1. Which data model type in Salesforce CDP defines interactions with party?

a. Sales Order
b. Transaction
c. Engagement
d. Individual

2. What modeling format describe the Individual and Contact Point objects?
a. Jagged
b. Normalized
c. Compress
d. De-Normalized

3. Which field in the recommended source schema is not editable?

a. Field Label
b. Field API Name
c. Header Label
d. Data Type

4. How many Salesforce orgs can an administrator connect to Salesforce CDP?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 10
d. No hard limit

5. Which Salesforce CDP use case merges customer information from various systems to create a single
Id, a single record for a customer?
a. Audience Segmentation
b. Consent Management
c. Data Unification
d. Identity Resolution

6. What role in a company was Salesforce CDP designed for?

a. Developer
b. Marketer
c. Salesperson
d. Data Analyst

7. Which Salesforce CDP use case drives acquisition of new customers based on first party data?
a. Universal Suppression across known channels
b. Loyalty Segmentation
c. Prospective Look-a-Likes with paid media
d. Post-purchase

8. What are the two file type options for activation for Cloud Storage?
a. .json
b. .csv
c. .zip
d. .xls
9. Where are activated segments found in Marketing Cloud?
a. Filtered Data Extensions
b. Standard Data Extension
c. Shared Data Extension
d. Salesforce Data Extensions

10. Which two steps required when setting up a Marketing Cloud activation?
a. Set publish schedule
b. Choose an Activation Target
c. Set subscriber key field
d. Select the Email Contact Point

11. Which two files are activated to Cloud file storage to publish segment?
a. A file that contains security credential
b. A file that contains the segment defination
c. A file that contains the segment members with additional attributes
d. A file that contains calculated insights

12. What is the recommendation for activation when multiple data sources are brought into CDP?
a. Activate on Individual
b. Do not use Identity Resolution
c. Use Identity Resolution and activate on Unified Individual
d. Activate based on source identifiers

13. Which operator can be used to check if an attribute value in blank?

a. Is Not Null
b. Has No Value
c. Is Null
d. Is Empty

14. Where do calculated insights appear in the segmentation attribute library?

a. They always appear in Direct Attributes
b. They always appear in Related Attributes
c. They appear under the objects that were used to create them
d. They appear under Profile type objects

15. Where does Data Specialist enable value suggestion on an attribute for segmentation?
a. Segment Setup
b. Data Mapping (accurate)
c. Data Modeling
d. Data Stream Setup (it can be also answer. HELP doc )

16. What are the two benefits of Calculate Insights compared to Segment criteria?
a. It creates simple logic on row-based operations
b. It creates reusable contents
c. Marketer friendly drag and drop interface
d. It performs complex queries on multiple objects
17. A purchase order number is specified as text field type. What value will segmenting on Purchase order
number | is equal to | 0122 return?
a. Purchase order number 122
b. Purchase order number 0122
c. Purchase order number 0122 and 122
d. Purchase order number NULL

18. What is the result of a segment using two separate containers linked by an AND:
SalesOrder.PurchasedItem = ‘Yellow’ AND SalesOrder.PurchasedItem = ‘Belt’?
a. Customer who purchased only ‘Yellow Belt’ items on the purchase.
b. Customer who purchased any yellow product and also purchased belt of any color.
c. Customer who purchased ‘Yellow Belt’ as a single product on the purchase.
d. Customer who purchased ‘Yellow Belt’, or any ‘yellow’ item, or any ‘belt’ items on the purchase.

19. What data model object category can a marketer create segments on?
a. Unified Individual Only
b. Engagement
c. Profile
d. Other

20. What programming language is used to configure Calculate Insights?

a. Python
b. SOQL
c. ANSI SOQL
d. DCL

21. How many Marketing Cloud instances, or Enterprise IDs can be connected to one Salesforce CDP org?
a. Two
b. Four
c. One
d. Three

22. Which two dependencies need to be removed prior to disconnecting a data source?
a. Activation Target
b. Data Stream
c. Segment
d. Activation

23. Which two CRM objects are included in both Sales and Service Cloud Data Bundle?
a. Campaign Member
b. Contact
c. Opportunity
d. Account

24. Which data bundle sources are available out of the box to create Data Streams from Marketing
Cloud?
a. Email only
b. Email and MobileConnect
c. Email, MobileConnect and MobilePush
 d. Email, MobileConnect, MobilePush and GroupConnect

25. Which two dependencies can prevent a Data Stream from being deleted?
a. A data stream attribute is mapped to a Data Model Object
b. A data stream attribute is used in Segmentation
c. A data stream attribute is used in Calculated Insights
d. A data stream attribute is used in Activation

26. In addition to Unified Individual Object, what other object does Salesforce CDP automatically create
and manage during the Identity Resolution process?
a. Unified Lead Objects
b. Unified Contact Point Objects
c. Unified Order Objects
d. Unified Product Objects

27. What does the ignore empty value option do in Identity Resolution?
a. Ignores empty reconciliation rules
b. Replaces the value with a null
c. Ignores empty fields when running reconciliation
d. Modified the value in the field with a predefined value

28. What does the source sequence reconciliation rule do in Identity Resolution?
a. Source data from disparate systems across the enterprise.
b. Reconcile data by data that’s most frequent across records.
c. Sort data sources in order of most to least preferred for inclusion in Unified Profile.
d. Includes data from sources where the data is alphanumerically sequenced.

29. What is the purpose of Identity Resolutions?

a. Increase the size of your mailable customer list
b. Perform data hygiene on large data set
c. Build a cohesive, omnichannel view of customers
d. Drive more revenue through ecommerce channels

30. Which of these three CRM objects do reconciliation rules operate across?
a. Contact
b. Party Identification
c. Individual
d. Lead
e. Contact Point Email

31. Which two Interaction Studio features are updated with activation from Salesforce CDP?
a. Event Data
b. Segments
c. Promotions
d. Profile Attributes

32. Which two types of data can be ingested from Interaction Studio using the connector?
a. Product Catalog
b. Behavioral Events
 c. User Profile
d. Segment Membership

33. What is the max limit of records can be retrieved by the Profile and Query API in a single call?
a. 2000
b. 9999
c. 4999
d. No max limit

34. Which data model in Salesforce CDP defines the future revenue or quantity for an opportunity of the
product family?
a. Product
b. Sales Order
c. Party
d. Engagement

35. Which formula function should a Data Specialist use to create composite key if the primary key is not
available in the data stream?
a. COALESCE
b. UUID
c. CONCATE
d. SUBTITUTE

36. What are the two steps of data ingestion in Salesforce CDP?
a. Map ingested data to existing ingested data objects.
b. Map ingested data to data model with consistent semantics.
c. Preserve data per source schema with ingestion to data lake.
d. Establish a connection with the source data via REST API

37. How can a Data Subject Rights request from a customer be submitted to Salesforce CDP?
a. Using the consent API
b. Using a dedicated field in data stream
c. Using a dedicated data stream
d. Using Data Explorer

38. Which three Object types are available under Data Explorer?
a. Data Source Object
b. Data Model Object
c. Segment Objects
d. Data Extensions
e. Calculated Insights

39. What is the primary object for an Organization, Individual, Affiliation Group, Member in the Cloud
Information Model?
a. Membership
b. Party
c. Global Account
d. Individual
40. What is the correct formula to display the value of the raw data column of “Revenue” plus a 5%
margin?
a. SELECT([‘Revenue’] *1.05)
b. SELECT([‘revenue’] *1.05)
c. sourceField([‘Revenue’] *1.05)
d. sourceField([‘revenue’] *1.05)

41. Which function does the Copy SOQL button perform in Data Explorer?
a. Copy SOQL for any formula fields in that object
b. Copy SOQL for the current data view to clipboard and export
c. Copy SOQL for data export from Salesforce CDP
d. Copy SOQL for the current data view to clipboard

42. What type of data is collected by a company or entity that does not have a direct relationship with
the visitor and customer?
a. Partner Data
b. First Party Data
c. Third Party Data
d. Second Party Data

43. Which authentication type is supported for Cloud File storage activation target?
a. Using private key certificate
b. Using encrypted username and password
c. Using access and secret keys
d. Using JWT token

44. What can cause a published schedule to be skipped?

a. Segment criteria is not correct
b. Activation schedule is paused
c. Segment has 0 records
d. Too many schedules at same time

45. What programming language is used to configure Calculated Insights

a. Python
b. DCL
c. SOQL
d. ANSI SOQL

46. How long does it take for the suggested values to be visible after being enabled?
a. Up to 1 week
b. Up to 24 hours
c. Instantly
d. Up to 48 hours

47. Which datatype is not supported in Salesforce CDP?

a. Date
b. Boolean
c. Text
d. Number
48. How many Business Units under the same Enterprise ID (EID) can be connected for data
ingestion?
a. 1
b. 4
c. 10
d. No hard limit

49. Which user role manages the data model and creates Identity Resolution rulesets for unified
profiles?
a. Admin
b. Marketing Specialist
c. Data Aware Specialist
d. Marketing Manager

50. What is the relationship between Individual and Contact Point Objects?
a. 1:1
b. 1: Many
c. Many: Many
d. None of the above

51. Which of these is present in Identity Resolution Summary?

a. Unified Individuals
b. Last Processing Status
c. Matched Individuals
d. All the above

52. When can the data types be changed during ingestion?

a. After the DSO is created
b. Before DSO is created
c. Data type can never be changed
d. Data type can be changed at any time

53. Which of the following functions returns the first value from a list that isn’t empty?
a. CONCAT
b. COALESCE
c. REPLACE
d. FIND

54. How many days of historical data is loaded when B2C Commerce Data Stream is created
from the Order Bundle?
a. 90 days
b. 60 days
c. 30 days
d. 10 days

55. What is the maximum limit of the number of records for Full Refresh Extract Method?
a. 10 million
b. 40 million
 c. 50 million
d. No hard limit

56. Which type of measures with aggregate functions are supported?

a. Date
b. Text
c. Numeric
d. Boolean

57. How many Metrics can be present in 1 segment container?

a. 1
b. 5
c. 10
d. 100

58. How many calculated insights can be created per tenant?

a. 5
b. 10
c. 50
d. 100

59. Which of the following cannot be used in Segmentation? (Choose 2)

a. Numeric Measures
b. Text Measures
c. Aggregate Functions
d. Date Time Measures

60. Which of the following are characteristics of Formulas? (Choose 2)

a. Simple logic on a row-based operation
b. Ease of use, self-service
c. Highly reusable content
d. Attribute updated regularly

61. What is a DMO called if it inherits the name, shape, and semantics of the reference object?
a. Custom DMO
b. Standard DMO
c. Data Lake Object (DLO)
d. Data Source Object (DSO)

62. How do the Data streams that use the Marketing Cloud Connector refresh data?
a. Manually refreshed by CDP Admin
b. Marketing Cloud’s Automation Studio handles this process.
c. APIs are used for refresh
d. None of the above

63. What should be the type of the Event Time Field while ingesting Engagement data?
a. Mutable
b. Inconsistent
 c. Immutable
d. None of the above

64. What happens if no file name is specified in AWS S3 data stream during ingestion?
a. The system does not fetch any file and the data stream shows an error.
b. The system chooses the first file found in the S3 bucket
c. The ingestion setup can’t be completed without specifying the filename.
d. The ingestion setup is completed but the data stream shows 0 records.

65. Which archive formats are supported by Salesforce CDP?

a. CSV
b. GZ
c. TSV
d. ZIP

66. Which data model defines the complete set of experiences that customers go through when
interacting with a company?
a. Party Data Model
b. Journey Data Model
c. Engagement Data Model
d. Case Data Model

67. What are the two benefits of using Calculated Insights compared to Segmentation Criteria?
a. It creates reusable content
b. Performs complex queries across multiple objects.
c. Simple logic on row-based operations
d. Friendly drag & drop interface

68. What are 2 options to stop a segment from publishing?

a. Disable
b. Skip
c. Unpublish
d. Delete

69. Which Interaction Studio features are updated by activation from CDP?
a. Engagement data
b. Event data
c. Profile attributes
d. Segments

70. What are the two options for the publishing schedule of segments?
a. Don’t Refresh
b. Data Stream schedule
c. 12 or 24 hrs
d. Activation schedule

71. Which types of data can be ingested from Interaction studio?

a. Sales data
 b. Segment membership
c. Behavioral Events
d. User profile

72. How is Restriction of Processing request handled in segmentation?

a. Restricts data processing on all entities
b. Restricts data processing while saving the segment
c. Restricts data processing for individual and unified individual profile
d. Restricts data processing during activation

73. Which permission set allows the user to create, manage and publish segments in Salesforce
CDP?
a. Salesforce CDP Admin
b. Salesforce CDP Data aware specialist
c. Salesforce CDP Marketing Manager
d. Salesforce CDP Marketing Specialist

74. Which dependencies need to be removed before a data stream can be deleted?
a. Data Model
b. Segmentation
c. Calculated Insights
d. Activation

75. How many marketing cloud EIDs can be connected to Salesforce CDP?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 1
d. 2

76. Which two features are impacted by the Time zone setting in CDP instance? [Corrected]
a. Ingestion Schedule
b. Activation Schedule
c. Identity Resolution publish schedule
d. Segmentation schedule

77. A developer wants to create a segment for a birthday campaign which is refreshed every day
and activated. Which operator should he use?
a. Is Birthday
b. Is This Year
c. Is Anniversary Of
d. Is Between

78. Which data type is collected by a company that does not have any direct relationship with
the customer?
a. Partner data
b. First party data
c. Second party data
d. Third party data
79. Which configuration supports separate AWS S3 buckets for data ingestion and activation?
a. Separate user credentials for data stream and activation
b. Dedicated S3 data source configuration in CDP Setup
c. Separate user credentials for data stream and activation target
d. Dedicated S3 data source configuration in Activation Setup

80. Which two file types are available for Cloud Storage activation?
a. .json
b. .csv
c. .xls
d. .zip

81. The purchase order number field is specified as text. What value will be segmenting on 0852
retrieve?
a. Purchase order number will be NULL
b. Purchase order number 852
c. Purchase order number 0852
d. Purchase order number 852 and 0852

82. In which two ways can a marketer include campaign name from an external system into the
segment?
a. Include campaign code in segment name
b. Include campaign code in activation name
c. Include campaign code in activation description
d. Include campaign code in filename specification

83. How can an administrator check segment publishing status?

a. Segments publish summary dashboard
b. Publish History related list in Activation Record
c. Segments publish history report
d. Publish History related list in Segment Record

84. What is customizable in Salesforce CDP canonical model?

a. Objects
b. Objects & Fields
c. Fields
d. Objects, Fields & relationships

85. How often does subscriber data from Marketing Cloud Bundles refresh?
a. Every 12 hours
b. Every 15 mins
c. Hourly
d. Daily

86. Which two files are created in Cloud Storage bucket after segment is published?
a. File with the security credentials
b. File containing calculated insights
c. File containing segment definition
 d. File containing segment members with additional attributes

87. How many CRM orgs can be connected to CDP instance?

a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. No hard limit

88. Which 2 characteristics describe the CIM (Cloud Information Model)?

a. Product sold by salesforce
b. Conceptual model
c. Statistical model
d. Canonical model

89. How should Data Subject Rights request be submitted to Salesforce CDP?
a. Using a dedicated field in data stream
b. Using Consent API
c. Using dedicated data stream
d. Using Data Explorer

90. Which of the fields is non-editable during data ingestion?

a. Field label
b. Header label
c. Field API name
d. Data Type

----

New additions (After exam on Nov 29)

91. Which Steps should an administrator take if a successfully configured cloud storage data
stream fails to refresh with a NO FILE FOUND error message ?
a. Check if the file exists in S3 bucket
b. Check permissions are configured for the CDP user
c. Check permissions are configured for the S3 user
d. Check if cloud storage data source is enabled in cdp set up

92. A marketer needs to create several segments with similar filter criteria for multiple brands.
How can marketer create these segments as efficiently as possible?
a. Use and attribute filter feature in activation
b. Create a segment and clone via API for each brand
c. Create a reusable container block with common criteria
d. Create a segment and copy for each brand.

93. In Salesforce CRM, the customer has a custom ‘Customer_Email__c’ object related to
standard ‘Contact’ object. Which CDP data model object do you map it to?
a. Contact
b. Custom ‘Customer_Email’ object
 c. Contact Point Email
d. Individual

94. What is the maximum number of filter criteria a segment can have?
a. 10
b. 50
c. 500
d. 99
95. What three things happen when an admin clicks on identity resolution deletion?
a. Deletes all custom data model objects
b. Removes all unified customer data
c. Resets all settings in identity resolution
d. Eliminates dependencies on data model objects
e. Removes all source profile data
96. Data from which object will be deleted when processing a Data Deletion or Right to be
forgotten request
a. Individual and all related entities in data model
b. Individual, all related entities in data model and mapped data streams
c. Unified individual, all related entities in data model and mapped data streams
d. Unified individual and all related entities in data model
97. What is the first step in the two step process to ingest data from SFMC to Salesforce CDP?
a. Extract marketing Cloud data to customer owned S3 bucket
b. Extract Marketing cloud data to Salesforce owned SFTP
c. Extract Marketing Cloud data to Salesforce owned S3 bucket
d. Extract Marketing Cloud data to customer owned SFTP
98. How should an admin view past processing for resolution rules in Identity Resoultion?
a. Run History
b. Audit History list view
c. View processing Audit Trail
d. Click on view history
99. What result will a segmentation filtering on City | Is Equal To | ‘San José’ return?
a. Values containing San José’, San Jose only
b. Values containing San Jose’, san jose only
c. Values containing San José’, San Jose, san josé, san jose
d. Values containing San José’, san josé only
100. What are the two refresh models available for a cloud storage data stream?
a. Update
b. Upsert
c. Append
d. Full Refresh
101. Salesforce CDP creates automations in SFMC automation studio to support data
ingestion. Under which all these automations be created?
a. All business unites (BUs) in the Account used for sending
b. All selected business unites (BUs) during mapping
c. Top-level (ENT) business unit only
d. All business units (BUs) in the Account including Top-Level (ENT) business unit
102. Which operator can be used to find individuals whose loyalty is gold, platinum or
higher?
 a. Is In
b. Is between
c. Is less than or equal to
d. Is greater than
103. Which permission set needs to be added to the salesforce CRM object to be
available in Salesforce CDP
a. Salesforce CDP external connector
b. Salesforce External Integration
c. Salesforce CDP Salesforce Connector Integration
d. Salesforce External Connector
104. How can the records in a Data Stream object be updated?
a. Using API
b. Using Data Explorer
c. Using the edit Data Stream feature
d. Using a new source file
105. What are two root causes to why companies face fragmented data issues ?
a. Department silos
b. Employees working from home
c. Misaligned business goals
d. No eCommerce websites

106. What should a Marketer do first when implementing Salesforce CDP?

a. Manage Consent
b. Identify Data Sources
c. Obtain Cross-organizational buy-in
d. Identify Activation Targets

107. In addition to email, which three attributes are available on the interface of ….
rd
(3 answer Doubt between Address and Government ID)
a. Social Handle
b. Government ID
c. First and Last Name
d. Phone Number
e. Address

108. Which three types of data can Identity Resolution combine into a unified Profile?
a. Corporate Performance
b. Behavioral
c. Transactional
d. Product
e. Profile

109. Which two features can be used to validate the data in the unified profile object?
[Answer need confirmation]
a. Query API
b. Data Explorer
c. Segmentation
d. Identity Reconciliation
110. What Salesforce CDP API enables simultaneous retrieve of customer profile along
with their calculated insights?
a. Profile API
b. Query API
c. Calculated Insights API (Doubt)
d. Metadata API

111. What permission setting should an admin check if the custom CRM object is not
accessible from CDP?
a. Create object permission enabled in CDP org
b. Read object permission enabled in Source CRM Org
c. Modify all object permission enabled in CDP org
d. View All object permission enabled in Source CRM org

112. How can a marketer change attribute names to match personalization in an

Activation Target?
a. Update field names in data model
b. Set preferred attribute names when configuring activation target
c. Update attributes names in the data stream configuration
d. Set preferred attribute names when configuring activation

113. What configuration step has to be completed before marketing cloud activation?
a. Assign Salesforce CDP activation permission set to the user
b. Enable segment publishing to marketing cloud
c. Allow audience creation from CDP in marketing cloud
d. Selects business units for activation

114. How does an admin increase the consolidation rate for identity resolution?
a. Add more matching rules to broaden the search of matches
b. Change the ignore empty value option
c. Change all reconciliation rules to source sequence
d. Reduce the number of matching rules

115. Which CDP permission set manages the overall segmentation strategy and identifies
the target campaigns?
a. Marketing specialist
b. IT manager
c. Marketing manager
d. Data Aware Specialist

116. What must CDP admin user do first when setting up users in CDP?
a. Creates profile for each CDP user role
b. Assign permission sets
c. Configure Data Source
d. Set up each use as admin

117. Data Explorer is enabled for which permission set?

 a. Data Aware Specialist
b. CDP Admin
c. –
d. –
118. What object is required to Exact Party Match?
a. Party Identification

119. Marketing Cloud Contact data how frequently get refreshed? – Hourly
120. Salesforce CRM full refresh how frequent? - Every other week
121. What is the process called of Cleaning, Deduplicating, Merging data into a single ID?
a. Data Unification
b. Data Mining
c. Data Cleansing
122. Which CDP objects are available as tables via the Tableau connector to discover new
insights about customers?
a. Calculated insights
b. Data Model Objects
c. All Objects
d. Unified Profile