

fL = 75N
µSN = 75

µs = = 0.38

40)

Kinetic friction is fk, = µkN where µk depends upon nature of surfaces in contact only.

41)

acceleration of system will be equal to acceleration of each block

42)
 44)

45)

46)

∵ There is no friction between feet of passenger and floor of bus so passenger will not move
back when seen from ground
So Assertion is false but reason is true.

47)

N = mg – F sin 45°

= 24.045

= 30.05

48)

Conceptual

49)

N = 100
fmax = μN = 40 N

50) By theory
CHEMISTRY

51) Extent of overlapping

where n = principal quantum number.

52)

53)

Expanded octet → H2SO4

Odd e– molecule → NO
Incomplete octet → BeH2
Complete octet → CH4

54) BCl3 has sp2 hybridization so it has 33% s-character and 66% p-character.

55)

56)

Subtractive combination is called -ve combination

Addition combinations are called +ve combination

57)

As per VSEPR theory in NCERT.

According to VSEPR theory, the order of repulsion is:
lone pair - lone pair > lone pair - bond pair > bond pair - bond pair.

58) N2H4
N2 N≡N
N2F2 F – N = N – F
 59) Bond energy order :

Bond energy Bond order

60)

(1) H2SO4

(2) H2CO3

(3) SO3

61)

62)

has one unpaired electron in antibonding molecular orbital.

63)

Bond order of He2 is zero.

64)

Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2 due to 2p-2p electrons repulsion.

[Correct order of bond strength among halogens]

65) Bond length

 66) as follows for N2

68)

In O2 two unpaired electrons are present in .

Magnetic behaviour depends on unpaired electrons O2 is paramagnetic as it contains unpaired
electrons.

69) is octahedral geometry. sp3d is trigonal bipyramidal geometry.

71)

Z axis perpendicular to xy plane.

72) N can not make 5 bonds.

73)

O2 → Bond order = 2
O2– → Bond order = 1.5

74)

SiF4 (sp3)

76)

σ bond formed.

77) II < III < I

O=O H–O–O–H
B.O. 2.0 1.50 1.0

78)

Oxygen → Valency = 2 Group number ⇒ VI–A

While in other element valency is equal to group number.
Na → Valency = 1 Group number ⇒ I–A
Al → Valency = 3 Group number ⇒ III–A
C → Valency = 4 Group number ⇒ IV–A

79) Covalent character ∝ Polarisation

 80)

does not exist.

C does not have vacant orbital.
⇒ AlF3 + 3F¯
⇒ BF3 + F¯
⇒ BeF2 + 2F¯

81)

Water molecule has following structure

Therefore, there are 4 pairs of electrons (2 lone pairs and 2 bond pairs) in the valence shell of O-
atom in water molecule.

82) Hydrogen bond

83) XeF2 ⇒ 2σ + 3 Lone pair ⇒ 5 sp3d

Electronic Geometry ⇒ Trigonal Bipyramidal shape ⇒ Linear
⇒ 2σ + 3 Lone pair ⇒ 5 sp3d
Electronic Geometry ⇒ Trigonal Bipyramidal shape ⇒ Linear

84) a = 1s2 → He (do not make ionic bond)

b = 1s22s22p2 → C (Make covalent bond)
c = 1s22s22p63s2 → Mg → Metal → make ionic bond
d = 1s22s22p6 → Ne → Inert gas → do not make ionic bond

85) Covalent character ∝ Charge of cation

86)

NCERT-XI, (Chemical bonding)

Dipole moment due to symmetry = 0 (non polar molecule)
bond is polar due to electronegativity difference.

87) Cl Atomic No - 17
Electronic configuration
 88) In C2 bond order will be 2 and it contain 2 π-bond.

89)

π* 2 Nodal plane

90)

As electronegativity of central atom decreases, bond angle decreases.

(Hybridisation and number of lone pair on central atom are same in all options).

91)

According to molecular orbital theory when 2 atomic orbitals combines, it forms 2 molecular
orbitals.

92) O2 ⇒ O2 molecule has two unpaired electrons according to molecular orbital theory.

93) For a stable diatomic molecule Nb > Na

94) As per M.O.T

95)

no. of e– 18 no unpaired e–

96)

Sulphur forms many compounds in which the octet rule is obeyed. For example, SCl2 has an octet of
electrons around it.

97) NCERT Pg. # 119

Due to bond formation along internuclear axis.

98)
18 electrons in Ag+ (Pseudo inert configuration).
AgCl is more covalent than NaCl because polarising power of Ag+ is greater than Na+ ion.
Covalent character ∝ Polarising power of cation.

99)

Central atom having four electron pairs will be of tetrahedral shape.

100)

As all 4F atoms in square shape are little bent because (lone pair–bond pair) repulsion is more than
(bond pair-bond pair) repulsion

BOTANY

101) Ncert page 11.

102) Ncert page 12.

103) Ncert page 13.

104) Ncert page 13.

105) Ncert page 14.

106) Ncert page 14.

107) Ncert page 13.

108) Ncert page 13.

109) Ncert page 11 and 13.

110) Ncert page 18.

111) Ncert page 14 and 20.

112) Ncert page 15.

113) Ncert page 16.

114) Ncert page 14.

115) Ncert page 14.

116) Ncert page 14.

117) Ncert page 15.

118) Ncert page 16.

119) Ncert page 16 and 18.

120) Ncert page 18.

121) Ncert page 17.

122) Ncert page 16.

123) Ncert page 17.

124) Ncert page 17.

125) Ncert page 18.

126) Ncert page 18.

127) Ncert page 18.

128) Ncert page 17.

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130) Ncert page 14.

131) Ncert page 20.

132) Ncert page 18.

133) Ncert page 21.

134) Ncert page 21.

135) Ncert page 20.

136) Ncert page 15.

137) Ncert page 20.

138) Ncert page 18.

139) Ncert page 16 to 18.

140) Ncert page 11.

141) Ncert page 10.

142) Ncert page 18.

143) Ncert page 20.

144) Ncert page 12 and 13.

145) Ncert page 15.

146) Ncert page 17.

147) Ncert page 16.

148) Ncert page 16.

149) Ncert page 17.

 150) Allen module.

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151) Old Ncert page 111.

152) Ncert page 111.

153) Ncert page 111.

154) Ncert page 112.

155) Ncert page 112.

156) Ncert page 112.

158) Ncert page 112.

159) Ncert page 112.

161) Ncert page 113.

162) Ncert page 112.

164) Ncert page 113.

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166) Ncert page 113.

167) Ncert page 113.

168) Ncert page 113.

169) Ncert page 114.

170) Ncert page 114.

171) Ncert page 114.

172) Ncert page 114.

173) Ncert page 114.

174) Ncert page 115.

176) Ncert page 115.

177) Ncert page 114.

178) Ncert page 115.

179) Ncert page 115.

180) Ncert page 115.

181) Ncert page 116.

182) Ncert page 116.

183) Ncert page 116.

184) Ncert page 117.

185) Ncert page 117.

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187) Ncert page 118.

188) Ncert page 118.

189) Ncert page 117.

190) Ncert page 119.

191) Ncert page 119.

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199) Ncert page 119.

200) Ncert page 119.