Practice Test 1

1 1
Reading Test
65 MINUTES, 52 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 1 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS

Each passage or pair of passages below is followed by a number of questions. After reading
each passage or pair, choose the best answer to each question based on what is stated or
implied in the passage or passages and in any accompanying graphics (such as a table or
graph).

Questions 1–10 are based on the following passage. renewed life. Delay? Why should there be delay? Amy
wished nothing but to become his wife. Idle to think
This passage is excerpted from George Gissing, New Grub
of his doing any more work until he sat down in the
Street. Originally published in 1891. Reardon was a newly
home of which she was mistress. His brain burned with
successful author and had married, but soon found himself
30 visions of the books he would henceforth write, but his
unable to write. Following a conversation with his wife,
hand was incapable of anything but a love-letter. And
he takes a walk and thinks about the time just before his
what letters! Reardon never published anything equal
wedding.
to those. ‘I have received your poem,’ Amy replied
And the words sang about him, filled the air with a to one of them. And she was right; not a letter, but a
mad pulsing of intolerable joy, made him desire to fling 35 poem he had sent her, with every word on fire.
himself in passionate humility at her feet, to weep hot The hours of talk! It enraptured him to find
Line tears, to cry to her in insane worship. He thought her how much she had read, and with what clearness
5 beautiful beyond anything his heart had imagined; her of understanding. Latin and Greek, no. Ah! but she
warm gold hair was the rapture of his eyes and of his should learn them both, that there might be nothing
reverent hand. Though slenderly fashioned, she was so 40 wanting in the communion between his thought and
gloriously strong. ‘Not a day of illness in her life,’ said hers. For he loved the old writers with all his heart;
Mrs. Yule, and one could readily believe it. they had been such strength to him in his days of
10 She spoke with such a sweet decision. Her ‘I love misery.
you!’ was a bond with eternity. In the simplest as in the They would go together to the charmed lands of
greatest things she saw his wish and acted frankly upon 45 the South. No, not now for their marriage holiday—
it. No pretty petulance, no affectation of silly-sweet Amy said that would be an imprudent expense; but as
languishing, none of the weaknesses of woman. And soon as he had got a good price for a book. Will not
15 so exquisitely fresh in her twenty years of maidenhood, the publishers be kind? If they knew what happiness
with bright young eyes that seemed to bid defiance to lurked in embryo within their foolish cheque-books!
all the years to come. 50 He woke of a sudden in the early hours of one
He went about like one dazzled with excessive light. morning, a week before the wedding-day. You know
He talked as he had never talked before, recklessly, that kind of awaking, so complete in an instant, caused
20 exultantly, insolently—in the nobler sense. He made by the pressure of some troublesome thought upon
friends on every hand; he welcomed all the world to the dreaming brain. ‘Suppose I should not succeed
his bosom; he felt the benevolence of a god. 55 henceforth? Suppose I could never get more than this
‘I love you!’ It breathed like music at his ears when
he fell asleep in weariness of joy; it awakened him on
25 the morrow as with a glorious ringing summons to CONTINUE

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poor hundred pounds for one of the long books which 4
cost me so much labour? I shall perhaps have children Which statement best describes a technique used to
to support; and Amy—how would Amy bear poverty?’ represent Amy’s desire to marry the narrator?
He knew what poverty means. The chilling of
A) The narrator describes in detail her youthful
60 brain and heart, the unnerving of the hands, the slow
enthusiasm as a major motivating factor.
gathering about one of fear and shame and impotent
wrath, the dread feeling of helplessness, of the world’s B) The narrator asks a hypothetical question that is
base indifference. Poverty! Poverty! immediately refuted.
C) The narrator applauds her decision as a reflection
of an inner strength that is unparalleled.
1
D) The narrator stresses her sincerity as proof of a
Which choice best describes a major theme of the dedication fostered by her maidenhood.
passage?
A) The internal battle between true love and self-
doubt 5
B) The unequivocal joy of marital bliss As compared with his love letters, the narrator’s book
C) The destructive power of encroaching poverty writing is portrayed as being
D) The fear of never reaching one’s ultimate potential A) agreeable.
B) stalled.
C) fiery.
2
D) imaginative.
According to the narrator, when the woman he loved
learned of his feelings for her, she
A) pledged her undying affection in return. 6
B) dedicated herself to her maidenhood. In describing the relationship between Amy and
C) reconsidered her prior refusal of his advances. the narrator, the narrator highlights a distinction
between Amy’s
D) wrote her own book of poetry.
A) desire for marriage and his readiness.
B) beauty and his common appeal.
3 C) conventional education and his love of language.
Which choice provides the best evidence for the D) distaste for spending and his ability to write.
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 7–8 (“Though . . . strong”)
B) Lines 10–11 (“She spoke . . . eternity”) 7
C) Lines 26–27 (“Amy wished . . . wife”) Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
D) Lines 33–35 (“Amy replied . . . fire”)
A) Lines 4–7 (“He thought . . . hand”)
B) Lines 11–13 (“In the . . . it”)
C) Lines 38–41 (“Latin . . . hers”)
D) Lines 45–47 (“No, not . . . book”)

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 443

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8 10
As used in line 40, “wanting” most nearly means What function does the last paragraph (lines 59–63)
A) lacking. serve in the passage as a whole?
B) requesting. A) It expands upon the overall theme of the narrator’s
never-ending love for Amy.
C) pleasing.
B) It lists the long-term effects that poverty could
D) desiring. have on the narrator’s relationship.
C) It provides evidence that the narrator cannot
support his wife by revealing his hysteria.
9
D) It intensifies the narrator’s growing concerns
The narrator uses the phrase “what happiness lurked about his ability to support his marriage.
in embryo” (lines 48–49) to present the publishers as
A) kind.
B) wealthy.
C) influential.
D) foolish.

CONTINUE

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Questions 11–21 are based on the following passage regions in the Northern Hemisphere. Its use declined
and supplementary material. in favor of the much finer accuracy of GPS after it
became available for civil use in 1995, but the U.S.
This passage is excerpted from Dan Glass, “What Happens if
45 Coast Guard continued working on an improved
GPS Fails?” ©2016 by The Atlantic.
system using the existing infrastructure. If adopted,
Despite its name, the Global Positioning System “Enhanced” LORAN, or eLoran, could provide
is not about maps; it’s about time. Each satellite in positioning accuracy comparable to GPS. Broadcast at
the constellation (24 are needed, plus the U.S. has hundreds of thousands of watts, the signal is virtually
Line several spares) has multiple atomic clocks on board, 50 un-jammable, and unlike GPS, can even be received
5 synchronized with each other and to Coordinated indoors, underwater, and in urban or natural canyons.
Universal Time (UTC)—the time standard used It also turns out that eLoran can provide a UTC time
across the world—down to the nanosecond. The signal with sub-microsecond time resolution across a
satellites continually broadcast their time and position large geographical area.
information down to Earth, where GPS receivers in 55 The technology is available—the Coast
10 equipment from iPhones to automated tractors acquire Guard demonstrated a working prototype last year—
signals and use the minuscule differences in their so why isn’t America using it? John Garamendi,
arrival time to determine an exact position. a California congressman, asked this question at
While GPS was initially conceived to aid a July 2015 congressional hearing on the Federal
navigation, globally synchronized time is now a much 60 Radionavigation Plan, the nation’s primary planning
15 more critical function of the system. Telecom networks document for position, navigation, and timing (PNT).
rely on GPS clocks to keep cell towers synchronized “There are two kinds of time,” he opened, “real time …
so calls can be passed between them. Many electrical and then federal time, which seems to be the forever
power grids use the clocks in equipment that fine- time. The eLoran system was identified as a backup 15
tunes current flow in overloaded networks. The finance 65 years ago, and here we are, federal time, not yet done.”
20 sector uses GPS-derived timing systems to timestamp Why is the sense of urgency among decision-
ATM, credit card, and high-speed market transactions. makers so out of sync? Could some of it be similar
Computer network synchronization, digital television to why people delay backing up their computers
and radio, Doppler radar weather reporting, seismic even though they’ve been telling themselves to for
monitoring, even multi-camera sequencing for film 70 weeks? How do we decide, when presented a risk with
25 production—GPS clocks have a hand in all. unknown odds, when it’s time to sacrifice time and
What if all these flying clock radios were wiped resources to prevent it?
out, and everything on the ground started blinking Now is a critically important time to answer that
12:00? According to Mike Lombardi, a meteorologist question, as the world has actually been given odds on
at the National Institute for Standards and Technology, 75 another, even more catastrophic risk than GPS failure:
30 “Nobody knows exactly what would happen.” Since so destruction of the electrical power infrastructure itself.
many of these technologies were designed specifically On July 23, 2012, a billion-ton cloud of electrified gases
with GPS in mind, the unsettling truth, he says, is blasted off the far side of the sun at over six million
“there’s no backup.” miles per hour. According to professor Daniel Baker
The bulk of a more promising, comprehensive 80 at University of Colorado, this coronal mass ejection
35 backup system already exists, right here on the ground. (CME) “was in all respects at least as strong as the
After the sextant but before GPS, navigators around 1859 Carrington Event,” referring to the strongest
the world used Long Range Aids to Navigation, or solar storm ever recorded, which set fire to telegraph
“LORAN,” a terrestrial system of transmitters and stations and caused auroras down to Cuba. As was
receiving equipment first developed during WWII. 85 widely reported two years ago, if the 2012 CME had
40 By the mid-1990s, Loran “tower chains” provided occurred one week later, it would have hit Earth.
coverage for North America, Europe, and other

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 445

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Percent of Smartphone Users Who 12
Use Their Phones to get Location-Based Information, As used in line 13, “conceived” most nearly means
over Time, by Age
A) designed.
Percent of Smartphone

100 May-11 Feb-12

B) understood
80
60 C) absorbed.
Users

40
20 D) accepted.
0
18–29 30–49 50+
Age of Smartphone Users
13
Figure 1 The primary purpose of the question in lines 26–28
Data Source: Pew Research Center (“What . . . 12:00”) is to
A) introduce a problem.
Commercial GPS Equipment Revenues in North America
B) correct a misconception.
Timing/Synchro Aviation C) reconsider a perspective.
5% 4%
Machine Control D) undermine an idea.
5%
Precision Agriculture
6%
Automotive 14
Survey/Mapping 39%
8% Which of the following best characterizes Lombardi’s
Marine attitude toward “flying clock radios” (line 26)?
33% A) He is confident about their ability to handle a
multitude of tasks.
B) He is concerned about how they will interact with
Figure 2 the eLoran systems.
C) He is annoyed that no one knows exactly how they
work.
11 D) He is worried that they have no replacement
The main purpose of the passage is to systems in case of emergency.
A) present a problem with a current technology and
highlight a potential solution.
B) provide an overview of how clocks and satellites 15
determine distance and location. Which choice provides the best evidence for the
C) analyze the negative impacts of certain answer to the previous question?
technologies across various industries. A) Line 25 (“GPS clocks . . . all”)
D) praise developers for their ability to answer the B) Line 30 (“Nobody . . . happen”)
hard questions. C) Lines 30–33 (“Since . . . backup”)
D) Lines 34–35 (“The bulk . . . ground”)

CONTINUE

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16 20
As used in line 34, “bulk” most nearly means Which statement is supported by figure 2?
A) dimensions. A) Less than a third of North American GPS revenue
B) mass. comes from the Automotive industry.

C) majority. B) GPS revenues for Surveying/Mapping are less than

GPS revenues for Precision Agriculture.
D) totality.
C) GPS devices are less important for the Aviation
industry than they are for the Marine industry.
17 D) The Automotive and Marine industries make
up a greater percentage of North American GPS
According to John Garamendi, the reason America revenues than the rest of the industries combined.
isn’t using the eLoran system even though the
technology is available is that
A) the system doesn’t use real time. 21
B) government approval takes longer than the Which additional information, if presented in
development of the technology. figure 2, would be most useful in evaluating the
C) federal decision-makers are scared to change statement in lines 13–15 (“While . . . system”)?
systems. A) The total number of GPS devices sold
D) solar storms threaten the system. B) The number of individuals in each industry using
GPS devices
C) The percentage of the industry that relies on the
18
GPS devices
Which choice provides the best evidence for the D) The amount of revenue in dollars for each
answer to the previous question? industry
A) Lines 48–51 (“Broadcast . . . canyons”)
B) Lines 64–65 (“The eLoran . . . done”)
C) Lines 70–72 (“How do . . . it”)
D) Lines 73–76 (“Now is . . . itself ”)

19
According to figure 1, which group is closest in
percentage to the percentage of users 18–29 in May
2011 who got location-based information on their
smartphones?
A) Ages 50+ in Feb 2012
B) Ages 50+ in May 2011
C) Ages 30-49 in Feb 2012
D) Ages 18-29 in Feb 2012

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 447

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Questions 22–31 are based on the following 45 channels it into the King Abdullah Canal, constructed
passage. by USAID in the 1970s to provide irrigation for the
Jordan Valley; Syria takes out another 55 billion
This passage is excerpted from Joshua Hammer, “The Dying of
gallons. So what is the answer?
the Dead Sea.” ©2005 by Smithsonian Magazine.
Environmental activists say that one solution is to
A refuge over the millennia for messiahs, martyrs 50 eliminate the water subsidies altogether. “Unless water
and zealots, the Dead Sea region abounds with sites is priced at its real costs,” says Ra’ed Daoud, managing
sacred to Islam, Christianity and Judaism. Some director of ECO Consult, a water-use consulting firm,
Line Muslims believe that Moses, whom they regard as a “there’s no way you’re going to reduce agriculture.”
5 prophet, lies buried in a hilltop mosque just off the But because the region’s agricultural lobby is strong
main road from Jerusalem. Jesus Christ was said to 55 and the environmental movement weak, says Daoud,
have been baptized in the Jordan River after traveling there has been insufficient leverage for change. Israel’s
down to the Dead Sea from Galilee. And despite its water commissioner, Shimon Tal, recently spoke
name, the Dead Sea helps support one of the world’s publicly about the need to reduce some subsidies,
10 most complex and vibrant ecosystems. Fed by fresh but he admitted that it would be a long and difficult
water springs and aquifers, a half-dozen oases along 60 battle. Another approach is to encourage alternate
the shore harbor scores of indigenous species of plants, water sources. Friends of the Earth Middle East is part
fish and mammals, including ibex and leopards. About of a coalition of 21 environmental groups that has
500 million birds representing at least 300 species, developed proposals to conserve household water use
15 including storks, pelicans, lesser spotted eagles, lesser (about 133 billion gallons a year, as much as that used
kestrels and honey buzzards, take refuge here during 65 in agriculture) and to regulate the amount that can
a biannual great migration from Africa to Europe and be taken out of Israel’s springs. In addition, the Israeli
back again. Ein Feshka, a lush expanse of tamarisk, government is promoting the building of wastewater
papyrus, oleander and pools of crystal water, was treatment plants and desalination facilities; the first
20 used by the late king Hussein of Jordan as a private large one on the Mediterranean was completed this
playground in the 1950s and early ’60s. But as the Dead 70 past August. Over the next five years, the government
Sea recedes, the springs that feed the oases are moving says, these facilities will provide as much as 106 billion
along with it; many experts believe that Ein Feshka and gallons of fresh water annually for agricultural and
other oases could wither away within five years. domestic consumption.
25 One reason for the decline, according to Friends of the Earth is also taking its message to the
environmentalists and various government officials, is 75 farmers themselves—encouraging them to plant crops
a water policy on the part of Israel, Jordan and Syria that use less water and spelling out the advantages of
that encourages unrestricted agricultural use. From renewed tourism in the area. “Israeli agriculture is
the first years of Israel’s existence as a Jewish state, for incredibly mismanaged,” Friends of the Earth director
30 example, when collective farming transformed much Gidon Bromberg says. “The farmers here could be
of it into fertile vineyards and vegetable fields, both 80 planting olives, flowers and other crops like dates that
Labor and Likud governments have bestowed generous don’t require fresh water. They could be using treated
water subsidies on the nation’s farmers. The results sewage water and allow fresh water to flow back into
have been disastrous: today, agriculture accounts for the Jordan River.” Friends of the Earth cites a Haifa
35 just 3 percent of Israel’s gross national product and University study that argues that current uses of the
uses up to half of its fresh water. Recently, Uri Sagie, 85 Jordan River make no sense. “The potential tourism-
chairman of Israel’s national water company, told dollar return of a healthy river and a healthy Dead Sea
a conference of Israeli farmers that a growing and outweighs the little return that agriculture offers,” says
irreversible gap between production and consumption Bromberg.
40 looms. “The water sources are being depleted without
the deficit being restored,” he warned. Jordan lavishes
similar water subsidies on its farmers with similar
consequences: the kingdom takes about 71 billion
gallons of water a year from the Yarmouk River and CONTINUE

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22 26
The primary purpose of the passage is to According to the passage, water laws favor
A) discuss how the governments of Israel, Syria, and A) the tourism industry.
Jordan create water policy. B) government.
B) describe the many species of plants, fish, and C) environmental activists.
mammals that live in the Dead Sea region.
D) farmers.
C) explain the consequences of continuing current
water policy in the Dead Sea region.
D) discuss one cause of the decline of the Dead Sea 27
and outline a possible remedy.
What can reasonably be inferred about the agriculture
industry in the Dead Sea region?
23 A) Its use of water is disproportionate to its impact
on the economy.
As used in line 12, “harbor” most nearly means
B) It is an industry in decline.
A) nourish.
C) The agriculture lobby is the most powerful
B) shelter. influence on governments in the Dead Sea region.
C) entertain. D) It will soon use more than 100 billion gallons of
D) consider. water from treatment facilities.

24 28
The author mentions Ein Feshka primarily in order to Which choice provides the best evidence for the
A) describe a historical site in need of preservation. answer to the previous question?
B) transition from a description of the region to a A) Lines 34–36 (“today . . . water”)
discussion of a problem the region faces. B) Lines 54–56 (“But . . . change”)
C) identify a need for recreation areas in the Dead C) Lines 70–73 (“Over . . . consumption”)
Sea region. D) Lines 77–79 (“Israeli . . . says”)
D) indicate that environmental impacts vary with
different types of land use.
29
What does the author suggest about tourism?
25
A) It was most vibrant in the mid-20th century.
What is the most likely reason the author includes
“both Labor and Likud governments” in lines 28–33 B) Eco-tourism will be an important part of the
(“From . . . farmers”)? future economy in the region.
A) To describe the level of cooperation between C) Tourism may provide more benefit to the Dead
political parties in the Israeli government Sea region’s economy than agriculture currently
does.
B) To emphasize the popularity of current water
policy among all political parties D) Officials in the tourism and agriculture industries
should work together to create policy.
C) To indicate broad political support for water
subsidies
D) To criticize the politicization of natural resources
CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 449

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30 31
Which choice provides the best evidence for the What is the main idea of the final paragraph?
answer to the previous question? A) Farmers can adopt new practices to use less water
A) Lines 18–21 (“Ein Feshka . . . ’60s”) and help maintain the Dead Sea.
B) Lines 66–68 (“the Israeli . . . facilities”) B) Farmers should stop planting crops and focus on
C) Lines 79–81 (“The farmers . . . water”) tourism.

D) Lines 85–88 (“The potential . . . Bromberg”) C) Tourism will soon replace agriculture as the main
industry of the region.
D) In the absence of policy change, farmers are
adjusting their practices to conserve water.

CONTINUE

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Questions 32–41 are based on the following Passage 2
passages. It is clear, therefore, that the readjustment of
distribution must be effected through a readjustment
Passage 1 is adapted from James Platt, Poverty. Originally
of the ownership and management of the essential
published in 1884. Passage 2 is adapted from Will Reason,
45 factors of production. It is not possible to effect this
Poverty. Originally published in 1909. As societies became
readjustment on the basis of unrestricted competition,
more industrialized and urban in the late nineteenth century,
because in the case on the prime factor of production,
discussions arose regarding the root causes of poverty.
the land monopoly is caused, not by any artificial
Passage 1 arrangement, but by the simple natural fact that it is
The aim of charitable persons should not be so 50 essential and restricted in quantity. The only course
much the giving with money in hand, or religious that remains is to find some way of democratizing the
teaching on their lips, as the sympathetic, friendly monopoly value, so that everyone benefits by his due
Line intercourse of man with man, woman with woman, share of what has not been made by the industry of any
5 irrespective of class, and actuated by the desire to and is indispensable to the industry of all.
stimulate hope and energy, and to show the lowest 55 This cannot be effected by parceling it out to
outcast that the world, even to them, may be made individuals, for very obvious reasons. It would have to
more enjoyable, if they have the desire to live a life be continually redistributed, it would be impossible
more in harmony with the better part of their nature; to equate the value of the different parts, and such
10 and so in time, by degrees, as the child is taught to distribution would destroy its productive efficiency.
walk, step by step, we may improve the lowest types of 60 We therefore must look to some means of collective
humanity. ownership and use of these natural forces, and also of
To obtain better dwellings for the poor, it is all the value that accrues not from individual energy,
essential for the poorer class to feel a want for, and industry or skill, but from the conditions which society
15 a desire to have, houses better, cleaner, and more itself affords. “To deal with causes we must strike at
wholesome than those they now inhabit. Too many, 65 the error of distribution, by gradually substituting
at present, wantonly and maliciously, but more public ownership for private ownership of the means
frequently, through neglect and apathy, injure the of production. In no other way can we secure for each
houses in which they live. Many of them prefer to be worker in the hive the full reward of his labor. So long
20 uncomfortable. as between the worker and his just wage stands the
The man or men that are wanted to solve this 70 private landlord and the private capitalist, so long will
difficult question, the only true or real reformers, will poverty remain, and not poverty alone, but the moral
be those who study how to alter the character, estimate degradations which inevitably arise from the devotion
of life, the ideal of existence amongst the poor. From of labor to the service of waste,” [writes L.G. Chiozza in
25 the clergy of all denominations, from every man who “Riches and Poverty.”]
has influence over the masses, we want the moral 75 Here we touch the greatest controversy of the
courage to tell the poor not to marry until they are in a present time, and another volume would be needed to
position to support a wife and family, to be reasonably examine all the reasons for and against such a social
industrious, uniformly thrifty, and unswervingly sober. adjustment. But it is clear that unless some way of
30 The real reformer, the only savior of society, is the man effecting it is found, consistent with fairness to all,
who will tell the poor how they may become less so, by 80 poverty, undeserved and unavoidable, must be the
teaching them how to earn more or spend less, not by lot of many, while equally undeserved income will
robbing others of what they have. continue to be reaped, without conscious or intentional
We must raise the status of the poorer class, fraud on their part, by many others. As the poverty
35 improve their individuality, give them a higher reacts on the character for ill effect, so also it is to be
character, and thus prepare the way for a well- 85 feared that the unearned riches also produce qualities,
working humanity that should result in well-working of a different and more subtle nature, but equally
institutions. We must regenerate the entire social inimical to the true well-being both of the individuals
fabric, through the working of juster laws, purer aims, concerned and of the community.
40 nobler instincts—through individual cooperation of CONTINUE
the many, as one, in contributing to the welfare of all.

Practice Test 1 | 451

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32 36
As used in line 1, “aim” most nearly means Which choice provides the best evidence for the
A) focus. answer to the previous question?
B) shot. A) Lines 50–52 (“The only . . . value”)
C) gift. B) Lines 56–59 (“It would . . . efficiency”)
D) ability. C) Lines 60–64 (“We therefore . . . affords”)
D) Lines 75–78 (“Here we . . . adjustment”)

33
In Passage 1, Platt suggests that one way a society can 37
reduce poverty is to As used in line 69, “just” most nearly means
A) provide in-demand technical training to citizens A) only.
in need of marketable skills. B) strict.
B) redistribute wealth directly from certain types of C) equal.
rich men.
D) fair.
C) teach that the benefits of budgeting outweigh the
benefits of handouts.
D) instruct children in financial matters from a 38
young age.
Reason in Passage 2 would most likely characterize the
position taken by Platt in lines 19–20 (“Many of . . .
uncomfortable”) as
34
A) an accurate description of the root cause of the
Which choice provides the best evidence for the current economic situation of the poorer class.
answer to the previous question?
B) a flawed assumption that generalizes the negative
A) Lines 10–12 (“as the . . . humanity”) behavior of a few.
B) Lines 21–24 (“The man . . . poor”) C) a surprising but realistic statement consistent with
C) Lines 30–33 (“The real . . . have”) the economic trends of the times.
D) Lines 38–41 (“We must . . . all”) D) an offensive characterization of the rich that is not
applicable to other classes of society.

35
In Passage 2, Reason implies that evenly distributing 39
wealth and property among individuals would have Both authors would most likely agree that any social
what consequence? changes undertaken to fight poverty would be
A) Neither the rich nor the poor would reap benefits. A) likely to completely solve the problems of financial
B) All parties to the economy would improve their inequality.
position. B) a stopgap measure needed to prevent the wealthy
C) The rich would take advantage to create their own from keeping their money.
monopolies. C) unsuccessful without a drastic change in the
D) The poor would be able to purchase property at mindset of the poor.
decreased value. D) partial solutions that would present new sets of
challenges.
CONTINUE

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40 41
Which choice best describes the way the two authors Based on Passage 1, Platt would most likely say that
characterize effective ways to reduce poverty? the “readjustment of distribution” Reason mentions in
A) Platt believes that financial education is the key lines 42–43 would have no effect unless
to reducing poverty in a society, while Reason A) property were owned collectively by all members
believes that financial education is irrelevant if of society.
individuals do not participate.
B) profits from property sales were evenly distributed
B) Platt believes that poverty will be reduced only if equally amongst all citizens.
those who are poor truly desire to lift themselves
C) those in poverty exhibited sufficient effort to
out of poverty, while Reason believes that
better themselves.
poverty will be reduced only if society’s wealth is
redistributed. D) the number of available jobs increased enough to
significantly lower unemployment.
C) Platt believes wage regulation from major industry
is a step in the right direction, while Reason
believes that such regulation will be ineffective.
D) Platt believes training clergy to minister to the
poor is the most effective way of improving the
lives of those in poverty, while Reason believes
that unearned riches are a necessary feature of a
society.

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 453

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Questions 42–52 are based on the following passage But what was the source of variation and what was
and supplementary material. the mechanism for passing change from generation
to generation? Darwin “didn’t know anything about
This passage is excerpted from Thomas Hayden, “What
45 why organisms resemble their parents, or the basis
Darwin Didn’t Know.” ©2009 by Smithsonian Magazine.
of heritable variations in populations,” says Niles
[The] first public airing of Darwinian evolution Eldredge, a paleontologist at the American Museum of
caused almost no stir whatsoever. But when Darwin Natural History in New York City.
published his ideas in book form the following In Darwin’s era, the man who did make progress
Line year, the reaction was quite different. On the 50 on the real mechanism of inheritance was the Austrian
5 Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection, or monk Gregor Mendel. In his abbey garden in the late
the Preservation of Favoured Races in the Struggle 1850s and early 1860s, Mendel bred pea plants and
for Life soon sold out its first press run of 1,250 found that the transmission of traits such as flower
copies, and within a year some 4,250 copies were in color and seed texture followed observable rules. An
circulation. Allies applauded it as a brilliant unifying 55 offspring inherits a set of these genetic units from each
10 breakthrough; scientific rivals called attention to the parent. Since the early 1900s, those units of inheritance
gaps in his evidence, including what would come have been known as genes.
to be known as “missing links” in the fossil record; The objection certainly applied to the paucity
and prominent clergymen, politicians and others of ancestral human fossils in Darwin’s time. Years
condemned the work and its far-reaching implications. 60 of painstaking work by paleontologists, however,
15 In 1864 Benjamin Disraeli, later Britain’s prime have filled in many of the important gaps. There
minister, famously decried the idea—barely mentioned are many more extinct species to be discovered,
in Origin—that human beings too had evolved from but the term “missing link” has for the most part
earlier species. “Is man an ape or an angel?” he asked become as outdated as the idea of special creation
rhetorically at a conference. “I, my lord, I am on the 65 for each species. Anthropologists once depicted
20 side of the angels. I repudiate with indignation and human evolution as a version of the classic “March
abhorrence those newfangled theories.” of Progress” image—a straight line from a crouching
Darwin knew that plant and animal species could proto-ape, through successive stages of knuckle
be sorted into groups by similarity, such that birds draggers and culminating in upright modern
clustered into songbirds and raptors, say, with each 70 human beings. “It was a fairly simple picture, but it
25 group subdivided again and again down to dozens was a simplicity born of ignorance,” says biological
or hundreds of distinct species. He also saw that the anthropologist William Jungers of Stony Brook
individuals within any given species, despite many University in New York. “The last 30 years have seen an
similarities, also differed from one another—and some explosion of new finds.”
of those differences were passed from parents to their 75 Asked about gaps in Darwin’s knowledge, Francisco
30 offspring. And Darwin observed that nature had a Ayala, a biologist at the University of California at
brutally efficient method of rewarding any variation Irvine, laughs. “That’s easy,” he says. “Darwin didn’t
that helped an individual live longer, breed faster or know 99 percent of what we know.” Which may sound
leave more progeny. The reward for being a slightly bad, Ayala goes on, but “the 1 percent he did know was
faster or more alert antelope? The lions would eat 80 the most important part.”
35 your slower neighbors first, granting you one more
day in which to reproduce. After many generations
and a great deal of time, the whole population would
run faster, and with many such changes over time
eventually become a new species. Evolution, Darwin’s
40 “descent with modification through natural selection,”
would have occurred.

CONTINUE

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 1 1
Human Fossil Discovery and Naming
*bars represent timespan between fossil discovery and initial
naming of species

Homo neanderthalensis, Germany

Homo erectus, Indonesia

Paranthropus boisei, Tanzania

Homo habilis, Tanzania

Paranthropus aethiopicus, Kenya

Australopithecus afarensis, Ethiopia

Australopithecus garhi, Ethiopia

Ardipithecus kadabba, Ethiopia

1800 1850 1900 1950 2000

On the Origin of Species, published 1859

42 44
Over the course of the passage, the main focus shifts Which choice provides the best evidence for the
from answer to the previous question?
A) a description of Darwin’s life to an overview of A) Lines 9–10 (“Allies . . . breakthrough”)
Darwin’s published works. B) Lines 10–12 (“scientific . . . record”)
B) detailed criticism of Darwin’s controversial theory C) Lines 15–18 (“In 1864 . . . species”)
to qualified support for that theory.
D) Lines 20–21 (“I repudiate . . . theories”)
C) Darwin’s explanation of a scientific mystery to a
summary of how other scientists facilitated that
mystery’s resolution.
45
D) the initial reception for Darwin’s work to a
broader discussion of how his findings continue to The main purpose of the reference to lions in line 34
guide scientific research. is to
A) disprove a questionable theory.
B) introduce a completely new idea.
43 C) reject a burgeoning controversy.
The author most strongly suggests that the largest D) provide a clarifying example.
reason Darwin’s intellectual competitors took issue
with his work was that it
A) didn’t present a complete explanation of the
hypothesized phenomenon.
B) presented ideas that didn’t match what the church
believed.
C) offended readers with its absurd questions.
D) unified what had been intentionally disparate
ideas. CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 455

 1 1
46 49
Which statement best describes the technique the As used in line 71, “born of” most nearly means
author uses to advance the main point of the third A) carried by.
paragraph (lines 42–48)?
B) generated from.
A) He ponders an unproven possibility to highlight
the utility of Darwin’s research. C) possessed by.
B) He poses a question that puzzled those of Darwin’s D) admitted to.
era to foreshadow a forthcoming finding.
C) He presents a criticism from an expert to disprove
50
the theory presented by Darwin.
D) He undermines the importance of Darwin’s theory What purpose does the graph serve in relation to the
by discussing the work of another scientist. passage as a whole?
A) It connects the genetic findings of Mendel with
the biological findings of Darwin.
47 B) It provides indisputable evidence to prove the
The author notes that those who criticized Darwin’s theories contained within Darwin’s On the Origin
work when it first came out were of Species.
A) misguided in attacking scientific discovery based C) It reinforces a statement from an expert that much
solely on the work of another scientist. more has been learned since Darwin’s scientific
era.
B) transparent in their jealous slander against his
success. D) It offers evidence that the fossils found by Darwin
and his contemporaries were different from the
C) mistaken because other scientists had already fossils found in the next century.
proven what Darwin had not.
D) correct in their complaints that his theory lacked
sufficient supporting evidence.

48
Which choice provides the best evidence for the
answer to the previous question?
A) Lines 4–8 (“On the . . . copies”)
B) Lines 49–51 (“In Darwin’s . . . Mendel”)
C) Lines 58–59 (“The objection . . . time”)
D) Lines 73–74 (“The last . . . finds”)

CONTINUE

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 1 1
51 52
Which statement is best supported by the data Based on information from both the graph and the
presented in the graph? passage, the anthropologists’ depiction of the “March
A) Human fossils had been discovered in at least five of Progress”
locations by the time Darwin published On the A) fails to address the discoveries of a variety of
Origin of Species. fossils from numerous human species.
B) Human fossils discovered in Tanzania were named B) accurately depicts the linear origin of modern
more quickly than those found in Kenya. man.
C) Both Paranthropus species shown in the graph C) proves that Darwin’s research on Homo
were discovered in the same country. neanderthalensis was accurate.
D) The more recently a new type of fossil was D) undermines the importance of fossil discoveries
discovered, the less time it took scientists to name made around the world.
the species.

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

Practice Test 1 | 457

 2 2
Writing and Language Test
35 MINUTES, 44 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 2 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS

Each passage below is accompanied by a number of questions. For some questions, you
will consider how the passage might be revised to improve the expression of ideas. For
other questions, you will consider how the passage might be edited to correct errors in
sentence structure, usage, or punctuation. A passage or a question may be accompanied
by one or more graphics (such as a table or graph) that you will consider as you make
revising and editing decisions.

Some questions will direct you to an underlined portion of a passage. Other questions will
direct you to a location in a passage or ask you to think about the passage as a whole.

After reading each passage, choose the answer to each question that most effectively
improves the quality of writing in the passage or that makes the passage conform to the
conventions of standard written English. Many questions include a “NO CHANGE” option.
Choose that option if you think the best choice is to leave the relevant portion of the
passage as it is.

Questions 1–11 are based on the following passage. 1

A) NO CHANGE
NEH: A Human-Centered Agency B) significance
The National Endowment for the Humanities (NEH) C) discipline
is an independent federal agency that was created in 1965 D) subject
to provide grants to humanities projects throughout the
United States. Funding for the agency has been the
2
1 protagonist of debate for many years. Some critics
A) NO CHANGE
2 think the money that goes to the NEH would be better
B) thought
spent on infrastructure or job creation, while others object
C) thinking
to the nature of some of the projects that receive funding.
D) would think

CONTINUE

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 2 2
3 Therefore, the agency provides important services in 3
all fifty states and has had a notable impact on American A) NO CHANGE
culture over the last fifty years. B) Likewise,
C) However,
The NEH was founded as a direct response to an
D) For instance,
explosion in scientific research in the middle years of the
20th century. There was concern, especially among those
in the fields of arts and humanities, that non-scientific 4
pursuits were in danger of getting left behind or A) NO CHANGE
4 overlooked. The NEH addresses this concern by B) in being overlooked.
distributing grant money in seven areas, including C) of oversight.
preservation, research, education, and digital humanities. D) to be overlooked.
Among the most notable projects that have been funded
by the NEH over the last 50 years are the Ken Burns
5
documentary The Civil War, the blockbuster
A) NO CHANGE
Metropolitan Museum of Art exhibition “Treasures of
B) Tutankhamen” and;
5 Tutankhamen”; and sixteen Pulitzer Prize-winning C) Tutankhamen,” and
books. D) Tutankhamen” and,

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 459

 2 2
Although some critics of the NEH argue that the 6
agency’s spending is frivolous in an age when our country A) NO CHANGE
is in desperate need of spending on more concrete things B) has
like infrastructure, NEH grant money 6 which has a C) having
positive impact on local economies. Grants that support D) to have
construction or renovation of facilities employ local
construction workers, and the construction or expansion
7
of a museum creates permanent jobs for staff. Preservation
A) NO CHANGE
funds 7 likewise similarly create jobs for archivists and
B) in the same way
technicians. One striking example is the NEH-funded
C) comparably
excavation of Historic Jamestown—the first permanent
D) DELETE the underlined portion.
English colony in America—which has resulted in the
creation of an entirely new local tourist industry. 8
8
At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following sentence.
Jamestown was thought to be lost for hundreds
of years—scholars knew where it should be, but
found no evidence of it.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A) Yes, because it further explains why the discovery
of Jamestown was important.
B) Yes, because it reinforces the importance of the
NEH grant on the region’s economy.
C) No, because it blurs the paragraph’s focus on the
far-reaching economic effects NEH grants can
have.
D) No, because it undermines the idea that tourist
attractions can contribute to the local economy.

CONTINUE

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 2 2
[1] As federal funding for scientific research and 9
the military continues to increase, we should not forget Which choice most effectively sets up the quote that
Seaborg’s words. [2] In the early 1960s, Glenn Seaborg, follows in this sentence?
then head of the Atomic Energy Commission, expressed A) NO CHANGE

his support for establishing the NEH by 9 cautioning B) emphasizing the importance of science over
humanities:
against an over-reliance on technology: “Science and
C) lobbying for increased funding for computer
technology are providing us with the means to travel research:
swiftly. But what course do we take? This is the question D) arguing for the importance of public art:
that no computer can answer.” [3] The issue should
not be 10 weather to fund the NEH but how much.
10
[4] NEH grants help inform the kind of cultural awareness
A) NO CHANGE
that is vital to our roles as good citizens in a global
B) weather too
community. 11
C) whether to
D) whether too

11
To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 1
should be placed
A) where it is now.
B) after sentence 2.
C) after sentence 3.
D) after sentence 4.

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 461

 2 2
Questions 12–22 are based on the following passage 12
and supplementary material.
A) NO CHANGE
B) commonplace,
Tuition Reimbursement: A Mutual Benefit
C) commonplace
All employers want a well-educated workforce, and
D) commonplace—
one way to accomplish that goal is to provide tuition
assistance benefits to employees. Tuition assistance
programs are 12 commonplace; a 2013 study showed 13
that 61% of U.S. employers offered undergraduate tuition A) NO CHANGE
assistance as a benefit—but their goals and guidelines B) seeing
vary widely. Companies that offer tuition assistance C) have seen
13 see it as a benefit both to employees and to the D) sees

company. Whether employees are taking classes that

are related to their careers or not, tuition assistance 14
programs result in improved morale, 14 also better job A) NO CHANGE
performance, and retention. B) job performance,
C) job performance too,
D) additionally job performance,

CONTINUE

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 2 2
Those who are skeptical of tuition assistance 15
programs argue that 15 the programs cost a lot and Which choice best establishes the argument that
provide very little return on the investment. Some firms follows:
have instituted a requirement that employees receiving A) NO CHANGE

tuition benefits must stay with the company for a specific B) companies should place restrictions on the types
of courses employees can be reimbursed for.
amount of time after completing their educations. 16 In
C) taking classes while working spreads employees
any case, such clauses are hard to enforce, and research too thin, resulting in lower productivity.
shows that they aren’t necessary. Over 80% of workers D) an employee may use the benefit to seek a position
who receive tuition benefits from their employers feel an at a different company.
increased sense of loyalty stemming from the investment,
and they are in fact less likely to 17 leave—than the
16
average employee is.
A) NO CHANGE
B) Consequently,
C) However,
D) Additionally,

17
A) NO CHANGE
B) leave;
C) leave,
D) leave

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 463

 2 2
Increased employee loyalty is not the only way that 18
employers benefit from offering tuition assistance. The A) NO CHANGE
programs can also be powerful recruiting tools. Employers B) borrow money through educational loan
from the U.S. Armed Forces to Starbucks are able to programs.

attract workers who are interested in earning an C) go into debt by financing their educations with
student loans.
education while they earn money, without having to
D) take on the risky proposition of borrowing loan
18 take out loans. Most companies require employees money that would leave them with a significant
to earn a minimum grade in their classes, but student debt burden.
employees often find it easier to maintain their grades
when they feel a responsibility to the company paying
19
for their education, not just to themselves. Managers can
A) NO CHANGE
also use tuition assistance programs to evaluate their
B) goes, then he
employees. If an employee takes advantage of the optional
C) goes; then he
benefit, the thinking 19 goes then he or she is likely to be
D) goes. Then he
a highly motivated and productive worker.

CONTINUE

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 2 2
Some companies are increasing the value of their 20
investment in tuition assistance programs by restricting A) NO CHANGE
the benefit to classes that will provide their employees B) By contrast,
with necessary or helpful job skills. 20 In addition, C) In other words,
some employers have even gone so far as to create custom D) DELETE the underlined portion and begin the
degree or certification programs. The figure shows sentence with a capital letter.
the ways in which a company can leverage its tuition
assistance program to 21 make a killing on the company’s 21
investment in the program. As shown in the figure, the A) NO CHANGE
most effective programs will 22 start with a strategy to B) provide the best return
manage the workforce necessary for a particular field, C) make a whole lot of dough
which will lead to a secure workforce, will provide a D) earn a pile of money
reliable source of talent, and will ultimately make talent
development proceed productively.
22
Benefits of Employee Tuition Assistance Programs Which choice makes the writer’s description of the
figure most accurate?
A) NO CHANGE
Workforce B) start with productive talent development, which
Strategy will lead to strategies for managing the workforce
necessary for a particular field, and will ultimately
Productive Talent lead to a more stable source of talent and also a
Development secure workforce.
C) start with productive talent development, which
will create a secure workforce with a reliable
source of talent, which will ultimately align with
Secure Workforce
strategies for managing the workforce necessary
for a particular field.
D) start with a reliable source of talented workers,
Reliable Source of Talent which will contribute to a secure workforce, will
productively develop that workforce, and will
ultimately lead to strategies for managing the
workforce necessary for a particular field.

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 465

 2 2
Questions 23–33 are based on the following passage. 23
A) NO CHANGE
The Changing Face of Fast Food B) have been
Over the last two decades there 23 are a number of C) will be
studies that have shown a strong correlation between the D) had been
rise of fast food restaurants in the United States and the
rise of obesity. Partly in response to this epidemic, a new
24
trend has taken off in the restaurant business: “fast casual”
Which choice most effectively reinforces the definition
food. It’s difficult to precisely define what fast casual is, but of fast casual given earlier in the paragraph?
it generally refers to restaurants that offer the traditional A) NO CHANGE
quick preparation and counter service of fast food at a B) emphasize the higher quality and freshness of
slightly higher price point, with a focus on fresh, high- their ingredients.
quality ingredients. Though many fast casual restaurants C) serve salads as well as burgers and fries.
have menus that focus on a particular healthy type of food, D) may contribute to the obesity epidemic.
such as salads or vegan foods, others offer the traditional
burgers-and-fries fast food fare. But even fast casual burger
25
joints 24 are often still cheaper than going to a sit-down
A) NO CHANGE
restaurant.
B) quickly: driven
It is generally agreed that Chipotle Mexican Grill C) quickly, driven
started the fast casual trend when it opened its first D) quickly; driven
restaurant in Denver in 1993. The chain grew 25 quickly.
Driven by customers who were attracted to its fresh menu 26
and sustainably sourced ingredients. Many within the fast
At this point, the writer is considering adding the
food industry took notice—McDonald’s even became a following sentence.
major investor—and the fast casual movement was It is somewhat unclear where the term fast casual
born. 26 came from—two different people are generally
credited with coining the term, but it was
trademarked in 1995 by Horatio Lonsdale-Hands.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A) Yes, because it provides important background
for the information presented in the following
paragraph.
B) Yes, because it clarifies the origins of the term “fast
casual.”
C) No, because it blurs the paragraph’s focus on the
beginnings of the fast casual movement.
D) No, because it distracts from the paragraph’s main
idea by introducing a figure whose role in the
movement is unclear.
CONTINUE

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 2 2
Fast casual’s focus on high-quality ingredients is 27
working. During the 2007–2009 recession, spending in the A) NO CHANGE
restaurant business declined for two 27 unbending years. B) linear
28 In fact, during that same period, fast casual business C) even
grew by double digits. Traditional fast food restaurants D) straight
are changing in response. McDonald’s, which is now a
competitor of 29 Chipotle, having sold its interest in
28
the burrito business in 2006, announced recently that it is
A) NO CHANGE
making the switch from frozen burger patties to fresh meat
B) Unsurprisingly,
for its Quarter Pounders at most of its restaurants. This
C) In other words,
comes after the company recently eliminated high fructose
D) In contrast,
corn syrup from 30 they’re buns and announced a plan to
transition to using only eggs from cage-free chickens.
29
A) NO CHANGE
B) Chipotle having sold its interest in the burrito
business in 2006
C) Chipotle, having sold its interest in the burrito
business in 2006
D) Chipotle having sold its interest, in the burrito
business in 2006,

30
A) NO CHANGE
B) their
C) it’s
D) its

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 467

 2 2
While the move to cage-free eggs has the potential to 31
make a big impact on how chicken farms are run, it does A) NO CHANGE
nothing to address one of the bigger problems of fast food: B) indeed,
31 therefore, its lack of nutritional value. Critics also C) for instance,
32 question whether increasingly fast casual restaurants D) specifically,
are actually healthy? The typical meal from Chipotle,
for example, contains over 1,000 calories and a full-day’s
32
allowance of sodium. But 33 change is slowly coming.
A) NO CHANGE
The pressure that fast casual restaurants are putting on
B) increasingly question whether fast casual
their more traditional counterparts as well as the growing restaurants are actually healthy?
number that truly do serve healthy food are indications C) question whether increasingly fast casual
that consumers are paying more attention to what they restaurants are actually healthy.
put in their mouths and that the restaurant industry is D) increasingly question whether fast casual
restaurants are actually healthy.
responding.

33
A) NO CHANGE
B) slow changes are starting to arrive.
C) changes that take a long time are beginning to
come.
D) arriving soon are those changes that never happen
quickly.

CONTINUE

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 2 2
Questions 34–44 are based on the following passage. 34
Which choice most effectively combines the sentences
Did the Rite Cause a Riot? at the underlined portion?
It is commonly understood that at the premiere of A) choreography, which was uncharacteristic through
its lack of
Igor Stravinsky’s The Rite of Spring on May 29, 1913, the
B) choreography that lacked
shocking nature of the ballet caused a riot to break out in
C) choreography, because of it lacking in conveyance of
the audience. The music started with an unnaturally high
D) choreography through which Nijinsky tried not to
bassoon solo, which elicited shouts and jeers from the convey
audience almost immediately. The furor only rose when
the dancers from the Ballets Russes took the stage and
35
began the jerky, convulsive movements of Vaslav Nijinsky’s
A) NO CHANGE
34 choreography. The choreography was shocking
B) brought up among
because it was not characteristic of the grace and fluidity
C) broke out among
typically expected from ballet. A fight soon 35 broke
D) broke out between
up amidst the spectators, the orchestra was pelted with
vegetables thrown by outraged audience members, and the
police were called to restore order. 36
Which choice best establishes the main idea of the
There are many theories 36 as to what caused the paragraph?
audience of The Rite of Spring to react so strongly. It may A) NO CHANGE
have been the dissonant nature of Stravinsky’s music, with B) about why Stravinsky composed such a
its constantly changing rhythms and jarring percussion, controversial piece of music.
or the purposefully awkward, ungraceful movements of C) regarding the role of the police in the uproar.
the dancers. The theme of the ballet 37 itself was a pagan D) surrounding which Russian folk traditions
Stravinsky drew his inspiration from.
ritual in which a virgin sacrifices herself to the god of
spring, may also have upset some viewers. The negative
reception was summed up by a 38 review, in Le Figaro, 37
that proclaimed “We are sorry to see an artist such as A) NO CHANGE
M. Stravinsky involve himself in this disconcerting B) itself, being
adventure.” C) itself
D) itself,

38
A) NO CHANGE
B) review, in Le Figaro that proclaimed,
C) review in Le Figaro that proclaimed,
D) review in Le Figaro, that proclaimed

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 469

 2 2
Although several dozen eyewitness accounts of the 39
evening exist, they are often contradictory and do little A) NO CHANGE
39 to sort of exactly what happened in the Theatre des B) to sort out
Champs-Elysees that night. In fact, if one makes a timeline C) for sort out
of first-person accounts of the Rite’s premiere, descriptions D) for sort of
of the level of disruption and violence increase as the
accounts get further away from the actual event. 40 On
40
the other hand, it’s likely that stories of the riot have gotten
A) NO CHANGE
exaggerated over time.
B) As a result,
C) At the same time,
D) In other words,

CONTINUE

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 2 2
[1] Scholars have also recently begun to suspect that 41
the uproar may have been planned. [2] It is possible that The writer wants to add a supporting detail to explain
he actually planted someone to start shouting, but more the different views of the traditionalists and the
modernists. Which choice best accomplishes this goal?
likely he simply set up an expectation for controversy.
A) NO CHANGE
[3] There was impassioned debate in Paris in the early
B) still going on today: The Rite of Spring remains a
years of the 20th century between traditionalists and controversial piece of music in many circles.
modernists that was 41 exemplified by the debate over C) not limited to music: people also argued over
the Eiffel Tower: modernists saw it as a mark of progress, visual arts, architecture, and literature.
while traditionalists saw it as a monstrosity. [4] Diaghilev D) nothing new: there have always been people who
likely caused members of both groups 42 that believed will be upset by innovation of any kind, and there
always will be.
that others would react strongly to The Rite of Spring.
[5] Serge Diaghilev, the founder of the Ballets Russes, was
a savvy entrepreneur who understood that any publicity is 42
good publicity. [6] From such charged expectations, it is A) NO CHANGE
43 not unsurprising that controversy arose. 44 B) believing
C) who believed
D) to believe

43
Which choice most effectively signals that the result
the author mentions was expected?
A) NO CHANGE
B) surprising
C) not surprising
D) unusual

44
To make this paragraph most logical, sentence 5
should be placed
A) where it is now.
B) before sentence 2.
C) before sentence 3.
D) before sentence 4.

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

Practice Test 1 | 471

 3 3
Math Test – No Calculator
25 MINUTES, 20 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 3 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS

For questions 1–15, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices
provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 16–20,
solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to
the directions before question 16 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use
any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.

NOTES
1. The use of a calculator is not permitted.
2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for which
f(x) is a real number.

REFERENCE

! c 60° x s 45° s 2
2x
•
r h b
w 30° 45°
b a x 3 s
A = πr 2 A = !w c 2= a 2 + b 2
C = 2πr A = 1 bh Special Right Triangles
2

•r h
h r h
h
w r w
! !
4
V = !wh V = πr 2h V = 3 πr3 1 1
V = 3 πr2h V = 3 !wh

The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.

The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2 .
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

CONTINUE

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 3 3
1 3
Which of the following is equivalent to 10 + 2(x − 7) ? a + b = 15
A) −14x + 10 The equation above relates the number of hours, a,
B) 2x + 24 Kevin spends doing homework each week and the
number of hours he spends watching television
C) 2x + 3
each week. If Kevin spends a total of 15 hours doing
D) 2x – 4 homework and watching television each week, what
does the variable b represent?
A) The number of hours spent watching television for
each hour spent doing homework
B) The number of hours spent watching television
each week
2 C) The number of hours spent doing homework each
y week
3x ! " 21
3 D) The total number of hours spent doing homework
and watching television each week
x=y+7
Which ordered pair (x, y) satisfies the system of
equations shown above?
A) (0, −7)
B) (4, 27)
C) (7, 0) 4
D) (9, −16) Josephine purchases a computer for $4,590. The
computer decreases in value at a constant rate for
9 years, after which it is considered not to have any
monetary value. How much is the computer worth 6
years after it is purchased?
A) $1,530
B) $2,295
C) $3,060
D) $4,080

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 473

 3 3
5 7
For i ! "1, which of the following complex Heinrich must buy at least 100 shares of stock for his
numbers is equivalent to (10i − 4i2) − (7 − 3i) ? portfolio. The shares he buys will be from Stock X,
A) −11 + 7i which costs $22 per share and Stock Y, which costs
$35 per share. His budget for buying stock is no more
B) −3 + 13i
than $4,500. He must buy at least 20 shares of Stock
C) 3 – 13i X and 15 shares of Stock Y. Which of the following
D) 11 – 7i represents the situation described if a is the number
of shares of Stock X purchased and b is the number of
shares of Stock Y purchased?
A) 22a + 35b ≤ 4,500
a + b ≥ 100
a ≤ 20
b ≤ 15
6
B) 22a + 35b ≤ 4,500
a + b ≤ 100
x2 " 4x # 8
What is the value of f(−2) if f (x ) ! ? a ≤ 20
x#2 b ≤ 15
A) −3
B) −1 C) 22a + 35b ≤ 4,500
a + b ≤ 100
C) 1 a ≥ 20
D) 3 b ≥ 15
D) 22a + 35b ≤ 4,500
a + b ≥ 100
a ≥ 20
b ≥ 15

8
x2 − 8x + 5
Which of the following is equivalent to the expression
above?
A) (x – 4)2 – 11
B) (x – 4)2 + 11
C) (x + 4)2 – 11
D) (x + 4)2 + 11

CONTINUE

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 3 3
9 11
Juliet is selling photographs as part of a project The graph of function g in the xy-plane is a parabola
for her entrepreneurship class. She sells the first defined by g(x) = (x − 2)(x − 4). Which of the
20 photographs for $10 each. Because the first 20 following intervals contains the x-coordinate of the
photographs sold so quickly, she raised the price of vertex of the graph?
the photographs to $15 each for the rest of the project. A) 6<x<8
After her expenses, Juliet earns a profit of 80% of the
B) 4<x<6
revenues from her sales. What is the least number of
photographs she must sell for the rest of the project to C) −2 < x < 4
earn a profit of at least $400 ? D) −4 < x < −2
A) 18
B) 20
C) 24
D) 32

12
xa3 + ya2 + za = 0
In the equation above, x, y, and z are constants. If the
equation has roots −6, 0, and 4, which of the following
10 is a factor of xa3 + ya2 + za ?
1
A) a – 2
p4q 3 B) a + 4
1
2 2 C) a – 6
p q
D) a + 6
Which of the following is equivalent to the expression
above, where p > 1 and q > 1 ?

p2 4 p
A)
q3 q

p2 p
B)
q3 q

4 p
C)
3
q q

4 p
D)
3
q2

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 475

 3 3
13 15
A homeowners’ association limits the dimensions of
1
If the expression (x + c)(x – c), where c is a positive the pools that it will allow in a particular subdivision.
2 The bylaws state that permits will only be granted for
1
constant, can be rewritten as x2 – 5, what is the pools shaped like rectangular prisms, for which the
2
sum of the length of the pool and the perimeter of the
value of c ? vertical side containing the ladder cannot exceed 200
meters. The perimeter of the ladder side is determined
A) 5 using the width and the depth of the pool. If a pool
has a length of 75 meters and its width is 1.5 times
B) 10
its depth, which of the following shows the allowable
C) 5 depth a, in meters, of the pool?
D) 10 1
A) 0 < a ≤ 62
2

B) 0 < a ≤ 50

1
C) 0 < a ≤ 31
4
14
D) 0 < a ≤ 25
z 2 ! 7z " 3
Which of the following is equivalent to ?
z!2
13
A) z ! 5 "
z!2
7
B) z ! 5 "
z!2

21
C) z ! 9 "
z"2
15
D) z ! 9 "
z"2

CONTINUE

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 3 3
16 18
B The graph of a line in the xy-plane passes through the
point (−2, k) and crosses the x-axis at the point (−4, 0).
The line crosses the y-axis at the point (0, 12). What is
the value of k ?
20°
A D C

In the figure above, point D is on line AC,

AB = BD = CD, and AD = 15. What is the measure,
in degrees, of BCD ? (Disregard the degree symbol
when gridding your answer.)

17
If 15 – 3b = 21, what is the value of 5 – b ?

CONTINUE

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 3 3
19 20
5(10x2 – 300) + (9,844 + 50x2) If n is a constant equal to the number of degrees in an
The expression above can be rewritten in the form angle measuring 3π radians, what is the value of n ?
cx2 + d, where c and d are constants. What is the value
of d – c ?

STOP
If you finish before time is called, you may check your work on this section only.
Do not turn to any other section in the test.

Practice Test 1 | 479

 4 4
Math Test – Calculator
55 MINUTES, 38 QUESTIONS

Turn to Section 4 of your answer sheet to answer the questions in this section.

DIRECTIONS

For questions 1–30, solve each problem, choose the best answer from the choices
provided, and fill in the corresponding circle on your answer sheet. For questions 31–38,
solve the problem and enter your answer in the grid on the answer sheet. Please refer to
the directions before question 31 on how to enter your answers in the grid. You may use
any available space in your test booklet for scratch work.

NOTES
1. The use of a calculator is permitted.
2. All variables and expressions used represent real numbers unless otherwise indicated.
3. Figures provided in this test are drawn to scale unless otherwise indicated.
4. All figures lie in a plane unless otherwise indicated.
5. Unless otherwise indicated, the domain of a given function f is the set of all real numbers x for which
f(x) is a real number.

REFERENCE

! c 60° x s 45° s 2
2x
•
r h b
w 30° 45°
b a x 3 s
A = πr 2 A = !w c 2= a 2 + b 2
C = 2πr A = 1 bh Special Right Triangles
2

•r h
h r h
h
w r w
! !
4
V = !wh V = πr 2h V = 3 πr3 1 1
V = 3 πr2h V = 3 !wh

The number of degrees of arc in a circle is 360.

The number of radians of arc in a circle is 2 .
The sum of the measures in degrees of the angles of a triangle is 180.

CONTINUE

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 4 4
1 3
A certain homeowner uses a gas edger to clean up (4 – a2) – (2a2 − 6)
his lawn every time he mows. If the edger uses 160 Which of the following expressions is equivalent to
milliliters of fuel each time, what is the maximum the one above?
number of times the homeowner can edge his lawn
A) a2 – 2
with 8 liters of fuel? (1 liter = 1,000 milliliters)
A) 5 B) a2 + 10

B) 50 C) −3a2 – 2

C) 100 D) −3a2 + 10

D) 1,000

2 The ordered pair (3, −1) satisfies which of the

following inequalities?
Assignment Choice for Two Physics Classes
Dr. Soper Mr. Coelho Total I. x + 3y > 0
Lab Report II. 2x + 3y > 2
17 21 38
Only
III. x+y<0
Lab Report
and Final 3 2 5
A) I only
Exam
Total 20 23 43 B) II only
C) I and III only
The table above shows the number of students
D) II and III only
who chose to be graded on lab reports only or on
lab reports and final exams in Dr. Soper’s and Mr.
Coelho’s physics classes. What fraction of the students
in Dr. Soper’s class chose to be graded on the lab
report and final exam?

3
A)
43
5
B)
43
3
C)
20
3
D)
5

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 481

 4 4
5
A psychology student randomly selected 300 people
from a group of people who indicated that they Questions 6 and 7 refer to the following information.
preferred to work alone. Those 300 people were given
Bicarbonate Concentration and pH of
a task to work on individually and then asked whether
Well Water in West Texas
they were happy or unhappy while doing the task. Of 8.6
those surveyed, 5% stated they were unhappy while 8.4
doing the task. Which of the following inferences can 8.2
appropriately be drawn from this survey result? 8.0

pH
A) Few people who prefer working alone will be 7.8
unhappy doing this task. 7.6
7.4
B) Few people who do not prefer working alone will 7.2
be happy doing this task. 7.0
C) Less than 5% of people will be happy doing this 25 75 125 175 225 275
task if they do not work alone. Bicarbonate concentration (ppm)
D) Less than 5% of people will be unhappy doing this
task if they work alone. The scatterplot above shows the pH of seven well water
samples in West Texas with respect to the bicarbonate
concentration in ppm (parts per million). The line of best
fit is also shown.

6
According to the scatterplot, which of the following
statements about the relationship between a well’s pH
and its bicarbonate concentration is true?
A) A well with half as much bicarbonate as another
well will have a pH twice that of the other well.
B) Wells that have more bicarbonate tend to have
higher pH.
C) Wells that have more bicarbonate tend to have
lower pH.
D) The bicarbonate concentration of the well water is
unrelated to its pH.

CONTINUE

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 4 4
7 9
A new well is discovered in West Texas with a Andrew works out for 30 minutes every other day. If
bicarbonate concentration of 225 ppm. According he spends 35% of his workout time one day waiting
to the line of best fit, which of the following best for the weight rack, how many seconds of that day’s
approximates the pH of the well water? workout did he spend waiting for the weight rack?
A) 7.1 A) 630
B) 7.3 B) 35
C) 7.4 C) 21
D) 8.4 D) 10.5

10
If 8x – 8yz + 2 = 74, what is the value of x – yz ?
A) 2
B) 6
8
C) 9
25 = (ky – 1)2
D) 16
In the equation above, y = −2 is one solution. If k is a
constant, what is a possible value of k ?
A) −13
B) −3
C) 0
D) 5

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 483

 4 4
11 13
A chef trimmed fat off a steak and was left with a steak
weighing 8.80 ounces. If the weight of the fat was Ten floorboards with equal widths laid down side-
equal to 12 percent of the original weight, what was 3
the original weight, in ounces, of the steak? to-side cover a width of approximately 7 feet. At
4
A) 8.92 this rate, which of the following is the closest to the
B) 9.20
number of boards laid side-to-side needed to cover a
C) 10.00
D) 11.20 width of 32 feet?
A) 15
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40

12
A backpacker is packing survival rations that consist
of granola bars and packets of peanut butter. A
granola bar has 470 food calories, and a packet of
peanut butter has 90 food calories. The backpacker
makes the survival rations using a total of 10 granola
bars and packets of peanut butter combined, and the
granola bars and packets of peanut butter have a total
of 1,660 food calories. Which of the following systems
of equations can be used to determine the number of
granola bars, g, and packets of peanut butter, p, that
are in the survival rations?
A) 280(g + p) = 1,660
g – p = 10
B) 90g + 470p = 1,660
g – p = 10
C) 90g + 470p = 1,660
g = 10 – p
D) 470g + 90p = 1,660
g = 10 – p

CONTINUE

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 4 4
14 15
George’s Distance from
Home over Time
9
8
7
6
a°
a° 60°
Distance (km)

5 a°
4
3
2
1 In the figure above, what is the value of a ?
0
A) 40
0 1 2 3 4 5
Time (hours)
B) 60
C) 100
George recorded his distance from home over a five- D) 130
hour period; his distance and time are shown in the
graph above. According to the graph, which of the
following is NOT true about the five-hour period?
A) George’s distance from home increased at a
constant rate during the first hour of the five-hour
period.
B) George’s distance from home reached its 16
maximum during the first hour. y = –75x + 5,000
C) George remained a constant distance from his The equation above models the amount of money
home for one hour. y, in dollars, remaining in Bo’s bank account x days
D) George was moving further from his home for a after the start of the fall semester. The amount of
longer period of time than he was moving closer money in Bo’s bank account is based on the money
to his home. he earned over the summer and how much he spends
per day during the fall semester. When the equation
is graphed in the xy-plane, what does the slope of the
graph represent in terms of the model?
A) The total amount in Bo’s bank account
B) Daily spending of $5,000
C) Daily spending of $75
D) The amount of money Bo earned over the summer

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 485

 4 4
17 19
Amount in Account and Drop Height and Bounce Height
Interest Rate for 10 accounts
for Eight Balls
Amount in account

3,500
3,000 180
(dollars)

2,500 160
2,000 140

Bounce height (cm)

1,500
1,000
120
500 100
0 80
0 0.5 1 1.5 2 2.5 3 3.5 60
Interest rate (percent) 40
20
The scatterplot above shows data for ten accounts 0
opened by a company, along with the line of best 0 200 400 600 800
fit. For the account that contains the least amount Drop height (cm)
of money, which of the following is closest to the
difference of the actual amount and the amount
predicted by the line of best fit? The scatterplot above shows the height in centimeters
for both the drop and bounce of eight different balls
A) $200
of the same type. The line of best fit for the data is
B) $500 also shown. According to the line of best fit, which
C) $900 of the following is closest to the predicted increase in
bounce height, in centimeters, for every increase of
D) $1,200
100 centimeters in drop height?
A) 25
B) 20
C) 15
D) 10
18
x
If 4 and x + y = 32, what is the value of x – y ?
3
A) −24
B) −8
C) 12
D) 32

CONTINUE

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 4 4
21
If both Formulas A and B give the same estimate for
Questions 20 and 21 refer to the following BMI, which of the following expressions is equivalent
information. to 4w – 100 ?
w
Formula A: BMI w
h2 A)
h2
4w " 100 5w
Formula B: BMI !
5 B)
h2
The formulas above are used in nutrition to estimate the
5w
body mass index BMI, in kilograms per square meter, C)
of adults whose weight w ranges between 50 and 100 4h 2
kilograms and whose height h is measured in meters. 5w 100
D) 2
4h

20
Based on Formula B, what is w in terms of BMI ?

A) w = 5BMI + 25

22
B) w = 5BMI – 25
The number of bacteria colonies h hours after the
5BMI 100 beginning of an experiment is given by the function
C) w =
4 C(h) = 3h – 2h + 20. What does the number 20
5BMI 100 represent in the function?
D) w =
4 A) The final rate of growth, in colonies per hour
B) The initial rate of growth, in colonies per hour
C) One less than the initial number of bacteria
colonies
D) One more than the final number of bacteria
colonies

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 487

 4 4
23 24
Agricultural Land as a Percent of To ship figurines, the figurines are placed in a
Total Land Area, 2014 rectangular box and then small packing pellets are
added. The base of the box has an area of 4.4 in.2,
Country Percent of Total and the height of the box is 6.5 in. If the volume of
Land Area
the air in the box after the figures and pellets are
Brazil 33.8% added is 8.0 in.3, which of the following is closest to
Canada 7.2% the combined volume of the figurines and pellets in
Greenland 0.6% the box?
Latvia 30.1% A) 1.9 in.3
Mexico 54.9% B) 20.6 in.3
New Zealand 42.2% C) 28.6 in.3
Russian Federation 13.3% D) 117.84 in.3
Turkey 50.1%
United States 44.6%

The World Bank measures the amount of land

devoted to agriculture among all 196 countries in the
world. The results from 9 of the countries are given in
the table above. The median percent of agricultural 25
land for all 196 countries is 34.95%. What is the The economy of Argentina as measured by its Gross
difference between the median percent of agricultural Domestic Product (GDP) is shrinking at a rate of 2.6%
land for these 9 countries and the median for all 196 per year. In 2015, the GDP of Argentina was $630
countries? billion. Which of the following functions represents
A) 1.15% Argentina’s GDP, A, in billions of dollars, y years since
B) 4.19% 2015 ?
C) 9.65% A) A(y) = 630 – (1 – 0.26)y
D) 19.95% B) A(y) = 630(1 – 0.26)y
C) A(y) = 630 – (1 – 0.026)y
D) A(y) = 630(1 – 0.026)y

CONTINUE

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 4 4
27
If a bag of coins weighing 225 grams is filled with
Questions 26 and 27 refer to the following p pennies, n nickels, and d dimes, which of the
information. following expresses d in terms of n and p ?
Weights of Modern U.S. Coins
10
Coin Grams Drams A) 100 ! ( p " 2n)
9
Penny 2.50 1.41
Nickel 5.00 2.82 10
B) 100 (p 2n)
Dime 2.25 1.27 9
10
The table above gives the average weight, expressed in C) 100 (p 2n)
9
both grams and drams, of three types of modern U.S.
coins. 10
D) 100 ! ( p " 2n)
9

26
If y grams is equivalent to d drams, of the
following, which best represents the relationship
between y and d ?
A) y = 1.8d
28
B) d = 1.8y
(x – 2)2 + (y + 5)2 = 36
C) yd = 1.8
If a circle in the xy-plane has the equation above,
D) y = 0.56d which of the following does NOT lie on the exterior of
the circle?
A) (2, 1)
B) (2, 5)
C) (5, 2)
D) (−1, 1)

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 489

 4 4
29 30
Number of y
Month Peppers
June 2,200
July 2,640
(–8, 2)
A farmer counted the number of peppers produced by
a certain field in June and July. The number counted x
for each month was recorded in the table above. The O
farmer estimates that the percent increase from June
to July would be half the percent increase from July to y = h(x)
August. How many peppers does the farmer expect
the field to produce in August?
A) 2,860
B) 2,904
In the xy-plane above, a point (not shown) with
C) 3,520 coordinates (a, b) lies on the graph of the linear
D) 3,696 function h. If a and b are nonzero integers, what is the
ratio of b to a ?
A) −4 to 1
B) −2 to 1
C) −1 to 2
D) −1 to 4

CONTINUE

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 4 4
31 33

The raw score on a certain standardized test is y

1 10
determined by subtracting of the number of l
4 8
incorrect answers from the number of correct 6
4  20 
answers. If a student answered 30 questions and  1  3 , 6
 −1, 4  2  
 
received a raw score of 20, how many questions did
x
–10 –8 –6 –4 –2 O 2 4 6 8 10
the student answer incorrectly? –2
–4
 16 
 − 3 , − 3  –6
 
–8
–10
32
What is the slope of line l shown in the xy-plane
One of the first diets to limit the intake of
above?
carbohydrates was prescribed by Dr. William Harvey
in 1862. This diet consisted of three meals a day
containing equal amounts of protein per meal. If
protein contains 4 dietary calories per gram, and the
diet consisted of 672 dietary calories of protein per
meal, how much protein, to the nearest ounce, was in
each meal? (1 ounce is approximately 28 grams.) 34
–9 – a = b
a2 – 6a – 9 = b
If the ordered pair (a, b) satisfies the system of
equations above, what is one possible value of a ?

CONTINUE

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 4 4
35 36

V W

O
70°
Y Z

Point O is the center of the circle above. What fraction

of the circumference of the circle is the length of the
T X bolded arc?

5
In the figure above, sin T = . If TV = 24, XZ = 13,
13
and W Z , what is VW – YZ ?

CONTINUE

Practice Test 1 | 493

 4 4
38

Questions 37 and 38 refer to the following What is the mean number of bullseyes each
information. participant threw on Day 2 ?

Number of Participants by Number of

Bullseyes Thrown and Day
Day 1 Day 2 Day 3 Total
0 Bullseyes 2 3 4 9
1 Bullseyes 1 3 1 5
2 Bullseyes 2 3 7 12
3 Bullseyes 5 2 1 8
4 Bullseyes 3 2 0 5
5 Bullseyes 2 2 2 6
Total 15 15 15 45

The same 15 participants, on each of 3 days, threw 5 darts

in order to win a bullseye contest. The number of players
throwing a given number of bullseyes on each day is
shown in the table above.

37
No participant threw the same number of bullseyes
on two different days. If a participant is selected at
random, what is the probability that the selected
participant threw 3 bullseyes on Day 1 or Day 2, given
that the contestant threw 3 bullseyes on one of the
three days?

END OF TEST

DO NOT RETURN TO A PREVIOUS SECTION.

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