300 MCQs for Diploma in Electronics Engineering

This document contains 300 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) for Diploma in Electronics
Engineering. The questions are divided into various sections including Basic Electronics,
Analog Electronics, Digital Electronics, Communication Systems, and Microcontrollers. An
answer key is provided at the end.

Analog Electronics
1. 1. What is the charge of an electron?

 a) Positive
 b) Negative
 c) Neutral
 d) Variable

2. 2. Which component is used to store charge in a circuit?

 a) Resistor
 b) Capacitor
 c) Inductor
 d) Diode

3. 3. The unit of electric current is:

 a) Coulomb
 b) Ampere
 c) Volt
 d) Ohm

4. 4. What is the resistance of an ideal voltmeter?

 a) Zero
 b) High
 c) Infinite
 d) None

5. 5. Ohm's law states that:

 a) V = IR
 b) P = IV
 c) R = V/I
 d) V = I²R

6. 6. What is the charge of an electron?

 a) Positive
 b) Negative
 c) Neutral
 d) Variable

7. 7. Which component is used to store charge in a circuit?

 a) Resistor
 b) Capacitor
 c) Inductor
 d) Diode

8. 8. The unit of electric current is:

 a) Coulomb
 b) Ampere
 c) Volt
 d) Ohm

9. 9. What is the resistance of an ideal voltmeter?

 a) Zero
 b) High
 c) Infinite
 d) None

10. 10. Ohm's law states that:

 a) V = IR
 b) P = IV
 c) R = V/I
 d) V = I²R

11. 11. What is the charge of an electron?

 a) Positive
 b) Negative
 c) Neutral
 d) Variable

12. 12. Which component is used to store charge in a circuit?

 a) Resistor
 b) Capacitor
 c) Inductor
 d) Diode

13. 13. The unit of electric current is:

 a) Coulomb
 b) Ampere
 c) Volt
 d) Ohm

14. 14. What is the resistance of an ideal voltmeter?

 a) Zero
 b) High
 c) Infinite
 d) None

15. 15. Ohm's law states that:

 a) V = IR
 b) P = IV
 c) R = V/I
 d) V = I²R

16. 16. What is the charge of an electron?

 a) Positive
 b) Negative
 c) Neutral
 d) Variable

17. 17. Which component is used to store charge in a circuit?

 a) Resistor
 b) Capacitor
 c) Inductor
 d) Diode

18. 18. The unit of electric current is:

 a) Coulomb
 b) Ampere
 c) Volt
 d) Ohm

19. 19. What is the resistance of an ideal voltmeter?

 a) Zero
 b) High
 c) Infinite
 d) None

20. 20. Ohm's law states that:

 a) V = IR
 b) P = IV
 c) R = V/I
 d) V = I²R

21. 21. What is the charge of an electron?

 a) Positive
 b) Negative
 c) Neutral
 d) Variable

22. 22. Which component is used to store charge in a circuit?

 a) Resistor
 b) Capacitor
 c) Inductor
 d) Diode

23. 23. The unit of electric current is:

 a) Coulomb
 b) Ampere
 c) Volt
 d) Ohm

24. 24. What is the resistance of an ideal voltmeter?

 a) Zero
 b) High
 c) Infinite
 d) None

25. 25. Ohm's law states that:

 a) V = IR
 b) P = IV
 c) R = V/I
 d) V = I²R

26. 26. What is the charge of an electron?

 a) Positive
 b) Negative
 c) Neutral
 d) Variable

27. 27. Which component is used to store charge in a circuit?

 a) Resistor
 b) Capacitor
 c) Inductor
 d) Diode

28. 28. The unit of electric current is:

 a) Coulomb
 b) Ampere
 c) Volt
 d) Ohm

29. 29. What is the resistance of an ideal voltmeter?

 a) Zero
 b) High
 c) Infinite
 d) None

30. 30. Ohm's law states that:

 a) V = IR
 b) P = IV
 c) R = V/I
 d) V = I²R

31. 31. What is the charge of an electron?

 a) Positive
 b) Negative
 c) Neutral
 d) Variable

32. 32. Which component is used to store charge in a circuit?

 a) Resistor
 b) Capacitor
 c) Inductor
 d) Diode

33. 33. The unit of electric current is:

 a) Coulomb
 b) Ampere
 c) Volt
 d) Ohm

34. 34. What is the resistance of an ideal voltmeter?

 a) Zero
 b) High
 c) Infinite
 d) None

35. 35. Ohm's law states that:

 a) V = IR
 b) P = IV
 c) R = V/I
 d) V = I²R

36. 36. What is the charge of an electron?

 a) Positive
 b) Negative
 c) Neutral
 d) Variable

37. 37. Which component is used to store charge in a circuit?

 a) Resistor
 b) Capacitor
 c) Inductor
 d) Diode

38. 38. The unit of electric current is:

 a) Coulomb
 b) Ampere
 c) Volt
 d) Ohm

39. 39. What is the resistance of an ideal voltmeter?

 a) Zero
 b) High
 c) Infinite
 d) None

40. 40. Ohm's law states that:

 a) V = IR
 b) P = IV
 c) R = V/I
 d) V = I²R

41. 41. What is the charge of an electron?

 a) Positive
 b) Negative
 c) Neutral
 d) Variable

42. 42. Which component is used to store charge in a circuit?

 a) Resistor
 b) Capacitor
 c) Inductor
 d) Diode

43. 43. The unit of electric current is:

 a) Coulomb
 b) Ampere
 c) Volt
 d) Ohm

44. 44. What is the resistance of an ideal voltmeter?

 a) Zero
 b) High
 c) Infinite
 d) None

45. 45. Ohm's law states that:

 a) V = IR
 b) P = IV
 c) R = V/I
 d) V = I²R

46. 46. What is the charge of an electron?

 a) Positive
 b) Negative
 c) Neutral
 d) Variable

47. 47. Which component is used to store charge in a circuit?

 a) Resistor
 b) Capacitor
 c) Inductor
 d) Diode

48. 48. The unit of electric current is:

 a) Coulomb
 b) Ampere
 c) Volt
 d) Ohm

49. 49. What is the resistance of an ideal voltmeter?

 a) Zero
 b) High
 c) Infinite
 d) None

50. 50. Ohm's law states that:

 a) V = IR
 b) P = IV
 c) R = V/I
 d) V = I²R

51. 51. What is the charge of an electron?

 a) Positive
 b) Negative
 c) Neutral
 d) Variable

52. 52. Which component is used to store charge in a circuit?

 a) Resistor
 b) Capacitor
 c) Inductor
 d) Diode

53. 53. The unit of electric current is:

 a) Coulomb
 b) Ampere
 c) Volt
 d) Ohm

54. 54. What is the resistance of an ideal voltmeter?

 a) Zero
 b) High
 c) Infinite
 d) None

55. 55. Ohm's law states that:

 a) V = IR
 b) P = IV
 c) R = V/I
 d) V = I²R

56. 56. What is the charge of an electron?

 a) Positive
 b) Negative
 c) Neutral
 d) Variable

57. 57. Which component is used to store charge in a circuit?

 a) Resistor
 b) Capacitor
 c) Inductor
 d) Diode

58. 58. The unit of electric current is:

 a) Coulomb
 b) Ampere
 c) Volt
 d) Ohm

59. 59. What is the resistance of an ideal voltmeter?

 a) Zero
 b) High
 c) Infinite
 d) None

60. 60. Ohm's law states that:

 a) V = IR
 b) P = IV
 c) R = V/I
 d) V = I²R

61. 61. What is the charge of an electron?

 a) Positive
 b) Negative
 c) Neutral
 d) Variable

62. 62. Which component is used to store charge in a circuit?

 a) Resistor
 b) Capacitor
 c) Inductor
 d) Diode

63. 63. The unit of electric current is:

 a) Coulomb
 b) Ampere
 c) Volt
 d) Ohm

64. 64. What is the resistance of an ideal voltmeter?

 a) Zero
 b) High
 c) Infinite
 d) None

65. 65. Ohm's law states that:

 a) V = IR
 b) P = IV
 c) R = V/I
 d) V = I²R

66. 66. What is the charge of an electron?

 a) Positive
 b) Negative
 c) Neutral
 d) Variable

67. 67. Which component is used to store charge in a circuit?

 a) Resistor
 b) Capacitor
 c) Inductor
 d) Diode

68. 68. The unit of electric current is:

 a) Coulomb
 b) Ampere
 c) Volt
 d) Ohm

69. 69. What is the resistance of an ideal voltmeter?

 a) Zero
 b) High
 c) Infinite
 d) None

70. 70. Ohm's law states that:

 a) V = IR
 b) P = IV
 c) R = V/I
 d) V = I²R

71. 71. What is the charge of an electron?

 a) Positive
 b) Negative
 c) Neutral
 d) Variable

72. 72. Which component is used to store charge in a circuit?

 a) Resistor
 b) Capacitor
 c) Inductor
 d) Diode

73. 73. The unit of electric current is:

 a) Coulomb
 b) Ampere
 c) Volt
 d) Ohm

74. 74. What is the resistance of an ideal voltmeter?

 a) Zero
 b) High
 c) Infinite
 d) None

75. 75. Ohm's law states that:

 a) V = IR
 b) P = IV
 c) R = V/I
 d) V = I²R
Analog Electronics
76. 76. In a BJT, the region between the collector and base is called:

 a) Junction
 b) Channel
 c) Depletion Region
 d) Saturation Region

77. 77. A zener diode is used for:

 a) Current amplification
 b) Voltage regulation
 c) Power supply
 d) Signal generation

78. 78. The unit of inductance is:

 a) Ohm
 b) Tesla
 c) Farad
 d) Henry

79. 79. What is the input impedance of an ideal op-amp?

 a) Zero
 b) Infinite
 c) Moderate
 d) Variable

80. 80. Which type of filter passes high frequencies?

 a) Low-pass filter
 b) High-pass filter
 c) Band-pass filter
 d) Band-stop filter

81. 81. In a BJT, the region between the collector and base is called:

 a) Junction
 b) Channel
 c) Depletion Region
 d) Saturation Region

82. 82. A zener diode is used for:

 a) Current amplification
 b) Voltage regulation
 c) Power supply
 d) Signal generation

83. 83. The unit of inductance is:

 a) Ohm
 b) Tesla
 c) Farad
 d) Henry

84. 84. What is the input impedance of an ideal op-amp?

 a) Zero
 b) Infinite
 c) Moderate
 d) Variable

85. 85. Which type of filter passes high frequencies?

 a) Low-pass filter
 b) High-pass filter
 c) Band-pass filter
 d) Band-stop filter

86. 86. In a BJT, the region between the collector and base is called:

 a) Junction
 b) Channel
 c) Depletion Region
 d) Saturation Region

87. 87. A zener diode is used for:

 a) Current amplification
 b) Voltage regulation
 c) Power supply
 d) Signal generation

88. 88. The unit of inductance is:

 a) Ohm
 b) Tesla
 c) Farad
 d) Henry

89. 89. What is the input impedance of an ideal op-amp?

 a) Zero
 b) Infinite
 c) Moderate
 d) Variable

90. 90. Which type of filter passes high frequencies?

 a) Low-pass filter
 b) High-pass filter
 c) Band-pass filter
 d) Band-stop filter

91. 91. In a BJT, the region between the collector and base is called:

 a) Junction
 b) Channel
 c) Depletion Region
 d) Saturation Region

92. 92. A zener diode is used for:

 a) Current amplification
 b) Voltage regulation
 c) Power supply
 d) Signal generation

93. 93. The unit of inductance is:

 a) Ohm
 b) Tesla
 c) Farad
 d) Henry

94. 94. What is the input impedance of an ideal op-amp?

 a) Zero
 b) Infinite
 c) Moderate
 d) Variable

95. 95. Which type of filter passes high frequencies?

 a) Low-pass filter
 b) High-pass filter
 c) Band-pass filter
 d) Band-stop filter

96. 96. In a BJT, the region between the collector and base is called:
 a) Junction
 b) Channel
 c) Depletion Region
 d) Saturation Region

97. 97. A zener diode is used for:

 a) Current amplification
 b) Voltage regulation
 c) Power supply
 d) Signal generation

98. 98. The unit of inductance is:

 a) Ohm
 b) Tesla
 c) Farad
 d) Henry

99. 99. What is the input impedance of an ideal op-amp?

 a) Zero
 b) Infinite
 c) Moderate
 d) Variable

100. 100. Which type of filter passes high frequencies?

 a) Low-pass filter
 b) High-pass filter
 c) Band-pass filter
 d) Band-stop filter

101. 101. In a BJT, the region between the collector and base is called:

 a) Junction
 b) Channel
 c) Depletion Region
 d) Saturation Region

102. 102. A zener diode is used for:

 a) Current amplification
 b) Voltage regulation
 c) Power supply
 d) Signal generation

103. 103. The unit of inductance is:

 a) Ohm
 b) Tesla
 c) Farad
 d) Henry

104. 104. What is the input impedance of an ideal op-amp?

 a) Zero
 b) Infinite
 c) Moderate
 d) Variable

105. 105. Which type of filter passes high frequencies?

 a) Low-pass filter
 b) High-pass filter
 c) Band-pass filter
 d) Band-stop filter

106. 106. In a BJT, the region between the collector and base is called:

 a) Junction
 b) Channel
 c) Depletion Region
 d) Saturation Region

107. 107. A zener diode is used for:

 a) Current amplification
 b) Voltage regulation
 c) Power supply
 d) Signal generation

108. 108. The unit of inductance is:

 a) Ohm
 b) Tesla
 c) Farad
 d) Henry

109. 109. What is the input impedance of an ideal op-amp?

 a) Zero
 b) Infinite
 c) Moderate
 d) Variable

110. 110. Which type of filter passes high frequencies?

 a) Low-pass filter
 b) High-pass filter
 c) Band-pass filter
 d) Band-stop filter

111. 111. In a BJT, the region between the collector and base is called:

 a) Junction
 b) Channel
 c) Depletion Region
 d) Saturation Region

112. 112. A zener diode is used for:

 a) Current amplification
 b) Voltage regulation
 c) Power supply
 d) Signal generation

113. 113. The unit of inductance is:

 a) Ohm
 b) Tesla
 c) Farad
 d) Henry

114. 114. What is the input impedance of an ideal op-amp?

 a) Zero
 b) Infinite
 c) Moderate
 d) Variable

115. 115. Which type of filter passes high frequencies?

 a) Low-pass filter
 b) High-pass filter
 c) Band-pass filter
 d) Band-stop filter

116. 116. In a BJT, the region between the collector and base is called:

 a) Junction
 b) Channel
 c) Depletion Region
 d) Saturation Region

117. 117. A zener diode is used for:

 a) Current amplification
 b) Voltage regulation
 c) Power supply
 d) Signal generation

118. 118. The unit of inductance is:

 a) Ohm
 b) Tesla
 c) Farad
 d) Henry

119. 119. What is the input impedance of an ideal op-amp?

 a) Zero
 b) Infinite
 c) Moderate
 d) Variable

120. 120. Which type of filter passes high frequencies?

 a) Low-pass filter
 b) High-pass filter
 c) Band-pass filter
 d) Band-stop filter

121. 121. In a BJT, the region between the collector and base is called:

 a) Junction
 b) Channel
 c) Depletion Region
 d) Saturation Region

122. 122. A zener diode is used for:

 a) Current amplification
 b) Voltage regulation
 c) Power supply
 d) Signal generation

123. 123. The unit of inductance is:

 a) Ohm
 b) Tesla
 c) Farad
 d) Henry

124. 124. What is the input impedance of an ideal op-amp?

 a) Zero
 b) Infinite
 c) Moderate
 d) Variable

125. 125. Which type of filter passes high frequencies?

 a) Low-pass filter
 b) High-pass filter
 c) Band-pass filter
 d) Band-stop filter

126. 126. In a BJT, the region between the collector and base is called:

 a) Junction
 b) Channel
 c) Depletion Region
 d) Saturation Region

127. 127. A zener diode is used for:

 a) Current amplification
 b) Voltage regulation
 c) Power supply
 d) Signal generation

128. 128. The unit of inductance is:

 a) Ohm
 b) Tesla
 c) Farad
 d) Henry

129. 129. What is the input impedance of an ideal op-amp?

 a) Zero
 b) Infinite
 c) Moderate
 d) Variable

130. 130. Which type of filter passes high frequencies?

 a) Low-pass filter
 b) High-pass filter
 c) Band-pass filter
 d) Band-stop filter

131. 131. In a BJT, the region between the collector and base is called:
 a) Junction
 b) Channel
 c) Depletion Region
 d) Saturation Region

132. 132. A zener diode is used for:

 a) Current amplification
 b) Voltage regulation
 c) Power supply
 d) Signal generation

133. 133. The unit of inductance is:

 a) Ohm
 b) Tesla
 c) Farad
 d) Henry

134. 134. What is the input impedance of an ideal op-amp?

 a) Zero
 b) Infinite
 c) Moderate
 d) Variable

135. 135. Which type of filter passes high frequencies?

 a) Low-pass filter
 b) High-pass filter
 c) Band-pass filter
 d) Band-stop filter

136. 136. In a BJT, the region between the collector and base is called:

 a) Junction
 b) Channel
 c) Depletion Region
 d) Saturation Region

137. 137. A zener diode is used for:

 a) Current amplification
 b) Voltage regulation
 c) Power supply
 d) Signal generation

138. 138. The unit of inductance is:

 a) Ohm
 b) Tesla
 c) Farad
 d) Henry

139. 139. What is the input impedance of an ideal op-amp?

 a) Zero
 b) Infinite
 c) Moderate
 d) Variable

140. 140. Which type of filter passes high frequencies?

 a) Low-pass filter
 b) High-pass filter
 c) Band-pass filter
 d) Band-stop filter

141. 141. In a BJT, the region between the collector and base is called:

 a) Junction
 b) Channel
 c) Depletion Region
 d) Saturation Region

142. 142. A zener diode is used for:

 a) Current amplification
 b) Voltage regulation
 c) Power supply
 d) Signal generation

143. 143. The unit of inductance is:

 a) Ohm
 b) Tesla
 c) Farad
 d) Henry

144. 144. What is the input impedance of an ideal op-amp?

 a) Zero
 b) Infinite
 c) Moderate
 d) Variable

145. 145. Which type of filter passes high frequencies?

 a) Low-pass filter
 b) High-pass filter
 c) Band-pass filter
 d) Band-stop filter

146. 146. In a BJT, the region between the collector and base is called:

 a) Junction
 b) Channel
 c) Depletion Region
 d) Saturation Region

147. 147. A zener diode is used for:

 a) Current amplification
 b) Voltage regulation
 c) Power supply
 d) Signal generation

148. 148. The unit of inductance is:

 a) Ohm
 b) Tesla
 c) Farad
 d) Henry

149. 149. What is the input impedance of an ideal op-amp?

 a) Zero
 b) Infinite
 c) Moderate
 d) Variable

150. 150. Which type of filter passes high frequencies?

 a) Low-pass filter
 b) High-pass filter
 c) Band-pass filter
 d) Band-stop filter

Analog Electronics
151. 151. What is the binary equivalent of decimal number 10?

 a) 1010
 b) 1001
 c) 1100
 d) 1110
152. 152. The primary purpose of a multiplexer is to:

 a) Add numbers
 b) Decode data
 c) Select one input
 d) Amplify signals

153. 153. Which flip-flop is used to toggle a state?

 a) D flip-flop
 b) T flip-flop
 c) JK flip-flop
 d) SR flip-flop

154. 154. The number of inputs required for a 4:1 multiplexer is:

 a) 4
 b) 2
 c) 8
 d) 1

155. 155. The output of a NOT gate is 1 when the input is:

 a) 1
 b) 0
 c) Indeterminate
 d) Floating

156. 156. What is the binary equivalent of decimal number 10?

 a) 1010
 b) 1001
 c) 1100
 d) 1110

157. 157. The primary purpose of a multiplexer is to:

 a) Add numbers
 b) Decode data
 c) Select one input
 d) Amplify signals

158. 158. Which flip-flop is used to toggle a state?

 a) D flip-flop
 b) T flip-flop
 c) JK flip-flop
 d) SR flip-flop
159. 159. The number of inputs required for a 4:1 multiplexer is:

 a) 4
 b) 2
 c) 8
 d) 1

160. 160. The output of a NOT gate is 1 when the input is:

 a) 1
 b) 0
 c) Indeterminate
 d) Floating

161. 161. What is the binary equivalent of decimal number 10?

 a) 1010
 b) 1001
 c) 1100
 d) 1110

162. 162. The primary purpose of a multiplexer is to:

 a) Add numbers
 b) Decode data
 c) Select one input
 d) Amplify signals

163. 163. Which flip-flop is used to toggle a state?

 a) D flip-flop
 b) T flip-flop
 c) JK flip-flop
 d) SR flip-flop

164. 164. The number of inputs required for a 4:1 multiplexer is:

 a) 4
 b) 2
 c) 8
 d) 1

165. 165. The output of a NOT gate is 1 when the input is:

 a) 1
 b) 0
 c) Indeterminate
 d) Floating
166. 166. What is the binary equivalent of decimal number 10?

 a) 1010
 b) 1001
 c) 1100
 d) 1110

167. 167. The primary purpose of a multiplexer is to:

 a) Add numbers
 b) Decode data
 c) Select one input
 d) Amplify signals

168. 168. Which flip-flop is used to toggle a state?

 a) D flip-flop
 b) T flip-flop
 c) JK flip-flop
 d) SR flip-flop

169. 169. The number of inputs required for a 4:1 multiplexer is:

 a) 4
 b) 2
 c) 8
 d) 1

170. 170. The output of a NOT gate is 1 when the input is:

 a) 1
 b) 0
 c) Indeterminate
 d) Floating

171. 171. What is the binary equivalent of decimal number 10?

 a) 1010
 b) 1001
 c) 1100
 d) 1110

172. 172. The primary purpose of a multiplexer is to:

 a) Add numbers
 b) Decode data
 c) Select one input
 d) Amplify signals
173. 173. Which flip-flop is used to toggle a state?

 a) D flip-flop
 b) T flip-flop
 c) JK flip-flop
 d) SR flip-flop

174. 174. The number of inputs required for a 4:1 multiplexer is:

 a) 4
 b) 2
 c) 8
 d) 1

175. 175. The output of a NOT gate is 1 when the input is:

 a) 1
 b) 0
 c) Indeterminate
 d) Floating

176. 176. What is the binary equivalent of decimal number 10?

 a) 1010
 b) 1001
 c) 1100
 d) 1110

177. 177. The primary purpose of a multiplexer is to:

 a) Add numbers
 b) Decode data
 c) Select one input
 d) Amplify signals

178. 178. Which flip-flop is used to toggle a state?

 a) D flip-flop
 b) T flip-flop
 c) JK flip-flop
 d) SR flip-flop

179. 179. The number of inputs required for a 4:1 multiplexer is:

 a) 4
 b) 2
 c) 8
 d) 1
180. 180. The output of a NOT gate is 1 when the input is:

 a) 1
 b) 0
 c) Indeterminate
 d) Floating

181. 181. What is the binary equivalent of decimal number 10?

 a) 1010
 b) 1001
 c) 1100
 d) 1110

182. 182. The primary purpose of a multiplexer is to:

 a) Add numbers
 b) Decode data
 c) Select one input
 d) Amplify signals

183. 183. Which flip-flop is used to toggle a state?

 a) D flip-flop
 b) T flip-flop
 c) JK flip-flop
 d) SR flip-flop

184. 184. The number of inputs required for a 4:1 multiplexer is:

 a) 4
 b) 2
 c) 8
 d) 1

185. 185. The output of a NOT gate is 1 when the input is:

 a) 1
 b) 0
 c) Indeterminate
 d) Floating

186. 186. What is the binary equivalent of decimal number 10?

 a) 1010
 b) 1001
 c) 1100
 d) 1110
187. 187. The primary purpose of a multiplexer is to:

 a) Add numbers
 b) Decode data
 c) Select one input
 d) Amplify signals

188. 188. Which flip-flop is used to toggle a state?

 a) D flip-flop
 b) T flip-flop
 c) JK flip-flop
 d) SR flip-flop

189. 189. The number of inputs required for a 4:1 multiplexer is:

 a) 4
 b) 2
 c) 8
 d) 1

190. 190. The output of a NOT gate is 1 when the input is:

 a) 1
 b) 0
 c) Indeterminate
 d) Floating

191. 191. What is the binary equivalent of decimal number 10?

 a) 1010
 b) 1001
 c) 1100
 d) 1110

192. 192. The primary purpose of a multiplexer is to:

 a) Add numbers
 b) Decode data
 c) Select one input
 d) Amplify signals

193. 193. Which flip-flop is used to toggle a state?

 a) D flip-flop
 b) T flip-flop
 c) JK flip-flop
 d) SR flip-flop
194. 194. The number of inputs required for a 4:1 multiplexer is:

 a) 4
 b) 2
 c) 8
 d) 1

195. 195. The output of a NOT gate is 1 when the input is:

 a) 1
 b) 0
 c) Indeterminate
 d) Floating

196. 196. What is the binary equivalent of decimal number 10?

 a) 1010
 b) 1001
 c) 1100
 d) 1110

197. 197. The primary purpose of a multiplexer is to:

 a) Add numbers
 b) Decode data
 c) Select one input
 d) Amplify signals

198. 198. Which flip-flop is used to toggle a state?

 a) D flip-flop
 b) T flip-flop
 c) JK flip-flop
 d) SR flip-flop

199. 199. The number of inputs required for a 4:1 multiplexer is:

 a) 4
 b) 2
 c) 8
 d) 1

200. 200. The output of a NOT gate is 1 when the input is:

 a) 1
 b) 0
 c) Indeterminate
 d) Floating
201. 201. What is the binary equivalent of decimal number 10?

 a) 1010
 b) 1001
 c) 1100
 d) 1110

202. 202. The primary purpose of a multiplexer is to:

 a) Add numbers
 b) Decode data
 c) Select one input
 d) Amplify signals

203. 203. Which flip-flop is used to toggle a state?

 a) D flip-flop
 b) T flip-flop
 c) JK flip-flop
 d) SR flip-flop

204. 204. The number of inputs required for a 4:1 multiplexer is:

 a) 4
 b) 2
 c) 8
 d) 1

205. 205. The output of a NOT gate is 1 when the input is:

 a) 1
 b) 0
 c) Indeterminate
 d) Floating

206. 206. What is the binary equivalent of decimal number 10?

 a) 1010
 b) 1001
 c) 1100
 d) 1110

207. 207. The primary purpose of a multiplexer is to:

 a) Add numbers
 b) Decode data
 c) Select one input
 d) Amplify signals
208. 208. Which flip-flop is used to toggle a state?

 a) D flip-flop
 b) T flip-flop
 c) JK flip-flop
 d) SR flip-flop

209. 209. The number of inputs required for a 4:1 multiplexer is:

 a) 4
 b) 2
 c) 8
 d) 1

210. 210. The output of a NOT gate is 1 when the input is:

 a) 1
 b) 0
 c) Indeterminate
 d) Floating

211. 211. What is the binary equivalent of decimal number 10?

 a) 1010
 b) 1001
 c) 1100
 d) 1110

212. 212. The primary purpose of a multiplexer is to:

 a) Add numbers
 b) Decode data
 c) Select one input
 d) Amplify signals

213. 213. Which flip-flop is used to toggle a state?

 a) D flip-flop
 b) T flip-flop
 c) JK flip-flop
 d) SR flip-flop

214. 214. The number of inputs required for a 4:1 multiplexer is:

 a) 4
 b) 2
 c) 8
 d) 1
215. 215. The output of a NOT gate is 1 when the input is:

 a) 1
 b) 0
 c) Indeterminate
 d) Floating

216. 216. What is the binary equivalent of decimal number 10?

 a) 1010
 b) 1001
 c) 1100
 d) 1110

217. 217. The primary purpose of a multiplexer is to:

 a) Add numbers
 b) Decode data
 c) Select one input
 d) Amplify signals

218. 218. Which flip-flop is used to toggle a state?

 a) D flip-flop
 b) T flip-flop
 c) JK flip-flop
 d) SR flip-flop

219. 219. The number of inputs required for a 4:1 multiplexer is:

 a) 4
 b) 2
 c) 8
 d) 1

220. 220. The output of a NOT gate is 1 when the input is:

 a) 1
 b) 0
 c) Indeterminate
 d) Floating

221. 221. What is the binary equivalent of decimal number 10?

 a) 1010
 b) 1001
 c) 1100
 d) 1110
222. 222. The primary purpose of a multiplexer is to:

 a) Add numbers
 b) Decode data
 c) Select one input
 d) Amplify signals

223. 223. Which flip-flop is used to toggle a state?

 a) D flip-flop
 b) T flip-flop
 c) JK flip-flop
 d) SR flip-flop

224. 224. The number of inputs required for a 4:1 multiplexer is:

 a) 4
 b) 2
 c) 8
 d) 1

225. 225. The output of a NOT gate is 1 when the input is:

 a) 1
 b) 0
 c) Indeterminate
 d) Floating

Analog Electronics
226. 226. Which modulation technique is used in radio broadcasting?

 a) AM
 b) FM
 c) PCM
 d) QAM

227. 227. What is the speed of light in vacuum?

 a) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
 b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
 c) 3 × 10¹² m/s
 d) 3 × 10⁵ m/s

228. 228. Noise in communication systems is measured in:

 a) Watts
 b) Decibels
 c) Hertz
 d) Amperes

229. 229. What is the frequency range of UHF?

 a) 30-300 MHz
 b) 300-3000 MHz
 c) 3-30 MHz
 d) 3000-30000 MHz

230. 230. What does SNR stand for in communication?

 a) Signal to Noise Ratio

 b) Sound Noise Rate
 c) Signal Noise Rate
 d) Sound Network Receiver

231. 231. Which modulation technique is used in radio broadcasting?

 a) AM
 b) FM
 c) PCM
 d) QAM

232. 232. What is the speed of light in vacuum?

 a) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
 b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
 c) 3 × 10¹² m/s
 d) 3 × 10⁵ m/s

233. 233. Noise in communication systems is measured in:

 a) Watts
 b) Decibels
 c) Hertz
 d) Amperes

234. 234. What is the frequency range of UHF?

 a) 30-300 MHz
 b) 300-3000 MHz
 c) 3-30 MHz
 d) 3000-30000 MHz

235. 235. What does SNR stand for in communication?

 a) Signal to Noise Ratio

 b) Sound Noise Rate
 c) Signal Noise Rate
 d) Sound Network Receiver

236. 236. Which modulation technique is used in radio broadcasting?

 a) AM
 b) FM
 c) PCM
 d) QAM

237. 237. What is the speed of light in vacuum?

 a) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
 b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
 c) 3 × 10¹² m/s
 d) 3 × 10⁵ m/s

238. 238. Noise in communication systems is measured in:

 a) Watts
 b) Decibels
 c) Hertz
 d) Amperes

239. 239. What is the frequency range of UHF?

 a) 30-300 MHz
 b) 300-3000 MHz
 c) 3-30 MHz
 d) 3000-30000 MHz

240. 240. What does SNR stand for in communication?

 a) Signal to Noise Ratio

 b) Sound Noise Rate
 c) Signal Noise Rate
 d) Sound Network Receiver

241. 241. Which modulation technique is used in radio broadcasting?

 a) AM
 b) FM
 c) PCM
 d) QAM

242. 242. What is the speed of light in vacuum?

 a) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
 b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
 c) 3 × 10¹² m/s
 d) 3 × 10⁵ m/s

243. 243. Noise in communication systems is measured in:

 a) Watts
 b) Decibels
 c) Hertz
 d) Amperes

244. 244. What is the frequency range of UHF?

 a) 30-300 MHz
 b) 300-3000 MHz
 c) 3-30 MHz
 d) 3000-30000 MHz

245. 245. What does SNR stand for in communication?

 a) Signal to Noise Ratio

 b) Sound Noise Rate
 c) Signal Noise Rate
 d) Sound Network Receiver

246. 246. Which modulation technique is used in radio broadcasting?

 a) AM
 b) FM
 c) PCM
 d) QAM

247. 247. What is the speed of light in vacuum?

 a) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
 b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
 c) 3 × 10¹² m/s
 d) 3 × 10⁵ m/s

248. 248. Noise in communication systems is measured in:

 a) Watts
 b) Decibels
 c) Hertz
 d) Amperes

249. 249. What is the frequency range of UHF?

 a) 30-300 MHz
 b) 300-3000 MHz
 c) 3-30 MHz
 d) 3000-30000 MHz

250. 250. What does SNR stand for in communication?

 a) Signal to Noise Ratio

 b) Sound Noise Rate
 c) Signal Noise Rate
 d) Sound Network Receiver

251. 251. Which modulation technique is used in radio broadcasting?

 a) AM
 b) FM
 c) PCM
 d) QAM

252. 252. What is the speed of light in vacuum?

 a) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
 b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
 c) 3 × 10¹² m/s
 d) 3 × 10⁵ m/s

253. 253. Noise in communication systems is measured in:

 a) Watts
 b) Decibels
 c) Hertz
 d) Amperes

254. 254. What is the frequency range of UHF?

 a) 30-300 MHz
 b) 300-3000 MHz
 c) 3-30 MHz
 d) 3000-30000 MHz

255. 255. What does SNR stand for in communication?

 a) Signal to Noise Ratio

 b) Sound Noise Rate
 c) Signal Noise Rate
 d) Sound Network Receiver

256. 256. Which modulation technique is used in radio broadcasting?

 a) AM
 b) FM
 c) PCM
 d) QAM

257. 257. What is the speed of light in vacuum?

 a) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
 b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
 c) 3 × 10¹² m/s
 d) 3 × 10⁵ m/s

258. 258. Noise in communication systems is measured in:

 a) Watts
 b) Decibels
 c) Hertz
 d) Amperes

259. 259. What is the frequency range of UHF?

 a) 30-300 MHz
 b) 300-3000 MHz
 c) 3-30 MHz
 d) 3000-30000 MHz

260. 260. What does SNR stand for in communication?

 a) Signal to Noise Ratio

 b) Sound Noise Rate
 c) Signal Noise Rate
 d) Sound Network Receiver

261. 261. Which modulation technique is used in radio broadcasting?

 a) AM
 b) FM
 c) PCM
 d) QAM

262. 262. What is the speed of light in vacuum?

 a) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
 b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
 c) 3 × 10¹² m/s
 d) 3 × 10⁵ m/s

263. 263. Noise in communication systems is measured in:

 a) Watts
 b) Decibels
 c) Hertz
 d) Amperes

264. 264. What is the frequency range of UHF?

 a) 30-300 MHz
 b) 300-3000 MHz
 c) 3-30 MHz
 d) 3000-30000 MHz

265. 265. What does SNR stand for in communication?

 a) Signal to Noise Ratio

 b) Sound Noise Rate
 c) Signal Noise Rate
 d) Sound Network Receiver

266. 266. Which modulation technique is used in radio broadcasting?

 a) AM
 b) FM
 c) PCM
 d) QAM

267. 267. What is the speed of light in vacuum?

 a) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
 b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
 c) 3 × 10¹² m/s
 d) 3 × 10⁵ m/s

268. 268. Noise in communication systems is measured in:

 a) Watts
 b) Decibels
 c) Hertz
 d) Amperes

269. 269. What is the frequency range of UHF?

 a) 30-300 MHz
 b) 300-3000 MHz
 c) 3-30 MHz
 d) 3000-30000 MHz

270. 270. What does SNR stand for in communication?

 a) Signal to Noise Ratio
 b) Sound Noise Rate
 c) Signal Noise Rate
 d) Sound Network Receiver

271. 271. Which modulation technique is used in radio broadcasting?

 a) AM
 b) FM
 c) PCM
 d) QAM

272. 272. What is the speed of light in vacuum?

 a) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
 b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
 c) 3 × 10¹² m/s
 d) 3 × 10⁵ m/s

273. 273. Noise in communication systems is measured in:

 a) Watts
 b) Decibels
 c) Hertz
 d) Amperes

274. 274. What is the frequency range of UHF?

 a) 30-300 MHz
 b) 300-3000 MHz
 c) 3-30 MHz
 d) 3000-30000 MHz

275. 275. What does SNR stand for in communication?

 a) Signal to Noise Ratio

 b) Sound Noise Rate
 c) Signal Noise Rate
 d) Sound Network Receiver

276. 276. Which modulation technique is used in radio broadcasting?

 a) AM
 b) FM
 c) PCM
 d) QAM

277. 277. What is the speed of light in vacuum?

 a) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
 b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
 c) 3 × 10¹² m/s
 d) 3 × 10⁵ m/s

278. 278. Noise in communication systems is measured in:

 a) Watts
 b) Decibels
 c) Hertz
 d) Amperes

279. 279. What is the frequency range of UHF?

 a) 30-300 MHz
 b) 300-3000 MHz
 c) 3-30 MHz
 d) 3000-30000 MHz

280. 280. What does SNR stand for in communication?

 a) Signal to Noise Ratio

 b) Sound Noise Rate
 c) Signal Noise Rate
 d) Sound Network Receiver

281. 281. Which modulation technique is used in radio broadcasting?

 a) AM
 b) FM
 c) PCM
 d) QAM

282. 282. What is the speed of light in vacuum?

 a) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
 b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
 c) 3 × 10¹² m/s
 d) 3 × 10⁵ m/s

283. 283. Noise in communication systems is measured in:

 a) Watts
 b) Decibels
 c) Hertz
 d) Amperes

284. 284. What is the frequency range of UHF?

 a) 30-300 MHz
 b) 300-3000 MHz
 c) 3-30 MHz
 d) 3000-30000 MHz

285. 285. What does SNR stand for in communication?

 a) Signal to Noise Ratio

 b) Sound Noise Rate
 c) Signal Noise Rate
 d) Sound Network Receiver

286. 286. Which modulation technique is used in radio broadcasting?

 a) AM
 b) FM
 c) PCM
 d) QAM

287. 287. What is the speed of light in vacuum?

 a) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
 b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
 c) 3 × 10¹² m/s
 d) 3 × 10⁵ m/s

288. 288. Noise in communication systems is measured in:

 a) Watts
 b) Decibels
 c) Hertz
 d) Amperes

289. 289. What is the frequency range of UHF?

 a) 30-300 MHz
 b) 300-3000 MHz
 c) 3-30 MHz
 d) 3000-30000 MHz

290. 290. What does SNR stand for in communication?

 a) Signal to Noise Ratio

 b) Sound Noise Rate
 c) Signal Noise Rate
 d) Sound Network Receiver

291. 291. Which modulation technique is used in radio broadcasting?

 a) AM
 b) FM
 c) PCM
 d) QAM

292. 292. What is the speed of light in vacuum?

 a) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
 b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
 c) 3 × 10¹² m/s
 d) 3 × 10⁵ m/s

293. 293. Noise in communication systems is measured in:

 a) Watts
 b) Decibels
 c) Hertz
 d) Amperes

294. 294. What is the frequency range of UHF?

 a) 30-300 MHz
 b) 300-3000 MHz
 c) 3-30 MHz
 d) 3000-30000 MHz

295. 295. What does SNR stand for in communication?

 a) Signal to Noise Ratio

 b) Sound Noise Rate
 c) Signal Noise Rate
 d) Sound Network Receiver

296. 296. Which modulation technique is used in radio broadcasting?

 a) AM
 b) FM
 c) PCM
 d) QAM

297. 297. What is the speed of light in vacuum?

 a) 3 × 10⁶ m/s
 b) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
 c) 3 × 10¹² m/s
 d) 3 × 10⁵ m/s

298. 298. Noise in communication systems is measured in:

 a) Watts
 b) Decibels
 c) Hertz
 d) Amperes

299. 299. What is the frequency range of UHF?

 a) 30-300 MHz
 b) 300-3000 MHz
 c) 3-30 MHz
 d) 3000-30000 MHz

300. 300. What does SNR stand for in communication?

 a) Signal to Noise Ratio

 b) Sound Noise Rate
 c) Signal Noise Rate
 d) Sound Network Receiver

Answer Key
Q1: b
Q2: b
Q3: b
Q4: c
Q5: a
Q6: b
Q7: b
Q8: b
Q9: c
Q10: a
Q11: b
Q12: b
Q13: b
Q14: c
Q15: a
Q16: b
Q17: b
Q18: b
Q19: c
Q20: a
Q21: b
Q22: b
Q23: b
Q24: c
Q25: a
Q26: b
Q27: b
Q28: b
Q29: c
Q30: a
Q31: b
Q32: b
Q33: b
Q34: c
Q35: a
Q36: b
Q37: b
Q38: b
Q39: c
Q40: a
Q41: b
Q42: b
Q43: b
Q44: c
Q45: a
Q46: b
Q47: b
Q48: b
Q49: c
Q50: a
Q51: b
Q52: b
Q53: b
Q54: c
Q55: a
Q56: b
Q57: b
Q58: b
Q59: c
Q60: a
Q61: b
Q62: b
Q63: b
Q64: c
Q65: a
Q66: b
Q67: b
Q68: b
Q69: c
Q70: a
Q71: b
Q72: b
Q73: b
Q74: c
Q75: a
Q76: c
Q77: b
Q78: d
Q79: b
Q80: b
Q81: c
Q82: b
Q83: d
Q84: b
Q85: b
Q86: c
Q87: b
Q88: d
Q89: b
Q90: b
Q91: c
Q92: b
Q93: d
Q94: b
Q95: b
Q96: c
Q97: b
Q98: d
Q99: b
Q100: b
Q101: c
Q102: b
Q103: d
Q104: b
Q105: b
Q106: c
Q107: b
Q108: d
Q109: b
Q110: b
Q111: c
Q112: b
Q113: d
Q114: b
Q115: b
Q116: c
Q117: b
Q118: d
Q119: b
Q120: b
Q121: c
Q122: b
Q123: d
Q124: b
Q125: b
Q126: c
Q127: b
Q128: d
Q129: b
Q130: b
Q131: c
Q132: b
Q133: d
Q134: b
Q135: b
Q136: c
Q137: b
Q138: d
Q139: b
Q140: b
Q141: c
Q142: b
Q143: d
Q144: b
Q145: b
Q146: c
Q147: b
Q148: d
Q149: b
Q150: b
Q151: a
Q152: c
Q153: b
Q154: b
Q155: b
Q156: a
Q157: c
Q158: b
Q159: b
Q160: b
Q161: a
Q162: c
Q163: b
Q164: b
Q165: b
Q166: a
Q167: c
Q168: b
Q169: b
Q170: b
Q171: a
Q172: c
Q173: b
Q174: b
Q175: b
Q176: a
Q177: c
Q178: b
Q179: b
Q180: b
Q181: a
Q182: c
Q183: b
Q184: b
Q185: b
Q186: a
Q187: c
Q188: b
Q189: b
Q190: b
Q191: a
Q192: c
Q193: b
Q194: b
Q195: b
Q196: a
Q197: c
Q198: b
Q199: b
Q200: b
Q201: a
Q202: c
Q203: b
Q204: b
Q205: b
Q206: a
Q207: c
Q208: b
Q209: b
Q210: b
Q211: a
Q212: c
Q213: b
Q214: b
Q215: b
Q216: a
Q217: c
Q218: b
Q219: b
Q220: b
Q221: a
Q222: c
Q223: b
Q224: b
Q225: b
Q226: b
Q227: b
Q228: b
Q229: b
Q230: a
Q231: b
Q232: b
Q233: b
Q234: b
Q235: a
Q236: b
Q237: b
Q238: b
Q239: b
Q240: a
Q241: b
Q242: b
Q243: b
Q244: b
Q245: a
Q246: b
Q247: b
Q248: b
Q249: b
Q250: a
Q251: b
Q252: b
Q253: b
Q254: b
Q255: a
Q256: b
Q257: b
Q258: b
Q259: b
Q260: a
Q261: b
Q262: b
Q263: b
Q264: b
Q265: a
Q266: b
Q267: b
Q268: b
Q269: b
Q270: a
Q271: b
Q272: b
Q273: b
Q274: b
Q275: a
Q276: b
Q277: b
Q278: b
Q279: b
Q280: a
Q281: b
Q282: b
Q283: b
Q284: b
Q285: a
Q286: b
Q287: b
Q288: b
Q289: b
Q290: a
Q291: b
Q292: b
Q293: b
Q294: b
Q295: a
Q296: b
Q297: b
Q298: b
Q299: b
Q300: a