NAFISATU COLLEGE OF NURSING SCIENCES

PRE PROFESSIONAL EXAMINATION FOR MIDWIVES, PAPER 1

1. Physiologic anaemia during pregnancy is as a result of

a) Platelete aggregation
b) Haemodilution
c) Decreased plasma volume
d) Decreased number of red blood cells
ANS: B

2. The following are important factors in moulding EXCEPT

a. Overriding of the skull bone
b. The overriding of the skull bone at the fontanelle
c. The overriding of the skull bone at the suture
d. Cephal hematoma
ANS: D

3. The following ligaments hold pelvic joints together EXCEPT

a. lnterpubic ligament
b. Sacroiliac ligament
c. Falciform ligament
d. Sacrococcygeal ligament
ANS: C
4. The brim is round EXCEPT where there is a projection called
a. lschial spine
b. Sacral promontory
c. Ala of sacrum
d. Iliopectineal eminence
ANS: B
5. The function of rugae in the bladder is to
a. Expel urine
b. Strengthened the bladder
c. Expand the bladder
d. Constrict the bladder
ANS: C
6. The following are functions of fallopian tubes EXCEPT
a. Receive the spermatozoa as they travel upwards
b. Propel ovum towards the uterus
 c. Provide a site for implantation
d. Provide nourishment to the fertilized ovum
ANS: C
7. The limb of the fetus is formed at the
a. 4th week of pregnancy
b. 6th week of pregnancy
c. 9th week of pregnancy
d. 12th week of pregnancy
ANS: A
8. ………………………. is a hormone that prepares the endometrium for implantation of the
fertilized ovum.
a. Oxytocin
b. Progesterone
c. Relaxin
d. Follicle stimulating hormone
ANS: B
9. The lambdoidal suture
a. Separates the occipital bone from the two parietal bones
b. Separates the frontal bones from the parietal bones
c. Runs between the two halves of the frontal bones
d. Lies between the two parietal bones
ANS: A
10. The anterior surface of the sacrum is…………………..which allows for more room in the
pelvic cavity
a. Convex
b. Concave
c. Horizontal
d. Longitudinal
ANS: B
11. The production of sperm begins
a. At birth and continues throughout adult life
b. In utero and continues throughout adult life
c. At birth and ends at puberty
d. At puberty and continues throughout adult life
ANS: D
12. The gynaecoid pelvis has a sub-pubic angle of
a. 90°
b. <90°
c. >90°
d. 80°
ANS: A
13. The ……………..system is the first to function in the embryo
a. Respiratory
b. Cardiovascular
c. Urinary
d. Muscular

ANS: B

14. The android pelvis has a…………………… birm

a. Round
b. Long oval
c. Kidney-shaped
d. Heart-shaped
ANS: D
15. ……………….forms the epithelial lining of the digestive, respiratory and urinary system
a. Ectoderm
b. Endoderm
c. Mesoderm
d. Ectoderm and mesoderm
ANS: B
16. The following statements are correct about the umbilical cord EXCEPT
a. There are no nerves in the umbilical cord
b. Delayed cutting of the cord ensures increased blood volume in the newborn
c. There are nerves in the umbilical cord
d. It contain two arteries and one vein
ANS: A
17. Surfactant is a complex of lipoprotein and protein produced by the alveolar
type………….cell in the lungs
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
ANS: B
18. The proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle follows
a. Luteal phase
b. Menstruation
c. Ovulation
d. Secretory phase
ANS: B
19. ………………….are small muscular ducts that carry the spermatozoa and Seminal fluid to
the urethra
 a. Epididymis
b. Vas deference
c. Cowpers gland
d. Ejaculatory duct
ANS: D
20. The fertilized ovum reaches the uterus after fertilization
a. 5-7days
b. 3-4days
c. 2-3days
d. 1-3days

ANS: B

21. At term the placenta weighs approximately

a. 300 gms or 1/6th of the baby's weight
b. 500gms or 1/6th of the baby's weight
c. 700gms or 1/6th of the baby's weight
d. 800gms or 1/6 of the baby's weight
ANS: B
22. Which of the following hormones play a role in glucose metabolism during pregnancy?
a. Luitinizing hormone
b. Human gonadotrophic hormone
c. Follicle stimulating hormone
d. Human placenta lactogen
ANS: D
23. The hormone relaxin originate from
a. Placenta
b. Corpus luteum
c. Corpus albican
d. Anterior pituitary gland
ANS: B
24. The digestive tract and the glands develops from
a. Endoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Ectoderm
d. Intro derm
ANS: A
25. Mesoderm forms the following EXCEPT
a. Muscle
b. skin
c. Blood vessels
 d. Bones
ANS: B
26. The degree and direction of moulding is determine by a number of factors which include the
following EXCEPT
a. Size and shape of the fetal skull
b. Size and shape of the maternal pelvis
c. Size and shape of the fetal limbs
d. Presentation and position of the head
ANS: C
27. The anterior fontanelle closes at the age of after birth
a. 6month
b. 2month
c. 12month
d. 18month
ANS: D

28. Pelvic cavity is situated between the:

a. Pelvic Inlet and outlet
b. Pelvic brim and the perineum
c. Ala of sacrum and the iliopectineal eminences
d. Abdominal cavity and the vulva
ANS: A

29. The ……………………….. produces the human gonadotrophin hormone

a. Syncytiotrophoblast
b. Cytotrophoblast
c. Trophoblast
d. Spongy layer
ANS: B
30. The skull rests on the upper end of the vertebral column; its bony structure is divided into
two parts namely
a. Face and occiput
b. Cranium and occiput
c. Vault and occiput
d. Cranium and face
ANS: D

31. The good practice of moral conduct in midwifery practice is regarded as

 a) Law
b) Ethics
c) Justice
d) Theory
ANS: B

32. The following are codes of ethical principles EXCEPT

a) Non-Maleficence
b) Autonomy
c) Beneficence
d) Negligence
ANS: D

33. The purpose of regulating midwifery practice include the following except:
a) Implementation of care by unskilled personelle
b) Ensure quality of care
c) Protect the public from quacks
d) Protect the public form unsafe practices
ANS: A
Mrs. Bello has an ante-natal appointment in a week. Mr. Bello comes into the clinic and informs
you that he has contacted gonorrhea and is afraid that his wife may also be affected. He request
that Mrs. karah be treated discretely without informing her. He wants you to hold this
information in confidence.

34. The ethical principles of practice expects you to:

a. Prohibit intention harm to family harmony

b. Recognise the request of Mr. Karah for confidentiality and counsel accordingly
c. Give some support to Mrs. Karah
d. Withhold known information from Mrs. Karah
ANS: B

35. Your course of action would be to

a. Express your disappointment with his action.

b. Suggest that Mrs. Karah be seen by a physician.
c. Tell him that you can do what he asks of you.
d. See both of them, obtain cultures and counsel them.
ANS: D
36. In olden midwifery practice the eldest women in the family who supervised labour was
referred to as
a. Traditional birth attendances

b. Wise women

c. Talented women

d. Midwives

ANS: B

37. Midwifery training started in Nigeria at

a. Murtala Muhd specialist Hospital

b. Muhd Abdullahi Wase Teaching Hospital

c. Nnamdi Azikwe Hospital

d. General Hospital Ijebu-Ode

ANS: D

38. The Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria is a category B parastatal of the Federal
Ministry of Health was established on

a. 28th September 1979

b. 20th September 1989

c. 18th September 1999

d. 30 September 1679

ANS: A

39.The primary objectives of the Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria are to

a) Ensure high quality of Nursing and Midwifery education in Nigeria only.

b) Ensure high quality of Nursing and Midwifery education in Nigeria, maintain high
standard of professional nursing and midwifery practice and enforce discipline.
c) Enforce discipline within the profession only
d) Health educate other people to come and join the profession
ANS: B

40. Ethics Guide Midwife to provide

 a) Quality and effective client care
b) Quality Assurance care
c) Qualitative Medical care
d) Quantitative care and Medicalo care

ANS: A

41. Autonomy is refers to as

a) Right to make one own decision
b) Duty to do no more harm
c) promoting or doing well
d) right to be defendant
ANS: A

42. Truth telling is refers to as

a. Veracity
b. Confident
c. Justice
d. Beneficent
ANS: A

43. The following are the factors that hinder Intersectoral and interprofesional approach except
a) Conflict
b) Lack of creativity
c) Confidence
d) Apathy
ANS: C

44. Right to privacy means

a. keeping client information confidential
b. Expiring the clients information
c. Transparency in health care
d. Restricting movement of the clients
ANS: A
45. Good Samaritan law is the act that
a. provide confidence to health care provider at the scene of an emergency
b. Adhere the health care providers to emergency care steps
c. provide health care provider with competence care and concern at scene of emergency
d. protect health care provider who provide assistance at the scene of an emergency against
claim of malpractice
ANS: D

46. ……………………………is duty to ‘do no harm’, the moral obligation each person in
society owes to the others, of not deliberately inflicting evil or harm upon them; it requires each
of us not to harm.

a) Non-maleficence
b) Beneficience
c) Veracity
d) confidentiality
ANS: A

47. …………………………. refers to actively promoting or doing well, when health care
professionals act in the benefit of others
a) Non-maleficence
b) Beneficience
c) Veracity
d) confidentiality
ANS: B

48. The ethical principle that describes equal distribution of benefits and burdens and
acting justly towards all clients and ensure each person has what is due or owed to him/her is
known as ……………………………
a) Non-maleficence
b) Beneficience
c) Veracity
d) Justice
ANS: D
49. The principle in which the health professional must give sufficient information at a level the
individual can comprehend, with adequate time for deliberation and any other clarification as
necessary is described as ………………………………..

a) Informed conscent
b) Beneficience
c) Veracity
d) Justice
ANS: A

50. Factors that hinder interprofessional and intersectoral approach include all EXCEPT

a) Lack of cooperation among professionals.

b) Domineering role and professional arrogance
c) Ineffective communication
d) Constructive criticism
ANS: D

NORMAL MID
51. The vaginal secretion is made acidic by the action of
a. Escherichia coli
b. Staphylococcal bacilli
c. doderlin's bacilli
d. streptococcal bacilli
ANS: C

52. The hormone that helps to ripen cervix for effacement and dilatation is
a. progesterone
b. prostaglandins
c. oxytocin
d. oestrogen
53. An epsiotomy in which the incision begins at the mid-point of the fourchette directed at
an angle of 45% is called:
a. Lateral episiotomy
b. Mediolateral episiotomy
c. Median episiotomy
d. J-shape episiotomy
ANS: C
54. In midwifery practice the following are landmarks of the pelvis EXCEPT
a. Lower border of symphysis pelvis
b. Ischial spine
c. Tip of coccyx
d. Lower borders of sacrum
ANS: C
ANS: B
55. During lateral palpation of the abdomen the midwife is able to ascertain
a. Presentation and position
b. Position and lie
c. Locate only the fetal back
d. Presentation and lie
ANS: B
56. The relationship between the long axis of the fetus and the long axis of the uterus is
known as
a. Flexion
b. Attitude
c. Position
d. Lie
ANS: D
57. When the head is completely extended, the presenting diameters are
a. Submentobregmatic and the bitemporal
b. Mentovertical and bitemporal
c. Occipitobregmatic and bitemporal
d. Occipitofrontal and bitemporal
ANS: A
58. Pulsation felt with fingers at the lateral vaginal fornix of the vagina during pregnancy is
referred to
a. Osianders sign
b. Braxton Hicks contraction
c. Hegars signs
d. Chadwicks signs
ANS: A
59. On abdominal palpation during labour, descent refers to the part of the head (divided into
five parts), palpable above the
a. Cervix
b. Symphysis pubis
c. Sacral promontory
d. Vagina
ANS: B
60. Involution of the uterus takes place by the process of
a) Phagocytosis.
b) Autolysis.
c) Autolysis and Ischaemia.
d) Autolysis and Haemodilution.
61. Presumptive signs of pregnancy include the following EXCEPT
a. Amenorrhoea
b. Morning sickness
c. Fetal movements palpable
d. Quickening
ANS: C
62. The average weight gain in pregnancy is……………..kg
a. 15.5
b. 17.5
c. 12.5
d. 20.5
ANS: C
63. The pains felt by the woman in labour is transmitted by
a. Spinal, thoracic and sacral nerves
b. Cervical, sacral and spinal nerves
c. Thoracic, lumber and sacral nerves
d. Thoracic, lumber and cervical nerves
ANS: C
64. For prevention of Post partum heamorrhage, administer injection oxytocin 10IU……..
a. Before deliver
b. At 36 weeks of gestation
c. After delivery of infant, before delivery of the placenta
d. After delivery of the placenta
ANS: C
65. On vaginal examination, moulding was found to be 2 +, this means that
a. Sutures are opposed
b. Sutures opposed but not reducible
c. Sutures overlapped but not reducible
d. Sutures overlapped but reducible
ANS:D
66. Descent recorded as 0/5 indicate that
a. The sinciput is at the level of the symphysis pubis
b. The head is on the pelvic floor
c. The sinciput is above the level of the symphysis pubis
d. Sinciput felt, occiput not felt
ANS:B
67. All except one of the followings are true about antenatal care
a. Health services providers give much emphasis on individualized assessment.
b. ANC makes pregnancy a family responsibility.
 c. The health service provider discusses only with the women the possible complication she
may encounter.
d. The health provider, the woman, husband and family plan together in preparation for the
birth postnatal care and child spacing.
ANS: C
68. Mathew Duncan method of placenta separation is associated with
a. Less fluid blood loss
b. Ragged incomplete expulsion of the membranes
c. More complete expulsion of placenta and membranes
d. The fetal surface descending first
ANS: B
69. The interval between the alert and action line is …….hours
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
ANS : D
70. Changes in the amount and viscosity of cervical secretions is due to
a. Rising oestrogen level
b. Decrease oestrogen level
c. Rising progesterone level
d. Decrease progesterone level

ANS: A

71. A woman is said to have bad obstetric history if

a. she had abortion
b. she had been pregnant once
c. she had problematic previous pregnancies and deliveries
d. there are medical complications in her first pregnancy
ANS: C
72. The hormone that helps to ripen cervix for effacement and dilatation is
a. progesterone
b. prostaglandins
c. oxytocin
d. oestrogen
ANS: B
73. During third stage of labour, the weight of the ……………. Aids in separation and
descent of the placenta
a. Blood
b. Membrane
 c. cord
d. Retroplacental clot
ANS: D
74. Intramuscular oxytocin is given within the birth of……………………………. as part
of active management of 3rd stage of labour.
a. Anterior shoulder
b. Head
c. Baby
d. Placenta
ANS: C

75. The following are components of antenatal care EXCEPT

a) Health education
b) Early detection and treatment of existing complications
c) Care from medical doctors
d) Birth preparedness and complication readiness
ANS: C

76. The levels of oestrogen and progesterone begins to fall

a) During first trimester
b) At the onset of labour
c) During second stage of labour
d) Just before term
ANS: D
77. Obstetric history include the following EXCEPT
a) Small for date babies
b) Still birth
c) Chronic hypertension
d) Previous cervical curratage
ANS: C
78. The following are possible signs of pregnancy EXCEPT
a) uterine Souffle
b) Nausea and vomitting
c) Breast changes
d) Quickening
ANS: A
79. The following are probable signs of pregnancy EXCEPT
a) Hagar’s sign
b) Braxton Hicks contraction
c) Fetal movement palpable
d) Osiendar’s sign
ANS: C
80. At 20 weeks, the height of fundus is at the
a) Upper margin of the umblicus
 b) Just at the umblicus
c) At the lower margin of the umblicus
d) At the symphysis pubis
ANS: B

81. When the fetal head is ballotable above the brim during abdominal examination, the head
is:
a) engaged
b) extended
c) not engaged
d) not extended
ANS: C

82. Blood pressure measurement is taken at booking to

a) Provide optimal antenatal care
b) ascertain normality and provide a baseline reading for comparison throughout pregnancy
c) facilitate informed decision
d) exchange information between midwives and doctors
ANS: B

83. Pregnancy lasts for about

a) 38 weeks from LMP
b) 40 weeks after conception
c) 40 weeks from LMP
d) 36 weeks after fertilization
ANS: C
84. One of the aim of preconception care is
a) Treating complications during pregnancy
b) Identification and treatment of high risk patients
c) Provision of family planning services
d) Providing postnatal care
ANS: B
85. Booking visit is the first visit to the Antenatal clinic whereby the midwife
records……………………… data to be used for comparison in subsequent visits
a) Baseline
b) Original
c) Non objective
d) Only subjective
ANS: A
86. During pregnancy, the weight of the uterus increases from ………… to approximately
…………….. at term
a) 20g to 200g
b) 40 to 600g
c) 50 to 1500g
d) 50 to 1000g
 ANS: D
87. A woman that is pregnant for the first time is called a
a) Primip
b) Primipara
c) Primigravida
d) Nulligravida

ANS: C
88. Morning sickness is common in……………….
a) The First trimester
b) The Second trimester
c) The Third trimester
d) The postnatal period
ANS: A
89. At which of the following stage of labour would the midwife assess “crowning”?
a) Second stage.
b) First stage.
c) Third stage
d) Fourth stage
ANS: A
90. When a pregnant woman lies on her back for a long period, she might
develop………………………………
a) Prone hypertension
b) Supine hypotension
c) Supine hypertension
d) Dorsal hypertension
ANS: B
91. The fetal position can be determined through……………………..during abdominal
examination
a) Fundal palpation
b) Inspection
c) Lateral palpation
d) Pelvic palpation
ANS: C
92. The active phase of first stage of labour starts from ………..cm dilatation of the cervical
os
a) 1cm
b) 2cm
c) 3cm
d) 4cm
ANS: D

93. The following are contraindications to the use of partograph EXCEPT

a) Woman in latent phase
 b) 9cm dilatation
c) Antepartum haemorrhage
d) Woman in active phase
ANS: D
94. The neuromuscular harmony that exist between the upper and lower uterine segment
during first stage of labour is called……………….
a) Polarity
b) Fundal dominance
c) Effacement
d) Resting tone
ANS: A
95. The ability of the uterine muscle fibre to contract and relax but retain some shortening is
known as………………..
a) Refraction
b) Relaxation
c) Retraction
d) Resistance
ANS: C
96. The relationship between long axis of the fetus and the long axis of the uterus is
called………………..
a. Lie
b. Attitude
c. Position
d. Denominator
ANS: A
97. During second stage of labour, the the advancing head presses the ………………… so
that residual fecal matter is expelled
a) Bladder
b) Levatorani muscle
c) Urethra
d) Rectum
ANS: D
98. Which of the following nursing diagnoses would be given priority in the care plan of a
pregnant woman who is experiencing hyperemesis gravidarum?
a. Self-care deficit.
b. Fluid volume deficit.
c. Self-esteem disturbance.
d. Altered oral mucous membrane.
ANS: B

99. In vertex presentation, the fetal attitude is ………………...............

a) Deflexed
b) Complete Extension
c) Partial extension
d) Flexion
ANS: D
100. During preconception care, it is important to have genetic
counseling and investigations
a) After marriage
b) After pregnancy
c) Before marriage and pregnancy
d) After delivery
ANS: C

101. The partograph is used to

a) Detect abnormalities that develop during labour
b) Detect complications before labour
c) Detect complications after labour
d) Detect abnormalities after delivery
ANS: A
102. During third stage of labour, the
…………………………………….. which forms at the maternal surface aids in
separation and descent of placenta
a) Fibrin mesh
b) Coagulation factor
c) Retro placental clot
d) Schultze clot
ANS: C
103. When delivering the head , the midwife should maintain
…………………………… of the head so that smaller diameters present
a) Extension
b) Deflexion
c) Crowning
d) Flexion
ANS: D

104. In midwifery one of the following age brackets can be regarded as at

risk patients:
a. 18 –21 yrs
b. 21--30 yrs
c. 31 – 34 yrs
d. 35 years and above
ANS: D

105. To estimate the expected date of delivery for a pregnant woman, the midwife
should ………………………………. to her L.M.P
a. Add 9 months plus 7 days
b. Add 9 months minus 7 days
c. Subtract 9 months minus 7 days
 d. Subtract 9 months minus 17 days
ANS: A

106. Another name for mask of pregnancy is?

a. Linea nigra
b. Chlolasma
c. Straiegravidarum
d. Montgomery’s tubercules
ANS: B
107. The most recommended type of episiotomy for midwives and nurses is the

a) J- shaped episiotomy

b) Median episiotomy

c) Lateral episiotomy

d) Medio lateral episiotomy

108. perineal repair should be done

a) After 6 hours of delivery

b) As soon as possible after delivery

c) Immediately after delivery of the head

d) After 24 hours of delivery

ANS: B

109. Prematurity is an indication of episiotomy to prevent

a) Excessive crowning

b) Excessive rotation

c) Excessive moulding

d) Excessive extension

ANS; C

110. The gradual reduction in the size of the uterus until it returns to it’s pregravid
state is known as………………………………………….

a) Sub involution
 b) Involution

c) Sub contraction

d) retraction

ANS: B

111. The term used to describe community participation, cooperation, and involvement
in finding solution to their health problems is ……………..
a. Community diagnosis
b. Situation analysis
c. Community mobilization
d. Situation diagnosis
ANS: C
112. All the following are essential for home confinement EXCEPT
a. Family support
b. Good ventilation
c. Firm mattress
d. Availability of water
ANS: C
113. Taking appropriate action in problem solving method include
a. Identifying problems and needs
b. Being judgemental in providing care
c. Conducting physiucalexamination
d. Deciding what should be done to solve each need and problem identified
ANS: C

114. Which one of the following are good examples of effective non-verbal communication by
the provider?

a. Catching up on paperwork while the client is talking.

b. Using encouraging gestures that are appropriate for the local culture.

c. Avoiding facial gestures that show interest and concern.

d. Not Paying full attention to the client

ANSWER: B
115. Which of the following is not good examples of effective verbal communication by the
Provider?

a. Asking yes or no questions.

b. Asking open-ended questions.

c. Giving directions and instructions.

d. Using clear and simple language to avoid confusion.

ANSWER: A

116. In the community structure

a) A stable government gives a stable progress in health sector
b) Gives an unstable progress to health sector.
c) There is very .little progress to health center.
d) progress is static.
ANS: A
117. A factor that promotes TBAs services is
a) Effective supervision
b) Lack of training
c) poor communication
d) Lack of incentive
ANS: A
118. In health patter most illnesses and death are-:
a) preventable
b) Communicated
c) Need surgery
d) Need treatment
ANS: A
119. All are factors that Influence health and disease except-:
a) Heridity
b) Environment
c) Self esteem
d) Culture
ANS: C
120. All are reasons for advocacy except-:
a) To influence opinion leaders.
b) To build support for a cause
c) To suppress a body of individuals
d) To influence charge of legislature
ANS: C
121. The first step of advocacy is-:
a) Identify secondary stakeholders.
b) Proper understanding of subject matter
c) Select audiences
d) Build coalation
ANS: B
122. One of this is not a step in conducting an advocacy-:
a) knowing the community
b) Implementation
c) selection of audience
d) Evaluation of the audience.
ANS: A
123. Domicilliay Midwifery means care given to a mother and her baby at-:
a) Hospital
b) Home
c) Clinic
d) PHC Centre
ANS: B
124. Primary health care is the level of care at-:
a) Global level.
b) Grassroot level
c) Higher level
d) Country level
ANS: B
125. All are principles of PHC EXCEPT
a) Equitable distribution
b) Community involvement
c) Adequate water and nutrition
d) Manpower development
ANS: C
126. IndiginazationaI selection of TBAS means
a) They are selected from the community
b) Lives outside the community
c) Lives about 60 kilometers from the community
d) Is not a member of the community
ANS: A

127. Domicilliay care is given by _________

a) An auxillary midwife
b) A Tradirtional birth attendant
 c) Registered midwife
d) Any duala in the community
ANS: C
128. The main criteria for domiciliary care is-:
a) client's choice
b) Husband’s choice
c) Family choice
d) the midwive’s choice
ANS: A
129. The best client for domiciliary delivery is-
a) Primip
b) Twin pregnancy
c) Gravida 7
d) Gravida2-4
ANS: D
130. When counseling a pregnant woman in the community on diet during pregnancy, the
midwife should onsider the following EXCEPT

a) Socio economic status of the client

b) Locally available resources
c) Midwive’s assumed preferences
d) Culture and tradition of the client

ANS: C

131. The revised WHO Model of Antenatal care recommends ……………… visits to the
antenatal clinic for care throughout pregnancy

a) 10
b) 8
c) 6
d) 4
ANS: B
132. The following are harmful traditional practices in the community EXCEPT
a) Prolonged breast feeding
b) Female genital mutilation
c) Extreme hot water bath
d) Male preference
ANS: A
133. During abdominal examination of a pregnant woman in the PHC Clinic you work,
you observed hat the uterine size exceeds the gestational age, you would suspect the
following conditions EXCEPT
 a) Polyhydramnios
b) Multiple pregnancy
c) Macrosomic baby
d) Ovarian cyst
ANS: D
134. The following are aims of home visit after delivery EXCEPT
a) To encourage and promote full health of mind and body within the
family group.
b) To cooperate with other health workers in order to ensure that the best
is made use of the statutory and voluntary services that are available.
c) To prevent the spread of communicable diseases and also to control it.
d) To discourage the woman from coming to the hospital
ANS: D
135. Skills needed by home Visitors are the following except
a) Observation.
b) Rapport.
c) Being judgemental
d) Organizing and planning other work
ANS: C

136. The following are drugs that can be carried and administered by midwife
in the community except
a) Inj Pethidine
b) Inj Oxytocin
c) Inj Ketamine
d) Inj diazepam
ANS: C
137. ………………………..is a process where a provider sends a patient to the
next level of care for further management and gets a feedback from the referred
health facility
a) Midwifery Consultation
b) Two ways Referral
c) Triaging
d) Out patient consultation
ANS: B
138. Reasons for refusal of referral include the following:
a. Difficulty in transportation
b. Lack of support from family.
c. Understanding the reason for the referral
d. Attitude of health service providers
ANS: C
139. The following statements are true of an Exceptional child EXCEPT
a. An exceptional child is referred to as either a child who is
a genius academically, manually, physically
 b. The child could be referred to as that who is handicapped
c. The type and extent of handicap of an exceptional child
varies from one child to another.
d. All Exceptional children are geniuses
ANS: A
140. Part of management of an exceptional child is that
a) They must be confined in an institution
b) They have to be educated according to their intelligent quotient or extent
of their disability
c) They should be treated with bias
d) They should be allowed to wander and fend for themselves
ANS: B

Mrs Kims, a 30 year old gravid 2, para 1, has just had a delivery of a normal female baby at
term.

Question 77 to 80 refer to the above

141. Baby Kims birth weight is likely to be

a. 2.4kg

b. 3.0kg

c. 4.0kg

d. 4.8kg

ANS: B

142. The baby's sterile skin would be colonized by microorganism within how
many hours?
a. 72hrs
b. 1hr
c. 12hrs
d. 24hrs
ANS: D
143. The respiratory rate would be between………………..
breath per minute
 144. 15-30
145. 20-40
146. 30-60
147. 10-15
ANS: C
144. The heart rate would be recorded between beats per
minute
148. 100-120
149. 60-72
150. 80-100
151. 120-160
ANS: D
145. The temperature would be recorded between
e. 30-35oC
f. 21-28oC.
g. 36-37oC d.
h. 15-25oC
ANS: C
146. A midwife can promote bonding while a neonate is on admission
in the Special Care Baby unit
by………………………………………………..
a. Reminding the woman that the staff is skillful
b. Allowing the mother to visit and touch the baby
c. Suggesting a visit occassionally the SCBU
d. Inform the woman that the baby will be discharged soon
ANS: B
147. The stool of a bottle fed baby are
a. Loose, bright yellow and inoffensive
b. Paler in colour, semi-formed and less acidic with a slightly sharp smell
c. Blackish green in color
d. Blackish green and less offensive
ANS: B
148. Before birth, the fetal lung is full of fluid which is excreted by the
a. Heart
b. Kidney
c. Stomach
d. Lungs
ANS: D
149. The PH of the skin of a baby born at term is
a. 7.4
b. 6. 4
c. 4.6
d. 5.4
ANS: B
150. Surfactant is a lipoprotein which is concerned with
a. Increase in surface tension at the alveoli
b. Reduction in surface tension at the alveoli
c. Increase in surface tension in the heart
d. Reduction in surface tension in the heart
ANS: B
151. Meconium is present in the large intestine from the
a. 16
b. 12
c. 10
d. 20
ANS: A
152. During fetal Circulation, only about ……………. % of the cardiac
output is circulated to the lungs through the pulmonary artery
a. 20
b. 10
c. 5
d. 15
ANS: C
153. Babies derive most of their heat production from the metabolism of
a. Brown fat
b. White fat
c. Brown and white fat
d. Red and white fat
ANS: A
154. By week……………………., babies can differentiate their
mother's face from that of a stranger
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
ANS: B
155. The following statements are correct about the location of fat in the
newborn EXCEPT
a. Pads the kidney
b. Around the neck
c. On the thigh
d. Across the clavicle line
 ANS: C
156. The following factors facilitate bonding EXCEPT
a. Rooming in
b. Exclusive Breast feeding
c. Good mental state of the mother
d. Ill health of the mother
157. Colostrum is present from ………..the weeks of pregnancy
a. 12
b. 20
c. 24
d. 16
ANS: D
158. Colostrum is thick, sticky and yellowish in colour because it
contains
a. Protein
b. Carbohydrate
c. Fat globules
d. Antibiotics
ANS: C
159. Complementary feeding starts at about………………..after
delivery
a. Birth
b. 2 years after weaning
c. 6 months
d. 3 months
ANS: C
160. Assessment of an infant neurological status is carried out when the
baby is
a. Asleep
b. Awake and crying
c. Awake and not crying
d. Quiet and not alert
ANS: C
161. The number of still birth and death occurring within the first week
of life is known as
a. Neonatal mortality
b. Perinatal mortality
c. Stillbirth
d. Intrapartum mortality
ANS: B
162. One of these protects the baby against respiratory tract infection
 a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD
ANS: A
163. The cause of asphyxia neonatorum could be
a. Blockage o the air way by mucous
b. Depression of the baby’s respiratory centre by narcotic or anesthesia
c. Immature of respiratory centre as found in premature babies
d. All of the above
ANS: D
164. Preterm babies are babies born
a. Before 20 weeks gestation
b. Before 28 weeks gestation
c. Before 30 weeks gestation
d. Before 37 weeks gestation
ANSWER: D
165. Clamping of the cord following delivery is best carried out in the
first
a. 1-3minutes
b. 5-10minutes
c. 15 minute
d. 10minutes
ANS: A
166. The cord is clamped …………… the baby's abdomen to the cord
end
a. 2-3cm
b. 3-4cm
c. 1-2cm
d. 5-6cm
ANS: A
167. Constipation is rare in breastfed babies. If the bowels only move
once in two or three days, so long as the motion is soft and easily
passed, the midwife
a. can give laxatives
b. need not to worry but reassure the mother
c. reassures the mother before giving laxatives
d. give a lot of orange juice to the baby
ANS: B
168. Crying is the baby's only language. High pitched cry in the baby
indicates
 a. slight discomfort
b. extreme pain
c. intracranial injury
d. ruptured abdominal visceral
ANS: C
169. Effusion of blood under the periosteum that covers the skull bone
is called
a)Subaponeurotic
b)Cephalhaematoma
c)Epicranial
d)Caput succedaneum
ANS: B
170. The best period to initiate exclusive breast feeding is
a. 3rd stage of labour
b. 2nd stage of labour
c. 2nd day post partum
d. 3rd day post partum
ANS: A

171. The followings are true of reproductive health EXCEPT

a. It includes the ability to have a satisfying and unsafe sex
b. It also involves the right to be informed of and have access to effective, affordable and
acceptable family planning method.
c. Freedom to have children, when and how often one decides.
d. Access to appropriate health care that will ensure safe pregnancy, child birth and healthy
infant.
ANS: A
172. All the followings are strategies for achieving pregnancy EXCEPT
a. Have sexual intercourse around the time of ovulation.
b. Educate on how to calculate fertile period.
c. Monitor exercise and diet.
d. Encourage douching and encourage the use of lubricant.
173. In order to uphold clients/patients right, health care providers
should
a. Ensure involuntary informed consent for procedure in all cases except emergency
b. Have sympathy and respect for all patients
c. Maintain positive interaction and effective communication with patients
d. Maintain privacy and confidentiality
ANS: A
 174. Factors facilitating male involvement as partners in reproductive
include the following EXCEPT
a. Health programmers geared to meet mens reproductive health needs
b. Favorable social and cultural climate
c. Availability of contraceptive option for men
d. Limited contraceptive options for men
ANS: D
175. Social conditions that can cause abortion include
a. Chromosomal abnormalities
b. Hormonal imbalance
c. Teenage pregnancy or unwanted pregnancy
d. Maternal illness
ANS: C
176. One of the following is not a reproductive health right
a. Right to life
b. Right to freedom from torture
c. Right to privacy
d. Right to commit criminal abortion
ANS: D

177. Crude birth rate is the number of births per…………. of the

population per year , estimated at mid year
a. 2000
b. 1000
c. 100
d. 100000
ANS: B
178. The difference between the birth rate and the death rate is the
a. Natural increase in the Population.
b. Total fertility rate
c. Population rate
d. Dependency rate
ANS: A
179. Harmful traditional practices affect the health of the woman, child
and family at large. The following are common harmful practices
EXCEPT
a) Prolonged breastfeeding
b) Extreme hot water bath after delivery
c) Female genital mutilation
d) Forced marriage
180. The features of sex include the following except
 a) it is biologically defined
b) it is permanent
c) it is universal
d) it is dynamic
ANS: D

181. Which of the following is a gap in gender role?

a. ensure access to safe motherhood

b. family planning services
c. Lack of or in effective girl child policy
d. emergency obstetric and new born care
ANS: C

182. Male hunts, provide for family, in pregnant woman, while woman
cooks, carries pregnancy Cather for the children and husband,
breastfeed these roles are refered to as
a) male role
b) female role
c) sex role
d) Gender role

183.
Steps in bridging the gap in gender roles include the following
EXCEPT
a) Advocacy at various levels, National, state, local government and communities policy
makers, opinion leaders and legislatives
b) Advocacy at various levels, National, state, local government and communities policy
makers, opinion leaders and smokers
c) Advocacy at various levels, National, state, local government and communities policy
makers, opinion leaders and youth
d) Advocacy at various levels, National, state, local government and communities policy
makers, opinion leaders and stakeholders

ANS: B

184. One of the following is among the component of safe motherhood

 a) skilled birth attendant
b) advocacy
c) community participation
d) Gender inequality
ANS: A

185. One of the following is not reason for violence among women

a) Cultural beliefs and norms fostered by the entrenched patriarchal value system
b) Age prevalence of violence (younger ones)!
c) Less education
d) History of healthy relationship
ANS: D

186. The following are the intervention of violence against women

except

a) Capacity building strategies

b) Prosecution of offenders
c) Non prosecution of offenders
d) Public enlightenment on gender-based violence
ANS: C

187. Types of violence include all except

a) Domestic violence
b) Female genital mutilation
c) Sexual harassment
d) Consensual relationship
ANS: D

188. Sexual harassment occurs when

a) There is a powerful relationship between the abuser and the victim i.e., sexual
provocation, pestered, persecution, frustration etc
b) Male and female engage in healthy relationship
c) There is not intimate relationship between couple
d) A person does not engage in any relationship
ANS: A

189. Gender is
 a) Biologically define
b) Physically define
c) Socially constructed features
d) Emotionally define
ANS: C

190. Which of the following is not direct effect of battering of pregnant

women?

a) Miscarriage
b) Placenta abruption
c) Safe delivery
d) Preterm labour
ANS: C

191. Adolescence are emotionally unstable, mood swing, they struggle

to understand their own feeling, this change is

a) Cognitive change
b) Social change
c) Emotional change
d) physical change
ANS: C

192. The behavioral characteristics of an adolescent include the flowing

except

a) Energetic
b) Adventurous
c) Dating
d) Dependence

ANS: D

193. Reproductive health is a state of complete

a) physical, mental, and social wellbeing with merely the absent of disease or infirmity in all
matter related to reproductive system and to its functions and process.
b) psychological mental, and social wellbeing not merely the absent of disease or infirmity
in all matter related to reproductive system and to its functions and process.
 c) physical, emotional, and psychological wellbeing not merely the absent of disease or
infirmity in all matter related to reproductive system and to its functions and process.
d) Physical, mental, and social wellbeing not merely the absent of disease or infirmity in all
matter related to reproductive system and to its functions and process.

ANS: A

194. Discrimination is an unequal or unfair treatment of females based

on their?
a) Skills
b) Talent
c) Capability
d) Sex
ANS: D

195. Safe motherhood is an initiative that guarantees a woman the

following except
a) successful completion of the physiological process of pregnancy
b) child birth without suffering any injury to her life
c) Or loss of her life or that of her baby
d) Unsuccessful completion of physiological process of pregnancy

196. Adolescent period is usually a

a) Safest period for most of our youth
b) Crisis period for most of our youth
c) Needful period for most of our youth
d) capability period for most of our youth
197. Crude birth rate is the number of births per…………. of the
population per year , estimated at mid year
a) 2000
b) 1000
c) 100
d) 100000
ANS: B
198. The difference between the birth rate and the death rate is the
a) Natural increase in the Population.
b) Total fertility rate
 c) Population rate
d) Dependency rate
ANS: A

199. Using the acronym GATHER, what are the logical sequential steps for counseling a client
about reproductive health issues??

a. Go, add, tell, help, exit, return.

b. Greet, ask, tell, help, explain, return.

c. Greet, ask, translate, help, exit, return.

d. Get information, add value, translate client wishes, explain all scenarios, render a solution.

ANSWER: B

200. Using the acronym CLIENT, what are the important elements of good counseling?

a) Client-centered, listening, interaction, exploration, nonjudgmental, trust.

b) Cool, look, intrapersonal, extroverted, nice, talented.
c) Culturally based, language appropriate, introverted, exterior, new theories, translated.
d) Client-based, listening, interpersonal, exit strategy, next step, translated
ANSWER: A

201. Lactational amenorrhea method is more effective under the following

conditions EXCEPT
a. Woman is breastfeeding exclusively
b. Woman is menstruating every month
c. Woman is amenorrhoea
d. The infant is less than 6 months
ANS: D
202. Semen sample can be collected through the following EXCEPT
a. Coitus interruptus
b. Masturbation
c. During intercourse
d. From the vagina after sexual intercourse
ANS: D
 203. Mechanical barrier methods of contraceptive prevent sperm from entering
the uterus by
a. Chemical action
b. Physical obstruction
c. Both chemical and physical obstruction
d. Killing the spermatozoa
ANS: B
204. Sayana press prevents a woman from pregnancy for……… weeks
a. 10
b. 11
c. 12
d. 13
ANS: C
205. 1f a client misses two or more active hormonal pill, she should
a. Take an active hormonal pill as soon as possible
b. Take four pills on the same day
c. Take the pill and use condom until she sees her next period
d. Stop the present pack and start a new pack
ANS: C
206. Implanon contain a progestin called
a. Levonogestrel
b. Etonogestrel
c. Nomesgestrol
d. Levonogestrel and etonogesterel
e. ANS A
207. Jadelle protects a woman from pregnancy for …………………years
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

ANS D
208. Post placental IUD insertion should be done within…………………of
placenta following delivery
a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 1 hour
d. 48 hours
e. ANS B
209. Family planning Best choice is by
a) Health care giver
 b) Husband
c) client
d) society
ANS: C

210. All the following but one apply to medical eligibility criteria wheel for
family planning
a. The wheel includes recommendations on initiating use of six common types of
contraceptives
b. The wheel matches up the contraceptive methods shown on the outer disk with specific
medical conditions shown around the inner rim
c. The number shown in the viewing slot tell you whether the woman who has this known
condition is able to start use of the contraceptive method
d. Category 1 and 4 are clearly defined recommendations
211. Women with IUCD are predisposed to
a) Pelvic cancer
b) Pelvic inflammatory disease
c) Cervical cancer
d) Uterine prolapsed
ANSWER: B
212. When setting a family planning clinic , the first step in the management
process is
a) Planning
b) Implementation
c) Evaluation
d) Needs assessment
ANSWER: A

213. Assessment of a 16-year-old nulligravid client who visits the clinic and
asks for information on contraceptives reveals a menstrual cycle of 28 days. The
nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Deficient Knowledge related to
ovulation and fertility management. Which of the following would be important
to include in the teaching plan for the client?

a) The ovum survives for 96 hours after ovulation, making conception possible
during this time.
b) The basal body temperature falls at least 0.2°F after ovulation has occurred.
c) Ovulation usually occurs on day 14, plus or minus 2 days, before the onset of
the next menstrual cycle.
 d) Most women can tell they have ovulated because of severe pain and thick,
scant cervical mucus.
ANSWER: C
214. Before advising a 24-year-old client desiring oral contraceptives for
family planning, the nurse would assess the client for signs and symptoms of
which of the following?
a) Anemia.
b) Hypertension.
c) Dysmenorrhea.
d) Acne vulgaris.
ANSWER: B

215. In couples counseling, it is important to:

a. Address only the man if you are a male provider.
b. Counsel the couples individually.
c. Encourage both men and women to express their feelings about contraceptive method
options
d. All of the above

ANSWER: C

A 17-year-old girl comes into a clinic and informs the provider that she has decided to have sex.
She asks the provider what she should do to keep from getting pregnant. The provider takes her
time with the girl, is sensitive and empathetic, and explains to the girl how sex can affect her life
in permanent ways. She then says to the girl that she believes young people should not havesex
and refuses to give her contraception.

216. Which one of the following is an accurate statement about the counseling session?

a. The provider was able to put aside her personal bias towards young people having sex.
b. The provider made an appropriate choice for the client because she was less than 18 years
of age.
c. The provider was caring and empathetic.
d. The provider gave the girl enough specific information for her to make an informed and
voluntary contraceptive choice
ANSWER: C
216. Which of the following are barriers to a client making an informed and voluntary
contraceptivechoice?

a. Limited availability of contraceptive methods.

b. Policies that inhibit access to family planning.

c. Lack of training and scientific information for providers.

d. All of the above.

ANSWER: D

217. You have been asked to counsel a 19-year-old commercial sex worker about appropriate
contraceptive methods. All issues should be addressed during the counseling session except

a. Her STD/HIV risk from having multiple partners.

b. Her individual needs and preferences.

c. Your opinion of her profession.

d. Use of emergency contraceptive pills as a backup method in case of condom failure

ANSWER: C

218. Which of the following should be included in the beginning stage of counseling?

a. Not discussing about the client's age, lifestyle, marital status, and reproductive and sexual
history.

b. Asking about her reproductive health goals.

c. Discussion of the side effects of all contraceptive methods before determining client need.

d. Provision of booklets and written instruction for all contraceptive methods.

ANSWER: B

219.Using the acronym GATHER, what are the logical sequential steps for counseling a client
about family planning?

a. Go, add, tell, help, exit, return.

b. Greet, ask, tell, help, explain, return.

 c. Greet, ask, translate, help, exit, return.

d. Get information, add value, translate client wishes, explain all scenarios, render a solution.

ANSWER: B

220. Using the acronym CLIENT, what are the important elements of good counseling?

a. Client-centered, listening, interaction, exploration, nonjudgmental, trust.

b. Cool, look, intrapersonal, extroverted, nice, talented.

c. Culturally based, language appropriate, introverted, exterior, new theories, translated.

d. Client-based, listening, interpersonal, exit strategy, next step, translated

ANSWER: A

221. Barrier method in family planning include the following except.

a. Diaphragm with spermicide.
b. Intra-uterine contraceptive device.
c. Male condom.
d. Female condom.
ANSWER: B

222. Vasectomy is the occlusion of the………………..

a. Glans penis.
b. Vas deferens.
c. Seminal vesicle.
d. Spermatic cord.
ANSWER: B

223. Coitus interruptus means…………….

a. Safe period.
b. Hormonal method.
c. Fertility test.
d. Withdrawal of penis during intercourse before ejaculation.
ANSWER: D
 224. The most common complaint by women using implant is……………..
a. Heavy bleeding.
b. Scanty bleeding.
c. Irregular bleeding.
d. Moderate menstruation.
ANSWER: C

225. Abstinences method in family planning is best described as;

a. To stop oneself from sexual intercourse.

b. Complete indulgence in sexual intercourse.
c. Is the use of barrier method
d. Pre mature ejaculation?
ANSWER: A

226. The mechanism of action, of IUCD include the following except:

a. Immobilizing the spermatozoa.

b. Create a environment to the spermatozoa.
c. Create a hostile environment the spermatozoa.
d. Interfere with estrogen up take.
ANSWER: D

227. A lactating mother can use the following methods of family planning EXCEPT
a. Tubal ligation
b. Combined Oral contraceptive pills
c. Progesterone only pills
d. Intrauterine Device
ANSWER: b

228. Combined OC pills……………………………..

a. Reduce risk of endometrial cancer.
b. Increase risk of ovarian cancer.
c. Reduce risk of breast cancer
d. Reduce risk of cervical cancer.
ANSWER: B

229. Mechanisms of Oral Contraceptive Pills include all of the following EXCEPT
a. Ovulation suppression
b. Enhanced ovarian androgen production
c. Altered cervical mucus
 d. Altered endometrium
ANSWER: B
230. Regarding injectable progesterone contraception, all of the following is true,
EXCEPT
a. Medroxyparogesterone acetate is the most commonly used
b. May cause irregular uterine bleeding
c. May cause amenorrhoea
d. Should not be given to lactating mother
ANSWER: D

231. Which of the following IS NOT a potential side effect of Depo Provera
Injections?
a. blood clots
b. weight gain
c. headache
d. Numbness of the hands
ANSWER: D

232. Women with which characteristic are more susceptible to blood clots while on
birth control?
a. family history of circulatory disease
b. family history of breast cancer and circulatory disease
c. Smokers
d. Obesity
ANSWER: C
233. During family planning counseling after pregnancy, a provider should discuss
which of the following?
a. . Short- and long-term reproductive goals.
b. Safety, effectiveness, mechanisms of action and side effects for appropriate methods.
c. Detailed information on the client's chosen method.
d. All of the above
ANSWER: D

234. Lactational Amenorrhea Method is considered to be a very effective method of

contraception for up to:

a. Three months postpartum.

b. Six months postpartum.

c. Nine months postpartum.

 d. 12 months postpartum.

ANSWER: B

235. When can IUD insertion be performed

a. Within the first 48 hours postpartum.

b. Within the first 72 hours postpartum.

c. Within the first week after delivery.

d. At any time.

ANSWER: D

236. Which two of the following are the most appropriate times to perform sterilization
postpartum?

a. Within 48 hours after delivery.

b. Two weeks after delivery.
c. Ten weeks after delivery.
d. One week after delivery
ANSWER:

237. Male sterilization is considered effective:

a. Immediately after procedure.

b. Four weeks after procedure.
c. Six weeks after procedure.
d. 12 weeks after procedure.
ANSWER: D

238. Contraceptive methods that can be initiated by breastfeeding

women immediately after delivery include all except :

a Condoms.

b Implants

c Combined oral contraceptives

 d IUDs.

ANSWER: C

239. Fertility will most likely return earliest for:

a. Non breastfeeding women postpartum.

b. Breastfeeding women postpartum.

c. Women post abortion.

d. women with high parity

ANSWER: A
240. A woman comes in for contraceptive counseling who has
complications from an abortion, including hemorrhaging and infection.
Which of contraceptive methods she can use immediately:

a Female Condoms.

b. Billing methods

c. DMPA

d. IUDs.

ANSWER: A

241. In Billings ovulation method of contraception, one of the following

is employed
a. Cervical mucus
b. Cervical canal
c. Cervical opening
d. Cervical thickness.
ANSWER: A

242. The most reliable method of contraception is one that suites:

a. The husband
b. The client
c. The midwife
d. The commodities available
ANSWER: B
 243. Which of the following contraceptive method will you
recommend for a 24years old para3 all alive with normal blood
pressure?
a. Condom
b. Oral contraceptive pills
c. Bilateral tubal ligation
d. Diaphragm
ANSWER: B
244. Disadvantages of traditional method of birth control are the
following except:
a. Have standard dosage
b. No Risk of infection
c. High failure rate
d. Some are not injurious to health
ANSWER: C

245. One of the following is not an absolute contra indication to oral

contraceptive:
a. Migraine
b. Nausea and Vomiting
c. Cerebro Vascular Accident (CVA)
d. Thrombo-embolic Disease.
ANSWER: B

246. . ………………….Is the tying and cutting of male tubes (called

vas deferens) to prevent passage of

spermatozoa into the seminal fluid.

a) Prostectomy
b) Urethrectomy
c) cystectomy
d) vasectomy
ANSWER: D
247. The following are advantages of surgical method of contraception
EXCEPT
a. Provide permanent contraception
b. It is not coitus related
c. It is easily reversible
d. One of the most effective method available for men
ANSWER: C
 248. The following category of individuals can consider surgical
contraception EXCEPT
a. Clients who might want children in the far future
b. Couples who do not want more children
c. Obstetric problem which may endanger mothers life
d. Systemic condition – severe kidney, liver & heart problems
ANSWER: A
249. Women with a menstrual cycle of
…………………..to……………………. days can use the cycle beads
a) 21 to 28
b) 21 to 32
c) 28 t0 32
d) 26 to 32
ANSWER: D
250. All the following are fertility based awareness methods EXEPT
a) symto thermal method
b) Lactational amenorrhea method
c) Billings method
d) Standard days method
ANS: B