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With negative marking your current score is 41 %
Combination. 4147 Question number 1
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features of encephalocele
a) frontal location
b) associated with Turner's syndrome
c) associated with Down's syndrome
d) a feature of Morquio's disease
e) elevated alpha fetoprotein
Your answer is T F F F F
The correct answer is F F F F T
Explanation
A. site: occipital midline (75%), fronto-ethmoidal (15%), parietal B/C/D/E. NO EXP
Combination. 1396 Question number 2
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the following are true of hemangioma of the vertebra
a) it is more likely to be of the capillary than the cavernous type
b) most commonly involves the cervical vertebrae
c) there is prominent vertical trabeculation
d) extraosseous extension is rare
e) on T2 weighted MR the signal intensity is typically DECREASED
Your answer is T F T T F
The correct answer is F F T F F
Explanation
A. it is more likely to be of the CAVERNOUS than the capillary type B. most commonly involves the
vertebral body in the lower thoracic or upper lumbar spine C. exaggerated vertical trabeculae are also in
multiple myeloma, lymphoma and metastasis D. extraosseous extension is common and may lead to
cord compression E.the characteristic pattern on MR is a mottled pattern of increased intensity on
BOTH T1 and T2 weighted images
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Combination. 3104 Question number 3
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recognised features of neurofibromatosis I
a) dysplastic sphenoid
b) hypercalcemia
c) anterior scalloping of the vertebral bodies
d) cerebral lesions are of low signal intensity on T2
e) intense calcification of the choroid plexuses
Your answer is T D F T T
The correct answer is T F F F T
Explanation
A.causing 'empty orbit' B.NO EXP C. posterior scalloping D. high signal E.NO EXP
Combination. 3878 Question number 4
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Sudden loss of vision has been shown to occur in
a) tobacco amblyopia
b) retinal vein occlusion
c) cranial arteritis
d) retrobulbar neuritis
e) hysteria
Your answer is T T T T T
The correct answer is F T T T T
Explanation
NO EXP
Combination. 2593 Question number 5
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in imaging of the parathyroid glands
a) each gland should not normally measure more than 1cm in any diameter
b) the superior parathyroid glands usually lie outside the fascial sheath of the thyroid gland
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c) the superior glands develop from the fourth pharangeal pouch
d) on ultrasound the parathyroid glands are seen as hypoechoic structures
e) the parathyroid glands do not take up technetium-99m pertechnetate
Your answer is T T T T F
The correct answer is T F T T T
Explanation
NO EXPLANATION
Combination. 3667 Question number 6
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recognised features of macroadenoma
a) encasement of carotid artery
b) homogenous enhancement on MR
c) usually endocrinologically active
d) calcification in about 30%
e) associated with peripheral eosinophila
Your answer is T T F T F
The correct answer is T T F F F
Explanation
A. invasion of cavernous sinus: encasement of carotid artery (surest sign) B. NO EXP C. usually
endocrinologically inactive (70 - 80% of pituitary adenomas) D. calcification is uncommon E. NO EXP
Combination. 2944 Question number 7
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the major factors that affect MRI scan time include
a) TE
b) the field of view (FOV)
c) the inherent noise of the system
d) TR
e) the number of times data is collected with the same slope slope of phase encoding gradient (NEX)
Your answer is F F F T T
The correct answer is F F F T T
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Explanation
NO EXPLANATION
Combination. 2585 Question number 8
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regarding the facial bones
a) the zygoma borders bothe the temporal and the infratemporal fossae
b) the inferior orbital fissure lies between the greater wing of the sphenoid and the maxillary bone
c) the sphenoid air cells drain into the spheno-ethmoidal recess
d) the maxillary sinuses are the first to appear
e) the upper and lower compartments of the temporomandibular joint don't usually communicate
Your answer is F T T T F
The correct answer is T T T T T
Explanation
NO EXPLANATION
Combination. 1809 Question number 9
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features of PSEUDOTUMOR OF ORBIT
a) is usually due to radiation therapy
b) lesion isointense to fat on T2 weighted MR
c) causes proptosis
d) spares the tendinous insertions of the extra-ocular muscles
e) rapid response to steroids
Your answer is F F T F T
The correct answer is F T T F T
Explanation
A. cause not apparent at time of study: bacterial, viral, foreign body B. lesion isointense to fat on T2
weighted MR C. unilateral painful ophthalmoplegia proptosis, chemosis, lid injection limitation of ocular
movement D. enlargement of one / more extraocular muscles close to insertion in globe with ill-defined
margins - typically involves muscles + tendon insertions (DDx to Graves disease with muscle
involvement only) E. rapid dramatic + lasting response to steroid therapy
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Combination. 2198 Question number 10
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The signal-to-noise ratio in an MRI image
a) is independent of the background electric noise of the system
b) is higher in the thoracic region than the pelvis
c) is higher for larger voxels
d) spin-echo pulses usually generate more signal than gradient echo pulses
e) doubling the number of averages (NEX) doubles the signal-to-noise ratio
Your answer is F F T T F
The correct answer is F F T T F
Explanation
A. The noise is produced by the background noise of the system and by the presence of the patient in
the magnet B. An area such as the pelvis has a relatively higher proton content than the thorax and
therefore the signal is higher.The number of protons in an area under consideration determines the
amplitude of the signal C. Larger voxels have a higher signal-to-noise ratio because they contain more
nuclei and therefore contribute towards a higher pixel brightness D. The LEFT heart border is more
likely to become prominent.On a LATERAL view the ANTERIOR part of the cardiac shadow is
prominent E.Doubling the number of averages (NEX) increases the SNR by 1.4 times
Combination. 2942 Question number 11
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the following are true of noise in MRI
a) it depends on the build of the patient
b) it is reduced by decreasing the receive bandwidth
c) less noise is received when imaging areas of high proton density
d) it is reduced by decreasing the receive bandwidth
e) it is reduced by increasing the number of times data is collected with the same amplitude of phase
encoding slope
Your answer is T T T T T
The correct answer is T F F T F
Explanation
NO EXPLANATION
Combination. 3850 Question number 12
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recognised features of craniopharyngioma
a) hypointense on T2-weighted MR
b) highly vascular on angiography
c) calcification is more commonly seen in adults than in children
d) distinguished from an apidermoid lesion by its lack of enhancement on CT
e) complicated by diabetes insipidus
Your answer is T F F T F
The correct answer is F F F F T
Explanation
A. markedly hyperintense on T2WI B. usually avascular on angiography C. curvilinear / flocculent /
stippled calcifications / lamellar ossification; calcifications seen in youth in 70 - 90%, in adults in 30 -
40% D. enhancement of solid lesion, peripheral enhancement of cystic lesion ; Epidermoid - no contrast
enhancement E. diabetes insipidus (compression of pituitary gland)
Combination. 1989 Question number 13
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features of CEREBELLAR ASTROCYTOMA
a) frequent cytic components
b) calcified in over 90%
c) the five year survival below 10%
d) may present with dysdiadochokinesia
e) rare in children
Your answer is T F F T F
The correct answer is T F F T F
Explanation
A. NO EXP B. calcifications (20%): dense / faint / reticular / punctate / globular; mostly in solid variety
C. malignant transformation exceedingly rare - 40% 25-year survival rate for solid cerebellar D.
cerebellar signs: truncal ataxia, dysdiadochokinesia E. Age: children > adults; no specific age peak;
M:F = 1:1
Combination. 3503 Question number 14
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recognised features of epidermoid of the CNS include
a) contrast enhancement
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b) complicated by meningitis
c) intraventricular location
d) CT attenuation of about 20-40HU on an unenhanced CT
e) lamellated appearance on MR
Your answer is F T T F T
The correct answer is F T T F T
Explanation
A. NO contrast enhancement B. chemical meningitis (secondary to leakage of tumor contents into
subarachnoid space) in middle cranial fossa C. cerebello-pontine and suprasellar locations are more
common D. typically lobulated round homogeneous mass with density between water and -20 HU E.
lamellated onion-skin appearance (layer-on-layer accretion of desquamated material) signal intensity
similar to CSF: heterogeneously hypointense lesion on T1WI + hyperintense on T2WI
Combination. 4105 Question number 15
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causes of peri-ventricular T2-weighted hyperintense lesions
a) Wilson's disease
b) chronic ischemia
c) Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
d) neurosarcoid
e) Toxoplasmosis
Your answer is F T T T T
The correct answer is F T T F T
Explanation
A. NO EXP B. chronic ischemia due to arteriosclerosis of long penetrating arteries arising from circle of
Willis (lenticulostriate + thalamoperforators) = small vessel disease C. Progressive multifocal
leukoencephalopathy (PML) D/E.NO EXP
Combination. 2293 Question number 16
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regarding the spinal meninges
a) the arachnoid mater does not extend to the nerve roots
b) the denticulate ligament is composed of a thickening of the dura mater
c) the subdural space contains lymphatics
d) the dural sac usually extends till L5
e) the dura mater is fused with the periosteum of the vertebral bodies
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Your answer is F T T F T
The correct answer is F F F F F
Explanation
no explanation
Combination. 1911 Question number 17
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features of ARTERIOVENOUS MALFORMATION of the CNS
a) usually supratentorial
b) prominent mass effect
c) are usually supplied by branches of the EXTERNAL carotid artery
d) on CT enhancement is serpiginous
e) the incidence of a rebleed is smaller than that of a first bleed
Your answer is T N F T F
The correct answer is T F T T F
Explanation
A. a) supratentorial (90%): parietal > frontal > temporal lobe > paraventricular > intraventricular region >
occipital lobe (b) infratentorial (10%) B. no mass effect C. pial branches of ICA in 73% of supratentorial
location, in 50% of posterior fossa location D. serpiginous dense enhancement in 80% (tortuous dilated
vessels) E. 2 - 3% yearly chance of bleeding increasing to 6% in year following 1st bleed + 25% in year
following 2nd bleed
Combination. 2566 Question number 18
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regarding the radiological features of the skull
a) the Towne's view is one of the standard projections
b) on a lateral view the dorsum sellae should have well defined margins both anteriorly and posteriorly
c) pneumatisation of the sphenoid sinus does not usually involve the dorsum
d) in a 'J-shaped' sella the sulcus chiasmaticus is usually absent
e) the middle meningeal vessels groove the inner table of the skull vault
Your answer is T T F T T
The correct answer is T T T F T
Explanation
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NO EXPLANATION
Combination. 2284 Question number 19
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regarding the radiological features of the projection fibres
a) the genu of the internal capsule contains motor fibres to the head
b) on the posterior limb of the internal capsule the auditory fibres lie posterior to the visual fibres
c) the internal capsule is usually of higher attenuation than the lentiform nucleus
d) the posterior two-thirds of the posterior limb of the internal capsule contains predominantly sensory
fibres
e) the anterior limb of the internal capsule lies between the lentiform nucleus and the thalamus
Your answer is T T F D F
The correct answer is T T F F F
Explanation
no explanation
Combination. 4271 Question number 20
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Early typical features of heart failure in infancy include
a) bradycardia
b) oedema
c) tachypnoea
d) hepatomegaly
e) cyanosis
Your answer is T T T T T
The correct answer is F F T T F
Explanation
A. Early features of heart failure do not include bradycardia (rather tachycardia). B.Early features of
heart failure do not include oedema (weight gain may be more relevant) C/D NO EXP E. features of
heart failure do not include cyanosis (it may be a symptom of the underlying problem per se, but as a
symptom of cardiac failure is quite late),
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