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IIT-JAM
Geology (GG)
Previous Year Solved Paper (PSP)

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2018)

GEOLOGY (GG)
Previous Year Solved Paper 2018

Duration : 180 minutes Maximum Marks : 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. This test paper has a total of 60 questions carrying 100 marks. The entire question paper
is divided into Three Sections A, B and C. All sections are compulsory. Questions in
each section are of different types.

2. Section – A contains a total of 30 Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ). Each MCQ type
question has four choices out of which only one choice is the correct answer. Questions
Q.1 – Q.30 belong to this section and carry a total of 50 marks. Q.1 – Q.10 carry
1 mark each and Questions Q.11 – Q.30 carry 2 marks each.

3. Section – B contains a total of 10 Multiple Select Questions (MSQ). Each MSQ type
question is similar to MCQ but with a difference that there may be one or more than one
choice(s) that are correct out of the four given choices. The candidate gets full credit
if he/she selects all the correct answers only and no wrong answers. Questions
Q.31 – Q.40 belong to this section and carry 2 marks each with a total of
20 marks.

4. Section – C contains a total of 20 Numerical Answer Type (NAT) questions.

For these NAT type questions, the answer is a real number which needs to be entered
using the virtual keyboard on the monitor. No choices will be shown for these type
of questions. Questions Q.41 – Q.60 belong to this section and carry a total of
30 marks. Q.41 – Q.50 carry 1 mark each and Questions Q.51 – Q.60 carry 2 marks
each.

5. In all sections, questions not attempted will result in zero mark. In Section – A (MCQ),
wrong answer will result in NEGATIVE marks. For all 1 mark questions, 1/3 marks will
be deducted for each wrong answer. For all 2 marks questions, 2/3 marks will be
deducted for each wrong answer. In Section – B (MSQ), there is NO NEGATIVE and
NO PARTIAL marking provisions. There is NO NEGATIVE marking in Section
– C (NAT) as well.

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2018)

SECTION-(A) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)

Q.1 to Q.10 carry one mark each.

1. Which one among the following planets in the Solar system is most similar in size to the Earth?
(A) Mercury (B) Venus
(C) Neptune (D) Uranus

2. In which one of the following tectonic settings are the highest mountain chains and thickest crust
found ?
(A) Island arc (B) Continental arc
(C) Continental collision (D) Transcurrent

3. The second-most abundant oxide in the Earth’s crust is

(A) Al2O3 (B) SiO2
(C) CaO (D) Na2O

4. The type of dentition found in Trigonia is

(A) schizodont (B) taxodont
(C) pachydont (D) isodont

5. Which one of the following minerals has isolated (SiO4)4– tetrahedra linked by divalent cations
in octahedral coordination ?
(A) Muscovite (B) Quartz
(C) Beryl (D) Olivine

6. Which one of the following is NOT found in an extensional setting ?

(A) Normal faults (B) Horsts
(C) Rifts (D) Thrust faults

7. The texture characterized by exsolved lamellae of albite in K-feldspar is known as

(A) myrmekite (B) graphic
(C) perthite (D) antiperthite

8. Fissility is best shown by

(A) sandstone (B) siltstone
(C) shale (D) limestone

9. Petroleum is NOT commercially produced from

(A) Krishna–Godavari basin (B) Cauvery–Palar basin
(C) Cambay basin (D) Vindhyan basin

10. Among the following, the mineral showing acicular habit is

(A) kyanite (B) tourmaline
(C) biotite (D) sillimanite

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2018)

Q.11 to Q.30 carry two mark each.

11. Isostasy involves ___________ continental mountain belts.
(A) compensation in (B) creation of
(C) destruction of (D) thrusting in

12. Identify the pair from the following list that is NOT correctly matched.
(A) Caldera – stratovolcano
(B) Pillow basalt – subaerial eruption
(C) Ropy lava – pahoehoe flow
(D) Amygdales – filled vesicles

13. Wilson orogenic cycle in continents is initiated by

(A) collision (B) rifting
(C) drifting (D) subduction

14. Match the processes in Group I with corresponding geomorphic features in Group II.
Group-I Group-II
P. Dissolution 1. Mushroom rocks
Q. Abrasion 2. Exfoliation domes
R. Deposition 3. Sinkholes
S. Onion skin weathering 4. Moraines
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 1 4 3

15. The orientations of the fold axis and axial plane in the given figure indicate

(A) reclined fold (B) vertical fold

(C) recumbent fold (D) horizontal fold

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2018)

16. Identify the correct morphological features corresponding to numbers I – IV in the echinoid
illustrated below :

(A) I-Periproct II-Ambulacra III-Interambulacra IV-Peristome

(B) I-Periproct II-Interambulacra III-Ambulacra IV-Peristome
(C) I-Peristome II-Interambulacra III-Ambulacra IV-Periproct
(D) I-Peristome II-Ambulacra III-Interambulacra IV-Periproct

17. The correct order of marine benthic habitats with increasing water depths is
(A) abyssal, bathyal, neritic (B) neritic, abyssal, bathyal
(C) neritic, bathyal, abyssal (D) bathyal, abyssal, neritic

18. Which one of the following invertebrates has the most primitive visual system ?
(A) Ammonites (B) Brachiopods
(C) Gastropods (D) Trilobites

19. The correct chronological sequence (older to younger) of the Precambrian stratigraphic units
listed below is
(A) Sargur Group, Chitradurga Group, Alwar Group, Kaimur Group
(B) Chitradurga Group, Sargur Group, Kaimur Group, Alwar Group
(C) Sargur Group, Alwar Group, Chitradurga Group, Kaimur Group
(D) Sargur Group, Chitradurga Group, Kaimur Group, Alwar Group

20. Match the Formations in Group I with corresponding characteristic fossils in Group II.
Group-I Group-II
P. Barakar Formation 1. Stegodon
Q. Uttatur Formation 2. Sauropoda
R. Dhok Pathan Formation 3. Belemnites
S. Lameta Formation 4. Glossopteris
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3 1 4 2
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 3 2 1

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2018)

21. Which one of the following sedimentary structures is NOT used for determining top and bottom
of beds ?
(A) Mud cracks (B) Load and flame structures
(C) Sharp-crested wave ripples (D) Plane lamination

22. Identify the rocks P and Q in the diagram as per the IUGS classification.

(A) P – Websterite, Q – Wehrlite (B) P – Dunite, Q – Websterite

(C) P – Websterite, Q – Dunite (D) P – Harzburgite, Q – Wehrlite

23. Which one of the following is produced by a closed-system metamorphic reaction between
muscovite and quartz ?
(A) orthoclase + sillimanite (B) orthoclase + biotite
(C) plagioclase + biotite (D) plagioclase + sillimanite

24. The assemblage staurolite + garnet + biotite + muscovite + quartz in pelites is stable in
(A) greenschist facies (B) amphibolite facies
(C) granulite facies (D) pyroxene hornfels facies

25. Conglomerates are commonly deposited in

(A) aeolian dunes (B) tidal flats
(C) alluvial fans (D) river flood plains

26. Match the mineral deposits in Group I with corresponding Indian occurrences in Group II.
Group-I Group-II
P. Iron 1. Mangampet, Andhra Pradesh
Q. Uranium 2. Balaghat, Madhya Pradesh
R. Manganese 3. Narwa Pahar, Jharkhand
S. Baryte 4. Hospet, Karnataka
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 2 1

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2018)

27. Which one of the following processes is responsible for the formation of syngenetic Ni-Cu
sulphide ore in gabbro-neritic rocks ?
(A) Hydrothermal replacement (B) Volcanic exhalation
(C) Liquid immiscibility (D) Contact metamorphism

28. Dashed lines in the figures given below represent joints. Considering only the orientations of the
joints and the slope face, which one of the following represents the most stable slope ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

29. Match the morphological features/life processes in Group I with corresponding organisms in
Group II.
Group-I Group-II
P. Water vascular system 1. Cephalopods
Q. Moulting 2. Echinodermata
R. Jet propulsion locomotion 3. Brachiopoda
S. Lophophore 4. Trilobita
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 3 2 1

30. Match the plutonic rocks in Group I with corresponding volcanic equivalents in Group II.
Group-I Group-II
P. Granite 1. Andesite
Q. Syenite 2. Basalt
R. Diorite 3. Rhyolite
S. Gabbro 4. Trachyte
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2018)

SECTION-(B) MULTIPLE SELECT QUESTIONS (MSQ)

Q.31 – Q.40 carry two marks each.

31. Which of the following change(s) when a dipping bed with a plunging lineation is rotated about
a vertical axis ?
(A) Dip amount of bed (B) Plunge amount of lineation
(C) Plunge direction of lineation (D) Strike of bed

32. Which of the following indicate(s) the presence of directed stress in a rock ?
(A) Porphyritic texture (B) Schistosity
(C) Gneissosity (D) Mylonitic texture

33. The correct combination(s) of ranks and corresponding categories of stratigraphic units is/are
(A) Formation – Lithostratigraphy (B) System – Chronostratigraphy
(C) Period – Chronostratigraphy (D) Group – Biostratigraphy

34. The correct order(s) of stability of silica polymorphs with increasing pressure is/are
(A) Quartz – Coesite – Stishovite
(B) Quartz – Stishovite – Coesite
(C) Tridymite – Coesite – Stishovite
(D) Tridymite – Stishovite – Coesite

35. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for the upper hemisphere stereographic projection
of a crystal given below ?
(A) Angle between the axes,  =  =  = 90°
(B) Crystal contains 1 tetrad
(C) Crystal contains 4 diads
(D) Crystal contains 5 mirror planes

36. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?

(A) An isotropic mineral remains dark through 360° rotation of stage under crossed polars
(B) Pleochroism is the change of colour of a mineral during rotation under crossed polars
(C) Minerals of the Triclinic system are optically uniaxial
(D) Melatope in an interference figure marks the emergence of an optic axis

37. Hermatypic corals are typically found in

(A) the photic zone (B) warm and clear water
(C) cool deep water (D) reefs

38. Choose the characteristic mineral(s) formed in the supergene enriched zone of a sulphide
deposit.
(A) Psilomelane (B) Covellite
(C) Cassiterite (D) Chalcocite

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2018)

39. Which of the following is/are true for crystallization of plagioclase phenocrysts from a basic
magma forming a layered intrusion ?
(A) Cumulus texture at the base
(B) Anorthite-rich early plagioclase at the base
(C) Albite-rich late plagioclase at the top
(D) Quench texture at the base

40. Major mass extinction events occurred in the

(A) end Silurian (B) end Carboniferous
(C) end Permian (D) early Devonian

SECTION-(C) NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (NAT)

Q.41 – Q.50 carry one mark each.

41. When plotted on a map of 1:50000 scale, a 2 km long dyke exposed on a horizontal surface
has a length of _____cm (answer in one decimal place).

42. The valency of iron in hematite is _____.

43. A crustal rock is at a lithostatic pressure of 3 kbar and a temperature of 275°C. If the lithostatic
pressure increases at a uniform rate of 0.3 kbar/km, and the surface temperature is 25°C, the
geothermal gradient (in °C/km) is_____ (answer in one decimal place).

44. The absolute difference in the Moh’s hardness values of the two silicates among the minerals
listed below is _____.
Apatite, Corundum, Gypsum, Talc, Topaz

45. Attitudes of beds in sequences A (younger) and B (older), separated by an unconformity UU, are
given in the following sectional view. If UU was horizontal when sequence A was deposited, the
dip amount of beds in sequence B at that time was _____ (answer in one decimal place).

206
46. The number of alpha () particles emitted to produce a daughter isotope of Pb from a parent
isotope of 238U by radioactive decay is _____.

47. The dip slip on a fault 000°, 30°E is 10 m. Assuming slip equals separation here, the throw on
the fault is _____ m (answer in one decimal place).

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2018)

48. A continuous 10 m thick sequence of shale was deposited in 10,000 years at uniform rate of
sedimentation. The number of samples that must be collected at equal stratigraphic intervals to
sample the succession every 500 years is ______.

49. Attitudes of the two limbs of a non-plunging kink fold shown below are 045°, 20ºSE and 045°,
40°NW. The dip amount (in degrees) of the axial plane of the kink fold is _____ (answer in one
decimal place).

50. In the garnet formula (Fe2.5Mg0.3Cax)Al2Si3O12, x represents the number of atoms of Ca. The mole
% of grossular in the garnet is _____ (answer in one decimal place).

Q.51 – Q.60 carry two marks each.

51. Assuming the Earth to be an ideal sphere, the volume % of the core relative to the total volume
of the Earth is _____ (answer in one decimal place).

52. Based on 8 oxygen atoms, the number of silicon atoms in a plagioclase of composition Ab20An80
is ____ (answer in one decimal place).

53. 600 tons of low grade iron ore (40% Fe) are blended with 400 tons of high grade iron ore (65%
Fe). The grade of the blended ore is _____ % Fe (answer in one decimal place).

54. The mass of a fully dried rock sample of volume 100 cm3 is 300 g. The mass of the sample,
when fully saturated with water of density 1.00 g/cm3, is 325 g. Assuming no volume change,
the computed porosity of the rock is _____ % (answer in one decimal place).

55. When a dunite comprising pure forsterite undergoes melting, the weight % of MgO in the melt
is _____ (answer in one decimal place; given molecular weights of SiO2 = 60.08; MgO = 40.30).

56. A block of rock with a mass of 72 kg slides on a surface inclined at an angle of 30° as shown
in the figure. Assuming no cohesion and friction, the force ‘F’ is _____ Newton (answer in one
decimal place; acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s2).

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2018)

57. The true thickness of Bed A in the map given below is _____ m (answer in one decimal place).

58. A melt containing 900 moles of anorthite and 100 moles of diopside undergoes crystallization.
The number of moles of anorthite that crystallizes as the melt composition moves from P to Q
is _______.

59. A confined sandstone aquifer with a uniform cross-sectional area of 7 m2 and a hydraulic
conductivity of 2 m/s, transmits water across a hydraulic gradient of 3.2. Assuming steady state
Darcian flow, the volumetric flow rate through the aquifer is _____ m3/s (answer in one decimal
place).

60. A diamondiferous lamproite is ultrapotassic and has a molar K2O/Na2O ratio of 11. If the Na2O
content of the rock is 0.62 wt%, the K2O content is _____ wt% (answer in one decimal place;
molecular weight of Na2O = 61.98, and K2O = 94.20).

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2018)

ANSWER KEY

SECTION-(A) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B C A A D D C C D D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A B B C A A C D A B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D D A B C D C B C B

SECTION-(B) MULTIPLE SELECT QUESTIONS (MSQ)

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
C,D B,C,D A,B A,C A,B,C,D A,D A,B,D B,D A,B,C C

SECTION-(C) NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (NAT)

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
4 3 25 7 50 8-8 5 20 70-90 6.6-6.8
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
14-18 2.2 50 25 57-57.5 352.8 89-90 800 44.8 10.3-10.5

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2017)

GEOLOGY (GG)
Previous Year Solved Paper 2017

Duration : 180 minutes Maximum Marks : 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. This test paper has a total of 60 questions carrying 100 marks. The entire question paper
is divided into Three Sections A, B and C. All sections are compulsory. Questions in
each section are of different types.

2. Section – A contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ). Each MCQ type question has
four choices out of which only one choice is the correct answer. This section has 30
Questions and carry a total of 50 marks. Q.1 – Q.10 carry 1 mark each and Questions
Q.11 – Q.30 carry 2 marks each.

3. Section – B contains Multiple Select Questions (MSQ). Each MSQ type question is
similar to MCQ but with a difference that there may be one or more than one choice(s)
that are correct out of the four given choices. The candidate gets full credit if he/she
selects all the correct choices only and no wrong choices. This section has 10 Questions
and carry 2 marks each with a total of 20 marks.

4. Section – C contains Numerical Answer Type Questions (NAT). For these NAT type
questions, the answer is a real number which needs to be entered using the virtual
numerical keypad on the monitor. No choices will be shown for these type of questions.
This section has 20 Questions and carry a total of 30 marks. Q.41 – Q.50 carry 1 mark
each and Questions Q.51 – Q.60 carry 2 marks each.

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2017)

SECTION-(A) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)

Q. 1 to Q. 10 carry one mark each.

1. Which one of the following minerals exhibits luminescence when exposed to ultraviolet light ?
(A) Cassiterite (B) Wolframite
(C) Tantalite (D) Scheelite

2. In which one of the following mass extinction periods trilobites became extinct ?
(A) Devonian (B) Permian
(C) Triassic (D) Cretaceous

3. En-echelon sigmoidal ‘gash’ veins indicate

(A) ductile shear zone (B) brittle-ductile shear zone
(C) brittle shear zone (D) saddle reef structure

4. Which one of the following primary sedimentary structures is NOT used for palaeocurrent analysis?
(A) Current crescent (B) Flute marks
(C) Symmetrical wave ripples (D) Imbrication of pebbles

5. The age of the Patcham Formation is

(A) Permian (B) Triassic
(C) Jurassic (D) Cretaceous

6. Rivers that receive water from groundwater seepage are termed as

(A) effluent rivers (B) consequent rivers
(C) influent rivers (D) braided rivers

7. Conservative plate boundary is represented by

(A) normal fault (B) growth fault
(C) transform fault (D) reverse fault

8. Which one of the following prismatic crystal forms belongs to the hexagonal crystal system ?

(A) 1120 (B) hohl

(C) {0001} (D) {hk0}

9. The characteristic rock of contact metamorphism is

(A) hornfels (B) blueschist
(C) eclogite (D) granulite

10. The volcanic equivalent of nepheline syenite is

(A) rhyolite (B) basanite
(C) phonolite (D) andesite

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2017)

Q. 11 to Q. 30 carry two mark each.

11. Identify the correct match between mineral-ore and its physical property.
(A) Hematite - Yellow streak
(B) Barite - High Specific gravity
(C) Psilomelane - Comb structure
(D) Azurite - Distinctive green colour

12. Match the mineral deposits in Group I with their Indian occurrences in Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Chromite 1. Jhamarkotra, Rajasthan
Q. Magnesite 2. Gudur, Andhra Pradesh
R. Mica 3. Byrapur, Karnataka
S. Phosphorite 4. Chalk Hills, Tamil Nadu
(A) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (B) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1 (D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4

13. A helically coiled ammonite Turrilites is differentiated from externally resembling Gastropoda
Turritella by
(A) apical angle (B) number of whorls
(C) direction of coiling (D) chambered shell

14. The facial suture of trilobites running through the genal angle is known as
(A) proparian (B) marginal
(C) gonatoparian (D) opisthoparian

15. Which one of the following statements is correct for Class 1B (Parallel) folds ?
(A) Orthogonal thickness at hinge > that at limb
(B) Axial planar thickness at hinge = that at limb
(C) Dip isogons are parallel.
(D) Dip isogons are convergent.

16. In the given map, the X-Y surface has the same orientation as in the Palaeozoic sequence, X
Y represents

(A) angular unconformity (B) non-conformity

(C) normal fault (D) thrust
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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2017)

17. Match the sedimentary features in Group I with the corresponding sedimentary environments of
their formation in Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Point bar 1. Tidal
Q. Barchan 2. Meandering fluvial channel
R. Dropstone 3. Aeolian
S. Hering-bone cross stratification 4. Glacial
(A) P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2
(B) P-2,Q-3,R-4,S-1
(C) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1
(D) P-2,Q-3,R-1,S-4

18. Which one of the following lithostratigraphic units id of Phanerozoic Eon ?

(A) Sargur Group (B) Semri Group
(C) Uttatur Group (D) Papaghni Group

19. Match the geological processes (Group I) with their examples in Indian stratigraphy (Group II).
Group I Group II
P. Permo-Carboniferous glaciation 1. Ariyalur Group
Q. Cretaceous marine transgression 2. Siwalik Group
R. Neogene fluvial sedimentation 3. Talchir Formation
S. Cretaceous inter-trappean 4. Lameta Formation
sedimentation
(A) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(D) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3

20. Check dams are constructed in association with main dam in the
(A) upstream of the main dam to check the siltation of the reservoir
(B) downstream of the main dam to check the siltation of the reservoir
(C) upstream of the main dam to check the seepage from the reservoir
(D) downstream of the main dam to check the seepage from the reservoir

21. A geological formation neither containing not transmitting water is termed as

(A) aquiclude (B) aquitard
(C) aquifer (D) aquifuge

22. Which one of the following sequences of silicate structures indicates an increasing degree of
sharing of corners of (SiO4)4– tetrahedra ?
(A) NesosilicateSingle-chain inosilicatePhyllosilicateTectosilicate
(B) TectosilicatePhyllosilicateSingle-chain inosilicateNesosilicate
(C) NesosilicatePhyllosilicateSinlge-chain inoslilicateTectosilicate
(D) Single-chain inosilicateNesosilicatePhyllosilicateTectosilicate

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2017)

23. Match the igneous bodies in Group I with their ages in Group II.
Group I Group II
P. Singhbhum granite 1. Neoproterozoic
Q. Malani rhyolite 2. Cretaceous
R. Deccan volcanics 3. Permian
S. Panjal Traps 4. Archaean
(A) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1 (D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

24. The tube feet in echinoids emerge through

(A) interambulacral plates (B) ambulacral plates
(C) bourrelets (D) plastron

25. A mineral with a point group symmetry 2/m

(A) has two optic axes
(B) shows inclined extinction in (100) section
(C) shows straight extinction in (010) section
(D) is uniaxial

26. The progressive metamorphic isograd that explains Barrovian metamorphism in pelite is
(A) chloritestaurolite biotitekyanitesilimanite
(B) chloriteandalusitecordieritesilimanite
(C) chloritebiotitegarnetstaurolitekyanitesilimanite
(D) silimanitekyanitestaurolitegarnetbiotitechlorite

27. In metabasic rocks, plagioclase is not stable in

(A) granulite facies (B) episode amphibolite facies
(C) amphibolite facies (D) eclogite facies

28. A sandstone has <5% matrix. The recalculated modal compositions of feldspar, quartz and rock
fragments are 45%, 35%, 20%, respectively. The sandstone is classified as
(A) feldspathic wacke (B) quartz wacke
(C) lithic arkose (D) subfeldsarenite

29. Match the earth layers (Group I) with corresponding approximate thicknesses (Group II).
Group I Group II
P. Lithosphere 1. 2900 km
Q. Mantle 2. 2250 km
R. Outer Core 3. 1200 km
S. Inner Core 4. 100 km
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3 (B) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2 (D) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4

30. Pressure (1 GPa = 10 kbar) and temperature at the centre of the Earth are estimated to be
(A) 360 GPa, 2600 K (B) 450 GPa, 6000K
(C) 360 GPa, 6000 K (D) 450 GPa, 2600K
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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2017)

SECTION-(B) MULTIPLE SELECT QUESTIONS (MSQ)

Q. 31 – Q. 40 carry two marks each.

31. Choose the landsform(s) resulting from glacial erosion.
(A) Fjords (B) Moraines
(C) Drumlins (D) Cirques

32. Choose the correct combination(s) of type of dentition of Bivalvia and the corresponding
representative genus.
(A) Taxodont - Nucula
(B) Isodont - Spondylus
(C) Pachydont - Hippurites
(D) Desmodont - Mya

33. Shown below is an isobaric binary temperature-composition phase diagram in the system X-Y
with complete miscibility between X and Y.

Which of the following statements is/are correct for crystallization of a starting melt of composition
Z60 Y40 (the dot in the diagram) ?
(A) The first formed crystal has a composition X20 Y80.
(B) The final melt composition during equilibrium crystallization is X90 Y10.
(C) In case of fractional crystallizational, the final melt is enriched in X than X90 Y10.
(D) For fractional crystallization, the final crystal composition X90 Y10.

34. Choose the correct combination(s) of textural features of magmatic rocks with corresponding
petrological processes from the following.
(A) ophitic texture in dolerite - peritectic crystallization
(B) perthite in granite - slow subsolidus cooling
(C) spinifex texture in komatite - eruption of ultramafic lava
(D) orthopyroxene rim around olivine in peridotite - eutetic crystallization

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2017)

35. Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct ?

(A) (110) lies in zone [001] (B) (021) lies in zone [100]
(C) (101) lies in zone [010] (D) (111) lies in zone [ 111]

36. In an outcrop we find that the bedding planes are vertical and cleavage surfaces are horizontal.
Which of the following fold types is/are inferred from this observation ?
(A) Upright fold (B) Recumbent fold
(C) Vertical fold (D) Neutral fold

37. Which of the following stratigraphic unit(s) is/are coal/lignite bearing ?

(A) Barakar Formation (B) Barail Group
(C) Cuddalore Formation (D) Ariyalur Formation

38. The Toposheet No(s). immediately adjacent to Toposheet No. 55J/8 is/are
(A) 55K/2 (B) 55J/12
(C) 55J/6 (D) 55K/5

39. Which of the following is/are NOT true for texturally immature sandstone ?
(A) Clay content is high
(B) Little or no clay present
(C) Grains are well sorted
(D) Grains are rounded

40. P and S waves originate at earthquake focus and travel through the earth. Which of the following
statements for these waves is/are correct ?
(A) S-wave shadow zone is 154° wide
(B) P-wave shadow zones are 49° wide
(C) P-wave velocity abruptly increases downward at mantle-core boundary
(D) P-wave velocity abruptly drops downward at mantle-core boundary

SECTION-(C) NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (NAT)

Q.41 – Q.50 carry one mark each.

41. An object is spotted at S60°E front bearing from the observer. If the position is interchanged, the
front bearing value in degree from North (measured clockwise) is_____.

42. The mole % of forsterite component in olivine with chemical formula Mg1.8 Fe0.2 SiO4 is _____.

43. The Weiss symbol of a crystal face is 4a: 2b: c. The value of h in the corresponding Miller Index
(hkl) is _____.

44. In a mineral with chemical formula AT4 O8, the ionic radii of A and O are 1.12 Å and 1.40 Å,
respectively. The co-ordination number of cation A is ____.

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2017)

45. Aluminium (Al) can occur in both tetrahedral and octahedral co-ordinations in silicates. The
amount of octahedral Al in a pyroxene crystal of composition MG1.4 Fe0.4 Al0.4 Si1.8 O6 is ____ (give
answer in one decimal place).

46. The birefringence of a mineral of thickness 30 m and retardation 0.27 m is _____ (give answer
in three decimal places).

47. Two limbs of a vertical chevron fold strike S70°E and N55°E. The value of the interlimb angle
of the fold is ____(degree).

48. The schematic map given below shows intersecting strike lines of the same lithological contact.
In the map, AB and CD are 5cm and 3.5cm, respectively. The scale of the map is 1 cm = 100m.
The plunge of the fold axis is ____ degrees (give answer in one decimal place).

49. The core-rim compositions of a normally zoned plagioclase crystal are as follows:
Core: Ca0.6 Nax Al1.6 Si2.4 O8 Rim: Ca0.4 Nay Al1.4 Si2.6 O8
The amount of increase of Na atom from core to rim per formula unit of plagioclase is _____
(given answer in one decimal place).

50. Considering garnet chemical formula in 12 oxygen basis, the number of Mg cations in a garnet
of chemical composition P (as shown in the figure) is ____ (give answer in two decimal places).

Almandine (Fe3Al2Si3O12)

Pyrope Grossular
(Ma3Al2Si3O12) (Ca3Al2Si3O12)

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2017)

Q.51 – Q.60 carry two marks each.

51. A fault surface in an outcrop has slickenside lineation whose pitch is 30°. The horizontal slip on
the fault is 1.25 m, as determined from displaced vein. The net slip on the fault is ____ meter
(give answer in two decimal places).

52. In an outcrop, we find a Belemnite fossil broken into five rectangular pieces (boudins) of equal
size. Long dimension of each boudin is 1.35 cm. Gap between adjacent boudins in all cases is
0.25 cm. Note that the long dimensions of boudins are perfectly aligned. The % elongation is
_____ (give answer in one decimal place).

53. A horizontal cylindrical ore body (diameter = 20m, length = 200 m) has 5% metal content and
density of 3500 kg/m3. The reserve of the ore body is ____ million ton(s) (give answer in two
decimal places).

54. A drainage basin of fourth order covers an area of 40 sq. km. Within the basin, total length of
1st order drainage is 12.5 km, 2nd order drainage is 8.8 km, 3rd order drainage is 4.7 km and 4th
order drainage is 4.0 km. The drainage density of the basin is ___ km–1 (give answer in two
decimal places).

55. Age of granitic rocks can be determined using Rb-Sr whole rock radioactive dating method and
the following age equation,
(87Sr/86Sr) = (87Sr/86Sr)i + (87Rb/86Sr) (et – 1)
For a suite of representative co-magmatic granitic rocks, the Rb-Sr whole rock isochron plot and
relevant data are shown in the diagram. The age of granite is calculated at ____ Ga (1Ga = 109
yrs, give answer in one decimal place).

56. Consider a granulite facies metamorphic rock with peak metamorphic condition at 9 kbar, 850°C.
Assume a single layer crust of  = 3000 kg/m3 and g = 10m/sec2 during metamorphism. The
depth of burial during peak metamorphism is ____ km. 1 Pascal = 1 kg/m/sec2 and 1 bar = 105
Pascals.

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2017)

57. Consider four minerals P, Q, R and S in a three component chemical system (A-B-C) as shown
in the figure. For a crossing tie-line relationship, the variance (degree of freedom) of the equilibrium
mineral assemblage at X is _______
A

P
Q

X
R S

B C

58. The refractive indices of four minerals (P, Q, R, S) are as follows:

P( = 1.712,  = 1.721,  = 1.727),
Q( = 1.553,  = 1.544),
R( = 1.664,  = 1.672,  = 1.694) and
S( = 1.658,  = 1.486)
The value of maximum birefringence among all the minerals is ____ (give answer in two decimal
places).

59. In a sedimentary succession shown in the figure, the last occurrence of the fossil species Q
(dated 50 Ma) and the first occurrence of the fossil species R (dated 30 Ma) are recorded at Y
and X, respectively. The estimated rate of sedimentation is _____ m/million yrs (assume constant
rate of sedimentation).

60. The top surface of a coal seam is exposed at 150 m contour level on a hill top at location A.
The same surface of the seam is also exposed on a river bed at location B at the 50 m contour
level. The aerial distance A-B is 1 km. The amount of dip of the coal seam along A-B is
______(degree). Give answer in one decimal place.

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 GEOLOGY-GG (PSP-2017)

ANSWER KEY

SECTION-(A) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
D B B C C A C A A C
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
B C D C D D B C A A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
D A B B A C D C A C

SECTION-(B) MULTIPLE SELECT QUESTIONS (MSQ)

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A, D A,B,C,D A,B,C B,C D B,D A,B,C B,D B,C,D A,D

SECTION-(C) NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (NAT)

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
300 90 1 8 0.2 0.009 55 15.9 0.2 0.75
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
1.44 14.8 0.22 0.75 1.0 30 1 0.172 2 5.7

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 Geology-GG (PSP-2016)

Geology (GG)
Previous Year Solved Paper

Duration : 180 minutes Maximum Marks : 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. This test paper has a total of 60 questions carrying 100 marks. The entire question paper
is divided into Three Sections A, B and C. All sections are compulsory. Questions in
each section are of different types.

2. Section – A contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ). Each MCQ type question has
four choices out of which only one choice is the correct answer. This section has 30
Questions and carry a total of 50 marks. Q.1 – Q.10 carry 1 mark each and Questions
Q.11 – Q.30 carry 2 marks each.

3. Section – B contains Multiple Select Questions (MSQ). Each MSQ type question is
similar to MCQ but with a difference that there may be one or more than one choice(s)
that are correct out of the four given choices. The candidate gets full credit if he/she
selects all the correct choices only and no wrong choices. This section has 10 Questions
and carry 2 marks each with a total of 20 marks.

4. Section – C contains Numerical Answer Type Questions (NAT). For these NAT type
questions, the answer is a real number which needs to be entered using the virtual
numerical keypad on the monitor. No choices will be shown for these type of questions.
This section has 20 Questions and carry a total of 30 marks. Q.1 – Q.10 carry 1 mark
each and Questions Q.11 – Q.20 carry 2 marks each.

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 Geology-GG (PSP-2016)

SECTION-(A) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)

Q.1 – Q.10 carry one mark each.

1. The most abundant metal (by weight %) in the Earth’s crust is
(A) Al (B) Fe
(C) Na (D) Mg

2. The correct order of increasing stability of minerals during chemical weathering is

(A) olivine, pyroxene, biotite, quartz
(B) olivine, biotite, pyroxene, quartz
(C) quartz, biotite, pyroxene, olivine
(D) pyroxene, olivine, biotite, quartz

3. In the topographic map the steepest slope is

340m
330m
320m
310m
300m
290m

(A) northerly (B) southerly

(C) easterly (D) westerly

4. Gabbro contains much more alumina than peridotite because it is richer in

(A) orthopyroxene (B) orthoamphibole
(C) olivine (D) plagioclase

5. Coking coal in India is found in

(A) Neyvelli, Tamil Nadu (B) Jharia, Jharkhand
(C) Palana, Rajasthan (D) Garampani, Meghalya

6. The amplitude of ground motion during an earthquake of magnitude 7 in Richter scale is how
many times more than that of a magnitude 5 ?
(A) 10 (B) 100
(C) 1000 (D) 10,000

7. The failed arm of a continental rift is called

(A) hot spot (B) horst
(C) decollement (D) aulacogen

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 Geology-GG (PSP-2016)

8. The hardest mineral (with the exception of diamond) in the Moh’s scale of hardness is
(A) an oxide (B) a silicate
(C) a phosphate (D) a carbonate

9. Which one of the following is capable of transporting sediments against the slope ?
(A) river current (B) turbidity current
(C) tidal current (D) rip current

10. Which is the most abundant ion in the normal seawater ?

(A) Cl– (B) SO 4–
(C) Na+ (D) K+

Q.11 – Q.30 carry two marks each.

11. Match minerals in Group I with the corresponding silicate structure in Group II.
Group I Group II
(i) Anthophyllite (P) Cyclosilicate
(ii) Hedenbergite (Q) Tectosilicate
(iii) Cordierite (R) Double chain silicate
(iv) Zeolite (S) Single chain silicate
(A) i–R; ii–S; iii–Q; iv–P (B) i–S; ii–R; iii–Q; iv–P
(C) i–R; ii–S; iii–P; iv–Q (D) i–P; ii–Q; iii–R; iv–S

12. The correct name for the well sorted sandstone, whose framework composition plots at Y in the
following QFR diagram, is

Q
5 5
25 Y 25

F R
50
(A) arkose (B) subarkose
(C) lithic arkose (D) quartz arenite

13. Which one of the following optical properties of minerals is NOT observed under crossed nicols?
(A) Extinction (B) Interference colour
(C) Interference figure (D) Pleochroism

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 Geology-GG (PSP-2016)

14. Choose the correct stereographic projection among the following that represents 222 crystal
symmetry.

C C
(A) (B)

(C) C (D) C

15. Match the folds listed in Group I with corresponding geometric characteristics in Group II.
Group I Group II
(i) Parallel (P) Angular hinge
(ii) Chevron (Q) Minimum thickness parallel to the axial surface
is at the hinge
(iii) Similar (R) Negative inter–limb angle
(iv) Mushroom (S) Constant thickness parallel to the axial surface
(A) i–Q; ii–R; iii–S; iv–P (B) i–S; ii–P; iii–Q; iv–R
(C) i–Q; ii–P; iii–S; iv–R (D) i–S; ii–R; iii–Q; iv–P

16. The number of 4th order stream(s) present in the drainage network shown below, as per hierarchical
classification is.

(A) one (B) two

(C) three (D) four

17. During metamorphism, temperature can increase at constant pressure in the case of
(A) exhumation by erosion (B) burial by subduction
(C) burial by underthrusting (D) intrusion of batholith

18. Choose the correct chronological order from oldest to youngest for the following stratigraphic
units
P–Chitradurga Group; Q–Sargur Group; R–Ajabgarh Group; S–Udaipur Group
(A) Q, P, S, R (B) P, Q, S, R
(C) Q, R, P, S (D) Q, R, S, P

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 Geology-GG (PSP-2016)

19. Identify the rock types at X and Y in the following QAP diagram of IUGS.
Quartz
90 90

60 60

Y X
20 20

Alkali 10 35 65 90
feldspar Plagioclase
(A) X is granodiorite and Y is granite
(B) X is granodiorite and Y is alkali feldspar granite
(C) X is tonalite and Y is granite
(D) X is tonalite and Y is alkali feldspar granite

20. A schematic diagram of a divergent plate boundary, with arrows indicating directions of plate
movement, is given below. Which one of the following statements is NOT true for points P, Q,
R and S, if the spreading rate for both the plates is uniform and same through time and space?

P Q S

R
5 km

(A) The rocks at P and S have the same age

(B) The rocks at S are twice as old as those at R
(C) The age of rocks at Q is 0 Ma
(D) The age of the rocks decreases progressively from P to S

21. Mississippian and Pennsylvanian belong to which period ?

(A) Permian (B) Devonian
(C) Carboniferous (D) Silurian

22. A gravity dam with E–W axis is to be constructed in a narrow river valley between two N–S
trending parallel ridges. The river is flowing from south to north. The lithology of the area is
represented by 2 to 5 m thick metasedimentary rocks–quartzite, phyllite and schist. Which of the
following geological conditions will be most suitable ?
(A) Beds in both the ridges strike N–S but dip towards each other
(B) Beds in both the ridges strike N–S but dip in opposite direction to each other
(C) Beds in both the ridges strike E–W and dip towards N (downstream)
(D) Beds in both the ridges strike E–W and dip towards S (upstream)

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 Geology-GG (PSP-2016)

23. Match the ore deposits in Group I with the localities in Group II
Group I Group II
(i) Copper (P) Balaghat, M.P.
(ii) Lead–Zinc (Q) Panchpatmali, Odisha
(iii) Manganese (R) Rampura–Agucha, Rajasthan
(iv) Bauxite (S) Khetri, Rajasthan
(A) i–S, ii–R, iii–Q, iv–P (B) i–S, ii–R, iii–P, iv–Q
(C) i–P, ii–R, iii–Q, iv–S (D) i–S, ii–Q, iii–R, iv–P

24. Match the following stratigraphic units (Group-I) with their ages (Group-II)
Group I Group II
(i) Cumbum Formation (P) Cenozoic
(ii) Baisakhi Formation (Q) Mesozoic
(iii) Kopili Formation (R) Palaeozoic
(iv) Barakar Formation (S) Proterozoic
(A) i–R, ii–P, iii–Q, iv–S (B) i–S, ii–Q, iii–P, iv–R
(C) i–S, ii–R, iii–P, iv–Q (D) i–S, ii–Q, iii–R, iv–P

25. Which one of the following sedimentary structures is related to gravitational instability ?
(A) groove cast (B) load cast
(C) gutter cast (D) flute cast

26. Match features mentioned in Group–I with the fossil types in Group–II.
Group I Group II
(i) Escutcheon (P) Brachiopoda
(ii) Plastron (Q) Nautiloidea
(iii) Delthyrium (R) Echinoidea
(iv) Siphuncle (S) Bivalvia
(A) i–S, ii–R, iii–Q, iv–P (B) i–S, ii–R, iii–P, iv–Q
(C) i–S, ii–P, iii–Q, iv–R (D) i–R, ii–Q, iii–P, iv–S

27. Which one of the following is an upper Gondwana flora ?

(A) Ptilophyllum (B) Phyllotheca
(C) Glossopteris (D) Schizoneura

28. Choose the correct match of items in Group I with the items in Group II.
Group I Group II
(i) Eutectic crystallisation (P) Perthitic texture
(ii) Fractional crystallisation (Q) Graphic texture
(iii) Exsolution (R) Pillow structure
(iv) Submarine eruption (S) Crystal zoning
(A) i–Q, ii–S, iii–R, iv–P (B) i–Q, ii–S, iii–P, iv–R
(C) i–S, ii–Q, iii–P, iv–R (D) i–S, ii–Q, iii–R, iv–P
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 Geology-GG (PSP-2016)

29. The fault for which the orientation and displacement vector are given in the following lower
hemisphere stereographic projection is a

Fault Pla
ne

Displacement
Vector
(A) vertical fault (B) thrust fault
(C) normal fault (D) strike-slip fault

30. The change in coordination number of silicon (Si) when –quartz transforms to stishovite, which
has octahedral coordination, is
(A) 2 (B) 4
(C) 6 (D) 8

SECTION-(B) MULTIPLE SELECT QUESTIONS (MSQ)

Q.31 – Q.40 carry two marks each.

31. Which of the following is/are found only in the brittle shear zones ?
(A) Cataclasite (B) Mylonite
(C) Pseudotachylite (D) Gouge

32. Which among the following statements related to headward erosion by river is/are correct ?
(A) Length of tributaries increases (B) Length of the main channel increases
(C) Streams get captured (D) Channel gradient increases upstream

33. In a thin section of 30 m thickness, the R.I. of a mineral are:  = 1.565 and  = 1.468.
Choose the correct statement(s) about its optical properties.
(A) Uniaxial +ve (B) Uniaxial –ve
(C) 1st order interference colour (D) low to moderate relief

34. Which of the following statements is/are NOT true for equilibrium crystallization of plagioclase
from a melt in the binary system NaAlSi3O8–CaAlSi2O8 at constant pressure ?
(A) Composition of the first–formed solid depends on the initial composition of the melt.
(B) Solid composition is always more anorthitic than the coexisting melt.
(C) Composition of the final solid is the same as the initial composition of the melt.
(D) Equilibrium crystallization leads to the formation of zoned crystals.

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 Geology-GG (PSP-2016)

35. The value of gravity at the Earth’s surface is dependent on

(A) latitude (B) altitude
(C) composition of underlying material (D) relative position of Sun–Earth

36. Choose the burrowing form(s) of bivalve.

(A) Mya (B) Teredo
(C) Pecten (D) Venus

37. Which of the following environments is/are characterized by predominant deposit of mud ?
(A) Barrier bar (B) Lagoon
(C) Fluvial flood plain (D) Fluvial channel

38. Which of the following stratigraphic units belong(s) to Cretaceous ?

(A) Bhuj Formation (B) Ariyalur Group
(C) Patcham Formation (D) Katrol Formation

39. Which of the following ore deposit(s) is/are formed only by hydrothermal process ?
(A) ‘Sn–W’ ore associated with greissenised rock
(B) Layered type chromite ore associated with dunite–peridotite–pyroxenite
(C) Vein type gold ore associated with greenstone belt
(D) Ni–Cu sulphide ore associated with gabbroic rocks.

40. Migmatite is a rock

(A) in which mafic–rich parts are intermixed with pods or layers of granitic composition
(B) with melanosome and leucosome
(C) with a solid residue and partial melt
(D) which forms at high grade metamorphic conditions

SECTION-(C) NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (NAT)

Q.41 – Q.50 carry one mark each.

41. Based on the ideal end member formula of diopside, the mole proportion (%) of CaO for plotting
the mineral on a CaO–MgO–SiO2 triangular diagram is________.

42. The phi () value of a sediment particle having 4mm diameter is ________.

43. Calcite, quartz, wollastonite and CO2 fluid were present in equilibrium during the formation of a
calc-silicate rock. In the chemical system CaO–SiO2–CO2, the degree of freedom of this
assemblage is _______.

44. The weight of a10 cm3 medium grained sandstone block with 20% (v/v) porosity, in dry state is
26g. The density of the block when fully saturated with water is _________g/cm3.

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 Geology-GG (PSP-2016)

45. In the following figure, the exterior angle measured between (001)(021) with a goniometer in a
crystal is 40o. The interior angle between (010)(021) in degrees is ______.

G
(001) on
i om
et
er

(0
Ar

21
m

(010)
46. If the elevation of a wave cut platform is 55 m above the sea level and the age of the erosional
surface is 120 kilo years, the rate of rock uplift at this coastal location is ________m/kilo years
(give answer in two decimal places).

47. A foliation plane has strike 025o and 60o easterly dip. A mineral lineation on this foliation plane has
a rake/pitch of 90o. The plunge direction of the mineral lineation in whole circle bearing is
_______degrees.

48. Two outcrops on a 1 : 25000 map are 12 cm apart. The ground distance between the two
outcrops is ________ km.

49. Fine muds are deposited at a rate of 1 cm per 1000 y. Assuming constant sedimentation rate and
absence of compaction, a 1 km thick sequence would be deposited in _______million years.

50. B and B’ are two points on the topographic map shown below. The distance between B and B’
along the linear traverse BB’ is 220m. The angle of the slope along this traverse is ________
degree (give answer in two decimal places).

220
B’

B
100
Contour Interval = 20m

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 Geology-GG (PSP-2016)

Q.51 – Q.60 carry two marks each.

51. The half life of a radionuclide A is double that of a radionuclide B. The fraction of A remaining when
B is reduced to 1/64 is _________. Give answer in three decimal places.

52. The total metal content of a mineable 40m × 40m × 3m ore block having bulk density 2.75g/-cm3
and assay value 1.5 wt % Cu is ________ metric tonnes.

53. The temperature at the Earth is surface is 25oC. The temperature at the base of the Earth’s crust
(30 km thick), if the geothermal gradients are 25oC/km up to 15km depth and 15oC/km further
down, is _______oC.

54. A melt in the binary system MgO–SiO2 contains 89.92 wt% SiO2. If all the magnesium is consumed
to form enstatite (MgSiO3), how many moles of this mineral will crystallize from 100 grams of the
melt ? Give answer in two decimal places.
Molecular weight : MgO = 40.3, SiO2 = 60.1

55. A lherzolite xenolith from the mantle contains 50 volume % olivine, the rest being equal proportions
of orthopyroxene and clinopyroxene. If the densities of the minerals are (in g/cc) olivine = 3.42,
orthopyroxene = 3.28 and clinopyroxene = 3.46, the bulk density of the xenoliths in g/cc is
_______ (give answer in two decimal places).

56. The SiO2 value, recalculated on volatile free basis, of the rock whose major oxide (wt%) composition
given below is _______. Give answer in two decimal places.
SiO2 45.58
Al2O3 12.49
FeO (T) 12.44
MgO 11.36
CaO 09.93
Na2O 02.25
K 2O 01.67
Total 95.72

57. As shown in the following figure, a vertical well intersects the top and bottom of an inclined bed
at 200 m and 410 m depths, respectively. If the true dip of the bed is 60o to the north, the true
thickness of the bed is _______metres.
S N

60°
200 m

410 m

58. In the given geologic map, the horizontal lines are stratum contours. The throw on the fault (F-
F) is _________meters.

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 Geology-GG (PSP-2016)

200m

30

20
300m
100m

10
0m

0m

0m
Shale

Sandstone

F Siltstone F

400m Shale

200m
Sandstone

59. Two localities A and B on a continental plate as shown in the figure below, are separated by a
distance of 80 km. The plate velocities measured at A and B are 4 cm/yr and 5 cm/yr, respectively.
Assuming no faulting in the area, the new distance between A and B will be _________ km in one
million years. Give answer in two decimal places.

r A’
/y
4cm
A
80
km

B’
r
4c m /y
B

60. In the following schematic diagram, the aluminosilicate triple point is located at the pressure of
4.50 kbar and temperature of 823oK. If the reaction andalusite = sillimanite has negative slope
with a value of –18.22 bar/oK, the pressure of the reaction at 923oK is ________kbar (give answer
in two decimal places).
P

Kyanite
Sillimanite
4.50
kilobar

Andausite

823°K 923°K
T
(Figure not to scale)

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 Geology-GG (PSP-2016)

ANSWER KEY

SECTION-(A) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A A C D B B D A C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C B D C C A D A C D
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C D B B B B A B D C

SECTION-(B) MULTIPLE SELECT QUESTIONS (MSQ)

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A,C,D B,C,D A,D D A,B,C,D A,D B,C A,B A,C A,B,C,D

SECTION-(C) NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (NAT)

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
25 -2 1.0 2.8 130 0.46 115 3 100 21.32
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
0.125 198 625 0.25 3.40 47.61 105 400 80.62 2.68

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 Geology (PSP-2015)

Geology (GG)
Previous Year Solved Paper

Duration : 180 minutes Maximum Marks : 100

Read the following instructions carefully.

1. This test paper has a total of 60 questions carrying 100 marks. The entire question paper
is divided into Three Sections A, B and C. All sections are compulsory. Questions in
each section are of different types.

2. Section – A contains Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ). Each MCQ type question has
four choices out of which only one choice is the correct answer. This section has 30
Questions and carry a total of 50 marks. Q.1 – Q.10 carry 1 mark each and Questions
Q.11 – Q.30 carry 2 marks each.

3. Section – B contains Multiple Select Questions (MSQ). Each MSQ type question is
similar to MCQ but with a difference that there may be one or more than one choice(s)
that are correct out of the four given choices. The candidate gets full credit if he/she
selects all the correct choices only and no wrong choices. This section has 10 Questions
and carry 2 marks each with a total of 20 marks.

4. Section – C contains Numerical Answer Type Questions (NAT). For these NAT type
questions, the answer is a real number which needs to be entered using the virtual
numerical keypad on the monitor. No choices will be shown for these type of questions.
This section has 20 Questions and carry a total of 30 marks. Q.1 – Q.10 carry 1 mark
each and Questions Q.11 – Q.20 carry 2 marks each.

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 Geology (PSP-2015)

SECTION-(A) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)

Q. 1 to Q. 10 carry one mark each.

1. Which amongst the following planets has the highest number of known satellites?
(A) Mars (B) Uranus
(C) Venus (D) Mercury

2. Identify the mineral which has specific gravity > 5, hardness < 3 and gives grey streak.
(A) Barite (B) Sphalerite
(C) Graphite (D) Galena

3. A unit which is semi-permeable and does not yield any significant quantity of groundwater is
called:
(A) Aquiclude (B) Aquifer
(C) Aquitard (D) Artesian Aquifer

4. A sandstone with less than 15% matrix content is known as:

(A) Siltstone (B) Mudstone
(C) Greywacke (D) Arenite

5. Which of the following mineral deposit is formed exclusively by surface geological processes?
(A) Wollastonite (B) Asbestos
(C) Corundum (D) Bauxite

6. Graphic texture is indicative of:

(A) Eutectic crystallization (B) Crystal settling
(C) Fractional crystallization (D) Magma mixing

7. Which of the following is NOT a form of the isometric system ?

(A) Octahedron (B) Tetrahedron
(C) Trapezohedron (D) Rhombohedron

8. Which of the following group of fossils became extinct at the Permo-Triassic boundary?
(A) Graptolite (B) Trilobite
(C) Ammonite (D) Ediacaran

9. Arrange the following granitoid bodies in order of their decreasing age.

(P) Erinpura Granite
(Q) Closepet Granite
(R) Singhbhum Granite
(S) Ladakh Granitoids
(A) R-P-Q-S (B) S-Q-R-P
(C) R-Q-P-S (D) Q-R-S-P
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 Geology (PSP-2015)

10. Which of the following Brachiopod genera is considered as “living fossil” ?

(A) Lingula (B) Productus
(C) Atrypa (D) Spirifer

Q.11 – Q.30 carry two marks each.

11. In the given figure (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) denote the plate tectonic settings: Mid Oceanic Ridge (M),
Island Arc (I), Continental Arc (C) and Rift Zone (R).

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

+ +
+ + + + + + + ++ + + +
+ + ++ + + + + + +

Magma

Which one of the following options is correctly matched?

(A) (i) – M, (ii) – I, (iii) – C, (iv) – R (B) (i) – R, (ii) – I, (iii) – M, (iv) – C
(C) (i) – I, (ii) – R, (iii) – M, (iv) – C (D) (i) – I, (ii) – M, (iii) – C, (iv) – R

12. In an undulated topography, a set of uniformly inclined beds show ‘V’-shaped outcrop pattern with
apex pointing downstream in a valley. This indicates:
(A) The dip of the beds is more than the slope of the valley
(B) The dip of the beds is less than the slope of the valley
(C) The beds are vertical
(D) The beds are horizontal

13. Silica-rich viscous magmas often produce:

(A) Stratovolcano (B) Shield volcano
(C) Dome (D) Fissure eruption

14. Identify the faults in the diagrams (i), (ii), and (iii)

(i) (ii) (iii)

(A) (i) – Normal, (ii) – Dextral strike slip, (iii) – Reverse

(B) (i) – Normal, (ii) – Sinistral strike slip, (iii) – Reverse
(C) (i) – Reverse, (ii) – Dextral strike slip, (iii) – Normal
(D) (i) – Reverse, (ii) – Sinistral strike slip, (iii) – Normal

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 Geology (PSP-2015)

15. A mine excavation made along the strike of a 2 meter thick tabular ore body dipping 30° is called:
(A) Crosscut (B) Raise
(C) Drive (D) Shaft

16. An ore body showing ‘saddle reef’ structure is formed by:

(A) Early magmatic crystallization process
(B) Liquid immiscibility
(C) Hydrothermal process
(D) Metamorphic process

17. In the given block diagram, select the most suitable site amongst (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) for constructing
a tunnel.

(ii)

(iii)
(i)

(iv)
Shear Zone

(A) (i) (B) (ii)

(C) (iii) (D) (iv)

18. Match the metals listed in Group-I with their ores in Group-II.
Group – I Group – II
(i) Tin (P) Scheelite
(ii) Tungsten (Q) Pyrolusite
(iii) Copper (R) Cassiterite
(iv) Manganese (S) Bornite
(A) (i) – R, (ii) – P, (iii) – S, (iv) – Q (B) (i) – Q, (ii) – P, (iii) – S, (iv) – R
(C) (i) – R, (ii) – Q, (iii) – P, (iv) – S (D) (i) – P, (ii) – S, (iii) – R, (iv) – Q

19. Which one of the following minerals is correctly matched with its optical property?
(A) Sillimanite – Isotropic
(B) Orthoclase – High relief
(C) Pyroxene – Nearly orthogonal cleavage
(D) Garnet – Lamellar twinning

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 Geology (PSP-2015)

20. The mineral coesite is expected to be stable in which of the following metamorphic facies?
(A) Greenschist (B) Blueschist
(C) Eclogite (D) Granulite

21. In the given phase diagram, the sequence of minerals crystallizing from a magma of composition
“X” under equilibrium conditions is:

Di An
(A) An  Di (B) An  An + Di
(C) Di  An (D) Di  Di + An

22. In the given stereo plot, poles to three bedding planes are plotted as points (i), (ii) and (iii). Find
the correct order of increasing dips of the beds.
N

(iii) (i)
+
(ii)

(A) (i) – (ii) – (iii) (B) (i) – (iii) – (ii)

(C) (ii) – (i) – (iii) (D) (iii) – (i) – (ii)

23. Size of a kettle lake depends upon :

(A) Size of the sediment carried by the glacier
(B) Width of the glacier valley
(C) Height of the valley through which the glacier moves
(D) Size of the buried ice block within moraines

24. Match the sedimentary rocks given in Group-I with their characteristics in Group-II
Group – I Group – II
(i) Sandstone (P) Chemical sediment
(ii) Arkose (Q) Grain size 1/16 – 2 mm
(iii) Limestone (R) Feldspar-rich
(iv) Shale (S) Grain size < 1/16 mm
(A) (i) – R, (ii) – P, (iii) – S, (iv) – Q (B) (i) – Q, (ii) – R, (iii) – P, (iv) – S
(C) (i) – Q, (ii) – R, (iii) – S, (iv) – P (D) (i) – P, (ii) – S, (iii) – R, (iv) – Q

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 Geology (PSP-2015)

25. Arrange the following formations of the Gondwana Supergroup in order of their decreasing age:
(i) Raniganj Formation
(ii) Barakar Formation
(iii) Kulti Formation
(iv) Karharbari Formation
(A) (i) – (iii) – (ii) – (iv) (B) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv)
(C) (iv) – (iii) – (ii) – (i) (D) (iv) – (ii) – (iii) – (i)

26. Match the Lamellibranchia genera in Group-I with their dentition pattern in Group-II
Group – I Group – II
(i) Glycimeris (P) Schizodont
(ii) Trigonia (Q) Taxodont
(iii) Lucina (R) Dysodont
(iv) Mytilus (S) Heterodont
(A) (i) – Q, (ii) – P, (iii) – S, (iv) – R
(B) (i) – P, (ii) – Q, (iii) – R, (iv) – S
(C) (i) – Q, (ii) – P, (iii) – R, (iv) – S
(D) (i) – S, (ii) – R, (iii) – Q, (iv) – P

27. Drainage density of a basin is defined as:

(A) Sum of the number of streams of all orders divided by the area of the basin
(B) Total length of streams of all orders divided by the area of the basin
(C) Total number of the highest order streams divided by the total number of the next lower
order streams
(D) Length of the largest stream divided by the area of the basin

28. S-wave is terminated at:

(A) Crust—Mantle boundary
(B) Lithosphere—Asthenosphere boundary
(C) Mantle—Core boundary
(D) Inner and Outer core boundary

29. Arrange the elements Fe, O, H, He, Si in decreasing order of their abundance in the solar system.
(A) H > He > O > Si > Fe (B) He > H > Si > O > Fe
(C) H > He > O > Fe > Si (D) Si > Fe > H > He > O

30. A dolerite dyke metamorphosed under amphibolite facies condition is expected to have the mineral
assemblage:
(A) Chlorite + Actinolite + Albite
(B) Lawsonite + Glaucophane + Epidote
(C) Orthopyroxene + Clinopyroxene + Plagioclase
(D) Hornblende + Plagioclase

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 Geology (PSP-2015)

SECTION-(B) MULTIPLE SELECT QUESTIONS (MSQ)

Q.1 – Q.10 carry two marks each.

1. A pyrite-chalcopyrite-bearing copper ore body has undergone supergene enrichment. Choose the
correct statement(s).
(A) Limonite is present in the gossan zone
(B) Cuprite is present in the zone of oxidation
(C) Chalcocite is present in the zone of supergene enrichment
(D) Malachite is present in the primary zone

2. The geochemical trends illustrated in the diagrams for a suite of cogenetic and coeval igneous
rocks indicate :
MgO
CaO
Al2O3

SiO2

(A) Olivine crystallization (B) Clinopyroxene crystallization

(C) Plagioclase crystallization (D) Alkali feldspar crystallization

3. Which of the following chronostratigraphic unit(s) is/are correctly matched with the corresponding
geochronologic unit(s) ?
(A) System—Period (B) Stage—Era
(C) Series—Epoch (D) Chronozone—Age

4. Which of the following statements related to depositional environments is/are correct ?

(A) Herringbone cross-stratification indicates glacio-fluvial environment
(B) Dune is characterized by the presence of finer-grains at the top and coarser-grains at the
bottom
(C) Dropstone is of glacial origin
(D) Bouma sequence indicates turbidite deposit

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 Geology (PSP-2015)

5. Which of the following fossil genera is/are invertebrate ?

(A) Megalodon (B) Spondylus
(C) Stegodon (D) Telemastodon

6. Which of the following trilobites have two to four thoracic segments and are eyeless?
(A) Agnostus (B) Olenellus
(C) Calymene (D) Microdiscus

7. Which of the following formation(s) was/were deposited in glacial and/or fluvial environment?
(A) Subathu Formation (B) Karewa Formation
(C) Indus Formation (D) Blaini Formation

8. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(A) Rajpura-Dariba in Rajasthan is a working Pb-Zn deposit
(B) Iron ore is mined in Noamundi, Odisha
(C) The largest copper mine in India is located in Malanjkhand, Madhya Pradesh
(D) Manganese deposit is found in the Mansar Formation, Maharashtra

9. Which of the following stratigraphic units are correctly matched with their ages and geographical
localities?
(A) Niniyur Formation – Cretaceous – Cauvery basin
(B) Long Formation – Oligocene – Andaman-Nicobar
(C) Zewan Formation – Permian – Kashmir-Lidar valley
(D) Bhander Group – Early Proterozoic – Vindhyan basin

10. Petroleum producing basins of India belong to:

(A) Cambrian (B) Cretaceous
(C) Tertiary (D) Quaternary

SECTION-(C) NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (NAT)

Q. 1 – Q. 10 carry one mark each.

1. On a toposheet of 1:50,000 scale, the distance between upper and lower traces of a bed is 5
cm. The actual distance on ground in kilometers is_________.

2. On a flat topography the outcrop width of a bed is 30m. If the true dip of the bed is 30°, the actual
thickness of the bed in meters is_________.

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 Geology (PSP-2015)

3. In the given map, the true dip (in degree) of the bedding plane X-Y is_________.

X
Y

5 cm
0m
50

0m
Horizontal scale 1cm=20m
60

4. In the given diagram, the percentage of Plagioclase in a rock of composition ‘X’ is_________.

Quartz

Alkali Plagioclase
Feldspar

5. The birefringence of a uniaxial mineral having refractive indices of 1.658 and 1.486 is_________.

6. In the given stereoplot, the plunge amount of the fold axis is_________.

N
ne
g pla

e +
din

an
pl
ed

l B
ia
Ax

7. A crystal face has the following intercepts for the crystallographic axes: 1a1, 1a2, ½a3, c. The
Miller-Bravais indices for the face is_________.

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 Geology (PSP-2015)

4 2
8. Total number of mirror planes in the 3 point group is_________.
3 m

9. A radioactive isotope has 1024 atoms. How many atoms will remain after 4 half-lives?

10. Waste water discharged from a coal mine has hydrogen ion [H+] concentration of 10–6 moles/liter.
The pH of the water is_________.

Q.11 – Q.20 carry two marks each.

11. An ore body is dipping 30° towards west on a flat topography. At what distance (in meters) should
a borehole be placed so that it intersects the ore body perpendicularly at a vertical depth of 70
meters ?

12. Using the phase rule, the maximum number of phases in a 3 (three) component geological
system having 1 (one) degree of freedom is_________.

13. The lithostatic pressure in Mega Pascal (MPa) at a depth of 10 km in a granite batholith having
density 2700 kg/m3 is_________. (Acceleration due to gravity = 9.8 m/s2)

14. In the given phase diagram, the weight percent of melt at point ‘M’ for a crystallizing magma of
bulk composition ‘X’ is_________.

M 3units
P
2units
T

Ab An

15. Calculate the average atomic weight (answer to be given up to 3 decimal places) of Rubidium
using the given data.

Isotope Abundance (%) Atomic weight (a.m.u.)

85
Rb 72.17 84.912
87
Rb 27.83 86.909

16. In an oblique slip fault having 30° dip, the net slip is 10 meters at an angle of 45° to the strike
of the fault plane. The dip slip component of the fault in meters is_________. (Answer to be given
up to 2 decimal places).

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 Geology (PSP-2015)

17. A 10 cm3 sandstone block has a mass of 20 grams. If the average density of sand grains is 2.5
g/cm3, the porosity (in percent) of the sandstone is________.

18. A mineral has a weight of 4.5 grams in air and 3.2 grams in water. Assuming density of water
to be 1g/cm3, the specific gravity (up to 2 decimal places) of the mineral is_________.

19. The duration of the Proterozoic Eon in Ma is_________.

20. From the given equation, calculate how many moles of magnetite will be produced by the reduction
of 1 (one) mole of hematite (answer to be given up to 3 decimal places). .
6Fe2O3  4Fe3O4 + O2.

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 Geology (PSP-2015)

ANSWER KEY

SECTION-(A) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B D C D D A D B C A
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
D A C B C C B A C C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B A D B D A B C A D

SECTION-(B) MULTIPLE SELECT QUESTIONS (MSQ)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
A,B,C A,B A,C C,D A,B A,D B,D A,B,C,D A,C, B,C

SECTION-(C) NUMERICAL ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (NAT)

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
2.5 15 45 20 0.172 0 1120 9 64 6
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
161.63 -161.67 4 264.6 60 85.466 7.07 20 3.46 1900-2000 0.666-0.667

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 Geology (PSP-2014)

Geology
Previous Year Solved Paper

Duration : 180 minutes Maximum Marks : 100

Note : Part-I consists of 35 objective type questions. The first ten questions carry one mark
each and the rest of the objective questions carry two marks each. There will be negative
marks for wrong answers. For each 1 mark question the negative mark will be 1/3 and
for each 2 mark question it will be 2/3.
Part-II consists of 8 descriptive type questions each carrying five marks.

PART-I : OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION

Q. 1 to Q. 10 carry one marks each.

1. Identify the pole to the great circle  in the given stereographic projection.


60 30 60
P +
Q R O

S
(A) P (B) Q
(C) R (D) O

2. Transform fault is a
(A) strike-slip fault (B) normal fault
(C) reverse fault (D) thrust fault

3. In what type of country rock do sink-holes develop?

(A) Phyllite (B) Gneiss
(C) Limestone (D) Sandstone

4. The Gutenberg discontinuity lies between

(A) crust and mantle (B) lithosphere and asthenosphere
(C) outer core and lower mantle (D) inner core and outer core

5. Among the following ores, of which is gossan a characteristic surface indicator ?

(A) pyrite-chalcopyrite (B) chromite-magnetite
(C) pyrolusite-psilomelane (D) columbite-tantalite

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 Geology (PSP-2014)

6. Which of the following physical properties characterize galena?

(A) Prismatic form (B) Cherry red streak
(C) Yellow colour (D) High specific gravity

7. In which of the following rocks does groundwater flow obey Darcy’s law ?
(A) Shale (B) Sandstone
(C) Marble (D) Granite

8. Which of the following minerals belongs to the cubic system?

(A) Orthoclase (B) Quartz
(C) Garnet (D) Apatite

9. Which one of the following rocks has maximum compressive strength?

(A) Marble (B) Slate
(C) Sandstone (D) Granite

10. From the sedimentary rocks listed below, select the most fine-grained
(A) Sandstone (B) Conglomerate
(C) Siltstone (D) Claystone

Qs. 11 to 35 carry two marks each

11. Which combination of geological entities occurs in the same craton?
(A) Chitradurga schist belt-Closepet Granie-Hutti gold mine
(B) Bhilwara Supergroup-Sittampundi anorthostie-Zawar Pb-Zn deposit
(C) Kolar schist belt-Malani rhyolite-Malanjkhand copper deposit
(D) Mansar Formation-Makrana marble-Sukinda chromite deposit

12. Choose the correct statement from the following :

(A) Vindhyan Supergroup is devoid of limestone
(B) The top of the Cuddapah Supergroup is Phanerozoic
(C) Kaladgi basin is situated in the Baster Craton
(D) The Mesozoic Bhuj Formation consists predominantly of sandstone

13. Identify the correct chronostratigraphic sequence of the Siwalik Group from the following (oldest
to youngest):
(A) Pinjor-Nagri-Dhok Pathan-Tatrot (B) Nagri-Dhok Pathan-Tatrot-Pinjor
(C) Dhok Pathan-Tatrot-Nagri-Pinjor (D) Tatrot-Pinjor-Nagri-Dhok Pathan

14. If the strike of an inclined bed is N15°E, the dip direction can be
(A) S75°W (B) N75°E
(C) S75°E (D) S15°W

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 Geology (PSP-2014)

15. Parallel fold is one in which

(A) the orthogonal thickness is same all around the fold
(B) the thickness is same parallel to the axial plane of the fold
(C) the outer and inner arcs have same curvature
(C) the dip isogons are parallel to each other

16. ‘Comb structure’ with ‘symmetrical banding’ is formed by

(A) Early magmatic process (B) Hydrothermal process
(C) Chemical sedimentary process (D) Residual concentration process

17. Match the items of Group-I with appropriate items in Group-II.

Group-I Group-II
P. Banded Iron Formation 1. Copper
Q. Andesite porphyry 2. Diamond
R. Lamproite 3. Rare metals
S. Pegmatite 4. Blue dust
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 1 3 2

18. Which one of the following minerals is commonly used for determination of vibration direction of
the polarizer in a petrological microscope ?
(A) Muscovite (B) Hornblende
(C) Augite (D) Tourmaline

19. A mafic rock in the eclogite facies may contain the assemblage
(A) chlorite-epidote-albite
(B) garnet-clinopyroxene-hornblende-plagioclase
(C) garnet-clinopyroxene
(D) garnet-clinopyroxene-orthopyroxene-plagioclase

20. Elevation contours of ground surface (values in parenthesis) and groundwater table (values in
normal font) are given in the figure below.

7 (7) (6)
P
6
(10) 5
10
(8)
Q (9)
9 R
(9) 4

Elevation of ground surface (m)

Elevation of groundwater table (m)
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 Geology (PSP-2014)

What do the points P, Q and R represent ?

(A) P-recharge area, Q-spring, R-discharge area
(B) P-discharge area, Q-spring, R-recharge area
(C) P-spring, Q-recharge area, R-discharge area
(D) P-discharge area, Q-recharge area, R-spring

21. Airy’s model of isostasy

(A) requires mountains to have higher density than the oceanic crust
(B) requires mountains to have lower density than the oceanic crust
(C) requires mountains to have the same density as oceanic crust
(D) does NOT consider the densities of mountain and oceanic crust

22. Choose the correct statement about the igneous forms, lopolith and laccolith.
(A) Both are concordant; lopolith is convex upward while laccolith is concave upward
(B) Both are discordant; both are convex upward
(C) Both are concordant; laccolith is convex upward, while lopolith is convex downward
(D) Both are discordant; both are convex downward

23. Which one of the following belongs to the Equidae family ?

(A) Stegodon (B) Stegolophodon
(C) Ramapithecus (D) Gigantopithecus

24. Which one of the following flora is a conifer ?

(A) Glossopteris (B) Gangamopteris
(C) Buriadia (D) Schizoneura

25. Match sedimentary features in Group-I with the processes in Group-II.

Group-I Group-II
P. Flute cast 1. Deformation of sediments
Q. Convolute lamination 2. Erosion
R. Cross-stratification 3. Fluctuating current
S. Flaser bedding 4. Migration of bed forms
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 2 3 4 1

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 Geology (PSP-2014)

26. Stress-strain deformation curves for four rocks P, Q, R and S are given below. The dots at the
ends of the curves indicate the respective failure points of each rock. Choose the rock with the
highest brittle strength.

P
Q

Stress
R

S
Strain
(A) P (B) Q
(C) R (D) S

4 2
27. A closed form belonging to crystal class 3 intercepts the axes at a = 1, b = 1 and c = .
3 m
The name and the Miller Indices of the form are
(A) Octahedron (111) (B) Hexoctahedron (321)
(C) Cube (100) (D) Dodecahedron (110)

28. Match the mineral deposits in Group-I with the localities of their occurrences in Group-II.
Group-I Group-II
P. Lignite 1. Dariba
Q. Fluorite 2. Noamundi
R. Chromite 3. Panandhro
S. Sphalerite-Galena 4. Amba Dongar
5. Naushahi
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 2 3 4 5
(B) 3 4 5 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 5 1 2

29. Match the minerals in Group-I with their optical properties in Group-II.
Group-I Group-II
P. Quartz 1. Oblique extinction
Q. Hornblende 2. Isotropic
R. Muscovite 3. Mottled extinction
S. Garnet 4. Uniaxial positive
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3 2 1 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 3 4 1 2

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 Geology (PSP-2014)

30. Two minerals, P and Q, were studied under the microscope. Mineral P is characterized by two
orthogonal cleavages. Mineral Q has more than one set of cleavage, but these are NOT at right
angles; Q also changes relief on rotation of the stage. Identify P and Q from the following
alternatives:
(A) P-hornblende, Q-calcite (B) P-calcite, Q-diopside
(C) P-diopside, Q-hornblende (D) P-diopside, Q-calcite

31. A potash-rich ultrabasic rock containing phlogopite both as megacrysts and groundmass is
(A) leucite syenite (B) K-rich granite
(C) carbonatite (D) kimberlite

32. Identify the interference figure given below

Optic
normal

Melatope Melatope

Optic
plane

Isochrome

Isogyre

(A) Biaxial optic normal figure (B) Biaxial acute bisectrix figure
(C) Uniaxial optic axis figure (D) Uniaxial flash figure

33. Match the genera in Group-I with the phyla in Group-II.

Group-I Group-II
P. Mya 1. Echinodermata
Q. Micraster 2. Mollusca
R. Olenoides 3. Brachiopoda
S. Leptaena 4. Arthropoda
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 2 1 4 3

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 Geology (PSP-2014)

34. Match the landforms given in Group-I with the causative processes given in Group-II.
Group-I Group-II
P. Strath 1. Glacial deposition
Q. Drumlins 2. Glacial erosion
R. Cirque 3. Fluvial deposition
S. Point bar 4. Fluvial erosion
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 1 2 3 4

35. Which of the following symbols indicates a synform?

P P

(A) Q (B) Q

P
P Q
(C) Q (D)

PART-II : DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS

Q. 36 to Q. 43 carry five marks each.

36. The figure below is a schematic section across an ocean-ocean subduction zone. Identify the
features A, B and C that are characterized by sedimentary accumulations. What does the elevated
zone D represent ? What is the zone E that lies on both sides of the subducting oceanic
lithosphere ?

mean sea level mean sea level

A B D C
oceanic lithosphere oceanic lithosphere

E E

A:
B :
C :
D :
E :
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 Geology (PSP-2014)

37. Given below is a list of gastropods.

Conus, Turritella, Vermetus, Calliostoma, Aporrhais, Acteonella, Schizostoma, Bellerophon
Identify the biconical, discoidal and turretted forms.
Biconical :
Discoidal :
Turretted :
Distinguish between holostomatous and siphonostomatous apertures in gastropods.

38. Based on the geological map, answer the questions below.

S
F S Axial plane and axis
of the fold
Dyke Dip of the bedding plane
Q

S S
Q

S
50 B
S 50
Q
F S

S S
A
N H Q
K Q
L
100 metre

Identify the nature of the surface passing through A.

Identify the sets of beds and the relative ages of those sets.
Identify the nature of the fold at B.
In the map, vertical fault F-F cuts across the dyke and adjacent beds. Find the nature of slip along
the fault.
Why is the dyke NOT displaced by the fault ?

39. Which type of topography and climatic conditions are suitable for formation of plateau-type bauxite
deposits ?
Name two essential minerals found in bauxite.
The figure below shows an idealized anticlinal hydrocarbon reservoir containing oil, gas and
water. Which zone out of A, B and C will be occupied predominantly by oil, and why ?

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 Geology (PSP-2014)

~~ ~~~ ~ ~
~ ~~~ ~~~ ~ ~~
~ ~~~~~ ~~~ ~~ ~~
~~~~~~ ~~~~~~
~~ ~ ~~ A ~~~ ~
~~ ~~ B ~ ~ ~~
~~~ ~~~
~ ~~ C ~~~
~~ ~

R
~~ ~~~ ~

ck

es
~~ ~ ~ ~~ ~~~ ~~ ~

ro

er
~ ~~~~~~~ ~~~~ ~

oi r

vo
~ ~ ~~ ~ ~~ ~~ ~~ ~~ ~~

ir
rv
~~ ~ ~ ~ ~~ ~ ~ ~

r
se

oc
~~ ~ ~ ~ ~ ~~~

k
Re~~~
~~
~~ ~~
~~ ~
~~ ~~~
~~ ~~
~~ ~
~

40. Study the textural relations given below:

Schistosity (muscovite + biotite)

Garnet

Chlorite Staurolite

In what sequence are the minerals garnet, chlorite and staurolite formed? Give reasons for your
answer.
Two pelitic rocks, A and B, contain the following assemblages:
A : Quartz-sillimanite-garnet-muscovite-biotite-graphite
B : Quartz-sillimanite-garnet-K-feldspar-biotite-graphite
Which of the following can be called a ‘khondalite’, and why?

41. The figure below represents an isobaric binary system involving the solid phases A, B and C and
their liquidus phase relations. Based on the figure, answer the following questions.

Liquid X Liquid Y liquidus S

R

T P
Field 2
E
T(°C)
Field 1

A C B
Composition

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 Geology (PSP-2014)

What phases (among A, B, C and liquid) are stable in Field 1 and Field 2, respectively ?
At which point in this figure can a ‘corona’ texture develop ?
Trace the equilibrium crystallization histories of liquid X and liquid Y.

42. The figure below is a stereographic projection of the symmetry elements in the class 4/m of the
Tetragonal system, with a tetrad axis normal to a plane of symmetry. Given the projection of one
face (marked by a dot in the figure), how many faces will the form have? What is the name of
this form?

Write the Si:O ratios of olivine, diopside and nepheline.

43. A stratigraphic column, consisting of formations A, B and C (from bottom to top), having mutual
gradational contacts, is characterized as follows:
C – shore-face sandstone
B – inner to middle shelf sandstone-shale alternation
A – outer shelf mud with occasional thin sandstone
What does this stratigraphic column indicate – transgression or regression ? Justify.
Which formation has the sandstone with the least matrix, and why ?
Which formation has the most rounded sand grains ?

ANSWER KEY

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
B A C C A D B C D D
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A D B C A B A D C A
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C C B C B A D B C D
31 32 33 34 35
D B D A A

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