25-09-2024

6201CMD30300124008-PH1&2 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

1) If force = makes a displacement of , work done by the force is :

(1) 10 unit
(2) 122 unit
(3) unit
(4) 20 unit

2) Which is Incorrect for conservative force :

(1) Work is recoverable

(2) Total mechanical energy remains constant
(3) Work depends on path
(4) Work depends only on initial & final positions

3) An engine exerts a force and moves with velocity . The

power of the engine (in watt) is :

(1) 45
(2) 75
(3) 20
(4) 10

4) The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x as shown in the graph.

The force acting on the particle is zero at

(1) C
(2) B
(3) B and C
(4) A and D.

5) The potential energy of a body is given by U = A – Bx2 (where x is the displacement). The
magnitude of force acting on the particle is
(1) constant
(2) proportional to x
(3) proportional to x2
(4) proportional to 1/x

6) Assertion :- A work done by friction is always negative.

Reason :- If frictional force acts on a body its K.E. may decrease.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false and reason is true

7) A gravitational field is present in a region and a mass is shifted from A to B through different
paths as shown. If W1, W2 and W3 represent the work done by the gravitational force along the

respective paths, then :

(1) W1 = W2 = W3
(2) W1 > W2 > W3
(3) W1 > W3 > W2
(4) W1 < W2 < W3

8)

Unit of energy is

(1) kWh
(2) Joule
(3) Electron volt
(4) All of these

9) Assertion : Work done by friction in moving a body in any round trip is zero.
Reason : Friction is a non conservative force.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but the reason is true.

10) A position dependent force F = 7 – 2x + 3x2 newton acts on small body of mass 2 kg and
displaces it from x = 0 to x = 5m. The work done in joules is
(1) 70
(2) 270
(3) 35
(4) 135

11) Force F on a particle moving in a straight line varies with distance d as shown in the figure. The
work done on the particle during its displacement from x = 3 m to 12 m :

(1) 13 J
(2) 18 J
(3) 21 J
(4) 26 J

12) Work done by normal reaction force during it's motion on an inclined plane is ________.

(1) zero
(2) positive
(3) Negative
(4) All of these

13) Assertion : A person walking on a horizontal road with a load on his head does no work on the
load.
Reason : No work is said to be done, if directions of force and displacement of load are
perpendicular to each other.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

14)

If momentum for a body is increased by 100%, the kinetic energy will increase by :-

(1) 100%
(2) 200%
(3) 300%
(4) 400%
15) Work-energy theorem is valid in the presence of-

(1) All types of forces

(2) Internal force only
(3) Conservative forces only
(4) Non-conservative forces only

16) A body of mass 2 kg under a force which causes displacement in it given x = t2 + 4t, metres
where t is time. The work done by the force in first 2 seconds is :

(1) 12 J
(2) 24 J
(3) 48 J
(4) 64 J

17)

Two springs of spring constants 1500 N/m and 3000 N/m respectively are stretched with the same
force. They will have potential energies in the ratio

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

18) The work done by the conservative forces on a system equals to

(1) change in total energy

(2) decrease in kinetic energy
(3) decrease in potential energy
(4) increase in potential energy

19) A brick has 3 sides a, b, c {a > b > c}. The brick can be kept on ground on any face. The work
required to be done to move slowly from minimum potential energy situation to maximum potential

energy situation of brick is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
20) The relation between conservative force and potential energy U is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) The work done against gravity in taking 10 kg mass at 1m height in 1s will be:-

(1) 49 J
(2) 98 J
(3) 196 J
(4) None of these

22) A weight lifter lifts a weight 300 kg. from ground to a height of 2 m. in 3 sec. Average power
developed by him-

(1) 2210 watt

(2) 8820 watt
(3) zero watt
(4) 1960 watt

23) A constant force is acting on a body of mass m moving with constant velocity as shown in the

figure. The power P exerted is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg varies with time as W. Here t is in second. If
velocity of particle at t = 0 is v = 0. The velocity of particle at time t = 2 s will be -

(1) 1m/s
(2) 4m/s
(3) 2 m/s
(4)

25) Calculate power generated by tension in the string in first 2 seconds of motion:-

(1) 250 W
(2) 500 W
(3) 750 W
(4) 1000 W

26) A particle of mass 1 kg is thrown as shown in figure. At topmost point, instantaneous power by

gravitational force is :

(1) zero
(2) 50 W
(3) 100 W
(4)

27)

A body of mass 5 kg is moving in a circle of radius 1 m with an angular velocity of 2 radian/sec. The
centripetal force is :-

(1) 10 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 30 N
(4) 40 N

28) The angular velocity of a wheel is 70 rad/s. If the radius of the wheel is 0.5 m, then linear
velocity of the wheel is :-

(1) 70 m/s
(2) 35 m/s
(3) 30 m/s
(4) 20 m/s

29) A particle revolves round a circular path with a constant speed which of the following option
is/are correct?
(i) The velocity of the particle is along the tangent.
(ii) The acceleration of the particle is always towards centre.
(iii) The magnitude of acceleration is constant.
(iv) The work done by the centripetal force is always zero.

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(4) All options are correct

30) In uniform circular motion :-

(1) Both velocity and acceleration are constant.

(2) Velocity is constant but acceleration changes.
(3) Both velocity and acceleration changes.
(4) Both acceleration & speed are constant.

31) The angular velocity of a particle is given by ω = 2t – 6t2 + 2 (where 't' is in seconds) Find the
instant when its angular acceleration becomes zero. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Two moving particles P & Q are 10 m apart at any instant. Velocity of P is 8 m/s and that of Q is
6 m/s at 30° angle with the line joining P & Q. Calculate the angular velocity of P w.r.t. Q

(1) 0.5 rad/s

(2) 0.7 rad/s
(3) 0.3 rad/s
(4) 1 rad/s

33)

The acceleration of an object moving with speed v in a circle of radius r is :-

(1)
towards the centre

(2)
away from the centre

(3)
away from the centre

(4)
towards the centre

34) A particle performing circular motion of radius 1 m. Its speed is v = 2t. What will be the
magnitude of its centripetal acceleration at t = 1s.

(1) 4 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 3 m/s2
(4) 9 m/s2

35) A cyclist riding the bicycle at a optimum speed of m/sec takes a turn around a circular
2
road of radius m. Given g = 9.8 m/s . What is the banking angle of circular path ?

(1) 30°
(2) 90°
(3) 45°
(4) 60°

SECTION - B

1) Assertion : When the force acting on a particle is perpendicular to velocity then instantaneous
power is zero.
Reason : Power is defined as scalar product of force and velocity.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

2) Three particles of masses m, 2m, 3m are performing circular motion as shown in figure. Find
maximum breaking possibility of string.
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) equal possibility

3) A block is rotating in contact with vertical wall (rotor) as shown. Find the minimum value of ω so

that the block does not slide down.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A car of mass 1000 kg negotiates a banked curve of radius 90 m on a frictionless road. If the
banking angle is 45°, the speed of the car is :

(1) 5 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 30 m/s

5) Radius of the curved road on national highway is R. Width of the road is b. The outer edge of the
road is raised by h with respect to inner edge so that a car with velocity v can pass safely over it.
The value of h is :–
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A car of mass m is moving on a level circular track of radius R. If represents the static friction
between the road and tyres of the car, the maximum speed of the car in circular motion is given by :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle θ. The coefficient of
friction between the tyres of the car and the road is µs. The minimum safe velocity on this road is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Kinetic energy of a system can be increased without applying external force on the
system.
Reason (R) : If external forces are absent then work done by internal forces is equal to change in
kinetic energy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

9) The variation of potential energy U of a system is shown in figure. The force acting on the system
is best represented by :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A variable force, given by the 2-D vector , acts on a particle. The force is in
newton and x is in metre. What is the change in the kinetic energy of the particle as it moves from
the point with coordinates (2m, 3m) to (3m, 0m)?

(1) –7 J
(2) Zero
(3) +7 J
(4) +19 J

11) A mass of 2 kg moving with a speed of 10m/sec on a horizontal smooth surface compresses a

spring of spring constant K = The maximum compression of spring : -

(1) 2m
(2) 1.5m
(3) 14m
(4) 6m

12) A block of mass m is kept in an elevator which starts moving downwards with an acceleration a0
as shown in figure. The block is observed by two observers A and B for a time interval t0. Match

column I with column II:-

Column I Column II

(A) For observer B work done by gravity is (p) Zero

(B) For observer B work done by normal reaction (N) is (q)

(C) For observer A work done by gravity is (r)

(D) For observer B total work done on the block is (s)

(1) A→q, B→r, C→p, D→s

(2) A→s, B→r, C→q, D→p
(3) A→s, B→r, C→p, D→q
(4) A→p, B→q, C→r, D→s

13) Statement -1 : Workdone by conservative force along closed path is zero.

Statement -2 : When an object is moved along a closed path its displacement is zero.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is correct explanation for statement-1
Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true and statement-2 is NOT the correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

14) The relationship between the force 'F' and position 'x' of a body is as shown in figure.

Match the column I with column II and mark correct choice

from the codes given below:
 Column –I Column –II

work done from

(A) (p) 5
x = 0 to x = 2

work done from

(B) (q) 10
x = 0 to x = 4

work done from

(C) (r) 15
x = 0 to x = 5

work done from

(D) (s) 20
x = 2 to x = 5
(1) A → p, B → q, C → r, D → s
(2) A → q, B → p, C → s, D → r
(3) A → q, B → q, C → s, D → p
(4) A → r, B → r, C → s, D → p

15) Three identical particles are joined together by a thread as shown. All the three particles are
moving in a horizontal plane. If the velocity of the outermost particle is V0, then the ratio of tensions

in the three sections of the string is :-

(1) 3 : 5 : 6
(2) 3 : 4 : 5
(3) 6 : 9 : 10
(4) 7 : 6 : 11

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

1) A closed rigid container at 300 K contains N2 gas at 10 atm pressure and this container can bear
maximum 15 atm pressure. At what temperature the container will burst ?

(1) 350 K
(2) 400 K
(3) 450 K
(4) 425 K

2)

8.2 L of an ideal gas weights 9.0 g at 300 K and 1 atm pressure. The molecular mass of gas is

(1) 9
(2) 27
(3) 54
(4) 81
3)

I, II, and III are three isotherms for a gas respectively, at T1, T2 and T3. Temperature will be in order

(1) T1 = T2 = T3
(2) T1 < T2 < T3
(3) T1 > T2 > T3
(4) T1 > T2 = T3

4) Relation between P1, P2 & P3

(1) P1 > P2 > P3

(2) P1 = P2 = P3
(3) P1 < P2 < P3
(4) None

5) Assertion: For a certain fixed amount of gas, the product PV is always constant.
Reason: PV depends only upon the temperature.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Assertion (A): Three states of matter are the result of balance between intermolecular forces
and thermal energy of the molecules.
Reason (R): Intermolecular forces tend to keep the molecules together but thermal energy of
molecules tends to keep them apart.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
7) Statement-1: At constant pressure, the volume of a given mass of a gas is inversely proportional
to its absolute temperature.
Statement-2: At absolute zero, the volume on an ideal gas reduces to zero.

(1) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true, statement-2 is a correct explanation.

Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is true, statetement-2 is not a correct explanation for
(2)
statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.

8) A certain mass of a gas occupies a volume of 2 litres at STP. Keeping the pressure constant at
what temperature would the gas occupy a volume of 4 litres -

(1) 546ºC
(2) 273ºC
(3) 100ºC
(4) 50ºC

9) “Equal volumes of all gases at the same temperature and pressure contain equal number of
molecules”. This statement is a direct consequence of :

(1) Avogadro’s law

(2) Charle’s law
(3) Ideal gas equation
(4) Law of partial pressures

10) A gas of volume 100 cc is kept in a vessel at pressure 104 Pa maintained at temperature 24oC. If
now the pressure is increased to 105 Pa, keeping the temperature constant, then the volume of the
gas becomes

(1) 10 cc
(2) 100 cc
(3) 1 cc
(4) 1000 cc

11) In the ideal gas equation, the gas constant R has the dimensions of

(1) mole-atm K–1

(2) Litre mole
(3) Litre-atm K–1 mole–1
(4) erg K–1

12) The correct gas equation is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The pressure and temperature of 4dm3 of carbon dioxide gas are doubled. Then the volume of
carbon dioxide gas would be

(1) 2dm3
(2) 3dm3
(3) 4dm3
(4) 8dm3

14) In water saturated air, the mole fraction of water vapour is 0.02. If the total pressure of the
saturated air is 1.2 atm, the partial pressure of dry air is :-

(1) 1.18 atm

(2) 1.76 atm
(3) 1.176 atm
(4) 0.98 atm

15) When the temperature is raised through 1°C the volume is increased by th times of the
original volume (pressure constant). This is

(1) Boyle's law

(2) Charles' law
(3) Avogadro law
(4) Graham's law

16) Representing P, V and T as pressure, volume and temperature, which of the following is the
correct representation of Boyle’s law ?

(1)
(P constant)

(2)
(T constant)
(3) PV = RT
(4) PV = nRT

17) Which of the following exhibits the weakest intermolecular force?

(1)
(2)
(3) He
(4)

18) Which pair of gases has the same average rate of diffusion at 25°C ?

(1) He and Ne
(2) N2 and O2
(3) N2O and CO2
(4) NH3 and HCI

19) What is the ratio of rate of diffusion of gas A and B. The molecular mass of A is 11 and molecular
mass of B is 44 :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) If the four tubes of a car are filled to the same pressure with N2, O2, H2 and CO2 separately then
which one will be filled first :

(1) N2
(2) O2
(3) H2
(4) CO2

21) A, B and C are ideal gases. Their molecular weights are 2, 4 and 28 respectively. The rate of
diffusion of these gases follow the order :

(1) C > A > B

(2) C > B > A
(3) A = B = C
(4) A > B > C

22) The oxidation number of sulphur in S8, S2F2, H2S and H2SO4 respectively are :–

(1) 0, +1, –2 and +6

(2) +2, 0, +2 and +6
(3) 0, +1, +2 and +4
(4) –2, 0, +2 and +6

23) The oxidation number of phosphorus in Ba(H2PO2)2 is :-

(1) +3
(2) +2
(3) +1
(4) –1

24) Oxidation state of Fe in Fe3O4 is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Which one is incorrect statement :

(1) Fluorine always shows –1 oxidation state in combined state.

(2) Hydrogen always shows +1 oxidation state in combined state.
(3) Sodium always shows +1 oxidation state in combined state.
(4) Calcium always shows +2 oxidation state in combined state.

26) " " oxidation state of nitrogen will be obtained in case of

(1) NH3
(2) N3H
(3) HNO3
(4) N2H4

27) What is the average oxidation number of sulphur in Na2S4O6 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Two oxidation states for chlorine are found in the compound :

(1) CaOCl2
(2) KCl
(3) KClO3
(4) Cl2O7

29) Iodine shows the highest oxidation state in the compound :–

(1) KI
(2) KI3
(3) IF5
(4) KIO4

30) The equivalent weight of MnSO4 is half of its molecular weight when it is converted to :-

(1) Mn2O3
(2) MnO2
–
(3) MnO4
–2
(4) MnO4

31) In the following change,

3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + 4H2.
If the atomic weight of iron is 56, then its equivalent weight will be :-

(1) 42
(2) 21
(3) 63
(4) 84

32) The oxidation number of nitrogen in NH3 ?

(1) –3
(2) +3
(3) –1
(4) +1

33)

Equivalent weight of NH3 in the change

(1)

(2) 17

(3)

(4)

34) H2S + H2O2 → S + H2O

In above reaction which is oxidising agent.

(1) H2S
(2) H2O2
(3) both
(4) None

35) What will be the oxidation number of Cl in NaClO3

(1) 6
(2) 5
(3) 4
(4) 2

SECTION - B

1) In which of the following reactions, H2O2 is acting as a reducing agent ?

(1) SO2 + H2O2 → H2SO4

(2) 2KI + H2O2 → 2KOH + I2
(3) PbS + 4H2O2 → PbSO4 + 4H2O
(4) Ag2O + H2O2 → 2Ag + H2O + O2

2) One mole of KMnO4 when reduced to Mn+2 requires :-

(1) NA electrons
(2) 5 NA electrons
(3) 2 NA electrons
(4) 3 NA electrons

3) Which of the following is a redox reaction?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) A compound contains three elements A, B, C with oxidation state +6, –1, –2 respectively. Then
compound may be:

(1) ABC
(2) AB2C
(3) AB4C2
(4) AB2C2

5) Assertion : A substance which get reduced can act as an oxidising agent

Reason : In the reaction, 3ClO– ClO3– + 2Cl–, Cl atom is oxidised as well as reduced

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is correct but Reason is not correct
(3) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

6) In which of the following compounds, nitrogen exhibits highest oxidation state ?

(1) N3H
(2) NH2OH
(3) N2H4
(4) NH3

7) The equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7 when it is converted to Cr3+ will be equal to (M = molar mass)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Which of the following reactions is not redox type

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) What is the change in oxidation number of carbon in the following reaction ?

CH4(g) + 4Cl2(g) → CCl4(l) + 4HCl(g)

(1) 0 to –4
(2) +4 to +4
(3) 0 to +4
(4) –4 to +4

10) Which of the following represent a redox reaction ?

(1) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O

(2) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl
(3) CuSO4 + 2H2O → Cu(OH)2 + H2SO4
(4) Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

11) In the conversion of Br2 to the oxidation state of Bromine changes from:

(1) 0 to 5
(2) 1 to 5
(3)
(4) 2 to 5

12) Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R).
Assertion:- The average oxidation no. of sulphur in Na2S4O6 is 2.5.
Reason:- Two S-atoms are not directly linked with O-atoms.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

13) Oxidation number of Fe in Fe0.94 O is

(1) 200

(2)

(3)

(4) 100

14) Statement-I: Addition of oxygen is known as oxidation.

Statement-II: Loss of electron is known as oxidation.

(1) Only Statement-I is correct

(2) Only Statement-II is correct
(3) Both the Statements are true
(4) Both the Statements are false

15) The value of n in the following reaction is :– NO2– + H2O → NO3– + 2H+ + ne–

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 5

BOTANY
 SECTION - A

1) The first natural classification of plants was given by

(1) Linnaeus
(2) Bentham & Hooker
(3) Aristotle
(4) Eichler

2) Plant body with frond, stipe and holdfast is found in:

(1) Polysiphonia
(2) Chara
(3) Spirulina
(4) Laminaria

3) The tallest gymnosperm is

(1) Pinus
(2) Cedrus
(3) Sequoia
(4) Abies

4) Origin of seed habit can be traced in plants like

(1) Marchantia
(2) Selaginella
(3) Dryopteris
(4) Polysiphonia

5) Rhizoids of mosses are

(1) Unicellular & unbranched

(2) Multicellular & branched
(3) Unicellular & branched
(4) Multicellular & unbranched

6) The most common method of asexual reproduction in algae involves formation of

(1) Conidia
(2) Aplanospores
(3) Zoospores
(4) Akinete

7) Gymnosperms are referred to as naked seeded plants because

(1) Ovule is absent
(2) Ovaries are absent
(3) Seed coat is absent
(4) The embryo is exposed

8) Which of the following pteridophytes bear strobili or cones?

(1) Equisetum
(2) Selaginella
(3) Dryopteris
(4) Both (1) and (2)

9) Which of the following is correct regarding Cycas?

(1) The same sporophyll bears microsporangia and ovules

(2) A single cone consists of both mega and microsporophylls
(3) Male strobilus and megasporophylls occur on the same plant
(4) Male strobilus and megasporophylls occur on separate plants

10) In which of these plants the male & female gametophyte do not have an independent free living
existence.

(1) Marchantia
(2) Adiantum
(3) Polytrichum
(4) Pinus

11) Gemmae are :

(1) Green, multicellular, asexual buds

(2) Non green, multicellular, asexual buds
(3) Non green, unicellular, asexual buds
(4) Green, multicellular, sexual buds

12) Match column I with column II & select the correct option:

Column I Column II

(A) Psilopsida (i) Pteris

(B) Lycopsida (ii) Equisetum

(C) Sphenopsida (iii) Lycopodium

(D) Pteropsida (iv) Psilotum

(1) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(2) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
(3) A - i, B - ii, C - iv, D - iii
(4) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii

13) The first organism to colonise rocks during the process of ecological succession is:

(1) Fungi and mosses

(2) Mosses and algae
(3) Lichens and mosses
(4) Bryophytes and pteridophytes

14) Coralloid root of Cycas has:

(1) Green algae

(2) Mycorrhizal fungi
(3) Blue-green algae
(4) Brown algae

15) Needle - like leaves in conifers is a type of:

(1) Xerophytic adaptation

(2) Hydrophytic adaptation
(3) Mesophytic adaptation
(4) Halophytic adaptation

16) At least 50% of CO2, fixation on Earth is carried out by

(1) Algae
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Gymnosperms
(4) Angiosperms

17)

Which of the following is known as Amphibians of plant kingdom.

(1) Algae
(2) Bryophytes
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) Gymnosperms

18) In green algae the outer & inner layer of cell wall is composed of________ &________ respectively.

(1) Cellulose, Hemicellulose

(2) Cellulose, pectin
(3) Pectose, cellulose
(4) Lignin, cellulose

19) Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. characters of Algae.

(1) Are mostly aquatic
(2) Shows variation in size
(3) Zygote undergoes mitosis to give rise to embryo
(4) Plant body is thallus

20) Read the following statements w.r.t. bryophytes.

(a) They are homosporous.
(b) They need water for sexual reproduction.
(c) In mosses spores germinate to form a filamentous gametophyte.
(d) The sporophyte of liverworts is more elaborate than mosses.
Select the correct options:

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) All except c
(4) a and b only

21) Which of the following algae is used as food supplement by space travellers?

(1) Spirogyra
(2) Laminaria
(3) Porphyra
(4) Chlorella

22) Agar - Agar is obtained from

(1) Chondrus
(2) Laminaria
(3) Gracilaria
(4) Fucus

23) Pear shaped gametes with 2 laterally attached flagella are found in

(1) Polysiphonia
(2) Ulothrix
(3) Fucus
(4) Volvox

24) Which of the following algae lacks any motile stages in its life cycle?

(1) Green algae

(2) Brown algae
(3) Red algae
(4) Both (1) and (2)

25) Statement A : In heterosporous pteridophytes development of zygote into young embryo takes
place within the female gametophyte.
Statement B : Heterospory is essential for the development of seed habit in plants.

(1) Only Statement A is correct

(2) Only Statement B is correct
(3) Both Statement A and Statement B are correct
(4) Both Statement A and Statement B are incorrect

26) In Mosses creeping, green, branched and frequently filamentous stage is called :-

(1) Protonema
(2) Rhizome
(3) Rhizophore
(4) All of these

27) Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts (a, b, c, d)
correctly identified.

(1) a - Antheridiophore, b - Male thallus, c -Globule, d - Roots

(2) a- Archegoniophore, b - Female thallus, c -Gemma cup, d - Rhizoids
(3) a- Archegoniophore, b - Female thallus, c -Bud, d - Foot
(4) a- Seta, b - Sporophyte, c - Protonema, d –Rhizoids

28) In the diagram given below, some of the algae have been labelled as 'A', 'B', 'C', 'D' and 'E".
These algae are respectively identified as

(1) Dictyota, Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Fucus and Laminaria

(2) Porphyra, Dictyota, Laminaria, Fucus and Polysiphonia
(3) Dictyota, Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Laminaria and Fucus
(4) Fucus, Porphyra, Dictyota, Polysiphonia and Laminaria

29) Find the odd one with respect to ploidy?

(1) Spore
(2) Sporophyte
(3) Archegonium
(4) Antheridium

30) Which of the following is responsible for peat formation?

(1) Marchantia
(2) Riccia
(3) Funaria
(4) Sphagnum

31) Which of the following plants show independent alternation of generation?

(1) Bryophyte
(2) Pteridophyte
(3) Gymnosperm
(4) Angiosperm

32) How many among the following are diploid structures of gymnosperms

Archegonia, sporophyte, megaspore, zygote, microspore mother cells,

embryo, female gametophyte.
(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 4
(4) 6

33) In bryopytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires

(1) Water
(2) Wind
(3) Insects
(4) Birds

34) Floridean starch is the reserve food in

(1) Volvox
(2) Chara
(3) Polysiphonia
(4) Laminaria
35)

In pteridophytes, reduction division occurs when:-

(1) Prothallus is formed

(2) Spores are formed
(3) Sex organs are formed
(4) Gametes are formed

SECTION - B

1) The gymnosperms resemble angiosperms in having

(1) Cones
(2) Ovary
(3) Seed
(4) Fruit

2) Which of the following set of plants are heterosporous ?

(1) Selaginella, Salvinia

(2) Lycopodium, Selaginella
(3) Salvinia, Equisetum
(4) Equisetum, Marsilea

3) Deepest algae in sea are:-

(1) Red algae

(2) Brown algae
(3) Green algae
(4) Golden algae

4) Funaria and Marchantia differ from each other because Funaria possesses:

(1) Gemma cup

(2) Capsule
(3) Unicellular & unbranched rhizoids
(4) Protonema

5) Match the following:

List-I List-II

(A) Female gamete in

(i) Antheridium
bryophyte

(B) Male gamete in

(ii) Antherozoids
bryophyte
 (C) Female sex organ
(iii) Egg
in bryophytes

(D) Male sex organ in

(iv) Archegonium
bryophytes
(1) A-(iii); B-(iv), C-(ii); D–(i)
(2) A-(iii); B-(ii), C-(iv); D–(i)
(3) A-(i); B-(iii), C-(ii); D–(iv)
(4) A-(iv); B-(iii), C-(ii); D–(i)

6) Gymnosperm endosperm is:-

(1) Triploid
(2) Diploid
(3) Haploid
(4) Tetraploid

7) Read the following statements (a - e) and answer the question which follows them.
(a) In liverworts, mosses and ferns gametophytes are free living.
(b) Gymnosperms and some ferns are homosporous.
(c) Sexual reproduction in Fucus, Volvox and Albugo is isogamous.
(d) The sporophyte in mosses is more elaborate than that in liverworts.
(e) Both, Pinus and Marchantia are monoecious.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three

8) Branched stem is found in

(1) Cycas and Pinus

(2) Cycas and Cedrus
(3) Pinus and Cedrus
(4) Cycas only

9) Which of the following is a unicellular?

(1) Pinus
(2) Selaginella
(3) Chlamydomonas
(4) Dryopteris

10) Isogamous condition with non flagellated gametes is found in

(1) Fucus
(2) Chlamydomonas
(3) Spirogyra
(4) Volvox

11) Archegonia are not found in

(1) Bryophyta
(2) Pteridophyta
(3) Gymnospermae
(4) Angiospermae

12)

Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from:

(1) Phaeophyceae
(2) Chlorophyceae
(3) Pheophyceae and Rhodophyceae
(4) Rhodophyceae only

13) Examine the figure A, B, C and D. In which one of the four options all the items A, B, C and D are
correct?

(1) A-Equisetum, B-Ginkgo, C-Selaginella, D-Lycopodium

(2) A-Selaginella, B-Equisetum, C-Salvinia, D-Ginkgo
(3) A-Funaria, B-Adiantum, C-Salvinia, D-Riccia
(4) A-Chara, B-Marchantia, C-Fucus, D-Pinus
14) Prothallus of Pteridophytes :

(1) Multicellular, free- living, large, having root, stem, leaves

(2) Inconspicuous, small, multicellular, free-living, Photosynthetic, thalloid
(3) Produce spores from sporangia
(4) Conspicuous, Large, Non-Photosynthetic, thalloid

15) In which of the following algae, sexual reproduction is accompanied by complex post fertilization
developments?

(1) Chlorophyceae
(2) Phaeophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae
(4) Cyanophyceae

ZOOLOGY

SECTION - A

1) Reducing sugars are those which can reduce Cu+2 ions to Cu+ state. On that basis which of the
following can be considered as a non-reducing sugar ?

(1) Sucrose
(2) Maltose
(3) Glucose
(4) Fructose

2)

Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) Lipid are strictly biomacromolecule

(2) Lipid has <1000 daltons molecular weight
(3) Proteins are heteropolymer
(4) Both 2 & 3

3) Paper from plant pulp and cotton fibre is __________ in nature

(1) Glycogen
(2) Protein
(3) Cellulose
(4) Lipid

4) Which of the following is not a similarity between starch and cellulose?

(1) They are homopolysaccharides

(2) They are found mainly in plants
(3) They form helical structure and hold I2
(4) They have glycosidic bonds

5)

Which element in human body is present twice the amount of magnesium?

(1) H
(2) S
(3) Na
(4) O

6) A heteropolysaccharide is :-

(1) Glycogen
(2) Heparin
(3) Cellulose
(4) Chitin

7) Which of the following set is correctly matched ?

(1) Lysine, Thiamine - Amino acids

(2) Starch, Glycogen - Storage polysaccharides
(3) Chitin, Insulin - Structural polysaccharides
(4) Maltose, Glucose - Monosaccharides

8) One of the following is the correct sequence of carbohydrates in the order of increasing
complexity of chemical structure

(1) Sucrose, Starch, Oligosaccharide, Maltose, Triose

(2) Triose, Maltose, Glucose, Oligosaccharide, Starch
(3) Triose, Glucose, Maltose, Oligosaccharide, Starch
(4) Oligosaccharide, Triose, Starch, Sucrose, Maltose

9) Which one of the following has ketone sugar associated with them:

(1) Glucose
(2) Sucrose
(3) Mannose
(4) Galactose

10) Assertion : The right end of the glycogen molecule in called the reducing end and the left end is
non-reducing end.
Reason : Glycogen is a heteropolymer.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) The two functíonal groups characteristic of sugars are

(1) Hydroxyl and methyl

(2) Carbonyl and methyl
(3) Carbonyl and phosphate
(4) Carbonyl and hydroxyl

12) Which of the following is a polysaccharide ?

(1) Fructose
(2) Galactose
(3) Inulin
(4) Lactose

13)

Find the odd one w r.t polymeric substances

(1) Rubber
(2) Curcumin
(3) Gums
(4) Cellulose

14) Most abundant and least abundant element in earth crust are respectively -

(1) O and Si
(2) Si and O
(3) S and N
(4) O and N

15) Which is a micromolecule ?

(1) Polysaccharide
(2) Nucleic acid
(3) Protein
(4) Monosaccharides

16) All molecules in the insoluble fraction are polymeric substances, except :-

(1) Cellulose
(2) DNA
(3) Proteins
(4) Lipids

17) Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) All the elements present in a sample of earth's crust are also present in a sample of living tissue
The relative abundance of carbon and hydrogen with respect to other elements is higher in any
(2)
living organism than in earth's crust
(3) The percentage weight of nitrogen in earth's crust is very high in comparison to human body
(4) The percentage weight of silicon in earth's crust is very high in comparison to human body

18) Main source of energy in Animal Body are-

(1) Proteins
(2) Carbohydrates
(3) Nucleic acids
(4) Fats

19) Given below are list of some biomolecules

(a) Keratin (b) Nucleic acids
(c) Insulin (d) Glucose
(e) Glycine
How many of them are macromolecules and are present in retentate during analysis of biomolecules
?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

20) Which of the following elements' relative abundance is higher in any living organism than in
earth's crust with respect to other elements?

(1) Sodium and Hydrogen

(2) Calcium and oxygen
(3) Carbon and Hydrogen
(4) Silicon and Nitrogen

21) Choose the element which is negligible in living matter.

(1) Si
(2) Mg
(3) Ca
(4) S

22) All the carbon compounds that we get from living tissues can be called

(1) Bioproducts
(2) Biomolecules
(3) Biosensors
(4) Biomarkers

23) Which of the following elements is present in ash?

(1) Amino acids

(2) Simple sugars
(3) Lipids
(4) Calcium

24) Statement - I: Compounds found in the acid soluble pool have molecular weights ranging from
8 to around 1800 daltons approximately.
Statement - II: All the compounds found in acid insoluble fraction including lipids have molecular
weights in the range of ten thousand daltons and above

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

25) A living tissue such as liver is homogenised with trichloro-acetic acid and filtered. The retentate
fraction obtained will contain

(1) Glucose
(2) Proteins
(3) Sulphate
(4) Both (1) & (3)

26) Find out the correct match from the following table:-

% weight of % weight of
Element
earth crust Human body

(1) Hydrogen 0.14 18.5

(2) Carbon 0.03 18.5

(3) Oxygen 46.6 65.0

(4) Nitrogen 3.3 2.8

(1) (1) and (4)
(2) (2) and (3)
(3) (1) and (2)
(4) (2) and (4)

27)

In protein molecule _________ helix are observed

(1) Left handed
(2) Right handed
(3) Linear
(4) Spiral

28) Which one is not a secondary metabolite?

(1) Ricin
(2) Abrin
(3) Morphine
(4) Proteins

29) Choose the correct option.

(1) Pigments – Carotenoids, anthocyanins

(2) Alkaloids – Monoterpenes
(3) Toxins – Morphine
(4) Polymeric substances – Ricin

30) Which substance is not a carbohydrate ?

(1) Starch
(2) Glycogen
(3) Wax
(4) Glucose

31) Carbohydrates are stored in mammals as:

(1) Glucose in liver

(2) Glycogen in muscles and spleen
(3) Lactic acid in muscles
(4) Glycogen in liver and muscles

32)

Which of the following is/are functions of proteins

(1) Hormone
(2) Enzyme
(3) Sensory reception
(4) All of the above

33) Choose the mismatch w.r.t average composition of cells

(1) Protein - 10-15%

(2) Lipids - 3%
(3) Nucleic acids - 5-7%
(4) Water - 70-90%

34) Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. analysis of chemical composition

(1) Oxygen is the most abundant element in the human body.

(2) All the elements present in a sample of earth's crust are also present in a sample of living tissue.
(3) 'Ash' analysis gives an idea about organic constituents of living tissue.
Analytical techniques give an idea about molecular formula & probable structure of the
(4)
compound

35) The least abundant chemical component in living organisms is

(1) Lipids
(2) Ions
(3) Nucleic acids
(4) Protein

SECTION - B

1) Animal starch is :-

(1) Glycogen
(2) Inulin
(3) Cellulose
(4) Chitin

2)
The correct names of above amino acids are :-

AA1 AA2 AA3

(1) Glycine Serine Alanine
(2) Alanine Glycine Serine
(3) Serine Glycine Alanine
(4) Serine Alanine Glycine
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Assertion: Last amino acid of any protein is known as C-terminal amino acid
Reason: Last amino acid of any protein possess free –COOH group

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false

4) Different types of amino acids are present based on the nature of

(1) Hydrogen
(2) Carboxyl group
(3) Amino group
(4) R group

5) Aromatic amino acids are

(a) Tyrosine
(b) Phenyl alanine
(c) Tryptophan

(1) a & b
(2) b & c
(3) c & a
(4) a, b & c

6) Which of the following amino acid is essential-

(1) Alanine
(2) Glycine
(3) Tryptophan
(4) Tyrosine

7) Statements-A: A protein is a heteropolymer.

Statements-B: It is made up of different types of amino acids.

(1) If both statements A and B are true and statement B is the correct explanation of statement A.
If both statements A and B are true but statement B is not the correct explanation of statement
(2)
A.
(3) If statement A is true but statement B is false.
(4) If both statements A and B are false statements.
8)

Exoskeleton of arthropods have a complex polysaccharide, called :-

(1) Cellulose
(2) Chitin
(3) Inulin
(4) Glycogen

9)

Find the incorrect statement

(1) Protein is a heteropolymer and not a homopolymer

(2) Dietary proteins are non essential aminoacids
(3) Some hormones are proteins
(4) Collagen is the most abundant animal protein

10) Amino acid which is not an example of essential amino acid.

(1) Threonine
(2) Valine
(3) Tryptophan
(4) Glycine

11) A dehydration reaction links two glucose molecules to produce maltose. If the formula for
glucose is C6H12O6 then what is the formula for maltose?

(1) C12H24O12
(2) C12H22O11
(3) C12H24O11
(4) C12H20O10

12) Given below are two statements.

Statement I: All amino acids are essential.
Statement II: Amino acids can only be taken by food.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer, from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are Incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct

13) Which of the following is a zwitterionic form.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of the above

14) The most abundant protein in animal world is ___i)____ while in whole of the biosphere is
___ii)____

(1) (i) Collagen (ii) PEPcase

(2) (i) RuBisCo (ii) PEPcase
(3) (i) Collagen (ii) RuBisCO
(4) (i) Collagen (ii) Cellulose

15) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column-I Column-ll

a Acidic amino acid 1 Valine

b Basic amino acid 2 Glutamic acid

c Neutral amino acid 3 Phenylalanine

d Aromatic amino acid 4 Lysine

(1) a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3
(2) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
(3) a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
(4) a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION - A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 1 3 2 4 1 4 4 4 1 1 1 3 1 3 3 3 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 4 1 3 3 1 2 2 4 3 2 2 1 1 4

SECTION - B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 1 1 2 4 1 2 4 1 1 3 1 3 2 4 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 2 3 3 4 1 4 2 1 1 3 1 3 3 2 2 3 3 2 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 1 3 4 2 2 4 1 4 2 2 1 3 2 2

SECTION - B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 2 4 4 1 1 4 3 4 4 1 4 2 3 2

BOTANY

SECTION - A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 4 3 2 2 3 2 4 4 4 1 2 3 3 1 1 2 3 3 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 3 3 3 3 1 2 3 2 4 2 3 1 3 2

SECTION - B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 1 4 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 2 2 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION - A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 4 3 3 3 2 2 3 2 3 4 3 2 4 4 4 3 2 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 2 4 4 2 2 2 4 1 3 4 4 2 3 2

SECTION - B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 1 2 1 4 4 3 1 2 2 4 2 2 2 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

7)

Gravitational force is a conservative force so W.D. is independent of path taken between two points.

8) Conceptual.

12) Force and displacement are perpendicular to each other.

17)

21) W =mgh

=98 J

26)

At topmost point .

27)

Centripetal force = mrω2

= 5 × 1 × (2)2 = 20N.

32)

ωPQ = = 0.7 rad/s.

34)

v = 2t

ac = m/s2

35) tan θ =

tan θ =
 tan θ =
θ = 60°

38)

Here the necessary centripetal force is provided by normal reaction.

N = mω2R
f = mg
fmax = μN = μ mω2R
fmax ≥ f
⇒ μ mω2 R ≥ mg

39)

42)

vmin =

= (tanϕ = µs)

43)

Assertion is correct because according to work energy theorem work done by all forces (Internal,
External, Conservative, Non conservative) is equal to change in kinetic energy.

44)

F= = – (slope of U–x curve)

Hence option (1)

45)
 ⇒

Work done, W =

=
= 33 + 4 × 0 – (23 + 4 × 3)
= 27 + 0 – (8 + 12)
= 27 – 20 = + 7 J
According to work energy theorem,
Change in the kinetic energy = Work done
ΔKE = + 7 J

46)

Wnet = kf – ki

– 50 x2 = 0 –

x2 = =4
x = 2m

47)

WAg = FgScosθ = mg × 0 = 0
WB total = WBg + WBN

48)

Conservative force may be a variable force. Still

49)
Area I = × 1 × 10 = 5
Area II = 1 × 10 = 10
Area III = 1 × 5 = 5
Area IV = –1 × 5 = –5

Area V = × 1 × 10 = 5
From x = 0 to x = 2, work = Area I + II
From x = 0 to x = 4, work = Area I + II + III + IV
From x = 0 to x = 5, work = Area I + II + III +IV + V
From x = 2 to x = 5, work = Area III + IV + V

50) Tension is a pulling force: 3rd particle experiences,

CHEMISTRY

51)

∴ T2 =

52)

m = 9g
T = 300
P = 1 atm Molar mass = 27.

53) As at constant press

54)

55)

For fixed amount of gas

56)
Fact

57)

at const P

58) Charle's law

59)

Conceptual

60)

P1V1 = P2V2 at constant T

104 × 100 = 105 × V2
V2 = 10cc

61)

63)

64)

Mole fraction of water vapour = 0.02

So, Mole fraction of dry air = 1–0.02 ⇒ 0.98
Partial pressure of dry air = Mole fraction × total pressure = 0.98 × 1.2
⇒ 1.176 atm

65)

Charles' law states that volume of a given mass of a gas increases or decreases by of the volume
at 0°C for each degree rise or fall in temperature respectively, provided pressure is kept constant.
 66)

Fact.

67)

Helium involves London Dispersion force, which is weakest among all the types of van der
Waal’s forces.

68)

N2O and CO2 have same molecular weight.

69)

70) Rate of diffusion r ∝

71)

72)

73) +2+4+2x–8 = 0
2x = 2 ⇒ x =+1

74) NCERT Pg. # 245, Edition - 2022

75) F = –1 O.S. always

H = +1, –1

76)

N3H
3x + 1 = 0
x = –1/3
 77) 2(+1) + 4x + 6(–2) = 0
x = +2.5

78) In CaOCl2; O.S. of Cl is –1 & +1.

79) KI = +1 + x = 0 ⇒ x = –1

KI3 = 1 + 3x = 0 ⇒ x =
IF5 = x + 5(–1) = 0
x = +5
KIO4 = 1 + x + 4(–2) = 0
x = +7

80)
( nf = 2)

81)

nf of Fe =

82) By x-Method
NH3
x + 3 (+1) = 0

x = –3

83)

E.w. (NH3) =

E.w. (NH3) =

84) H2S + H2O2 S + H2O

R.A. O.A.

85)
 86)

87)

Mn changes from Mn+7 to Mn+2

⇒ Need 5 NA electrons

88)

89)

90) Conceptual

91)

N3H
3x + 1 = 0

X=

92)

93)

Conceptual

94) CH4 —→ CCl4

↓
x + 4(1) = 0 x + 4(–1) = 0
x = –4 x=4
–4 to +4

Alternate :-
CH4(g) + 4Cl2(g) → CCl4(ℓ) + 4HCl(g)
CH4(–4)
CCl4(+4)
–4 to + 4

95)

Zn → Zn+2 + 2e (oxidation)
2H+ + 2e → H2 (Reduction).

96)

97) Conceptual.

98)

Let consider the O.S of Fe is x

99)

Addition of oxygen to element and loss of electron by an element both are considered to be oxidation
of an element.

100)

BOTANY

101) Ncert page 24.

102) Ncert page 27.

103) Ncert page 32.

104) Ncert page 32.

105) Ncert page 30.

106) Ncert page 24.

107) Ncert page 32.

108) Ncert page 30.

109) Ncert page 33.

110) Ncert page 33.

111) Ncert page 29.

112) Ncert page 32.

113) Ncert page 29.

114) Ncert page 32.

115) Ncert page 32.

116) Ncert page 26.

117) Ncert page 29.

118) Ncert page 26.

119) Ncert page 24.

120) Ncert page 29 and 30.

121) Ncert page 26.

122) Ncert page 26.

123) Ncert page 27.

124) Ncert page 27.

125) Ncert page 32.

126) Ncert page 30.

127) Ncert page 28.

128) Ncert page 25.

129) Ncert page 29.

130) Ncert page 29.

131) Ncert page 32.

132) Ncert page 33.

133) Ncert page 29.

134) Ncert page 27.

135) Ncert page 30.

136) Ncert page 32 and 34.

137) Ncert page 32.

138) Ncert page 27.

139) Ncert page 30.

140) Ncert page 29.

141) Allen module.

142) Ncert page 26, 27, 29, 30 and 32.

143) Ncert page 32.

144) Allen module.

145) Ncert page 24.

 146) Ncert page 29, 32 and 33.

147) Ncert page 26.

148) Ncert page 31.

149) Ncert page 32.

150) Ncert page 28.

ZOOLOGY

151) NCERT Page no. 338

152) NCERT Page no. 338

153) NCERT Page no. 148

154) NCERT Page no. 110

156)

157) NCERT EDITION 2022 - 2023 Pg. No. 160

158)

NCERT pg no.149

159)

Module 254

160)

NCERT XI Page No. # 148

161) Carbonyl and hydroxyl are found in carbohydrates.

162) NCERT Page # 110

164) Allen Module Page No. 254

 165) Module no. 1, Pg # 131

166)

NCERT XI, Page # 146

167) NCERT XI, Pg. # 143

168)

In a normal man 55 - 65% of energy is available in carbohydrate forms.

169) NCERT Pg. # 143

170)

NCER Pg No: 142

171)

NCER Pg No: 142

172)

NCERT Pg No: 143

173)

NCERT Pg No: 143

174)

NCERT Pg No:146

175) Ncert Page 142.

176)

177) Ncert page 146.

178)

NCERT, Pg. # 109

179) Ncert Page 146.

180) Ncert Page 148.

 181) Allen module.

182) Ncert page 147.

183)

NCERT Page No. 109

184)

NCERT Page No. 105

185)

NCERT Page no. 147

186) NCERT Page # 110, 119

187)

NCERT Pg # 145, Fig.-9.1

188)

NCERT Page: 145

189)

NCER Pg No:143

190)

NCERT Pg No:144

191)

NCERT Pg No: 144

193)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 149 para 1

195)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 147

196) Glycosidic bond formation occurs by elimination of one water molecule.

197) NCERT pg.no.144.

198) NCERT Pg.no. 106

 199) NCERT Pg.no. 110

200)

NCERT pg-144