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ANSWERS & EXPLANATION

APTITUDE TEST–Test (4737) – 2025

Q 1 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The passage acknowledges the change from a bipolar Cold War to a multipolar 21st
century with the growing globalized use of nuclear power. The passage says, “When international control
of nuclear energy is combined, these challenges of twenty-first-century US nuclear power policy appear
more complex than those of the twentieth century”. However, despite these complexities, the passage argues
that the core principles established in the 20th century for US nuclear power policy remain sound and can
be applied in the current global context. This message is logical because it acknowledges the new
challenges, but maintains faith in existing control mechanisms. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Option (b) is not correct: The passage connects resource wealth with geopolitical advantages, and then
highlights the unique strategic role of nuclear energy due to its civilian and military applications. This
suggests a link between controlling nuclear resources and having a strategic edge on the international stage.
However, it does not best reflect the message of the author of the passage. The passage focuses on the global
challenges of nuclear energy and how control can be applied. The given statement focuses on controlling
nuclear energy for the geopolitical advantage of some countries. This does not align with the central theme
of the passage. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is not correct: This message is logical because it connects the key points about the changing
global context and the growing need for nuclear power. However, it does not best reflects the message of
the author. The passage covers a broader theme of nuclear energy challenges and established principles to
control it. The given statement only covers a narrow aspect of the passage of managing nuclear energy in
the 21st-century multipolar world. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
Option (d) is not correct: The passage focuses on the geopolitical advantage of having resources, not their
direct impact on a country's overall economic well-being. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Q 2 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The passage acknowledges India's success in making schools widely available, even
in remote areas. It says, “It is hard to find a village in India even in the remotest parts of the country where
there is no school”. The passage emphasizes how the focus is now shifting from access to quality. The
passage says, “India’s success in expanding access and extending the reach of education is creating new
challenges, as standards struggle to keep up with rising expectations”. The passage argues that while India
has achieved a significant goal in expanding access to education, the new challenge is to ensure the quality
of that education and make sure children are learning. This shift in focus is both logical and crucial because
simply attending school isn't enough to improve lives. Hence, option (a) is correct.
Option (b) is not correct: The passage says, “It is hard to find a village in India...where there is no school”.
This suggests a strong focus on making schools geographically accessible. Even in remote areas, schools
have "a few classrooms and an open space for a playground." This highlights that the government
prioritizes providing at least a minimal physical space for education, even if the resources might be limited.
However, it cannot be considered as the statement that sums up the passage. The passage revolves around
the central theme of the challenge of maintaining the quality of education while the enrollments are
increasing. This aspect is not addressed in the given statement. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is not correct: While the passage talks about India's success in expanding access to schools, the
focus isn't on this as the sole solution to educational challenges. The key point of the passage is that

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widespread access has been achieved, but quality needs more attention. Building basic infrastructure is a
step towards realizing this goal, but not the only or the most important solution emphasized by the passage.
Hence, option (c) is not correct.
Option (d) is not correct: This answer option, though correct, does not sum up the passage. The focus of the
passage is on the challenges of maintaining the quality of education with increased enrollments. The given
statement only talks about the common belief in Indian society about education being a tool to escape
poverty. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Q 3 (c)
Option (a) is not correct: The passage criticizes the use of chairs as examples in epistemology. It highlights
that these examples implicitly treat the chair as purely objective, something "external to the knowing
subjects". However, it cannot be considered as the main intent of the author of the passage. The passage
argues about our practices which create and influence the environment, making it difficult to claim a purely
objective understanding of it. The given statement mentions only the epistemological aspect of the passage;
it misses the central theme. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is not correct: While the passage uses the building as an example, it is most likely used as a
metaphor for a broader concept. The passage uses the building as an illustration, but the core message
applies to various social practices where collaboration, shared understanding, and a socially constructed
environment play a role. It does not prioritize physical construction over other forms of human practices.
Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is correct: The author intends to say that the way we interact with the world (our practices) shapes
the world itself, challenging the traditional notion of separation of subjectivity (knower) and objectivity
(world). The line, "The environment we inhabit is built through our practices” establishes this core idea.
The passage mentions, "philosophy of practice" which emphasizes the social and constructed nature of our
environment. We build things together, and these constructions shape our understanding of the world. In
essence, the passage argues that the separation of knower and world is an illusion. Our practices actively
create and influence the environment, making it difficult to claim a purely objective understanding of it.
Hence, option (c) is correct.
Option (d) is not correct: The given statement is correct in an absolute sense. However, in the context of the
passage, it cannot be considered a correct statement. The passage mentions the philosophy of practice in the
context of social practice for humans. The given statement is beyond the scope of the passage. Hence, option
(d) is not correct.

Q 4 (b)
Let the present ages of Ram, Sita and their son Kush be x, y and z years respectively.
After (y-z) years, Kush will be as old as Sita is at present.
After (y-z) years,
Ram’s age = (x + y - z) years
Sita’s age = (y + y - z) years
According to the question,
(x + y - z) / (y + y - z) = 9/8
or 8 (x +y – z) = 9 (y + y – z)
or 8x + 8y – 8z = 9y +9y – 9z
or 8x + 8y – 9y – 9y – 8z + 9z = 0
or 8x – 10y + z = 0
or 8x = 10y - z ………..(i)
After (x-z) years, Kush will be as old as Ram is at present
After (x-z) years, Sita’s age will be y + (x- z) years.
According to the question,
y + (x- z) + 9y = 450
or x + 10y - z = 450 ….…..(ii)
On putting the value of 10y - z from equation (i), we get:
x + 8x = 450
or x = 50 years
Therefore, Ram’s present age = x = 50 years
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.
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Q 5 (b)
We know the average height of 10 trees is 3 meters.
So, the total height of those trees = 10 × 3 = 30 meters.
After planting the new tree, the total height of 11 trees = 11 × 3.5 = 38.5 meters.
Therefore, the height of the newly planted tree = 38.5 - 30 = 8.5 meters
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 6 (d)
Since the average colour is blue, there must be more blue marbles than red marbles. So, the number of red
marbles < 17.
However, we cannot determine the exact number of red marbles based solely on the given information.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 7 (b)
Suppose capacities of three glasses P, Q and R be 60 litres, 120 litres and 180 litres respectively.
Hence, quantity of milk in glass P = (1/3)×60 = 20 litres
and quantity of water in glass P = (2/3)×60 = 40 litres
Similarly, quantity of milk in glass Q = (2/5)×120 = 48 litres
and quantity of water in glass Q = (3/5)×120 = 72 litres
Quantity of milk in glass R = (3/4)×180 = 135 litres
and quantity of water in glass R = (1/4)×180 = 45 litres
So, quantity of milk in bigger container = (20+48+135) = 203 litres
and, quantity of water in bigger container = (40+72+45) = 157 litres
Required ratio = 203 : 157
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 8 (b)
Suppose capacity of each vessel is 100 litres.
Total capacity of all four vessels = 4×100 = 400 litres
Vessel A has 50% of spirit, i.e. 50 litres of spirit and 50 litres of water.
Similarly, B has 60 of litres spirit and 40 litres of water.
C has 70 litres of spirit and 30 litres of water.
And, D has 80 litres of spirit and 20 litres of water.
Total amount of water in the resultant mixture = 50+40+30+20 = 140 litres
Total amount of spirit in the resultant mixture = 400-140 = 260 litres
Statement-1:
Required ratio of water to spirit in the resultant mixture = 140:260 = 7:13
Hence, statement-1 is incorrect.
Statement-2:
Total amount of mixture = 400 litres
Price of spirit per litre = Price of mixture per litre + 50% of the price of mixture per litre = ₹120 + 50% of
₹120 = ₹120+₹60 = ₹180 per litre
Total cost price of spirit = 180×260 = ₹46,800
Total selling price of mixture = 120×400 = ₹48,000
Total profit = ₹48,000-₹46800 = ₹1200
Profit% = (₹1200/₹46800) × 100 = (1/39)×100 = 2.56%
Hence, statement-2 is correct.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 9 (d)
Let the original speed of the bus be X km/hr.
Now according to question,
(63/X) + {72/ (X+6)} = 3
or 9 [(7/X) + {8/(X+6)} = 3
or {(7X+ 42 + 8X)/ X (X+6)} = 1/3
or 45X + 126 = X2 + 6X
or X2 - 39X – 126 = 0

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or X2 - 42X + 3X – 126 = 0
or (X – 42) (X + 3) = 0
∴ X = 42 km/hr. (neglecting -3, because speed can’t be negative.)
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 10 (b)
Let the distance between Arunendra’s home and temple be ‘d’ km and time to reach from home to temple
be ‘t’ hours.
According to the question,
(d/6) = t-(80/60) [speed = distance/ time]
Or, (d/6) = t-(4/3) ……(1)
Also, (d/4) = t+(40/60)
Or, (d/4) = t+(2/3) …….(2)
On subtracting equation (1) from equation (2), we get:
(d/4) - (d/6) = (2/3) + (4/3)
Or, (3d-2d)/12 = 6/3
Or, d/12 = 2
Or, d = 24
Using equation (1),
24/6 = t-(4/3)
Or, 4 = t-4/3
Or, t = 4+(4/3)
Or, t = 16/3 = 5(1/3) hours = 5 hrs. 20 minutes
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 11 (a)
Option (b) is incorrect since both Marx and Weber touch upon the historical aspects of modern capitalism.
It is clear from this sentence: “Marx's project is similar to Weber's in that, while he does not devote himself
to the historical circumstances which have led to capitalism, he does, like Weber, attempt to understand
how modern capitalism has arisen from the capitalism which preceded it.”
Option (c) is incorrect. It is clearly mentioned, “...capitalism manifested itself in a compulsory, socially-
rooted system from which NO ONE could escape.” Hence, the socially rooted system, as suggested by
Weber, was mandatory and not optional in nature.
Option (d) is incorrect. The passage says, “Marx's project is SIMILAR to Weber's in that, while he does not
devote himself to the historical circumstances which have led to capitalism, he does, like Weber, attempt to
understand how modern capitalism has arisen from the capitalism which preceded it.” Hence, there are
elements of similarity between their work. It does not mean there is no difference.
Option (a) is correct. It is clear from the above explanations. Also, the last line of the passage says, “Thus,
Marx, like Weber, contextualizes the origins of modern capitalism, delineating the historical process by
which capitalism has manifested itself in its contemporary form.” Thus, it can be safely concluded that both
Mars and Weber concur on the historical antecedents of modern capitalism.

Q 12 (b)
Both the statements are mutually contradictory, hence only one of them can be correct. This eliminates
option (c).
Statement 1 is an invalid assumption since the passage implies that despite making use of history, there is
a difference between the works of Marx and Weber. Difference between their works: Marx does not devote
himself to the historical circumstances which have led to capitalism, unlike weber. Similarity between their
works: Both attempt to understand how modern capitalism has arisen from the capitalism which preceded
it.
Statement 2 is a valid assumption. The analyses of both Marx and Weber are similar in that both
acknowledge the role of historical contexts in the emergence of modern capitalism. Hence, they use the
same tool (historical contextualisation) to study a present day phenomenon (modern capitalism).

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Q 13 (d)
Option (a) is not correct: Refer to the line: “The fundamental principle of a democratic nation is that no
one is above the law, which is also known as the Rule of Law.” In the context of the passage, Rule of Law
forms the very backbone of democracy. Therefore, it would be incorrect to say that democracies can exist
even without Rule of Law. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is not correct. While the passage mentions subjecting government actions to the "test of legality,"
it doesn't specify PILs as the most effective method. The passage focuses on the concept of Rule of Law,
not on the specific ways of its enforcement. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is not correct. This statement might otherwise be true. However, in the context of the passage,
we cannot deduce the role of judiciary vis-à-vis the Rule of Law or supremacy of law. Hence, option (c) is
not correct.

Q 14 (a)
Inference 1 is correct. The passage states, “Good Governance, hence, relates to the quality of governance
through attributes such as participation, empowerment, accountability, equity, and justice.” Empowerment,
participation, accountability, justice etc. are intricately related to human rights. Therefore, we can safely
infer that good governance and human rights are mutually reinforcing. Hence, inference 1 is correct.
Inference 2 is not correct. Refer to the line: “Development is no longer determined by economic growth but
by progress in all spheres-political, social, environmental, and cultural.” Development is multifaceted and
not solely based on economic growth. It is possible to have economic growth even without economic
development. However, it is nowhere suggested that the significance of economic growth has diminished
in the overall economic development of a country. Hence, Inference 2 is not correct.

Q 15 (a)
Let the length of the auto be ‘L’ m and the speed be y km/ hr.
Their relative speed, when they move in the same direction = (y-2) km/hr
Their relative speed, when they move in opposite directions = (y+4) km/hr
According to the question,
L/(y-2) = 9
Or, L = 9(y-2) ……(1)
L/(y+4) = 3
Or, L = 3(y+4) …..(2)
Note: We need not convert km/hr into m/sec as they will cancel each other out later on anyways.
From equations (1) and (2), we get:
9y-18 = 3y+12
Or, 9y-3y = 18+12
Or, y = 30/6 = 5 km/hr
Length of the auto, L = 9 × (5-2) × (5/18) = 9 × 3 × (5/18) = 7.5 m
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 16 (c)
Mohan is in Vande Bharat and Rajdhani Express crosses Mohan, i.e. Rajdhani Express travels its own length
to cross Mohan.
Suppose speed of Rajdhani Express is R km/hr and that of Vande Bharat is V km/hr.
Their relative speed in the same direction = (R-V) km/hr
Their relative speed in the opposite direction = (R+V) km/hr
According to the question,
200/(R-V) = 10
Or, 200 = 10(R-V)
Or, 20 = R-V …….(1)
200/(R+V) = 5
Or, 200 = 5(R+V)
Or, 40 = R+V …..(2)
On solving equations (1) and (2):
R = 30 km/hr and V = 10 km/hr
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Now, their new speeds will be (30+15) = 45 km/hr (for R)

And (10+5) = 15 km/hr (for V).
Required time = [200/(45-15)] [1/(5/18)] = [200/30] (18/5) = 24 seconds
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 17 (d)
Let’s denote Ashok, Balu and Cheenu by A, B and C respectively.
LCM of 10, 12 and 15 is 60.
Now, suppose total work = 60 units
Since, A and B can complete a piece of work in 10 days
Hence, efficiency of (A+B) = 60/10 = 6 units/day …….(A)
Similarly, efficiency of (B+C) = 60/12 = 5 units/day ……(B)
And, efficiency of (A+C) = 60/15 = 4 units/day ……(C)
So, Efficiency of 2(A+B+C) = 15 units/day
Or Efficiency of A+B+C = 15/2 units/day …..(D)
From (D) and (B),
Efficiency of A = [15/2]-5 = 5/2 units/day
From (D) and (C),
Efficiency of B = [15/2]-4 = 7/2 units/day
From (D) and (A),
Efficiency of C = [15/2]-6 = 3/2 units/ day
So, the ratio of the efficiencies of A, B and C = (5/2):(7/2):(3/2) = 5:7:3 ……(1)
Efficiency and time are inversely proportional.
Hence, ratio of time taken by A, B and C to complete a piece of work = (1/5):(1/7):(1/3) = 21:15:35 …….(2)
Time taken to complete the given piece of work by A+B+C = 60 / (15/2) = 8 days [Time = Total work /
Efficiency] …..(3)
From equations (1), (2) and (3), we conclude that option (d) is correct.

Q 18 (c)
Let the number of students in Mathematics and Biology be X and Y respectively.
Now according to question,
X – 10 = Y + 10
⇒ X = Y + 20 ...... (i)
And, X + 20 = 2 (Y – 20)
Putting the value of X, from equation (i), in this equation, we get:
⇒ Y + 20 + 20 = 2Y – 40
⇒ Y + 40 = 2Y – 40
⇒ 2Y – Y = 40 + 40
⇒ Y = 80
Now, X = Y + 20 = 80 + 20 = 100
The number of students in Mathematics and Biology are 100 and 80 respectively.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
Alternate Method:
Solving by options,
On taking option (c),
The number of students in Mathematics = 100
The number of students in Biology = 80
If 10 students left Mathematics and join Biology, then the number of students in both streams is 90 and 90
respectively. Hence, number of students in both streams is same.
If 20 students left Biology and join Mathematics, then the number of students in these streams is 120 and
60 respectively. Hence, number of students in Mathematics becomes twice the number of students in
Biology.
Therefore, our assumption is true. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
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Q 19 (d)
Let the number of rooms be x and the number of units consumed be y.
B = ax+by (a and b are proportionality constants)
Now, according to the question:
1200 = 24a+720b
Or, 50 = a+30b …..(2)
And, 960 = 18a+600b
Or, 160 = 3a+100b …..(3)
Using (3) - 3x(2):
160-150 = 100b-90b
Or, b = 1
On putting the value of b = 1 in equation (2), we get:
50 = a+30
Or, a = 20
If x = M and y = N, from equation (1) we get:
B = 20M+N
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 20 (c)
Let X be the number of liters of solution A used. (12 - X) will be the number of liters of solution B used
(since the total is 12 liters).
The total amount of bleach in the final solution is the sum of the bleach from solution A and solution B. We
know the desired final concentration is 12%.
So, X × 0.2 + (12 - X) × 0.08 = 12 × 0.12
Or 0.2X + 0.96 - 0.08X = 1.44
Or 0.12X = 0.48
Or X = 4
Therefore, we should use 4 liters of solution A.
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 21 (b)
Option (a) is not correct: The passage mentions the wars as potential geopolitical risks that could affect
aggregate supply and lead to higher prices. It doesn't definitively say that these specific wars are the sole or
even primary cause of inflation. They are not the only cause. Also, IMF mentions probability and not
guarantee. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is correct: The passage says, “Although central banks are yet to lower interest rates, investors
may take falling inflation as a cue that central banks will soon push the markets with more money to lower
interest rates”. This implies that Central banks haven't lowered interest rates yet and Investors expect them
to lower rates due to falling inflation. The passage further mentions, “…geopolitical risks such as the
ongoing war in West Asia and Ukraine could affect aggregate supply and lead to higher prices which might
stop central banks from lowering rates anytime soon”. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Option (c) is not correct: The passage mentions, “…investors who have been bidding up asset prices
expecting fresh money from central banks to push up asset prices in the near future may change their mind”.
It implies that investors who expect lower interest rates and more money in the market might change their
minds if that doesn't happen. However, the passage doesn't say that this will lead to their loss. Hence, option
(c) is not correct.
Option (d) is not correct: The passage talks about investors potentially changing their minds if central banks
don't lower interest rates as expected. The given statement is correct in the context of the passage. However,
it cannot be considered as the crux of the passage. This is because the passage mentions the associated
geopolitical risks which are preventing central banks from lowering interest rates as covered in option (b).
Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Q 22 (b)
Inference 1 is not correct. The passage mentions "low economic returns" as a hurdle to reforestation efforts.
There is also a scarcity of government budgetary support. Private sector investment is not likely to be
available for the reforestation of these lands because private rights over public lands cannot be legally
acquired. The author covers mostly the domestic hurdles in reforestation and restoration efforts. There is no
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mention of international support mechanism. Therefore, this answer option is beyond the scope of this
passage. Hence, inference 1 is not correct.
Inference 2 is correct. The passage mentions – “….lack of entrepreneurial and managerial capacity at the
level of the local communities and public service entities.” We have discussed the different institutional
challenges in reforestation efforts. Local communities can be involved with appropriate training and
support. Hence, inference 2 is correct.

Q 23 (d)
Total runs scored by Rohit Sharma in 20 matches = 2 × 100 + 3 × 0 + 4 × 50 + 11 × 40 = 840 runs
Average runs scored by Rohit Sharma in 20 matches = 840/20 = 42 runs
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 24 (b)
Let the least number be X.
Now, according to the question,
18 × 15 = X + 17 × (15 + 0.5)
⇒ 270 = X + 263.5
⇒ X = 270 – 263.5 = 6.5
Hence, the least number was 6.5.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 25 (b)
Let speed of current = C km/hr, Speed of boat (B) = 20 km/hr
Downstream speed (D) = B+C = 48
Upstream speed (U) = B-C = 32
So, C = (D-U)/2
Or, C = (48-32)/2 = 8 km/hr
Statement-1:
Required ratio = 20:8 = 5:2
Hence, this statement is incorrect.
Statement-2:
Downstream time = 120/48 = 5/2
Upstream time = 112/32 = 7/2
Total time = (5/2)+(7/2) = 6 km/hr
Hence, statement-2 is correct.
Thus option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 26 (a)
Let the speed of Mohua be x km/hr and the speed of Priyanka be y km/hr.
If Mohua takes t hours to complete the journey, Priyanka will complete it in (t + 5) hours.
According to the question,
(70/y)-(70/x) = 5
Or, 70x-70y = 5xy …..(1)
(70/x)-(70/2y) = 3
Or, 140y-70x = 6xy ….(2)
From equations (1) and (2), we get:
70y = 11xy
Or, 11xy - 70y = 0
Or, (11x-70)y = 0
Or, x = (70/11) [y cannot be zero.]
From equation (1):
70×(70/11) - 70y = 5 × (70/11)y
Or, (70/11) = y+(5/11)y
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Or, 70 = 16y
Or, y = (35/8)
Required ratio = [(70/11)+(35/8)] : [(70/11)-(35/8)] = (560+385):(560-385) = 945:175 = 27:5
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 27 (d)
Total number of guests = 240
Guests having tea = (1/2)(240) = 120
Guests having coffee = (2/5)(240) = 96
Guests having milk = (1/3)(240) = 80
Guests having both tea and coffee = (1/10)(240) = 24
Guests having milk don’t take tea. So, guests having either only coffee or milk and coffee both = 96-24 =
72
There are only 120 guests left who don’t take tea. Hence, guests having both coffee and milk = (72+80)-
120 = 32
Thus, guests having only coffee and only milk are 72-32 = 40 and 80-32 = 48 respectively.
According to the above pieces of information, following is the Venn diagram:

Required ratio = 96 : 40 : 48 = 12 : 5 : 6
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 28 (a)
Relative speed = 90 + 70 = 160 km/hr
Now, Distance = Relative speed × time = 160 × 5 = 800 km
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 29 (d)
Suppose 18a = 12b = 9c = 6d = 3e = 2f = K
So, a=K/18, b=K/12, c=K/9, d=K/6, e=K/3, f=K/2
LCM of 18, 12, 9, 6, 3 and 2 is 36.
a:b:c:d:e:f = 36 [K/18 : K/12 : K/9 : K/6 : K/3 : K/2]
= 2K:3K:4K:6K:12K:18K

So, a+b = 2K+3K = 5K

c+d+e+f = 4K+6K+12K+18K = 40K
Hence, (c+d+e+f)/(a+b) = 40K/5K = 8:1
Thus, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 30 (d)
Let’s denote Saurav, Sachin and Rahul by Sa, Sn and R respectively.
According to the question,
Sa = (1/2)Sn
Or, Sn = 2Sa ……(1)
Sn = (2/3)R
Or, 3Sn = 2R ……(2)
From equations (1) and (2),
2R = 3Sn = 6Sa
Suppose, 2R = 3Sn = 6Sa = k
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Or, R = k/2; Sn = k/3; Sa = k/6

Or, R = 3k, Sn = 2k, Sa = k (LCM of 2,3 and 6 = 6)
Or, Sa:Sn:R = k:2k:3k
This is the ratio of their speeds of completing the project, I.e. ratio of their efficiencies. Wages are to be
divided among them according to their efficiencies, i.e. one who does more work will receive more share
of the wages.
Hence, ratio of their share in the wages = k:2k:3k
Total wages = 6k
Or, 144000 = 6k
Or, k = 24000
So, Sa = k = 24000; Sn = 2k = 48000; R = 3k = 72000
Bonus (7200) is divided equally among them, i.e. everyone gets (7200/3) = 2400
Thus, Sa’s earning = 24000+2400 = Rs. 26400
Sn’s earning = 48000+2400 = Rs. 50400
R’s earning = 72000+2400 = Rs. 74400
Hence, ratio of their earnings = 26400: 50400:74400 = 11:21:31
Thus, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 31 (c)
Option (a) is not correct: Refer to the line: “The Economic and Social Council of the United Nations focused
on integrating women and the disabled.” The mention of women and the disabled clearly imply social
inclusion. Furthermore, the author talks about mass participation which is impossible without social
inclusion. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that social inclusion is independent of the concept of inclusive
development. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is not correct: The passage criticizes models that exclude large segments of society, but it doesn't
necessarily say that these models are the sole cause of the current inequality. The passage focuses on
development philosophies, not the cause of global inequality. Therefore, this answer option is beyond the
scope of this passage. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is correct: The passage says, “Today, we live in a world of unprecedented opulence which is
monopolized by a microscopic few. We also have a large section of people living in deprivation and without
human dignity.” The author is against the concentration of wealth. The concern for those who are living
without human dignity clearly indicates author’s inclination towards an equitable distribution of wealth.
These arguments are adequately captured in this answer option. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Option (d) is not correct: The author talks about the concept of inclusive development, the philosophical
understanding of development, and the different components of inclusive development. It does not dwell
upon the structural factors behind inclusion and exclusion. Also, there is no specific mention of developed
and developing countries. Hence, option (d) is not quite correct.

Q 32 (c)
Assumption is an unstated or hidden fact which supports the conclusion or arguments made in the passage.
Statement 1 is a valid assumption. First line of the passage says, “An ecosystem is a group of animals and
plants living in a specific region and interacting with one another and with their physical environment.”
Thus, this statement inherently means that an ecosystem is a community within which biotic and abiotic
components interact among themselves.
Statement 2 is also valid. Coevolution is defined as the process of reciprocal evolutionary change that occurs
between pairs of species or among groups of species as they interact with one another. And, the passage
says “Ecosystems also can be thought of as the interactions among all organisms in a given habitat and may
result in ADAPTATIONS for mutual benefit; for instance, relationship of flowering plants and associated
pollinators.” Thus, it can be safely assumed that coevolution occurs in a mutually dependent manner as is
evident from the example cited in the above sentence.

Q 33 (b)
Option (a) is not correct: The passage highlights key elements that contribute to the notion of free elections.
It emphasizes the importance of diverse parties, and candidates being able to contest and campaign, which
ensures a range of choices for voters. Additionally, it mentions the significance of people and groups being
able to organize and support their preferred candidates, as well as criticize incumbents. This indicates the
importance of freedom of expression and the ability to engage in the prevailing political discourse.

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However, it does not cover the broader aspects of the passage. The broader theme of the passage highlights
the fact that democracy may not be healthy even if it maintains minimal features of it. Hence, option (a) is
not correct.
Option (b) is correct: The passage outlines the basic requirements for an electoral democracy (diverse
candidates, free campaigning, etc.). It then acknowledges the difficulty in judging a democracy's health and
the possibility of an impending decline. The passage says, “Judgments about whether a country is an
electoral democracy can be difficult to make, and may be contested. Many democracies have been in serious
decline, but if they avoid complete constitutional rupture and keep holding multiparty elections, it can be
hard to say whether they still meet the minimum conditions for electoral democracy”. This suggests that
just holding elections isn't enough. Even minimal adherence to the basic features might mask deeper issues
that threaten the quality of democracy. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Option (c) is not correct: The passage focuses on the concept of "minimum conditions" for electoral
democracy, not the effectiveness of multiparty elections themselves. Even though democracies might be
facing challenges, the passage does not suggest that holding elections or multiparty systems are irrelevant.
Hence, option (c) is not correct.
Option (d) is not correct: The passage acknowledges that "many democracies have been in serious decline,".
It does not limit this decline to democracies that emerged before the third wave. While it highlights the
robustness of many third-wave democracies, it does not suggest they are entirely exempt from the possibility
of decline. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Q 34 (c)
Average marks of all the classes = (no. of students of class 1 × their average marks +….. till class 5) / total
no. of students from all the classes = (30×80+40×90+50×70+30×X+20×40) / (30+40+50+30+20)
Or, 70 = (2400+3600+3500+30X+800)/(170)
Or, 70×170 = 10300+30X
Or, 30X = 11900-10300 = 1600
Or, X = (1600/30) = 53.33
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 35 (c)
Total marks of the students of class-1 = 30×80 = 2400
Total marks of the students of class-2 = 40×90 = 3600
Required percentage = [(3600-2400)/2400]×100 = (1200/2400)×100 = 50%
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 36 (a)
Let’s denote Parveen, Qadri, Rahim and Saleem by P, Q, R and S respectively.
According to the question,
Q = P+3 ……..(1)
R = 2P ……(2)
Q = 2S …….(3)
R-S = 42 …..(4)
From equations (1) and (3):
2S = P+3
Or, P = 2S-3 .….(5)
From equations (2) and (5)-
R = 2(2S-3)
Or, R = 4S-6
Or, R-S = 3S-6
Or, 42 = 3S-6 ….{from equation (4)}
Or, S = 48/3 = 16
Q = 2S = 2×16 = 32
P = 2S-3 = 16×2 - 3 = 32-3 = 29
R = 2P = 2×29 = 58
Thus, P+R = 29+58 = 87 and Q+S = 32+16 = 48
Required ratio = 87/48 = 29/16 = 29:16
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

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Q 37 (a)
Let the original speed of Sudheer = x km/hr and original time to cover the distance = t hours
According to the question,
[(5400/(x-140)] - [5400/x] = (7/2)
Or, 5400x - 5400x + 5400×140 = (7/2) [x(x-140)]
Or, x2 - 140x - 216000 = 0
Or, (x+400)(x-540) = 0
Or, x = -400 is not possible, because speed is a positive concept.
Hence, x = 540 km/hr
New time = 5400/(540-140) = 5400/400 = 13.5 hours
Thus, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 38 (a)
Time taken by Rahul to complete the race = 30 seconds
Time taken by Kunal to complete the race = 30 + 10 = 40 seconds
Let the distance be 1200 m
∴ Speed of Rahul = 1200/30 = 40 m/s
And Speed of Kunal = 1200/40 = 30 m/s
Relative speed of Rahul and Kunal = 40 – 30 = 10 m/s
When Rahul gives Kunal a start of 5 seconds, then distance covered by Kunal in 5 seconds = 5 × 30 = 150
metres
Time taken by Rahul to beat Kunal = Distance covered by Kunal in 5 seconds/Relative speed of Rahul and
Kunal = 150/10 = 15 seconds
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 39 (b)
Let the number of times the cricketer batted in first innings be x and the number of times the cricketer batted
in second innings be y.
Therefore, number of runs scored by cricketer in first innings = 80x
Number of runs scored by cricketer in second innings = 30y
According to the question,
80x + 30y = 3900
or 8x + 3y = 390 …………. (i)
It is given that the cricketer has scored these 3900 runs in 65 innings.
Therefore, x + y = 65 ………… (ii)
Multiplying (ii) equation by 3 and subtracting it from equation (i), we get:
5x = 390 - 195
or x = 39
Putting this value of x in equation (ii) we get:
39 + y = 65
or y = 65 – 39 = 26
Hence, the number of times the cricketer batted in first innings and second innings is 39 and 26 respectively.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 40 (b)
In the graph no information regarding amendment procedures has been given. Hence, statement 1 is
incorrect.
On observing the sheer number of amendments made, we can conclude that Indian constitution is quite
flexible and evolves like an organism with time. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 41 (a)
Inference 1 is correct: The passage says, “That the problem posed by the financial-secrecy system has gone
largely unnoticed, should not be surprising. The system is designed to be opaque to both law enforcement
and the public”. The passage suggests a cause-and-effect relationship between opacity and problems of
financial-secrecy system. The fact that the financial secrecy system is designed to be opaque (not easily
understood or seen through) contributes to the problem of it going largely unnoticed by the public and law
enforcement. Hence, inference 1 is correct.
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Inference 2 is not correct: While the passage mentions corporations and elites using financial secrecy, it
does not claim that it is the only reason for its growth. The passage focuses on the historical rise of financial
secrecy linked to specific events, but it does not provide an exhaustive explanation for why financial secrecy
exists. Hence, inference 2 is not correct.

Q 42 (b)
Option (a) is not correct: While the passage mentions "centuries-old dualities," it does not directly link them
to the origins of market triumphalism. The passage is more concerned with the limitations of this ideology
in understanding modern societies, not its historical roots. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is correct: Market triumphalism is mentioned as a problematic viewpoint. The passage
emphasizes that most countries rely on the state for social welfare, not just on markets. It says “In most
countries, the state takes more direct responsibility for social welfare. Even in such countries, however, the
state requires access to debt markets to make good on its promises, as the European debt crisis made clear”.
Even when governments take this role, they still depend on market mechanisms (debt markets) to function.
In essence, the passage argues that while markets are important, they don't operate in a vacuum.
Governments play a vital role in shaping and supporting markets, often taking responsibility for social
welfare which ultimately benefits the market system itself. Hence, option (b) is correct.
Option (c) is not correct: The passage mentions the European debt crisis as an example of how access to
debt markets is crucial for states, but it does not necessarily judge the viability of this strategy. The passage
highlights a dependency, not a value judgment about the debt itself. Hence, option (c) is not correct.
Option (d) is not correct: While the passage talks about the importance of markets in providing social
welfare, it does not suggest this role should supersede all other government considerations. Hence, option
(d) is not correct.

Q 43 (a)
Option (a) is correct: The passage describes Voltaire staying out late, "experimenting with the
commandments," and having a reputation as "reckless." This points towards a disregard for authority and
the established rules. Additionally, he becomes a poet and adopts a pen name, suggesting a focus on writing
and intellectual endeavours. While the passage does not explicitly state Voltaire was a rebel and an
intellectual, it provides strong evidence through the descriptive details about his behaviour and interests.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Option (b) is not correct: While the passage mentions his father sending him away "exasperated," it does
not necessarily imply a deep-seated conflict. The passage offers a glimpse into one event, not the entirety
of their mutual relationship. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is not correct: While the passage suggests a focus on poetry after adopting the name, it does not
necessarily mean he wasn't writing poetry before. The passage highlights a potential change in his approach
to writing, but it does not definitively establish his pre-Bastille writing habits. Hence, option (c) is not
correct.
Option (d) is not correct: While the passage mentions "experimenting with the commandments," it does not
necessarily link this to his religious defiance. The passage highlights a specific activity but remains neutral
on the motivation behind it. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Q 44 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect as this directly contradicts the passage which warns about the dangers of
protectionism in an inter-connected world, resulting in a bad situation for ‘everybody’. The last sentence of
the passage - “we can protect ourselves from the protectionism that seems to be raising its head” – further
makes it clear that the passage is warning against protectionism.
Option (b) is correct. The passage says that “Solace lies in ensuring that it is always a win-win situation”
and that “if only one person wants to win, the so-called losers will get together and ensure that this winner
also goes down”. So, the passage implies that countries need to set their policies in such a way as to evolve
a “win-win situation” for all.
Option (c) is incorrect. The passage does talk about “inter-connected world” but it nowhere presents “de-
globalization” as the solution. Rather, it talks about a “win-win situation” which implies co-operation
among stakeholders. Thus, this statement is beyond the scope of the passage.
Option (d) is incorrect as the passage nowhere talks about the role of World Trade Organization. Talking
about replacing World Trade Organization is even more extreme. This option is beyond the scope of the
passage.

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Q 45 (a)
Statement 1 is correct. It is mentioned in the passage that after World War II, a number of prominent scholars
holding a realist view criticized “misplaced moralism” of earlier scholars. Hence, they might not have
rejected ethics in international relations per se, however, they were skeptical about it. Author further says
that after this, the discipline also focused on developing a value-free social SCIENTIFIC APPROACH that
rejected ethical questions. Thus, both these approaches were skeptical of ethics in international relations.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The passage says, the discipline of international relations was taking “a new shape”
in the United Kingdom and the United States after World War II. Thus, the discipline existed before World
War II also. It just started taking a new shape under the realist influence, and later on under scientific
approach to international relations.

Q 46 (c)
We know that, Speed = distance/time
So, speed is inversely proportional to time, i.e. if speed increases then time needed in travelling a certain
distance decreases, and vice-versa.
Graph (1) shows directly proportional relation between S and T, that means time will increase with increase
in speed to cover a certain distance. Hence, graph (1) is not correct.
Graph (2) shows that speed is decreasing with the increase in time, and hence shows an inversely
proportional relation between S and T. Therefore, graph (2) is correct.
Graph (3) shows that time is decreasing with the increase in speed, and hence depicts an inversely
proportional relation between S and T. Therefore, graph (3) is correct.
Graph (4) shows that speed is increasing while time is constant, which is not possible. Hence graph (4) is
not correct.
Hence, graphs (2) and (3) are correct. Option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 47 (d)
Let the number of guests staying in hotel initially be X.
Initial total daily earning = Rs. 8000X
Now, according to question,
8000X + 5000 + 20000 = (5000 + 4000) (X + 2)
Or 8000X + 25000 = 9000X + 18000
Or 1000X = 25000 – 18000
Or 1000X = 7000
Or X = 7
Thus, option (d) is correct.

Q 48 (a)
Let initially, the number of hundred rupee notes be x and the number of twenty rupee notes be y.
After shopping, the number of hundred rupee notes will be y and the number of twenty rupee notes will be
x.
Now, according to the question,
(100x + 20y) = 3(100y + 20x)
or 100x + 20y = 300y + 60x
or 40x = 280y
or x =7y
or x : y = 7 : 1
Hence option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 49 (d)
Since both are travelling towards each other, their relative speed will be (p+q) km/hr
So, their meeting time = [d/(p+q)]
Statement-1:
Distance travelled by Praveen before meeting Pramod = Their meeting time × Speed of Praveen = [d/(p+q)]
× p = [dp/(p+q)]
Hence, statement-1 is incorrect.
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Statement-2:
If they travel in the same direction, their relative speed will be either (p-q) km/hr {if p>q} or (q-p) km/hr
{if p<q}. However, relation between p and q is not mentioned, so we cannot conclude anything.
If p>q, Pramod will not be able to overtake/meet Praveen. Hence, statement-2 is incorrect.
Thus, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 50 (b)
Ratio of speeds of Vande-Bharat and Humsafar = 2 : 1
Ratio of speeds of Humsafar and passenger train = 3 : 1
Ratio of speeds of Vande-Bharat, Humsafar and passenger train = 6 : 3 : 1
Since time is inversely proportional to speed,
Ratio of time taken by Vande-Bharat, Humsafar and passenger train = 1 : 2 : 6
Let us assume that time taken by Vande-Bharat, Humsafar and passenger train are x, 2x and 6x respectively.
Given that:
Time taken by passenger train = 1 hour 24 minutes = 60 + 24 = 84 minutes
Now, according to the question,
6x = 84 minutes
∴ x = 14 minutes
Hence, time taken by Vande–Bharat express = 14 minutes
Thus, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 51 (c)
Option (a) is not correct. The given statement is correct in the context of the passage. However, it cannot
be considered as the main intent of the author. The overall message that the author wants to convey is that
India should learn its earthquake-preparedness from Taiwan (and its own traditional architectural styles).
This aspect is not mentioned in the given statement. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is not correct. The passage emphasizes the importance of these regulations, but doesn't claim
they will eliminate earthquake damage. The passage focuses on mitigating risks through safety regulations,
not ensuring absolute protection from earthquakes. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is correct. The passage highlights Taiwan's success in earthquake preparedness, including
“advanced monitoring, building code enforcement, and citizen incentives”. The passage further says “As
India is going through a major phase of infrastructural expansion in many tectonically unstable regions
including the Himalayas, sometimes flagrantly violating the norms that should be followed in ecologically
sensitive areas, earthquake safety should be of particular concern”. This suggests that India's infrastructural
expansion in seismically active areas, sometimes neglecting safety regulations, creates a critical situation.
Overall, the author urges India to prioritize safety measures during infrastructure development to protect its
citizens from earthquakes. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Option (d) is not correct. The given statement can be considered as correct technically. However, it cannot
be considered as the main intent of the passage. The given passage specifically focuses on the Island country
of Taiwan and its preparedness for earthquakes and what India can learn from it. Hence, option (d) is not
correct.

Q 52 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. The author emphasizes the need to develop higher-order thinking because most of
lower-order thinking would move to AI entities. This might require training the human minds from a young
age. However, there’s no discussion on introducing “Human cognition” as a compulsory subject. Hence
option (a) is incorrect.
Option (b) is correct. The passage mentions, “Humans can find employment and maintain their sense of
self-worth only if they can engage in higher-order thinking, and to do so, humans will have to develop the
faculties for higher-order thinking.” This implies that cognitive weakness could be a big hindrance for
people in modern society and hence there is a need to develop higher-order thinking skills. Hence option
(b) is correct.
Option (c) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “The Industrial Revolution reduced the need for human
muscle power, and we saw the tremendous expansion of universalised elementary education around the
world. Humans increasingly moved from using brawn to brain.” This clearly implies that socio-economic
developments and human cognitive development are interrelated. It would be incorrect to say that they are
not correlated. Hence option (c) is incorrect.
Option (d) is incorrect because option (a) is incorrect.
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Q 53 (d)
Assumption 1 is incorrect. The passage mentions, “Political economists have uncovered the simple (perhaps
disturbing) fact that the rates of economic growth and inflation are all the information we need to predict
quite accurately the results of the past 100 years of US presidential elections.” This implies that economists
in the US can correlate the political outcome through analysis of the economic situation. This causal analysis
is for US only. It is possible that it does not hold good for other countries. Therefore, we cannot say this
rule applies to ‘any’ country. Hence assumption 1 is incorrect.
Assumption 2 is incorrect. The passage mostly talks about the concept of political economy vis-à-vis
elections. There is no mention about the core philosophy of political economy. So, this argument is beyond
the scope of the passage. Even otherwise, this statement is not correct. In political economy, concentrated
interests win over the diffused interests, not the other way round. Hence assumption 2 is incorrect.

Q 54 (b)
The 20 litre mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of 3 : 2. Therefore, the mixture contains 12 litres
of milk and 8 litres of water.
Step 1: When 10 litres of the mixture is removed, 6 litres of milk is removed and 4 litres of water is removed.
Therefore, there will be 6 litres of milk and 4 litres of water left in the container.
It is then replaced with pure milk of 10 litres. Now the container will have 16 litres of milk and 4 litres of
water.
Step 2: When 10 litres of the new mixture is removed, 8 litres of milk and 2 litres of water is removed. The
container will have 8 litres of milk and 2 litres of water in it.
Now 10 litres of pure milk is added. Therefore, the container will have 18 litres of milk and 2 litres of water
in it at the end of the second step.
Therefore, the required ratio of milk and water = 18 : 2 = 9 : 1.
Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 55 (d)
To determine how long it will take for Maya and Omar to meet for the second time after they start running,
we need to calculate the time it takes for them to meet once and then double that time.
Circumference of a circular field = 2πr = 800π m
Their relative speed = 12 + 8 = 20 m/s
Time taken for first meet = Distance/Speed = 800π / 20 = 40π seconds
So, Time taken for second meet = 80π seconds
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 56 (a)
Required ratio = (40+70):(30+80) = 110:110 = 1:1
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q 57 (c)
Total no. of flowers = Average no. of flowers × Number of the types of flowers
Or, (40 + 60 + 70 + 30 + 80 + X% of 40) = 6×63
Or, 280 + (40X/100) = 378
Or, (2X/5) = 378-280 = 98
Or, X = 49×5 = 245
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 58 (c)
Let the age of each teacher be a years and the arithmetic mean (A.M.) of age of the student be b years.
According to the question,
2a + 3b = 25 × 5
Or 2a + 3b = 125 …… (1)
Also, a – b = 20 .….. (2)
On solving equations (1) and (2), we get:
5b = 85
Or b = 17 years
Sum of the ages of 3 students = 3b = 17 × 3 = 51

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We know that, ages of three students are in arithmetic mean (A.M.) series with the common difference 1.
So, (x - 1) + (x) + (x + 1) = 51
Or 3x = 51
Or x = 51/3 = 17
So, age of youngest student = x - 1 = 17 – 1 = 16 years
Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q 59 (c)
Let us just focus on milk.
Out of initial 80 liters, 8 liters is taken out. i.e. a decrease of 10%.
This process is repeated again, i.e. again a decrease of 10%. So, this is a case of successive percentage
change.
Net percentage change after second replacement = x + y + (xy/100) = -10 – 10 + 1 = –19%
Net percentage change after third replacement = x + y + (xy/100) = -19 – 10 + 1.9 = –27.1%
So, 27.1% reduction in milk.
Thus, 27.1% of removed milk is replaced by 27.1% of water.
Percentage of water in the final mixture is 27.1%.
Hence option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 60 (d)
Let’s denote Kareena, Karishma, Urmila and Rani by Kn, Km, U and R.
According to the question,

Their average weight = (9y+6y+6y+10y)/4 = 31y/4 = 62

Or, y = 8
So, weights of U, R, Kn and Km are 72 kg, 48 kg, 48kg and 80 kg respectively.
Hence, options (a) and (b) are correct. [We can mark (d) as our answer just by knowing this. No need to
solve further.]
Now, ₹31,000 = 62 kg
Or, ₹1,000 = 2 kg
Thus, income of U = 36×1000 = ₹36,000
Income of R = 24×1000 = ₹24,000
Income of Kn = 24×1000 = ₹24,000
Income of Km = 40×1000 = ₹40,000
Thus, all the options are correct.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 61 (d)
Inference (a) is incorrect. The passage mentions, “Direct effects of heat exposure on the body; extreme
weather events; water scarcity; vector-borne and water-borne infections; non-communicable diseases;
mental health disorders; food and nutrition insecurity due to reduced yield and nutrient quality of crops”.
This implies that climate change can lead to a rise in both communicable and non-communicable diseases.
However, we cannot say that climate change is the only factor leading to increase in communicable and
non-communicable diseases. There could be other factors also. Hence inference (a) is incorrect.
Inference (b) is incorrect. The passage focuses on the physical and psychological impacts of climate change.
The author also mentions how crop quality may be adversely affected; and how existing health infrastructure
would be overburdened. However, there is no indication towards urbanization and its associated
consequences. Therefore, this answer option is beyond the scope of this passage. Hence inference (b) is
incorrect.
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Inference (c) is correct. The passage mentions the direct effects of heat exposure on human body because
of climate change. Other direct impacts include strokes; heart attacks; diabetes; respiratory disease; cancers
etc. The indirect effects include issues like reduced crop productivity and nutrient quality of crops.
Therefore, it is correct to say that climate change has both direct and indirect impacts on human beings.
Hence inference (c) is correct.
Inference (d) is the correct answer as both options (a) and (b) are incorrect.

Q 62 (d)
Assumptions 1 and 2 are invalid. The passage states the dangers associated with exposure to microplastics
and the extensive presence of single-use plastic. It is also stated that exposure to these microplastics
negatively impacts human health and has been linked to “neurological conditions, poor cardiometabolic
health, and fertility issues.” However, there is no mention of the costs of these plastic materials as stated in
assumption 1. Therefore, we cannot comment on the plausibility of curbing plastic usage by increasing their
price manifold. Hence, both assumptions 1 and 2 are invalid.

Q 63 (c)
Option (a) is not correct: While the passage highlights the transformation of war, it does not suggest that
older strategies are useless altogether. The passage discusses the changing nature of war, but it does not
make any claims about the absolute obsolescence of past military strategies. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
Option (b) is not correct: While the passage mentions schools being targeted and children being attacked, it
does not limit the impact of armed conflicts to physical injuries alone. The passage uses the term "wellbeing"
which suggests a broader impact beyond just physical health – mental, emotional, psychological etc. Hence,
option (b) is not correct.
Option (c) is correct: The passage specifically mentions the increased dangers children face in modern
warfare. It details how conflicts are more widespread; weapons are more destructive; and children are
directly targeted or caught in the crossfire. Examples are provided of how schools and healthcare facilities,
traditionally seen as safe havens, are now under attack. The entire passage focuses on the negative
consequences of modern warfare on children, making this assumption the most logical conclusion based on
the information presented. Hence, option (c) is correct.
Option (d) is not correct: The given statement is factually correct in general sense. However, in the context
of the passage, it cannot be considered as the most logical assumption. The passage only mentions violation
of the Geneva Convention, but does not provide any relevant details on which this assumption can be
validated. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Q 64 (b)
Inference 1 is incorrect: Media's failing duty is suggested by the mentions of "widespread outrage" and the
belief that journalism is seen as a hazard, not a service. The decline in public trust towards the media is the
effect of the inability of the media to hold security institutions accountable, not its cause. Hence, inference
1 is incorrect.
Inference 2 is correct: The passage says, “…credible and authoritative media voices face a greater threat
to their ability to function effectively by the very institutions that they are meant to hold accountable”. The
passage further mentions, “Truth, as the undying cliche goes, is the first casualty of war”. By linking the
two statements, the passage suggests that wartime censorship by security institutions impedes truthful
reporting by the media, potentially causing the truth to be hidden - a casualty of war. Hence, inference 2 is
correct.

Q 65 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect as the passage mentions health as being important for wellbeing of a society, but
nothing has been mentioned about education or human values. This does not mean they are not important.
Option (b) is correct as the passage specifically mentions “percolation effects of its growth”. The meaning
of words “downward filtration” is exactly the same as “percolation effects of its growth”.
Option (c) is incorrect as nothing has been mentioned about significant reduction in poverty. Though the
passage do mention that direct efforts have been taken to reduce poverty, e.g. when the author mentions
about “anterior attack on poverty”.
Option (d) is incorrect as passage only states that “malnutrition became national priority from the 5 th Five
Year Plan, but it is silent about the importance given to nutrition before 5th Five Year Plan. So, no inference
can be drawn about this period.
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Explanation of Question 66-69:

According to the given information, we can deduce the following relations:
Age Weight
D = 3A B=C
B–C=E–G=D–E A = B – 10
D + G = 32 D=E+4
A + E = 22 E=F+4
B + C = 22 F=G+4
H = A + 14 H = A + 16
Now, age–weight ratio of D and A are 9 : 20 and 2 : 5 respectively, i.e. if D's age is 9x years, his weight
will be 20x kg. Similarly, if A's age is 2y years his weight will be 5y kg.

If D = 9 years, A would be 3 years old (as D = 3A). This is not possible, as none of them are younger than
6 years. So, D must be 18 years of age. (He cannot be 27 years or more as then his weight will exceed 40
kg.)
So, D is 18 years old and has a weight of 40 kg.
Now, A = D/3 = 18/3 = 6 years old. His weight = 15 kg.
H = A + 14 = 20 years old. His weight = A + 16 = 31 kg
E = 22 – A = 16 years old. His weight = D – 4 = 36 kg
G = 32 – D = 14 years old. His weight = F – 4 = E – 8 = 28 kg
Now, B – C = E – G = 16 – 14 = 2
Also, B + C = 22
So, B = 12 years and C = 10 years
And, as far as weight is concerned, B = C = A + 10 = 25 kg
F = E – 4 = 32 kg
Further, we know that F’s age is one-fourth of his weight, i.e. 32/4 = 8 years.
So, we can conclude that:
Person Age (in years) Weight (in kg)
A 6 15
B 12 25
C 10 25
D 18 40
E 16 36
F 8 32
G 14 28

Q 66 (b)
Required answer = {(12-10)/10} x 100 = 20%

Q 67 (a)
The average age (in years) of A, B, C, D, E, F, and G = (6+12+10+18+16+8+14)/7 = 12

Q 68 (b)
The average weight (in kg) of A, B, C, D, E, F, and G = (15+25+25+40+36+32+28)/7 = 28.71

Q 69 (a)
Statement-1:
The average age of B and F = (12+8)/2 = 10, which is equal to the age of C.
Hence, statement-1 is correct.
Statement-2:
Average weight of D and G = (40+28)/2 = 34
Average weight of B and F = (25+32)/2 = 28.5
Thus, starement-2 is incorrect.
Hence, option (a) is the correct answer.
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Q 70 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect. According to the passage, Fourth Industrial Revolution is even challenging ideas
about what it means to be human. It would be incorrect to say that it is leading to LESS disruptions than
previous revolutions.
Option (b) denotes the central theme of the passage. The passage is written in comparative form where
author compares fourth industrial revolution with other industrial revolutions in the past. Through this
comparison, author discusses how 4th industrial revolution is different: fusion of technologies, fast changing
technology etc. It is even challenging ideas about what it means to be human, which is a radical difference.
Option (c) is incorrect. Author says that her six-year old son tries to swipe TV screen. This does not mean
that Children of EVERY generation have innate ability to operate the technological equipment in vogue.
Option (d) is also incorrect. Author says that the first three revolutions have liberated humankind from
animal power, made mass production possible and brought digital capabilities to billions of people. It cannot
be conclusively established that 4th industrial revolution will also lead to liberation of humankind. Also,
liberation of mankind is one of the aspects covered in the passage. It is not the central idea. Rather than the
role of various revolutions on human liberation, the focus of the passage seems more on the rapidness of 4th
industrial revolution itself.

Q 71 (c)
Assumption 1 is correct: The passage builds this assumption in the following ways:
Frustration with traditional approaches: This suggests the limitations of methods that might not consider all
parties involved.
Focus on what worked: This highlights the development of practices based on their impact on offenders,
victims, and public acceptance, implying a consideration of these different needs.
Realization of interconnected needs: The passage explicitly states that the needs of these groups are not
independent, suggesting the necessity of a more comprehensive approach.
Engagement with all three: This emphasizes the importance of actively involving all stakeholders in the
process.
By outlining these points, the passage suggests that a holistic approach, that considers the needs of various
parties, is a successful outcome of innovation in criminal justice. It may be seen as an improvement over
potentially limited traditional methods. Hence, assumption 1 is correct.
Assumption 2 is correct: The passage highlights two key ideas:
Importance of a holistic approach: This emphasizes the need to consider the needs of victims, offenders,
and the community for effective criminal justice.
Concerns about losing due process safeguards: This highlights a concern that focusing on a broader range
of needs might come at the cost of protection of individual rights.
By presenting these contrasting ideas, the passage suggests a potential tension. On one hand, a holistic
approach might require considering various perspectives, and on the other hand, there's a concern that this
could compromise the established legal safeguards. Hence, assumption 2 is correct.

Q 72 (b)
Option (a) is incorrect: This statement does not reflect the crux of the passage. The passage states that the
officials generally do their jobs, but it is the lack of focus on the bigger picture that creates problems. There
is no mention of the accountability of the officials concerned. Hence option (a) is incorrect.
Option (b) is correct: The passage mentions, “But, they have limited oversight of the interlinkages between
their responsibility and those of others also involved, albeit via a different department, and therefore only
a blurred line of sight to the full picture of the problem.” This implies that there exists a "siloed" structure
where departments focus on their tasks without considering how their work connects to other departments
or the overall goal. Hence option (b) is correct.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage doesn't say that officials avoid collaboration, just that they lack the
incentive to see how or whether their work fits with that of others. Also, the passage does not compare the
completion of tasks with collaboration. Hence option (c) is incorrect.

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Q 73 (d)
By using alligation method,

Here, ratio of the number of girls to those of boys is 2:3.

If there are 100 students, there would be 40 girls and 60 boys. Hence, the first statement is wrong.
50% of the number of students in Section B = 50% of boys = 30 boys, which is not one-third of girls. Hence,
statement-2 is also wrong.
Thus, option (d) is correct.

Q 74 (d)
The original number is ‘pq’.
Arithmetic mean is more by 2.7, means the sum is more by 20×2.7 = 54.
So, (10q+p) – (10p+q) = 54 [Since qp = 10q + p and pq = 10p + q ]
or q-p = 6
or p-q = -6
Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q 75 (d)
Total no. of birds and animals = 340
Let no. of birds = x ; no. of animals = (340-x)
According to the question,
2x + 4(340-x) = 1060
Or, 2x + 1360 - 4x = 1060
Or, 2x = 300
Or, x = 150
No. of animals = 340-150 = 190
Ratio of pigeons to parrots = 2:3
Or, 2y + 3y = 150
Or, 5y = 150
Or, y = 30
Hence, no. of pigeons = 2×30 = 60 and no. of parrots = 30×3 = 90
Now, total no. of animals = 190
Or, 5z+6z+8z = 190
Or, 19z = 190
Or, z = 10
Hence, the no. of rabbits, elephants and lions are 5×10, 6×10 and 8×10, i.e. 50, 60 and 80 respectively.
Required ratio = 80:60 = 4:3
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 76 (c)
Method І
Cost price (C.P.) of expensive wheat = Rs. 36.60/Kg (3660 paise)
Cost price (C.P.) of cheaper wheat = RS 17.10/Kg (1710 Paise)
Quantity of cheaper wheat = 189 Kg
Selling price (S.P.) of 1 kg of the mixture = Rs 26.40, Gain = 10%.
So the cost price (C.P.) of the mixture = 100/110 × 26.40 = Rs 24. (2400 paise)
Applying allegation,

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C.P. of 1 kg of the dearer wheat C.P. of 1 kg of the cheaper wheat

(3660 P) (1710 P)

Mean Price

(2400 P)

690 1260

(2400-1710) (3660-2400)
So, Ratio of quantity of expensive wheat to cheaper wheat = 690 : 1260 = 23 : 42.
Let x kg of the expensive wheat be mixed with the 189 kg of cheaper wheat.
Therefore, x/189 = 23/42
⇒ x = 103.5 kg
Method ІІ
Selling price (S.P.) of 1 kg of the mixture = Rs 26.40, Gain= 10%.
So the cost price (C.P.) of 1 kg of the mixture = 100/110 × 26.40 = Rs 24.
Let the ratio of the expensive wheat and the cheaper wheat = d : c
So, (d×3660+c×1710)/(d+c) = 2400
(Cost of the expensive wheat = 3660 P/kg, cost of the cheaper wheat = 1710 P/kg and the mean price =
2400 P/kg)
⇒ d/c = 23/42
Now, let x kg of the expensive wheat is mixed with the 189 kg of the cheaper wheat.
So, x/189 = 23/42
⇒ x = 103.5 kg
Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q 77 (d)
Let x kg of fresh water is added to the sea water.
So, (Quantity of salt)/(Quantity of salt+Quantity of water) = (5% of 80)/(80+x) = 4/100 (4% salt solution
is required)
⇒ 4/(80+x) = 4/100 (5% of 80 = 4)
⇒ 80 + x = 100
⇒ x = 20 kg
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 78 (d)
Mangoes, papayas, grapes and oranges are distributed in the ratio of their weights 3:2:5:4.
Rate of mangoes =3 × the rate of papayas =3×30 = ₹90
Rate of grapes = 2 × the rate of oranges
Or, the rate of oranges = the rate of grapes / 2 = 70/2 = ₹35
Statement-1:
Average expenditure of Prabhu = (3×90 + 2×30 + 5×70 + 4×35) / (3+2+5+4) = 820/14 = ₹58.57
Hence, statement-1 is correct.
Statement-2:
Expenditure on mangoes and oranges =3×90 + 4×35 = 270+140 = ₹410
Expenditure on papayas and grapes = 2×30 + 5x70 = ₹410
Hence, statement-2 is correct.
Statement-3:
The ratio of expenditure on Mangoes to grapes = (3×90):(5×70) = 270:350 = 27:35
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Hence, statement-3 is correct.

Thus, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q 79 (b)
Method І
Initial ratio of fruit juice and water in mocktail sample A = 5/5+1 = 5/6.
Initial ratio of fruit juice and water in mocktail sample B = 1/1+3 = ¼.
Final ratio of fruit juice and water in the mixture = 1/1+2 = 1/3.

So, the required ratio = 1/12 : 1/2

= 1/12 × 12 : 1/2 × 12 = 1 : 6
Method ІІ
Let us solve the problem with respect to the ratio of water in mocktail samples.
Initial ratio of water and fruit juice in mocktail sample A = 1/5+1 = 1/6.
Initial ratio of water and fruit juice in mocktail sample B = 3/1+3 = 3/4.
Final ratio of water and fruit juice in the mixture = 2/1+2 = 2/3.
Let the contents of the sample A and the sample B be mixed in the ratio of x : y.
So, [(1/6)x+(3/4)y]/(x+y) = 2/3
⇒ (3/6)x + (9/4)y = 2x + 2y
⇒ x/y = 1/6
⇒ x : y = 1 : 6.
Thus, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q 80 (d)
Statement-1:
Total no. of sunny days and clear days together = 8 + 8 = 16
Total no. of rainy days and snowy days = 4 + 6 = 10
Hence, statement-1 is incorrect.
Statement-2:
Percentage increase in windy days = (8/3) × 100 = 800/3
Percentage decrease in sunny days = (5/8) × 100 = 500/8
Required ratio = (800/3):(500/8) = 64:15
Hence, statement-2 is also incorrect.
Thus, option (d) is the correct answer.

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