12.

Systemic lupus erythematosus involves a hypersensitivity reaction which may be

MODULE 3 classified as:
A. Cytotoxic
1. One which is noxious and unintended, and which occurs at doses B. Delayed
A

normally used in man for the prophylaxis, diagnosis, or therapy of disease, C. Anaphylactic
blood dyscrasia -

or for the modification of physiological function. D. Immune-complex mediated C ,

A. Adverse drug reaction SLE

13. Coomb’s test lBEQ)
-

t
B. Adverse drug event 's
-

antigen -

body rxn

A. Pernicious anemia swilling

I
C. Medication error
-

D. Side effect B. Hemolytic anemia

C. Carcinoid syndrome
/D. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia
-
tuberculin skin test
☐
contact dermatitis
-

2. CYP450-mediated metabolism of drugs falls under what phase? tumor in

\
f- ✗
enters chromatin like cells :#
-
5- HIAA acid phosphatase
A. Functionalization phase phase I HOR -
-

acetic acid )
lhydwxy indole
B. Conjugation phase phase II -

C. Biotransformation phase 14. Use of atropine will likely result in which of the following?
D. None of the above I. Bronchodilation ✓ DUMBBELL muscarinic nee -

II. Sweating diarrhea

3. Which of the following beta-blockers can be used in management of III. Diarrhea urination

IV. Mydriasis ✓ miosis

CHF? Baba CHF
mortality
= V. Bradycardia
bronchos pawn
A. Propranolol non-selective p ,BzT
-

metopniol ,
-

bradycardia
emesis
B. Carvedilol Bisopro carved ilol
lacrimation
C. Nebivolol wt vasodilators property A. I,IV salivation /
sweating
-

ability to produce nitric oxide B. I,II,III

D. Carteolol have intrinsic sympatho mimetic
activity
-

C. IV,V
4. Freely filtered, it limits tubular reabsorption of water and is useful in D. II,III,V
reducing cerebral edema and intracranial pressure. in pituitary gland
-
problem
A. Methylxanthines ex theophylline : for asthma
-

primary problem thyroid gland

.

congestion
in
B. Furosemide loop diuretic ( act in thick ascending limb block NKCC 2 ; for pulmonary 15. Secondary Hyperthyroidism
* :

§
- -

hypothalamus
-

in
edema / 10 tertiary problem *
via IV
C. Mannitol via PO osmotic
-

'
osmotic diuretic L mannitol is
:

sugar) → can Pull all the water

A. High T3 and T4, Low TSH :

D. Acetazolamide carbonic
diarrhea
-
:
# Icp to
B. High T3 and T4, High TSH 2°
anhydrase inhibitor C.Low T3 and T4, Low TSH 2° hypot
/ fact on Proximal
convoluted turbine
diuretics Elim
Nath µw ,
used for seizures .
-
D. Low T3 and T4, High TSH lohypert
5. Retrospective comparison of samples chosen based on the presence or
absence of disease 16. Simvastatin, when administered with which drug, will have relatively increased
A. Cohort exposure 4 non exposure risk factors ; risk ratio serum levels?
- -
-

B. Case control disease -

/ disease -0 ; odds Ratio A. Rifampicin
C. Cross-sectional lowest level of evidence ; aka lwhñt)
- B. Cimetidine
D. Meta-analysis highest level of evidence
-
C. Carbamazepine
'
systematic review that uses quantitative method D. Griseofulvin

6. Abstracting services 17. A person manifesting with symptoms of heart failure with ordinary exertion would
A. Primary source most current information ex journal articles
-
-
-
be classified under the New York Heart Association functional classification?
B. Secondary source indexing / abstracting services Pubmed
-

-
-

A. Class I more than ordinary

-

literature
C. Tertiary source ' textbooks - B. Class II ordinary
-

D. Ternary source outdated info C. Class III less than ordinary

-

D. Class IV rest -

B- lactams = potentiation
7. Which cannot be used in a patient experiencing anaphylactic reaction? 1-

A. Dobutamine B1 agonist i DOC cardiogenic shock

-
-
18. Beta-lactamase inhibitors, EXCEPT:
4gE mediated hypersensitivity ran
-

B. Diphenhydramine 1st gen antihistamine -

-

A. Tazobactam
1 mast
cells release
C. Epinephrine Doc anaphylactic thou ; physiologic antagonist ( act
-
histamine B. Monobactam Att " AM -

on different

) C. Sulbactam
now,
D. Hydrocortisone glucocorticoid -

' opposing effect D. None of the above

anti-inflammatory
Norepinephrine Doc ciavnlanic acid
septic mode
-

8. This type of anemia results in microcytic blood cells. TAILS

-
thalassemia 19. Acacia + Iron salts
A. Pernicious anemia ✗IF → Vit 1312 / it 139 malabsorption
-

✓
-

anemia of chronic disease IABL)

-

B. Iron deficiency anemia A. Cementation Acacia -

1- Bi
IDA
-

C. Aplastic anemia normocytic anemia B. Gelatinization

lead poisoning
-
-

D. AOTA -

liable cell anemia C. Volatilization

D. Isomerization
hyaralatiwe
HIPS isoniazid
9. Which of the following causes hypercalcemia: *
BONUS ✓ procainamide sulfonamide
,

I. Paget’s disease ✓ F- bone resorption / breakdown Fca # Poy

-
'
20. A patient who is a slow acetylator can be characterized by: Asian '
FAST inns
= -
-

II. Glucocorticoids osteoporosis → antagonize vit D= # ca A. slow metabolism and reduced therapeutic response west
slowest
-

III. Hydrochlorothiazide ✓ tniatiaes B. slow metabolism and normal therapeutic response

] * ca -

IV. Metolazone ✓ C. slow metabolism and enhanced therapeutic response

¥ all D. peripheral neuropathy resistant to pyridoxine therapy
loop diuretic
-

V. Hypoparathyroidism
-1 thiazide -
* ca
main hormone
A. I,II,III 21. Characterized by low protein intake with adequate caloric intake
B. I,III,IV A. Secondary malnutrition problem in absorption digestion
-

-
,

ok
B. Marasmus protein tg any intake
C. I,II,IV
-

caloric intake,

D. II,IV,V C. Kwashiorkor' squash -

D. Rickets asiitis
:&
lvit D protein -_ edema
/
caused by gallstone deficiency
10. Analgesic of choice for acute pancreatitis but may cause ↓ in seizure 22. Beta-blocker with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity and so should be avoided in
chronic heart failure?
threshold. metabolite .NO#peridine:FseiFune
'

✓ A. Carteolol
A. Meperidine does not cause biliary spasm bradycardia { veno dilation
-

, ,
B. Metoprolol
B. Morphine
C. Atenolol
C. Apomorphine
D. Nadolol
D. Tramadol
23. Most appropriate when comparing programs and treatment alternatives that are
11. Which of the following pairs of drugs and teratogenic effects are
life-extending and with serious side effects. It considers patient preferences and
correctly matched?
related QALYs.
I. Phenytoin: cryptorchidism -

A. Cost-minimization analysis → outcomes are equivalent

II. ACEIs and ARBs: Oligohydramnios
B. Cost-effectiveness analysis → compare effectiveness of tx
III. Methimazole: Ebstein’s Anomaly
C. Cost-benefit analysis monetary -

IV. Lithium: Aplasia cutis nasa abdomen lang

-

any testees
D. Cost-utility analysis
V. Valproic acid: Renal dysgenesis

oligohydraminios)
24. The following are factors directly affecting drug-food interaction, EXCEPT.
A. I,II heads to
A. Ingested relative time of food and drug intake
B. I,II,V
B. Formulation characteristics
C. I only
D. None of the above
( Doc hypert pregnant
1st trimester
i. PTU
) C. Type of food
D. Renal injury
1hr before 2hr after meals
Dmg given or
25. Palliative care in cancer patients: 36. What is indicated in the transcription part of the prescription?
A. Use of chemotherapeutic agents to eliminate cancer cells A. Biogesic 500 mg tab
B. Subjecting to radiation therapy B. Take 1 tab q4h as needed
C. Manage symptoms to improve patient’s quality of life C. Rx
D. Both A and B D. #12

26. A clinically noticeable drug interaction resulting from the displacement of drug A by drug B 37. Toxicity that may be caused by accidental overdose of the drug
written in the prescription is likely to be:
from common plasma protein-binding sites is most often seen when:
A. Loss of hearing
A. Drug B has a low associate constant for binding the protein and is given in large dose
B. Hypoprothrombinemia
B. Drug A has high association constant for binding the protein C. Hepatic necrosis
C. Drug B is more toxic than Drug A D. Optic neuropathy
D. Drug B has a high association constant for binding the protein and is given in large dose
38. CMIV
27. pH is equal to pKa at which of the following? A. 1004
A. pH 1 B. 1106
B. pH 7 C. 904
C. Neutralization point D. 504
D. Half-neutralization point
39. ½ tab Alprazolam (Xanor) 500 μg. hs prn for insomnia
28. What will be observed in a patient undergoing anticoagulant therapy with warfarin who A. Take ½ tablet of Alprazolam (Xanor) 500 nanograms after dinner for
also took cholestyramine? BA binding :# effect
-
insomnia
A. Increase in INR due to pharmacodynamic interaction B. Take 1/2 tablet of Alprazolam (Xanor) 500 micrograms at bedtime as
B. Increase in INR due to pharmacokinetic interaction needed for insomnia
C. Decrease in INR due to pharmacodynamic interaction C. Take 1/2 capsule of Alprazolam (Xanor) 500 micrograms at bedtime
as needed for insomnia
D. Decrease in INR due to pharmacokinetic interaction
D. Take 1/2 tablet of Alprazolam (Xanor) 500 micrograms every night at
bedtime for insomnia
29. Hospitals are classified according to the following, except:
A. Number of beds 40. Beta blocker overdose may lead to bradycardia. This type of
B. Ownership adverse drug reaction can be classified as:
C. Functional capacity A. Type A augmented
-

of
D. None of the above slope of service , length stay B. Type B bizarre
-

C. Type C continuous / Chronic

-

30. A pregnant woman decided to take Doxycycline after she treaded in floody waters. Her D. Type D delayed
-

child developed permanent yellow-gray-brown discoloration of the teeth and enamel

hyperplasia. What medication error category occurred? 41. The following can cause hemolytic anemia, EXCEPT:
A. Category D cat A error-
no A. Methylene blue
harm B. Methyldopa (f) coomb 's test
B. Category G B D w/ er ror no
-
: ,

C. Category F E H : WI
-
error
,
WI harm C. Naphthalene
D. Category H " D. Acetaminophen moon facies
HP" I RIP

#
:

yyw-tn-moxatol i.IM
Buffalo hump
warfarin
-

31. A 52-year-old male taking Coumadin® daily for prevention of stroke with atrial fibrillation 42. Cushing’s syndrome caused by use of steroids is classified under
-
what type of adverse drug reaction?
develops a skin infection. The patient receives a diagnosis of cellulitis and a prescription for
A. Type E
Bactrim®, to be taken twice daily. Several days later, the patient is admitted to the hospital
B. Type C
with an acute bleed and an elevated international normalized ratio (INR). What medication C. Type A
error category occurred? D. Type B
A. Category D
B. Category G 43. It is the most non-toxic fat-soluble vitamin.
C. Category F A. Vit A most toxic fat so I vitamin
- -

D. Category H B. Vit D K dependent

✓ fruit
1972
-

CF :
C. Vit E
32. Essential drugs are those deemed to satisfy the health care needs of the majority of the D. Vit K antidote tower
toxicity
-

population. Criteria for the selection of essential drugs include:

A. Proven safety and efficacy adequate
-
scientific data 44. Pregnancy risk category characterized with no evidence of harm to
B. Availability as a single compound lost benefit ratio good pharmacokinetic animal studies but no adequate and well-controlled studies for in
adequate quality
-

,
,

C. Relevance to pattern of prevalent diseases act

.
pregnant women?
D. All of the above A. Category A
B. Category B
C. Category C
33. A 54-year-old woman presented with signs and symptoms consistent with an early stage
D. Category D
of rheumatoid arthritis. The decision was made to initiate NSAID therapy.Which of the
following patient characteristics is the most compelling reason for avoiding celecoxib in the
45. Air exposure of epinephrine will result to:
treatment of her arthritis?
A. History of alcohol abuse @ ✗2
inhibitor
A. Pink coloration
B. Rancidification fats -

B. History of gout Formio C. Precipitate formation

C. History of myocardial infarction black box toxicity D. Resinification resin -

D. History of peptic ulcer disease

warning ✓ it C
brown
46. Immunologic reaction involving IgG and IgM is also known as:
34. A. Anaphylactic reaction IgE -

B. Cytotoxic reaction
C. Immune complex mediated reaction 1g 6 -

D. Cell-mediated reaction T cell -

47. The following act as serotonin receptor agonists, EXCEPT:

A. Sumatriptan DOC migraine ( cause of headache : vasodilation)
-
-

B. Ondansetron
What type of error is committed in the sample prescription? C. Ergotamine
A. Erroneous D. Cisapride IBS -

B. Violative
48. Which of the following drug combinations demonstrate synergism?
C. Impossible potentiation
I. Sulfadoxime + pyrimethamine ✓ Dihydro Pten ate synthase
D. No error

35. What should be done by the pharmacist when he/she encountered this type of
f- A anta goɧ II. Levodopa + carbidopa inhibit

III. Sulfamethoxazole + TrimethoprimI

-
-
-
inhibit DHF reductase

prescription? IV. Alcohol + CNS depressant

I. Fill the prescription V. Propranolol and Verapamil addition =

II. Do not fill the prescription A. I,IV,V

III. Keep prescription B. I,III,V
IV. Inform buyer of generic options C. I,III
D. I,II,III,IV,V
A. II,III
B. I only
C. I,III,IV
D. I,IV
 62. Advantages of floor stock system, except:
49. Ingestion of sodium hypochlorite in large amounts may lead in which of -
-
Dmg inventory
A. Less medication error
→Base
the following conditions?
B. Reduction of pharmacy personnel Dmg deterioration
A. Coagulative necrosis acid - pilferage
C. Readily available drugs
B. Hairy tongue syndrome Hi , / hydrogen peroxide
more jobs nurses to
-

D. Elimination of drug returns to central pharmacy

C. Achlorhydria tvci -

D. Liquefactive necrosis alkaline -

63. A patient taking nonselective beta-blockers should not be used or should be

-
cautiously used in patients with:
50. Which of the following is NOT a harmful/unwanted food-drug interaction? Bi B2
A. Asthma B2 stimulation
-

,
A. Green leafy vegetables for patients on warfarin therapy as deep vein
B. Diabetes → * HR ldapntmay tremors tachycardia
thrombosis prophylaxis ,

C. Partial atrioventricular block → I

Prevent lmipenem
's seizure
B. Omeprazole beads in applesauce for patient with trouble swallowing
D. All of the above
capsules secondary to GERD ✓ seizure
✓ inhibit
renal dehydro peptidase causes

C. Grapefruit juice and cyclosporine to prevent organ transplant rejection

64. Principle behind the combination of Imipinem and Cilastatin (Primaxin®).
D. Antiosteoporosis drug, alendronate, taken with food to minimize GI irritation -
-

A. Antagonism
Inmon AE osteonebrosib in joints :
B. Potentiation
51. The following drugs have label warnings against their use in pregnant
C. Synergism
women, except:
NSAID Cox non-selective D. Additive
A. Ibuprofen -

B. Aspirin antiplatelet , anti-inflammatory lirneveniblyinhwxentyme.tv/-XA2)

,

65. Who among the following can write a prescription?

C. Fondaparinux synthetic LMWH -

'
preferred for
A. Doctor
D. Warfarin pregnant
-
inhibit VKORC B. Veterinarian
C. Dentist
52. Which of the following is an example of irrational medicine use?
D. All of the above
-Éeded lperonagbigaykh)
A. anabolic steroids for growth/appetite stimulation
B. Use of antibiotics for treatment of URTI in minors ② wrong medicine
1-
66. Which of the following statements are true regarding food and drug interaction;
C. All of the above ③ ineffective medicine
D. None of the above usually viral I. As a general rule, interaction is minimized if drug is taken 1 hr before or 2 hrs after
'

ex Ivermectin for WVID

meal .

④ unsafe meds
⑤ self medication II. Decreases gastric emptying rate ✗ tlbibilisanpavamaaaecomodatearmytood)
-

53. Active medical staff responsible for taking care of patient and who has -

III. Reduce gastric irritation

direct involvement with the staff organizational and administrative duties.
IV. Itraconazole + fatty meal results in increase drug absorption
A. Attending medical staff
specialty boards
B. Consulting medical staff passed -

members A. I,II,III
C. Honorary medical staff retired emeritus former staff
-

,
,
B. II,IV
D. Associate medical staff junior staff -

C. III,IV
D. I,III,IV
54. The following are manifestations of opioids poisoning, EXCEPT:
A. Pinpoint pupils miosis
/
67. Drug interaction that may occur supported with some good data but needs more
B. Unconsciousness
depression study
C. Increased respiration to ; respiratory
A. Probable very likely -

D. None of the above

B. Suspected may -

C. Possible could -

55. The following factors increase gastric emptying rate:

D. Established proven -

I. High-fat meal IGER to GET / MY "Ña

II. Strenuous exercise
pm -3ps polyuña
polyphagia polydipsia ,
,

68. The following is expected in a patient with diabetes insipidus:

III. Metoclopramide ✓ vaptorns → nivaptan
IV. Lying on the right side ✓
I. High ADH SIAPH FADA
]poc
su -
:
-
non -

emeuocyu.in#tolvaptom-Vz
-

set
II. High specific gravity of urine board :D
-
-

V. Opioids THW F diluted tsp.gr

III. Low ADH ✓
IV. Low specific gravity of urine✓
.
rest 4 digest -

A. II,III Dopamine agonist

'

A. II,III
B. III,IV
B. I,IV
C. I,II,III
C. III,IV
D. II,III,IV,V
D. I,II
56. The following occurs at the therapeutic dose of the drug, EXCEPT:
69. When dispensing Metronidazole, patients must be advised with the following:
A. Hypersensitivity reaction
I. Avoid alcoholic beverages consumption ✓
Dyisnkiram
like effect -
-

B. Side effects
II. Discoloration of urine while using the drug
C. Idiosyncratic reactions
III. Take only on an empty stomach take w/ food to 61 upset
-

D. Toxicity
A. I only
B. I,II
57. Type of prescription in which generic name precedes the brand name.
C. I,II,III
A. Erroneous
D. I,III
B. Violative
C. Impossible
anti platelet
70. Phase of drug development which assess safety in healthy human volunteers.
D. No error -

A. Preclinical studies animals phase 4- post marketing nmdies

-

- B. Phase 1 healthy v01 safety

-

.
-

58. Which of the following is an anticoagulant? I. Aspirin II. Clopidogrel III.

C. Phase 2 efficacy ( WI disease)
-

ADP inhltzyz)
'
Cilostazol IV. Warfarin
'
PDE inh
'

Dipyridannole : pharmacologic )
stress test
D. Phase 3 ' safety 4 efficacy
-

" lame
A. I,IVintermittent
scale
claudication - ✗ aban
.at#
71. Machine operators with allergy should be given:
only oral No AC
-

-
-

B. I,II,IV oral
Axildarncitnmab A. Diphenhydramine BONA Min
Sickness Scopolamine
✗ ainh
C. IV only pmmgnu /

-
stay:# meinn
Ax And - ✗ anet
-

B. Piperazine Meclizine ( motion

-

①
,

D. All of the above -

intermittent claudication

C. Fexofenadine 2nd gon true non sedating ( also : loratadineitsesloratadine

)
- -

Bilastine
-

,
D. Hydroxyzine 1st -

59. The most appropriate or most advantageous delivery system in the ' gem less
sedating : cetirizine
cetirizine lteraxn
hospital.
72. A patient on heparin therapy may be monitored with?
A. Floor stock
cheaper A. Activated partial thromboplastin time Heparin intrinsic -

B. Individual Prescription Order System turned error

,

.
B. Prothrombin time - PWET
C. Unit Dose Drug Delivery System warfarin
less paperwork C. Complete blood count
D. Bulkward /
lispniasparrt ginlisihe lab
,
D. International normalized ratio
:
rapid acting
60. Insulin that can be administered IV. RAISA : post
prandial insulin
-

73. Warfarin, an anticoagulant, is bound to albumin when it is administered to the body.

acting
A. Lente
B. Isophane nylhtermediate
snort acting
- Diabetic
ketoacidosis
What will happen if phenylbutazone, an NSAID, was administered after?
A. Diminished effect→of warfarin displaces warfarin high protein binding -
-

C. Regular insulin tannin during emergency or

DkA_ B. Diminished effect of phenylbutazone
D. Glargine LAL also Detemir / Deglndee)
- :

' C. Enhanced effect of warfarin

basal insulin secretionultra long
D. Enhanced effect of phenylbutazone
61. Which is not an example of physical incompatibility?
Biguanidl
most common AE : 61 upset
- most fatal AE : tactic acidosis
A. Polymorphism
74. Metformin, an oral hypoglycemic agent has a prominent side effect which could
B. Optical isomerism OHA DOC
increase levels of what substance?
C. Volatilization for obese pts
w/ PWS A. Insulin
D. Sorption
B. Uric acid
C. Hydrochloric acid
D. Lactic acid
 89. The following precautions should be observed when handling
75. Which of the following is not an invasive test or procedure? antineoplastic agents, EXCEPT:
A. Ultrasonography A. Use of Luer-lock syringe fittings
B. Venipuncture B. Use of PPEs
C. Endoscopy C. Use of horizontal laminar flow hoods
D. Paracentesis D. None of the above

76. Paramater used for dose adjustment of renally impaired patients. 90. Which of the following drug inhibits binding of angiotensin to its receptor?
A. Alanine transferase 156 Pt liner enzymes -

A. Hydrochlorothiazide thiazide ; act on Ncc

-

rtx Liddle 's syndrome

product metals
-
from muscle lendogonou :S
B. Creatinine clearance B. Triamterene K sparing diuretic ENaC I also
Amie)
-
-
*
-
Inulin gold spy -

C. Alkaline phosphatase biliary obstruction

→ C. Abciximab GPIB / IIIa
-

bloaters
D. Lactate dehydrogenase good marker for sepsis
-
✓
blue D. Telmisartan
chronic bronchitis
✓
77. It is the primary initial intervention in the management of COPD \ 91.15 fl oz
" Hot ✗
emphysema A. 444 mL
29.157,0m¥ 444mL
-
=
A. Breathing regimen I \
pink puffer
d-
trypsin B. 430 mL
B. Exercise
C. Smoking cessation deficiency C. 144 mL 1gal =
4Gt
D. 224 mL lqt = 2 pts
D. Proper diet
Ipt =
16ft 07

92. How many drops should would be prescribed in each dose of a liquid
78. Miglitol and Acarbose are examples of: medicine if 15 mL contained 60 doses? The dispensing dropper calibrates 32
A. Antihypertensive agents drops/mL. drops / dose?
flatulence, bloating
B. Antiplatelet agents / E.
ya
,

breaks down carbohydrates into monosaccharide form A. 9 drops 15mL / 60 doses 0.25mL /dose=

C. Antibacterial agents ✓ B. 7 drops

→ rbabte " 25Mt
/ dose ✗ 32 drops
D. Oral hypoglycemic agent e inhibitors
-
C. 8 drops /my Gawp, / dose =

D. 10 drops
79. Which of the following drugs will exist in its non-ionized form inside the
stomach? Acid t WA non ionized ; 0 ionization
-
=
- LUNA 93. Calculate for the volume of diluent that should be mixed in a syringe with
-

I. Asprin Acid in base ionized

__ HIPE 1 mL of 1:1000 (w/v) solution in order to obtain a 1:2500 (w/v) dilution?
II. Chlorpheniramine WB in base '= non ionized 0 ionization A. 2.5 mL C. V1 Czvz =

✗ (
;
-

III. Diclofenac WB in acid ionized =

B. 1.5 mL limb ( =

A. I,III C. 2 mL ✗ 2.5mn =

B. I only D. 1.75 mL
diluent : 2.5 -

I =
1.5mL
C. I,II,III
D. II only 94. A patient is to receive 23 mg of NaCl per kg of body weight. If a person
weighs 170 lbs, how many mL of NaCl (MW: 58.5) solution containing 0.5
80. If a patient misses a dose of his maintenance drug, which of the following is mEq/mL should be administered?
23h4
2¥
the most appropriate thing to do? A. 15.19 mL 170lb ✗ ✗
1777.27 =

A. Double the dose at the next scheduled time B. 60.67 mL my NaCl

kg Btw
B. Stop taking the drug immediately then return to normal regimen after 3 days C. 51.99 mL
1mL
÷n 30.38
=

C. Shift to another medication. D. 60.76 mL 3038 MEG ✗

MEG
=
60.76mL
D. Continue with the normal drug regimen Eeg
95. A patient presented himself in a clinic complaining of a cough that won’t
81. Pregnancy kits are designed to detect which substance? go away. On his checkup, you have learned that he smokes 16 sticks of
A. Lutenizing hormone pituitary
-

ovaries cigarette for 15 years. What is the patient’s pack year?

B. Progesterone female reproductive organs ( uterus , A. 12 pack years
16 sticks ✗ ¥
-

✗ 15 years 12 py =

✓
C. Human choriogenic gonadotropin (hCG) urine fshcb produced -

by placenta B. 20 pack years

hostiles
D. Estrogen C. 24 pack years
D. 15 pack years
82. This drug increase serum level of penicillin and prolongs its activity by
blocking penicillin’s tubular secretion. 96. A prescription calls for the dispensing of a 4% pilocarpine HCl solution
A. Probenecid inhibit tubular secretion
-
with the signa, “1 gtt o.u. tid”. How many mg of the drug is being used per
B. Indomethacin for patent ductus arteriosus
-

1-
day if the dropper is calibrated to deliver 20 drops to the mL?
C. Propranolol - MHLN A. 0.012 mg 691-1-1 day

HT-Nicmantpts-HI-mxtamoa-npi-0.FM
D. Methyldopa -
B. 12 mg
"
C. 0.3 mg ✗ 9-
83. Decreased urinary recycling results to increased elimination rate hence: D. 80 mg 100hm
0.012g =

12mg
=

A. increases drug’s half-life

B. longer duration of pharmacologic response 97. 15 mL of 10% Calcium Gluconate injection and 10 mL of a multivitamin
C. shorter duration of pharmacologic response infusion are mixed with 500 mL of NSS. The infusion is to be administered
D. Decrease in drug clearance over a period of 5 hours. If the infusion set is calibrated at 15 drops per mL,
at what rate in drops per minute should the flow rate be adjusted in order to
84. It occurs when drugs are mixed in syringes or infusion fluids prior to administer the infusion over the desired time interval?
administration.
A. Pharmacodynamic interaction effect response MOA -

,
,
A. 25 gtt/min
B. 26 gtt/min
500mL 1- 15mL 1- tomb 525mi __
✗ 26.25
drops ,
%÷n =

B. Pharmaceutical interaction affect physicochemical characteristics outside

-

C. 0.12 gtt/min him

the body
C. Pharmacokinetic interaction ARNE -
D. 7 gtt/min
D. All of the above
98. How many mL of a 1:500 w/v stock solution should be used to make 5
85. Intake of ginseng with oral hypoglycemic agents may result to: liters of 1:2000 w/v solution?
A. Additive hypoglycemia 4- us : pinakanagcanse ng hypoglycemia
-
A. 1125 mL 1×1=1 G) 15000ms
B. Hyperglycemia Closes Kt Sentinel ATP channel →
-

ca channel
B. 1100 mL ✗=
1250mL
depolarize → open
-

C. Sedation t
C. 2000 mL
D. Hepatotoxicity Fca channel D. 1250 mL
to
exocytosis of
99. How many proof gallons are contained in 3 wine gallons of a 50% v/v
86. What kind of antagonism occurs between acetylcholine and epinephrine? vesicle w/ insulin

A. Chemical antagonism ex Heparin 1- protamine sulfate alcohol?

3÷
V
-

B. Functional antagonism
C. Competitive antagonism
lañd )
reversible
( base)
luirmonntorbie
- ,
A. 1.5 proof gallons
B. 3 proof gallons pb=wg×gjl =

D. Irreversible antagonism ] pharmacologic C. 6 proof gallons

-
allosteric of covalent
-2
drugs same rel → opposite effect , D. 15 proof gallons
87. A patient develops “butterfly rash” and ws found to be caused by a drug-
induced systemic lupus erythematosus. Which of the following drugs is not likely 100. What is the final concentration of ethanol in a solution prepared by
to cause the patient’s condition? mixing 500 mL of 70% ethanol, 300 mL of 85% ethanol and 200 mL of 95%
HIPS
A. Sulfonamide ethanol? 500mL ✗ 1701 = 350Wh ,

B. Hydralazine A. 79.5% 300mL ✗ 851 255mL =

,

C. Isoniazid B. 80% 200mL ✗ 951 = 190hm ,

D. Prilocaine C. 83.33%
D. 85% Fast

o%om#)
88. 37ºC to F 51=-160
qc= ✗ 100=79.51
A. 118.2 .

B. 98.6
C. 245
D. 143
MODULE 4 Frentodiazepines
14. Which of the following statements are true regarding the
1. Any substance that binds to a target protein or biological site of action. Barbiturates mechanism of action of benzodiazepines and barbiturates?
A. Receptor A. Benzodiazepines increase the frequency of opening of chloride
B. Enzyme channels
C. Ligand B. Benzodiazepines increase the duration of opening of chloride
vasoconstriction channels
D. Both A and B
C. Barbiturates increase the duration of closing of chloride channels
rphlhylephrine D. Barbiturates increase the frequency of closing of chloride channels
2. Alpha-1 agonists that are used as decongestants should not be given for more than 3-5
days due to: 15. Which of the following diuretics is used for catamenial seizure?
A. Rebound hypertension clonidine :2z agonist LHPN IBP)
-
-

A. Dichlorphenamide CAI -

B. Rhinitis medicamentosa B. Acetazolamide carbonic anhydrase inhibitor Pct

-

C. First dose syncope d , blockers 1- tocins)

-

C. Mannitol osmotic diuretic for * ICP

- cranial edema or
'
or
D. Both A and B orthostatic
hypotension D. Spironolactone gk sparing diuretic of choice for hepatic cirrhosis
fetal hydantoin
's 't gynecomastia MRA Liwh Aldosterone) ( 2nd gem :Eplenenone)
:

3. Which of the following drugs activate PPAR-alpha as its mechanism of action? /

syndrome 16. Phenytoin is a known CYP-450 enzyme inducer. Which of its
-

A. Anacetrapib CET-pinhlcholebtlnxet.tw transfer protein inh)

-
unaescended adverse effects is considered to be the most common and does not
testes
B. Gemfibrozil Fenofibrates hypertb
- -
need dose adjustment?
C. Canagliflozin 564-2 ihh pct
-

AE : UTI / vulvar itching

- - A. Gingival hyperplasia cosmetic changes -

B. Ataxia
C. Diplopia ]
D. Troglitazone PPAR y -
-

dose related -

'

Thiazolidinediones
D. Nystagmus
/ ligand-gated
4. True about beta-agonists:
i. They bind to ionotropic receptors. voltage
-
E. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome idiosyncratic rxh -

iiniwtiinic reel
Nat
channel) most dominant
ii. They bind to metabotropic receptors. GPCR -

q contraction (1173,17-6) -

17. The CYP3A4/5/7 is considered to be the ‘superfamily’ among the

iii. They stimulate adenylyl cyclase. + CAMP
-

iv. They inhibit adenylyl cyclase.

i -

isoforms of the CYP-450 enzyme. The substrates of this ‘superfamily’

TCAMP upset
A. i only
g-
are the following, EXCEPT: Earth " MACDO
A. Macrolides H.pt/loriiTB d
macrolides
-
"
Cortisol -

B. ii only atnpiuumywbafttiun.mn#
,

BED
B. Cortisol Amiodarone Diazepam
-
-
-

C. i, iii most studied ) '

class #
C. TCAs metals
-

by cYP2D6 ( antiarrhythmic KCB -

D. ii, iii
E. ii, iv D. Diazepam
non
-

su E. Amiodarone
(
5. A patient at the ER presents with septic shock. A confused nurse consults you on what drug
18. Clopidogrel is metabolized via the CYP2C19 enzyme. It has
to administer, epinephrine or norepinephrine. What would you recommend?
-

A. A patient at the ER presents with septic shock. A confused nurse consults you on what drug significant interaction with omeprazole, which impairs the said
to administer, epinephrine or norepinephrine. What would you recommend? enzyme. To prevent this, _________ can be used instead of
BID > Bz
A. Epinephrine because it has almost no affinity to beta-2 receptors NE g- omeprazole.
✗ 1=22
A. Esomeprazole

if ¥+1k
B. Epinephrine because it has the maximum affinity to beta-2 receptors ATP tx PUD
'-
Epi B Bz B. Pantoprazole
g-
=
-

C. Norepinephrine because it has almost no affinity to beta-2 receptors ,

D. Norepinephrine because it has the maximum affinity to beta-2 receptors d

C. Lansoprazole
dz ,
=

D. Rabeprazole
6. Which of the following tocolytics is not a beta-2 agonist? E. Two of the above
A. Ritodrine ✓ Fetal uterus Ifor preterm labor
B. Isoxuprine ✓ ) 19. A prodrug is a drug that needs to be metabolized first before it can
C. Terbutaline ✓ contracts uterus exert its pharmacologic action. Which of the following ACE inhibitors
-

D. Atosiban o¥n antagonist

-
is a prodrug?
E. None of the above A. Captopril sulfhydnygrp
-

B. Enalapril
7. Considered to be the most cardioselective beta-blocker C. Enalaprilat
A. Bisoprolol D. Lisinopril
B. Betaxolol
C. Acebutolol 20. Which drug/s is/are incorrectly paired with its metabolite?
D. Nevibolol produces nitric oxide → vasodilation
-
i. Epinephrine : homovanillic acid
E. Metoprolol ii. Dopamine : vanillylmandelic acid
iii. Histamine : N-methylimidazoleacetic acid
8. Beta-blockers used for heart failure management, EXCEPT: iv. Serotonin : 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid
True Love Does Not Exist
A. Bisoprolol A. I only
B. III only
B. Betaxolol
C. Carteolol
É C. I&II y
tyrosine
ltpi )
DA) (

D. Metoprolol D. III&IV
E. Two of the above E.II&IV
rinh VMAT
9. Which of the following monoamine oxidase inhibitors is used for Parkinsonism? 21. Analyze the following statement: if reserpine is to adrenergic -

A. Isocarboxazid neurotransmitters, then _________ is to cholinergic

non-selective MAOA amines 5- Ht NE Epi
]
-

neurotransmitters. X-P 1- dopa 1124)

,
, ,
B. Phenelzine
C. Tranylcypromine
MAOIs
MAOB Dopamine A. Metyrosine ① Y hydroxylase tyrosine
-

B. Hemicholinium ⑦ ¥3 → syn Althaus

-

✗ of
D. Moclobemide RIMAIMAOA MAOB; ;)
Setiegiline , Rosegilihe
-

giline C. Botulinum toxin① release / exocytosis of Ach

-
- .
. .

E. Dasagiline CNS arkin son's ,

- disease D. Vesamicol inh VAT
-2120 mouthy DBP
-

also
17-2 agonist hyperproiauineinia
:

(
10. Which dopamine agonist is most likely to be used during hypertensive crisis?
22. A patient, who has Parkinson’s disease, is on isoniazid therapy. To
A. Bromocriptine → kidneys
vasodilation TTHPN emergency
HPN avoid an adverse effect associated with this, he was prescribed with
B. Fenoldopam DI agonist → renal
-

urgency
" end
diathesis WI end organ pyridoxine. Which drug is not recommended for the management of
-

damage
-

☐
organ damage
C. Entacapone Tnt inhibitor
-

D. Benztropine anlimuscavinic ]
-
for Parkinson 's
DX
his PD?
A. Sinemet carbidopatl dopa
-
-

)
11. Hallucination is one of the positive symptoms experienced by patients with psychosis. What B. Tagamet cimetidine LH blocker
-
,

C. Levophed # efficacy of 1- dopa

=

is the most common type of hallucination? NE - -

* Dopamine [
A. Visual antipsychotics pod D. Levodopa broken down by pyridoxine
B. Auditory EPs → lstsen septic smock
D2 antagonist , anti Ham -

C. Tactile 23. Antiviral drug associated with levido reticularis

2nd 9th D2 / 5111-2 Vir)
antagonist A. Delavirdine NNRTI 1-
-

inhibitors 1- navirmivir
-

D. Olfactory '
metabolic SES
AMD B. Ritonavir protease
-

Blneuvaminidaseinh)
12. Clozapine is the first second-generation antipsychotic to be developed. The following are C. Oseltamivir influenza Ah
.

can be used
true about this drug, EXCEPT: D. Amantadine influent -

for Hepatitis
✓ antipsychotics / neuroleptic
#
A. It is the only typical major tranquilizer that is free of extrapyrimidal syndrome. NRTI -
DAZZLE St ltidanosine Abacavir
,

24. Which of the following local anesthetics is more prone to

,
7h1 citoibihe zidovudine
, ,
lamivudin tmtricitas.ae
B. It is the only atypical major tranquilizer that is free of extrapyrimidal syndrome.
C. It is the only typical minor tranquilizer that is free of extrapyrimidal syndrome. hydrolysis? Fenofo
D. It is the only atypical minor tranquilizer that is free of extrapyrimidal syndrome. A. Lidocaine
→iolytib B. Xylocaine
13. Considered to be the drug of choice for patients having recurrent seizure attacks without C. Procaine
Diazepam 1 Valium
D. Two of the above
lorazepam ( Ativan) ]
regaining consciousness. BZD
CLB
A. Diazepam D. Phenytoin pregabalin , Gabapentin
-

B. Lorazepam E. Valproic acid ehtyme

Carb
Phony Nat CB
V29 inh , - Ethosuximide ,

levetiraceteun
-
-

inhibitor
C. Carbamazepine DOC trigeminal -

AMPA inh Perampanel

neuralgia
-
e­
 ☒pioid overdose ( also Naltrexone
25. Chloramphenicol may be metabolized by several mechanisms. A defect in ______, a Phase )
32. Naloxone is metabolized via:
I metabolism reaction, of chloramphenicol would lead to _________. A. Nitro reduction
A. Nitro reduction; gray baby syndrome B. Carbonyl reduction
B. Glucuronidation; gray baby syndrome C. Acetylation HIPS
-

C. Nitro reduction; aplastic anemia D. Sulfation MATA Ph

-

D. Glucuronidation; aplastic anemia E. Both A and B

26. Acetylation is one of the Phase II metabolisms or conjugation reactions. Which of the 33. NAT2 polymorphism affects the metabolism of the following,
following do/es not belong to the group? EXCEPT:
A. Asians A. Hydralazine
B. Caucasians B. Isoniazid
C. Egyptians C. Phenacetin
D. Jews D. Procainamide
E. Both A and D E. Sulfonamide

27. Which of the following graphs above show a pharmacokinetic curve? 34. Which of the following graphs is most likely that of an orally
administered drug?
0 00cal

IV
A. A
B. B
C. Both A and B 0 0
D. Neither A nor B

28.

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D

35. A drug with an apparent volume of distribution of 72 L, a

True about graph B, EXCEPT: clearance of 6.1 L/hr and an oral bioavailability of 65% was ordered
i. It shows a quantal dose response curve
for oral administration to a patient. However, only the IV preparation
ii. It shows a graded dose response curve -

of the drug was available and it was administered every 9 AM and 9

iii. It shows all-or-none response
iv. It shows response on a continuous scale PM. If a steady state of 12 mg/L was desired, what was the drug's
time interval
maintenace dose?
cssxg
-

v. Efficacy and potency can be determined from this graph MD =

A. I,III A. 439.20 mg
B. I,III,V B. 570.96 mg
=

12mgkxq.tl/h-rX2hb-di3sol'h
C. II,IV C. 698.31 mg
D. II,IV,V D. 878.40 mg
E. 1,351.38 mg
29.
36. The governing principle behind passive diffusion
A. Noyes-Whitney Equation
B. Stoke’s law sedimentation
-

C. Fick’s law
D. Raoult’s law' '¥¥n¥nT
vapor pressure

37. Biopharmaceutic process

A. Liberation
B. Absorption

Disposition
[
C. Distribution
D. Metabolism
E. Excretion
JPK]
Elimination

True about the graph above showing the curves for Drugs X, Y, Z: 38. A 75-kg patient is taking a drug with an elimination half-life of 3.6
i. Drug X is the most efficacious and the most potent hours. The drug follows first-order kinetics and has an apparent
ii. Drug X is the most efficacious but the least potent volume of distribution of 135 mL/kg. What is the total body clearance
iii. Drug Z is the most efficacious and the most potent of the drug?
0¥93
t ' 12

k=%÷
a Vd ✗ k
= →
=

iv. Drug Z is the most efficacious but the least potent A. 6.48 L/hr
v. Drug Z has a higher ceiling dose than Drug Y B. 3.65 L/hr =L 135mL /
Ky) K
0.19251hr
, =

17
C. 2.60 L/hr 5kg7
A. I only D. 2.00 L/hr ( 0.19251hr)
B. IV only E. 1.95 L/hr 1949 06mL 1hr
=
.
1.95 Llhr ~

C. I,V Vd
Aby
=

D. II,V 39. How much of a 550-mg drug will be eliminated after 5.5 hours if
E. III,V
its elimination rate constant is 0.0067 mins-?
A. 60.28 mg Inc Kt + Inco
30. The following statements about drug antagonism are true, EXCEPT: = -

A. In competitive antagonism, the potency of the agonist + antagonist curve shifts to the right B. 164.14 mg
Inc =In 550mg ( 0.00671min
-
✗ ( 5. Shh
✗
60min14
1hr ¥
B. In competitive antagonism, the efficacy is not achieved. C. 385.86 mg
C. In noncompetitive antagonism, the efficacy of the agonist + antagonist curve shifts D. 446.14 mg c-
60.2750mg 550mg -60.200mg
-

downward E. 489.72 mg Elim : initial final

489.72mg
-

D. In noncompetitive antagonism, the potency may still be the same. - 1st gen Sy
40. Sulfonamide and tolbutamide have significant interaction with
-

31. Morphine is most likely contraindicated with, EXCEPT: each other. This interaction is manifested by:
A. Oxycodone full agonist
-

A. Hemorrhage
full agonist +
B. Butarphanol partial agonist B. Blood coagulation
antagonist effect

]
=

C. Buprenorphine partial agonist C. Hypoglycemia

D. Nalbuphine D. Hyperglycemia
E. Pentazocine E. Stevens-Johnson syndrome
 → vasodilation ( ① PDE -
DECAMP)
41. Cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase inhibitor, is used in patients with 52. Urofollitropin is a follicle-stimulating hormone analog. Its manufacture involves
-
→
extraction from: for infertility
Peripheral Arterial Occlusive Disease (PAOD), where there is stenosis of
limb arteries. What does stenosis mean in this context? A. Urine of mice
A. Clot formation in the arteries B. Urine of menopausal women
B. Migration of clot in the arteries C. Blood of mice
C. Narrowing of the arteries D. Blood of menopausal women
D. Widening of the arteries
53. Which non-selective antidiuretic hormone antagonist indicated for SIADH is not
recommended for patients taking nitroprusside? ADH / Vasopressin /
42. Which of the following drugs is contraindicated for a patient who has a
A. Vasopressin AVI
history of myocardial infarction? B. Desmopressin tu ADH 1 central DI) arginine vasopressin
A. Cerebyx Eos phenytoin Lahti seizure)
-

brain blood vessels

- -

C. Demeclocycline -
,

B. Cerebrex D. Conivaptan non seller 4h)

-
-
,

B. Celebrex
Tkidney
-

E. Tolvaptan set Vzrec bedwetting

-

C. Celexa citalopram 155121 antidepressant

-

,
'
Qt
prolongation 54. Tricyclic antidepressant considered to be the drug of choice to manage child
43. Can cause Churg-Strauss syndrome enuresis management
-
SSRI
T
→ eteoisthmaleosinophilic
A. LTD4 agonists A. Amitiptyline FM3u
vasculitis)
yes
sun
B. LTD4 antagonists 14kg St -

B. Maprotiline DOC OCD clomipramine :

#
teas -

C. LOX inhibitor tileuton -

tetrameric C. Imipramine others
D. LOX activator antidepress D. Amoxapine
E. Doxepin
44. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) may be caused by:
A. Alpha-1 antitrypsin excess d. antitrypsin : inn elastin breakdown
55. Which of the following is true about the class of diuretics that can be used to treat
hypocalcemia? lhyperbiutuñcanjd ÉÉv Naik ca lhypo )
y
,
B. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
raw material of lungs A. It acts on the thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle loop diuretics -

C. Elastin formation pulmonary edema

- -
'
+✗

B. It acts on the thin ascending limb of the Loop of Henle

D. Two of the above
C. It acts on the distal convoluted tubule thiazide inn NCC -

( Fuvicacidlhypexbluc
45. Which of the following is the most likely to be used for
D. It activates the NaCl transport
carbohydrate intolerance ltvip%Tn"htim)
pseudoephedrine toxicity? 56. Which diuretic is most likely to be recommended to a patient who is allergic to
A. Sodium bicarbonate sulfonamides?
B. Sodium carbonate A. Furosemide
C. Concentrated sulfuric acid strong acid
-

B. Bumetanide
D. Ammonium chloride C. Tosemide
D. Ethacrynic acid
46. The following increases gastric emptying time, EXCEPT:
i. Diabetes Mellitus ✓ LAMA
57. Which diuretic is least likely to be recommended to a patient who is taking
kanamycin? aminoglycosides - ototoxic KANO
-

ii. Metoclopramide ✓
-

tiotwpiums
-

vestibule SG
g-
-

iii. Fentanyl opioid A. Furosemide

-

iv. Ipratropium anti muscarinic )

( SAMA
B. Bumetanide NTG
nephro
-
-

v. Exenatide GLPI agonist ; OHA '

-

C. Torsemide
limglutide lincretin based)
-

D. Ethacrynic acid causes ototoxicity

-

A. I,II
B. I,III 58. A common adverse effect of the drug Captopril is dry cough. This is because of the
C. I,V accumulation of what autacoid? Fangioedema
D. II,IV,V A. Prostaglandin
E. III,IV,V B. Bradykinin ATI ARB
metronidazole
-

C. Eicosanoid
47. Which of the following antidiabetic drugs is least likely to be ✓ D. Serotonin
recommended for patients on Flagyl therapy? E. Histamine
A. Diamicron Gliclatide 12ham effect
B. Diabenese g- Chlorproprarnide ( 1st gem SU)
1st gem $4 Disulfiram - -
like
59. The most potent histamine-2 antagonist
C. Disulfiram A. Prevacid lansoprazote PPI -

* Nizatidine ( Axid⑧ ) -
th blocker 4
D. Orinase Tolbutamide last gensu) ✓ B. Pepcid Famotidine least SES
E. Two of the above C. Zantac Ranitidine
D. Prozac Fluoxetine SSRI
-

48. Which of the following drugs must be used with caution in diabetic E. Tagamet cimetidine gynecomastia-

patients? atomist pancreas → * glucagon -

A. Salmeterol yapgypz

]
* blood sugar
60. All of the following selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are classified
B. Cortisol glucocorticoid
-
under Pregnancy Category C, EXCEPT:
C. Somatotropin GH -

A. Escitalopram
D. Epinephrine B. Paroxetine cat D
-

E. All of the above C. Sertraline

D. Fluvoxamine
49. Onglyza is a DPP4 inhibitor and is used as an oral hypoglycemic
agent. What is Onglyza? ¥41s inactive 61. Fluoxetine is a first-line SSRI for the management of obssesive-compulsive
A. Sitagliptin 4- anuria ) FGLP I -

disorder. This drug has a black-box warning for:

A. QT prolongation Atithw citalopram
thioridq-tiuelorinaseROJIDiabenese.RO
B. Saxagliptin -

, ,

C. Tolbutamide B. Agranulocytosis \
1st Gen antipsychotic
D. Chlorpropramide ) C. Increased suicidality clozapine sam ☐ -

D. Stroke
50. Clinical conditions associated with thyroid hormone deficiency,
EXCEPT: -
autoimmune disease 62. Prostaglandin was first isolated from:
A. Graves disease hypert Icarus hyper T)
-

A. Urine
B. Hashimoto thyroiditis Autoimmune disease ldestmctx.cn of thyroid
) hypot B. Sweat
-

→
C. Myxedema coma ER hypot -
gland C. Semen
D. Cretinism congenital hypot
-

D. Saliva
E. Tears
51. Which of the following are most likely observed during primary
hypothyroidism? 63. Which of the following is used for primary pulmonary hypertension?
✓ PGE ,
i. Increased TSH A. Alprostadil M
-

ii. Decreased TSH B. Misoprostol A- PGE ,

glaucoma
iii. Increased T3/T4 C. Dinoprostone p Plotz
✗ ✗ antay
-

iv. Decreased T3/T4 ✓ D. Epoprostenol

CALL
E- PGI z
A. I,III E. Latanoprost
B. I,IV -

PbF2d
C. II,III

Parasympa-et.ie#imsympa-
D. II,IV
ejaculation
 last resort
64. Inhalational anesthetic of choice for children -

77. MOA of polymyxin

A. Nitrous oxide least potent IA
A. Cell wall disruption B lactams vancomycin Dapto my Wh
-
-

,
B. Sevoflurane sweet -

datedB. Cell membrane disruption 30s AT

,

cationic
C. Enflurane asthma-

C. Protein synthesis inhibitor Sos CELLS

D. Isoflurane D. Nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor ✗ FQ
E. Methoxyflurane FA antagonist
Halothane hepatotoxiu 78. What will most likely happen when digoxin and
-

65. What part of the structure of local anesthetic blocks sodium channel? ampicillin are coadministered?
- 61 thorax
A. Ester Bridge metabolism A. Enhanced digoxin toxicity Digoxin → inactive
B. Amide ] -

B. Reduced digoxin effectiveness

C. Aromatic ring C. Enhance antimicrobial activity
D. Aminoalkyl substituent HW Sol -

D. Reduced antimicrobial activity

66. A dentistry student asked you what is the principle behind having epinephrine in lidocaine 79. Digoxin toxicity is enhanced by, EXCEPT:
preparations. How will you explain this to him/her? A. Loop diuretics
A. Epinephrine, a selective direct-acting adrenergic agonist, constricts blood vessels; thus, lidocaine B. Spironolactone
effect will be localized. C. Salbutamol
D. None of the above
B. Epinephrine, a selective indirect-acting adrenergic agonist, constricts blood vessels; thus,
lidocaine effect will be localized.
80. 1,000 units of benzylpenicillin is equivalent to
C. Epinephrine, a non-selective direct-acting adrenergic agonist, constricts blood vessels; thus, _________: 6 1M units
600mg Pen
=

lidocaine effect will be localized. A. 0.006 mcg of Pen G

D. Epinephrine, a non-selective indirect-acting adrenergic agonist, constricts blood vessels; thus,
pnenoxy methyl penicillin
B. 600 mcg of Pen G -

lidocaine effect will be localized. C. 0.006 mcg of Pen V -

D. 600 mcg of Pen V

67. Amphetamine is under what class of drugs?
A. Direct-acting adrenergic agonist 81. True about nitroglycerin transdermal patch,
B. Indirect-acting adrenergic agonist promote NE -

release EXCEPT
C. Direct-acting adrenergic antagonist A. It must be taken off prior to taking a bath. -
-
D. Indirect-acting adrenergic antagonist B. It may be cut in order to adjust the dose being
administered.
68. A patient always include banana in his diet. He was recently prescribed with moclobemide. What C. It must be put on a hairless area.
is the expected outcome if this patient will not change his diet? D. Both A and B
A. Cholinergic crisis E. Both B and C
MAOI t SSRI serotonin syndrome =

B. Myasthenic crisis
82. Most likely common side effect of vasodilators:
C. Hypertensive crisis
A. Decongestion vasoconstrictors
-

D. Parasympathomimetic crisis
B. Headache
C. Urinary retention BPH :L , blockers
-

69. The following drugs are not recommended for a hypokalemic patient, EXCEPT: D. Both A and C
A. Bumetanide loop diuretic-

CSF :P neutrophils
hyper K
RAAS drugs
I
-

=
B. Spironolactone ✓ 83. Filgrastim is administered for what adverse effect of
Fca
C. Digoxin
TIKI
D. Lisinopril
Mg
pasok Kt inside the cell
cancer chemotherapy?
A. Anemia
✓
Insulin Bz agonist Aldosterone alkalosis)
E. Two of the above B. Neutropenia
lBAkAPkl , .
,

C. Agranulocytosis tagranulooytes
70. The following are observed when a patient has a renal disease, EXCEPT: =p
D. Leukocytosis
i. Increased serum creatinine
for RACDMARÑ
ii. Increased creatinine clearance 84. To manage hemorrhagic cystitis due to
iii. Decreased serum creatinine cyclophosphamide, ___________________ is used.
/
A. Leucovorin Methotrexate -0

A. I,II
iv. Decreased creatinine clearance
B. Folinic acid
] FDHFR
Thymidylate synthase-0
B. I,IV C. Mercaptoethanesulfonate sodium
C. II,III D. Dexrazoxane Doxorubicin cardiotoxicity
-
-

Anthracis wines)
(
D. II,IV
85. Tamoxifen, a drug used for breast cancer, becomes
71. Ethosuximide is considered to be the drug of choice for absence seizure. It exerts its effect by an antagonist in the presence of estrogen. Tamoxifen,
vessels) therefore, is a/an:
interacting with: di pines ( Blood hmmm AE :
pulmonary headache reflex
-

_ypµp
,
-

A. L-type Ca channel , , , , edema ,

A. Irreversible antagonist
tachycardia
-
'
class antiarrhythmic
B. T-type Ca channel DOC SVT
-
B. Noncompetitive antagonist
verapamil t)
-

nmppypg
-

C. L-type Na channel diltiazem C. Partial agonist breast-

endometrium (t)
D. T-type Na channel D. Both A and B bone a)

rinn Naik Atpase → ✗ Na / ca

exchanger →
Fca in → contraction
the an
72. Cardiac glycoside is 86. Which of the following drugs is used for ADHD?
A. Chronotropic HR -

A. Modafinil for narcolepsy

-

B. Dromotropic conduction velocity B. Phentermine

§
-

C. Inotropic for appetite C. Methylphenidate

D. Nootropic brain -
suppression D. Phenylpropanolamine
E. Phenmetrazine
72. Drugs used as anti-arrythmia under the Class I work by inhibiting voltage-gated sodium channels.
The following lists some of the drugs under this class. Which does NOT prolong action potential? 87. ADHD means:
A. Disopyramide A. Attention deficiency hyperactivity disorder
B. Quinidine B. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
C. Phenytoin C. Attention deficiency hyperactivity disease
D. Procainamide D. Attention deficit hyperactivity disease

73. Which beta-blocker is classified under the Class III Anti-arryhthmia? 88. The beta-blocker most commonly used as an
A. L-sotalol antidote for caffeine toxicity.
B. D-sotalol A. Sotalol
C. L-esmolol B. Timolol
cardio selective
D. D-esmolol Shortest acting
-

C. Esmolol shortest acting p blower {

-

blower
D. Nadolol -
longest acting B
74. Not recommended for patients with Grave’s Disease
A. Bretylium 89. The drug used for Wilson’s disease
F Iz ttzty : Jon Basedow phenomenon
B. Amiodarone 32-1 Iz -
A. Penicillin
II. ~ tvtzty : Wolff Chai Koff effect
.

C. Dofetilide B. Penicilliamine
-

D. Ibutilide C. Cupramine ahoy -

E. Both C and D D. Deferoxamine Fe toxicity

-

PRO arrhythmic \
/ All are
for parenteral
75. Torsades de Pointes is a harmful adverse effect of some antiarrhythmic drugs. What organ is
-
Deferasirox 1PM
affected by Torsades de Pointes?
A. Liver D. Heart
B. Brain E. Lungs
C. Kidneys
90. Centrally-acting antimuscarinics used to manage Parkinson’s Disease, EXCEPT:
A. Trihexypenidyl
B. Scopolamine
C. Biperidin
D. Benztropine ]
anti muscarinic

E. Amantadine

91. The following may be used during cholinergic crisis, EXCEPT:

A. Antihistamines -
B. Antipsychotics
C. Tricyclic antidepressants
D. Opioids
]
anticholinergic
☒ Ath

E. None of the above

92. Opioid toxicity triad, EXCEPT:

i. Pinpoint pupils ✓
ii. Mydriasis
iii. Respiratory Depression
✓
TCA overdose 13C )
iv. Comatose ✓ 's
v. Convulsion -

coma
A. II only -
convulsion
B. IV only
toxicity
cardio
-

C. V only
D. II,IV
E. II,V

93. The drug more commonly used for organophosphate toxicity before aging occurs
A. Atropine pralioloxime
-
-

B. Physostigmine 41st 24 his reversible

next 24 48hr5
-

covalent
bonding
-

C. Pralidoxime A chase regenerator

-

I Cirreversible
D. Pyridostigmine atropine

94. Which of the following drugs is not effective for the neurologic symptoms of atropine
toxicity? SA
gravis
-

A. Tensilon Edvophoniwm DX myasthenia

-
-

B. Eserine physostigmine
-

C. Mestinon Pyridostigmine
-
ANH
D. Prostigmine Neosigmire
-
-

4° amine ( cannot cross BBB

)
95. This class of drugs should be used in caution on patients taking a drug that inhibits
the nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular endplate.
A. Calcium channel blockers
B. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors rhabdomyolysis 1 skeletal muscle
C. Statins
] breakdown )
→ F' hyperthermia

D. Both B and C

96. Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a rare complication which may be due to use of
drugs that activate ryanodine receptors. What drug is used to manage MH?
A. Dantrolene contraction
B. Pancuronium * ca to muscle
C. Disulfiram
D. Mecamylamine
steroidal
-
encomium
97. Mivacurium is a: Non-steroidal curium
-

A. Steroidal, depolarizing, competitive, reversible anti-nicotinic drug

B. Non-steroidal, non-depolarizing, non-competitive,✗ -×
-
irreversible anti-nicotinic drug NCRare
-

C. Steroidal, non-depolarizing, competitive, irreversible anti-nicotinic drug

D. Non-steroidal, depolarizing, non-competitive, reversible anti-nicotinic drug
E. None of the above
Depolarizing succinyl choline
.

'
DINSS
98. True about senolytic drugs
A. Disrupt the aging process
B. Promote the aging process
C. Suppress child’s appetite
D. Enhance child’s appetite

99. Fomepizole is used to manage toxicity associated with alcohols. What enzyme does
it inhibit?
A. Alcohol dehydrogenase
B. Aldehyde dehydrogenase Disulfiram It acetaldehyde hangovers / sx)
- =

C. Carboxylic acid dehydrogenase

D. Ketone dehydrogenase

100. A patient is complaining that his constipation is not getting any better despite taking
a laxative. The pharmacist, who dispensed the drug, is being accused of selling expired
medications. However, upon patient interview, she learns that the patient takes the drug
every breakfast with milk. Which of the following is most likely the patient’s laxative?
A. Castor oil T
basic
B. Senna
C. Psyllium
effect
D. Bisacodyl premature abs of Bisawdyl → tv laxative
-

E. Mineral oil
MODULE 5 5. Choose
1. Choose K - all statements are true
K - all statements are true L - 3 statements are true
L - 3 statements are true M - 2 statements are true
M - 2 statements are true N - 1 statement is true
N - 1 statement is true O - all statements are false
O - all statements are false Philippine Pharmacy Act
I. A person has the right to affix to his/her name the title “RPh” after passing the Pharmacist
Tablet coating defects Licensure Examination. ✗
II. Pharmacy Aides are responsible for performing general housekeeping; arrangements of

:
I. Blistering is the local detachment of film from the tablet

=
substrate. the display and monitoring of the supply/inventory of pharmaceutical products; dispensing
II. Blooming is when the coating becomes dull possibly due of OTC pharmaceutical products; and may have supervised interaction with patients.
to exposure to high temperatures. III. Pharmacy Assistants are responsible for arrangements of the display and monitoring of
III. Blushing is a haziness or appearance of white specks in ✓ the supply/inventory of pharmaceutical products; compounding of formulations and
the coat. dispensing of both OTC medicines and prescription pharmaceutical products; and conduct
IV. A tablet may be said to have the appearance of an of health promotion education. ✗ Pharmacy technician
“orange peel” on account of having a rough and non-glossy
✓ IV. Pharmacy Technicians are responsible for cleaning of work areas; assisting in the

=
surface. stocking of products in the shelves and warehouse; filing of documents on orders,
deliveries, sales; and other tasks as may be assigned by the pharmacist, without direct
A. K interaction with patients. ✗ Pharmacy aides
B. L A. N B. O C. L D. M E. K
C. M 6. Tablet excipients

agendas
D. N I. Diluents add necessary bulk to prepare tablets of the desired size.
E. O II. Excess binder increases the disintegration rate of tablets. → es
III. Excess lubricant may decrease the dissolution rate of drugs.
2. Choose
K - all statements are true A. I,II, & III
L - 3 statements are true B. I & II
M - 2 statements are true C. I & III
N - 1 statement is true D. II only
O - all statements are false E. All statements are false

Types of tablets 7. Pyroxylin, Collodion, Flexible Collodion

I. Sublingual tablets are flat, oval tablets intended to be I. Pyroxylin consists chiefly of cellulose tetranitrate.
✗ 1 alcohol
dissolved in the buccal pouch for absorption through the oral II. Collodion contains pyroxylin and 3:1 alcohol:ether. → nether :

mucosa. III. Flexible Collodion contains 2% camphor and 3% castor oil. ✓

II. Lozenges or troches are disc-shaped solid dosage forms
✓
→
containing a medicinal agent and generally a flavoring A. I,II, & III
substance in a hard candy or sugar base, and are intended B. I & III
to be slowly dissolved in the oral cavity. C. II & III
III. Effervescent tablets are prepared by compressing D. I only

I
granular effervescent salts that release gas when in contact E. All statements are false
with water.
IV. Tablet triturates are small, usually cylindrical, molded, or 8. Theories of emulsification
compressed tablets containing small amounts of usually I. The surface tension theory places the emulsifying agent at the interface between oil and
-

potent drugs. water, surrounding the droplets of the internal phase as a thin layer of film adsorbed on the
surface of the drops. → plastic / interfacial film theory
A. L II. According to the plastic or interfacial film theory, the use of surface-active (surfactant) or

-
B. K wetting agents as emulsifiers and stabilizers lowers the interfacial tension of two immiscible
C. N liquids. → surface tension
D. O III. The oriented-wedge theory is based on the presumption that certain emulsifying agents
E. M orient themselves about and within a liquid in a manner reflective of their solubility in that
particular liquid.
3. Choose
K - all statements are true A. I,II,& III
L - 3 statements are true B. I & II
M - 2 statements are true C. II & III
N - 1 statement is true D. III only
O - all statements are false E. All statements are false

Isotonicity 9. Classification of solvents

I. E = 17 Liso / MW may be used to calculate the E value. ✓ I. Water is amphiprotic, meaning it acts as proton acceptor or donor. ✓
II. V = w ´ E ´ 111.1 is the formula for the White-Vincent ✓ II. Nonpolar solvents dissolve ionic solutes. ✗
method. III. Aprotic solvents neither accept nor donate protons. ✓
III. The freezing point (−0.52 °C) of human blood and lacrimal ✗ A. I,II,& III
fluid is the same as that of 0.09% NaCl.
-
B. I & II
IV. The E value is the amount of drug equivalent to 1 g of × C. I & III
NaCl. amt of Nacl D. III only
=
1g dmg E. All statements are false
A. M
B. N 10. Ethics
C. O I. Beneficence involves doing what will provide benefit to others. ✓
D. K II. Nonmaleficence is treating all people fairly and impartially. ✗ Justice
E. L
#
III. “First, do no harm” best describes the ethical principle of justice.
nonrmaieticence
4. Choose A. I,II,& III
K - all statements are true B. I & II
L - 3 statements are true C. II & III
M - 2 statements are true D. I only
N - 1 statement is true E. All statements are false
O - all statements are false
11. Choose
Liquid crystalline state V - all statements are true
I. Liquid crystals are intermediate between liquid and solid ✓ W - I and II are true
states. rtnermotwpiu
X - I and III are true
II. Lyotropic liquid crystals result from the heating of solids.
-
Y - only II is true
III. Smectic liquid crystals are threadlike liquid crystals. ✗ Z - all statements are false Sugarcoated tablets ✓
IV. Nematic liquid crystals are soaplike or greaselike liquid ✗ I. Shellac may be used in the sealing or waterproofing step.
crystals. II. Finishing attains the final smoothness of the tablets. ✓
A. O Nc- th# Hike III. Polishing attains the desired sheen of the tablets. ✓
B. M nematode stwngyloidessterwralis
-
A. V
C. K smectic soap like / grease like
- - -
B. W
D. L C. X
E. N D. Y
E. Z
12. Choose 18. Arrange the following: From most to least dipole characteristics
V - all statements are true I. Debye forces D-ID induction
-

II. London forces ID ID dispersion

-
-

W - I and II are true

X - I and III are true III. Keesom forces D- D- orientation
Y - only II is true A. II, I, III
Z - all statements are false Sugarcoated tablets B. III, I, II
Official types of injections C. I, II, III
I. For Injection refers to dry solids that, upon the addition of suitable vehicles, yield D. III, II, I
solutions conforming to requirements for Injections. ✓ E. I, III, II
II. Injectable Emulsion refers to liquid preparations of drug substances dissolved or
dispersed in a suitable emulsion medium. ✓ 19. Arrange the following: Polymorphs of cocoa butter from lowest to highest melting
0
III. For Injectable Suspension refers to liquid preparations of solids suspended in a points
I. Alpha
suitable liquid medium. ✗ *
For lnjsusp solid thinnest MP)
II. Beta most stable ; 34.5°C
-

A. W III. Gamma unstable ;1q•C honest MP)

-

B. V IV. Beta prime

C. Y A. II, IV, I, III
D. Z B. I, II, III, IV
E. X C. IV, III, II, I
D. III, IV, II, I
13. Choose E. III, I, IV, II
V - all statements are true
W - I and II are true 20. Arrange the following: From earliest to most recent
X - I and III are true I. Traditional and Alternative Medicine Act RA 8423 -1997
Y - only II is true II. Generics Act RA 6675-1988
Z - all statements are false Sugarcoated tablets III. FDA Act RA 9711 -2009
Electrolytes and Nonelectrolytes IV. CPD Act RA 10912-2016
I. Strong acids or strong bases are examples of strong electrolytes. ✓ V. Universally Accessible Cheaper and Quality Medicines Act RA 9502-2008
II. Weak electrolytes completely dissociate in solution. ✗ strong A. I, II, III, IV, V
B. III, V, IV, II, I
-

III. Nonelectrolytes have a van’t Hoff factor of 1. ✓

C. II, I, V, III, IV
A. Y D. V, IV, II, I, III
B. X E. IV, III, I, V, II
C. Z
D. V 21. Choose
E. W I - RA 3720 June 2211963
-

II - RA 9165
14. Choose III - RA 9994
V - all statements are true IV - RA 10918
W - I and II are true V - RA 11223
X - I and III are true Foods, Drugs and Devices, and Cosmetics Act
Y - only II is true A. I
Z - all statements are false Sugarcoated tablets B. II
Complexation and Protein binding C. III
I. Protein binding does not play a role in drug pharmacokinetics. × D. IV
II. A substance containing two or more donor groups may combine with a polyvalent E. V
metal ion to form a special type of complex known as a chelate.
III. Albumin has greater affinity for weakly basic drug molecules. ¥ 22. Choose
I - RA 3720
A. X Caidic II - RA 9165
B. Z
C. V ✗ 1 glycoprotein weakly bank
-
III - RA 9994
D. W IV - RA 10918
E. Y V - RA 11223
Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002
15. Choose A. III
V - all statements are true B. I
W - I and II are true C. II
X - I and III are true D. V
Y - only II is true E. IV
Z - all statements are false Sugarcoated tablets
Republic Acts 23. Choose
I. RA 7394 is also known as the Price Act. ✗ consumer I - RA 3720
II. RA 7581 is also known as the Special Law on Counterfeit Drugs. ✗ Price Act
-

II - RA 9165
-

III. RA 8203 is also known as the Consumer Act of the Philippines. ✗ special law on III - RA 9994
A. Z
-
IV - RA 10918
counterfeit
B. Y dings V - RA 11223
C. W Expanded Senior Citizens Act of 2010
D. X A. II
E. V B. IV
C. V
16. Arrange the following: D. I
Wet granulation E. III
I. Initial dry mixing①
II. Dry screening③ 24. Choose
III. Incorporation of binder solution② I - RA 3720
IV. Wet screening③ II - RA 9165
V. Drying④ III - RA 9994
VI. Compression⑦ IV - RA 10918
VII. Final dry mixing⑥ V - RA 11223
A. III, I, V, IV, VII, VI, II Philippine Pharmacy Act
B. IV, V, I, III, VI, II, VII A. V
C. I, III, IV, V, II, VII, VI B. III
D. V, II, VII, VI, I, III, IV C. IV
E. II, IV, VI, VII, III, I, V D. II
E. I
17. Arrange the following: From highest to lowest bioavailability
I. Emulsions 25. Choose
II. Suspensions I - RA 3720
III. Solutions ① II - RA 9165
IV. Uncoated tablets III - RA 9994
V. Coated tablets IV - RA 10918
VI. Granules V - RA 11223
A. V, IV, VI, II, I, III C. VI, II, V, IV, III, I E. II, VI, III, I, V, IV Universal Health Care Act
B. I, III, IV, V, II, VI D. III, I, II, VI, IV, V A. IV C. I E. II
B. V D. III
26. Identify which of the following are incorrectly matched: 26-30 ! 32. In Figure 4, the particle size measurement corresponding to I is:
Aerosol

A. II : stem
B. I : actuator
C. V : mounting cup A. Martin’s Diameter bisect #
-

D. VII : gasket diptnbe

-
B. Projected Area DiameterWI
E. IV : spring C. Feret’s Diameter
tangent
-

D. All of the above

27. Descriptive term : parts of solvent required for 1 part of solute E. None of the above
A. Soluble : from 10 to 30
B. Slightly soluble : from 100 to 1,000 33. In Figure 5, what type of prescription is shown?
C. Sparingly soluble : from 30 to 100
D. Very soluble : from 1 to 10 very not
-

< 1 ( freely rot -

I -10 )
E. Very slightly soluble : from 1,000 to 10,000

28. Rheology

µh%Ep
A. I : Newtonian flow ✓
B. II : plastic flow ✓ evident

C. III : pseudoplastic flow ✓ A. Erroneous

D. IV : dilatant flow ✓ B. Violative
E. None of the above
{ time-dependent
C. Impossible
D. No error
29. Crystal systems E. None of the above
A. Cubic : sodium chloride
B. Rhombic : iodoform rhombic : iodine 34. What to do with the type of prescription from the previous number:
C. Tetragonal : urea hexagonal iodoform
:
I. The prescription may be filled
D. Monoclinic : sucrose II. The prescription shall not be filled
E. Triclinic : boric acid III. The prescription shall be kept by the pharmacist
IV. The prescription shall be reported to a DOH Office
30. Street names of abused drugs
A. Morphine: Emma A. I only
B. Codeine : School boy B. II & III
C. I & III
C. Amphetamine : Bennies mescaline : cactus
heroin : downtown
D. II only
D. Mescaline : Downtown
E. I,III, & IV
E. Marijuana : Grass
35. The dissociation constant of ammonia is 1.8 ´ 10-5 at 25 °C. Calculate its pKb.
31. Figure 3 B is an example of a:
-10g 11.8×10 5)
A. 9.26 -

-10g lkb)
=

B. 1.8 x 10-5 pkb =

C. 25 = 4.
D. 4.74 74
E. 1.28

36. Calculatethe approximate E value for a new amphetamine hydrochloride

derivative (molecular weight 187). Because this drug is a uni-univalent salt, it has
an Liso value of 3.4.

?q¥
A. 187
B. 3.4
C. 0.02
E- 17 ✗
-

4¥ =AX =
0.31

A. One-component pressure-temperature phase diagram Fight - D. 0.15

B. Two-component solid-liquid phase diagram E. 0.31
C. Three-component / ternary phase diagram Figc -

37. What is the molar ratio, [Salt]/[Acid], required to prepare an acetate buffer of pH
D. All of the above
5.0? The pKa of the acid is 4.76 at 25 °C.
E. None of the above A. 0.24/1
B. 1/0.24
C. 1.74/1
D. 1/1.74
E. None of the above
38. A formula for an emulsion requires 50 g of an emulsifier blend 49. Continental Method of emulsion preparation
consisting of Tween 40 and Span 20. If the required HLB is 10.35, how A. Dry gum method
many grams of each emulsifier should be used in preparing the B. Wet gum method
1.75 pts 7- pts C. Method for the preparation of emulsions from volatile oils
%
=
product? "

tween40-ls-6-o.zs-g-gpg.gg#
→ "
HLB of Span 20 = 8.6 1-40
D. In situ soap method
HLB of Tween 40 = 15.6 E. None of the above
span20-G.br
A. 17.5 g Tween 40, 32.5 g Span 20 I Tog E-
37.5g 50. Syneresis
B. 37.5 g Tween 40, 12.5 g Span 20 A. Taking up of a liquid by a gel with an increase in volume swelling
-

C. 25 g Tween 40, 25 g Span 20 B. Taking up of a liquid without a measurable increase in imbibition

-

D. 12.5 g Tween 40, 37.5 g Span 20 volume

E. 32.5 g Tween 40, 17.5 g Span 20 C. Reversible gel-sol formation tnixotropy
-

D. Liquid is removed from a gel and only the framework ✗ engel -

39. A sample of calcium oxide powder with a true density of 3.203 g/ remains
cm3 and weighing 131.3 g was found to have a bulk volume of 82.0 E. The dispersing medium is squeezed out and the gel
cm3 when placed in a 100 mL graduated cylinder. Calculate the shrinks
porosity.
A. 80.5%
✓

b- ✗ 100
11.6091mn
3.20391cm
-
} \ 51. How many percent of gelatin is present in a
B. 50% glycerogelatin?
✗ 100 A. 40% glycerin
C. 19.5% ¥3 B. 35% water
D. 25.6%
E. 82% " C. 15% gelatin
%L?o9_g
" 6091M
=

density =
7- =
D. 10% API
40. What is the Hausner Ratio of a powder with a bulk volume of 100 E. All of the above
mL and a tapped volume of 92 mL?
A. 0.92 52. PEG ointment
VI.
HR
100,1m€ A. Absorption base
-_
B. 0.08 =

C. 100 Vt B. Water-soluble base

D. 92 C. Hydrocarbon base
E. 1.09 D. Water-removable base
E. All of the above
41. A solution of a drug contained 500 units/mL when prepared. It was
analyzed after 40 days and was found to contain 300 units/mL. 53. Official method of the USP for determining specific
Assuming the decomposition is first order, calculate the rate constant. gravity
A. 0.5 day-1 A. Floatation method
B. 0.0128 day-1
B. Baume method
C. 0.08 day-1
C. Manometric method
D. 0.0055 day-1
D. Westphal balance
E. 0.0003 day-1
E. Pycnometer method

42.From the previous number, how long will the drug have 54. For OTC oral products intended for children 6 to 12
decomposed to one-half of its original concentration? years of age, the recommended alcohol content limit is:
A. 54.3 days A. 1%

06,9£
t 'h= B. 0.5% < 6410
B. 40 days
-

C. 500 days C. 10% > 12410

-

D. 300 days D. 5%
E. 8.7 days E. 50%

43. In the Philippines, how much is the final discounted Senior Citizens’ 55. Used to render a coating or capsules opaque
Price if the total Retail Price of a certain drug is P 100.00? A. Sorbitol
A. P 68.00 100.00 B. Titanium dioxide
B. P89.29
less
: VAT
11,40-2--89.28:) 10.71 } C. Magnesium oxide
C. P71.43 i. 100
-

pqq.gg D. Silica
D. P80.00 Net retail qq.TT E. Lactose
E. P70.40 less 201
.
-
17.96
56. This plastic material is rigid and has good clarity,
-71.43 making it particularly useful in the blister packaging of
44. Cams of a tablet compressing machine
A. Holds/stores materials for compression hopper tablets and capsules
B. Guides materials into the die cavities feed Moe frame A. PET polyethylene terephthalate
-

C. Compresses materials to form tablets punch B. PVC polyvinyl chloride

-

D. Determine the size and shape of the tablets die C. PP polypropylene

-

E. Synchronize the movements of the compression tools D. PE polyethylene

-

E. All of the above

45. A measure of the circular force which must be applied to open or
close a container 57. Divided powders are also known as
A. Stress cracking A. Parvule
B. Corrosion B. Boluses
C. Strength C. Chartulae
D. Torque D. Cachets
E. All of the above E. All of the above

46. Which among the following produces a tough, firm film, but tends to 58. A TDDS used to prevent travel-related motion sickness
be hazy and brittle? A. Transdermal Scopolamine
A. Calf bone gelatin B. Transdermal Clonidine
B. Pork skin gelatin clear plasticity reduce cloudiness / clarity
-

,
,
C. Transdermal Nicotine
C. Seaweed gelatin D. Transdermal Estradiol
D. Synthetic gelatin E. All of the above
E. All of the above
59. Glassine paper
A. Thin, semiopaque, moisture-resistant paper veg parchment
-

47. Sodium lauryl sulfate

A. Natural emulsifying agent B. Opaque paper with no moisture-resistant properties white bond paper
-

B. Finely divided solid C. Transparent waterproof paper way paper

-

C. Cationic surfactant D. Glazed, transparent, moisture-resistant paper

D. Anionic surfactant
E. Non-ionic surfactant 60. The term “impalpable” refers to a substance that is
A. Colorless
48. Spiritus Vini Vitis B. Tasteless
A. Whisky Spiritus fmmenti
-
C. Not perceptible to touch
B. Brandy D. Greasy
C. Rum E. All of the above
D. Beer
E. Wine
61. Syrups are prepared by 73. Contact angle exhibited by complete nonwetting
A. Solution with heat A. 0º complete wetting
-

+ contact angle Ineffability

B. 90º
B. Agitation without heat
C. 180º
C. Addition of sucrose to a liquid medication or flavored liquid D. 360º
D. Percolation E. All of the above
E. All of the above
74. Process to solidify and improve shelf-life of fixed oil
62. The most inert grade of stainless steel used for high grade products A. Hydrogenation
A. SS 316 B. Rancidification
B. SS 304 C. Halogenation
C. SS 3004 D. Bromination
D. SS 3016 E. All of the above
E. All of the above
75. The zigzag motion of colloidal particles
63. What does cGMP stand for? A. Tyndall effect
A. Common Good Manufacturing Practices B. Diffusion
C. Brownian movement
B. Current Good Manufacturing Practices
D. Light scattering
C. Current General Manufacturing Program
E. All of the above
D. Current General Manufacturing Practices
E. None of the above 76. Appropriate dosage form to be given to a patient who is vomiting
A. Suspension
64. HEPA filters are used for the filtration of: B. Suppository
A. Parenterals C. Chewable tablet
B. Ophthalmics D. Syrup
C. Solvents E. All of the above
D. Air
E. All of the above 77. Locally applied solutions that constrict pores and precipitate protein
A. Liniment
65. Mechanism of action in dry heat sterilization B. Tincture
A. Protein coagulation i moist heat 1 steam autoclave 11210 C)
-

C. Astringent
B. Alkylation D. Collodion
C. Physical separation E. None of the above
D. Mutation
E. Oxidation oven 1130 -170° C)
-

78. Which among the following capsule sizes is the largest?

A. 5 smallest
-

66. Which phrase/s is/are included under the definition of cosmetics? B. 1

A. Intended to be placed in contact with the various external parts of the ✓ C. 0
human body D. 00
B. Intended to be placed in contact with the teeth and the mucous ✓ E. 000 for vet
-

membranes of the oral cavity

C. Intended for use with a view exclusively or mainly for cleaning, perfuming, ✓ r base
79. Type of gelatin obtained by alkaline processing
changing the appearance and/or correcting body odor, and/or protecting the A. Type A acidic
-
-

body B. Type B
D. All of the above C. Type C
E. None of the above D. Type D
E. All of the above
67. Intended to be used for animals
A. Veterinary productS 80. Combinations of drugs which liquefy due to lowering of their melting
B. Food point
C. Drugs A. Hygroscopic
D. Medical devices B. Deliquescent
E. Cosmetics C. Efflorescent
D. Eutectic mixtures
68. Ocular administration involves the treatment of which area? E. All of the above
A. The skin
B. The ears 81. Peppermint Spirit is prepared by:
C. The eyes A. Solution with maceration
D. The lungs B. Simple solution aromatic spirit of
-

ammonia
E. None of the above C. Solution by chemical reaction ethyl
-
nitrite spirit
D. Distillation
69. The following are advantages of plastic over glass, EXCEPT: E. None of the above
A. Permeability , teaching sorption light transmission alteration
, , , upon storage
B. Lightness of weight 82. Aromatic Water
C. Reduced costs A. A preparation that typically is a clear, flavored, sweetened
D. Durability hydroalcoholic solution intended for oral use elixir 15-40 1. alcohol)
-
'

E. All of the above B. A clear, saturated, aqueous solution of volatile oils or other aromatic
or volatile substances
70. TDDSs may be constructed of a number of layers, including a drug C. An alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solution prepared from vegetable
reservoir or matrix system: materials or from chemical substances tincture 115-0001 alcohol)
-

A. To protect the system from environmental entry and from loss of drug D. A liquid dosage form composed of an alcoholic or hydroalcoholic
from the system or moisture from the skin occlusive balking layer
-

solution of volatile substances spirit / essence L > 601 alcohol)

-
.

B. To store and release the drug at the skin site E. All of the abovE
C. Which is removed before application and enables drug release release -

liner
D. To maintain contact with the skin after application adhesive layer
-

83. Which of the following excipients can serve as a filler, disintegrant,

E. None of the above and/or binder in a tablet formulation?
A. Starch
71. Mesh number B. Lactose
A. Number of square openings per linear inch -
soli
- - - -

C. Na starch glycolate
B. Number of square inches per linear opening D. Microcrystalline cellulose
C. Number of linear openings per square inch E. None of the above
D. Number of linear inches per square opening
E. None of the above 84. This antimicrobial preservative is associated with the gasping
t Zeta potential tu flocculation
r
syndrome in neonates
72. Which substance decreases the zeta potential of the suspended charged
- A. Phenol
particles and thus causes agglomeration of the particles? B. Chlorobutanol
A. Emulsifying agent C. Benzyl alcohol
B. Viscosity-enhancing agent D. Thimerosal
C. Surface-active agent E. None of the above
D. Flocculating agent
E. None of the above
85. BCS (Biopharmaceutics Classification System) Class II 97. Policy-making and strategy-formulating body in the planning
A. High solubility, Low permeability class II neo CARE
- -

and formulation of policies and programs on drug prevention and

B. High solubility, High permeability class I
-

DT MVP
-

control
C. Low solubility, Low permeability class# Fun HBC A. PDEA implementing body
-
-

D. Low solubility, High permeability -

class II B. DDB
Pheny BINGE
-

E. All of the above C. DOH

D. All of the above
86. Required temperature, pressure, and time for moist heat sterilization E. None of the above
A. 180 °C, 15 psi, 10 to 15 mins.
B. 121 °C, 30 psi, 30 to 35 mins. 98. According to the Generics Act, this is a list of drugs used
C. 121 °C, 15 psi, 15 to 20 mins. when there is no response to a drug in the core list
D. 650 °C, 25 psi, 1 to 6 mins. A. Essential drugs list core + complementary
-

E. AOTA B. Complementary list

C. Supplementary list
D. Philippine National Formulary (PNF)
87. Most biologicals are stored at which temperature
E. All of the above
A. 35.6 to 46.4 °F 2- 8°C
of 1,8°C t 32
=
B. 8 to 12 °C 99. The Board of Pharmacy shall be appointed by the
C. 2 to 8 °F 9C 51=-160
=
A. Civil Service Commissioner
D. 92.5 to 98.7 °F B. Secretary of Health
E. All of the above C. Secretary of Education
D. President of the Philippines
88. The cryogenic vessel shall be properly labeled and color coded according to the E. All of the above
medical gas contained in the vessel. Which of the following color-code is used for
medical oxygen? 100. A counterfeit pharmaceutical product contains less than how
A. Yellow many percent of the active ingredient it purports to possess?
B. Gray A. 75%
C. Brown B. 60%
D. Green C. 85%
E. All of the above D. 80%
E. All of the above
89. This type of container protects the contents from loss of the article; and from
efflorescence, deliquescence, or evaporation BONUS QUESTIONS
A. Tight Which of the ff is the heart of the production area?
B. Hermetic impervious
A. Compounding area
-

C. Well-closed protect from extraneous solids

B. Aseptic filling area
-

D. Flint w/ light resistance

-

C. Materials support area

E. All of the above
D. Quarantine area
90. Substances labeled with radioisotope and used for diagnostic imaging or therapy
Which of the ff is the heart of the drug supply
A. Food
system?
B. Drugs
C. Medical devices A. Formulary management
D. Cosmetics B. PT&C
E. Radiopharmaceuticals C. Inventory management
D. Drug procurement
91. Encompasses any technique that uses living organisms (e.g., microorganisms) in
the production or modification of products
A. Pharmaceutics
B. Biotechnology
C. Pharmaceutical manufacturing
D. Microbiology
E. Biochemistry

92. This states that the rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square
root of its density
A. Ideal gas law pV=nRT
B. Raoult’s law vapor pressure lowering
-

C. Dalton’s law partial pressure

-

D. Graham’s law
E. All of the above

93. Denoted by force per unit area

A. Work Force ✗ distance
1¥)
-

in position
B. Velocity displacement / change
-

C. Pressure
D. Acceleration rate of change in velocity
E. All of the above
-

(F)
94. Isometric (isochoric)
A. Constant heat adiabatic -

B. Constant temperature isothermal -

C. Constant volume
D. Constant pressure isobaric -

E. All of the above

95. Bingham bodies

A. Newtonian flow
B. Plastic flow
C. Pseudoplastic flow
D. Dilatant flow
E. All of the above

96. Colligative properties

A. Depend on the total contribution of the atoms in the molecule or on the sum of the
properties of the constituents in a solution Additive
-

B. Depend on the arrangement and to a lesser extent on the number and kind of atoms
within a molecule constitutive
-

C. Depend mainly on the number of particles in a solution colligatiue

-

D. All of the above

E. None of the above
MODULE 6 14. Match the instrument with the physical constant
it measures:
1. A process wherein a sample is made to liberate iodine, which is then titrated with a standard solution of I. Specific gravity
sodium thiosulfate: II. Solubility
A. Direct titration III. Refractive index
B. Residual titration IV. Optical activity
C. Iodometry V. Boiling point
-

indirect
D. Iodimetry direct
-

Polarimeter
2. What is the indicator used in iodimetry and iodometry?
A. III
A. Phenolphthalein B. II
B. Ferric alum volhard
-

C. V
C. Hydroxynaphthol blue Cart -

D. IV
D. Starch
15. Match the instrument with the physical constant
3. In microbial assay, the instrumental method used to prepare the inoculum is: it measures:
A. Turbidimetry transmitted light
-

I. Specific gravity
B. Nephelometry reflected light
-

II. Solubility
C. Paper chromatography III. Refractive index
D. Column chromatography IV. Optical activity
V. Boiling point
4. In blank determination, all steps of the analysis are performed in the absence of the ______
A. Analyte Pycnometer and Westphal Balance
B. Primary standard
C. Secondary standard A. I
B. III
D. Indicator
C. V
D. IV
5. A substance that has a high degree of purity and is used in direct standardization purposes:
A. Technical grade 16. Methods of Iodine determination, EXCEPT
B. Primary standard A. Hanus Iodine 4 Bromine in glacial acetic acid
-

C. Secondary standard B. Wij Iz monochloride 'm glacial acetic acid

-

D. Cp grade C. Hubl unofficial

-

D. Fischer water determination

-

6. Type of error which causes data to be scattered more or less asymmetrically around a mean value;
reflected by precision of measurement 17. Cassia flask is used in the determination of:
A. Systematic A. Aldehyde and ketone content
B. Determinate
] same ; accuracy B. Alcohol content Acetylitationflabh
-

C. Gross C. Nitrogen content Kjeldahtl flash

-

D. Random Indeterminate D. Volatile oil content Babcock flask

-

7. Endpoint that is shown by a change in color of the solution being titrated 18. Statement that does not apply to Cupric sulfate
A. Theoretical endpoint have already reacted happens before the A. Gains electrons
equivalent aunt of substances ;

] B. Oxidizing agent
-

B. Stoichiometric endpoint same practical endpoint

C. Reducing agent
C. Equivalence point
D. Reduced in a redox reaction
D. Practical endpoint ltxperimental
19. Undergoes Direct EDTA Titration, EXCEPT:
8. The theoretical point at which the added titrant is chemically equivalent to the analyte in the sample. A. Al 3T indirect Alibi indirect
-

at
A. Stoichiometric point B. Ca
eaimqitn direct -

B. End point C. Mg at

C. Equivalence point D. Zn 2T
D. Both A and C
20. Method used to assay sulfa and aryl-amino
9. The indicator used when titrating weak acid with a strong base? containing compounds
A. Ferric ammonium sulfate V01 hard
-

A. Permanganate
B. Methyl red -

satsblako methyl orange phenolphthalein)

,
B. Titration with bromine
C. Phenolphthalein C. Dichromate
SATWB methyl red
-

D. Ceric sulfate
D. Dichlorofluorescein -

Fajans ed elbow E. Diazotization

colorless ink
10. What is the color of phenolphthalein in vinegar?
enow ed 21. It refers to the direct or residual analysis of
A. Pink enow reen acids using standard basic solutions:
B. Blue enow A. Kjeldahl
C. Yellow elton the
B. Acidimetry
D. Colorless elton the
C. Alkalimetry
D. Compleximetry
11. Used to determine the concentration of a metal in the presence of another metal
A. Demasking agent 22. What is the method of analysis involved in the
B. Masking agent assay of sodium hydroxide?
C. Complexing agent A. Direct acidimetry
D. Formation constant B. Direct alkalimetry
C. Direct compleximetry
12. Temperature for ignition described as Dull red heat D. Direct precipitimetry
A. 500-550 °C very dull
-

B. 550-700 °C 23. What is the method of analysis in the assay of

C. 800-1000 °C bright aspirin capsules?
D. 1000-1200 °C yellow A. Direct acidimetry
E. 1200-1600 °C white B. Residual acidimetry
C. Direct alkalimetry
D. Residual alkalimetry
13. Match the instrument with the physical constant it measures:
I. Specific gravity
24. What is the other term for Koettsdorfer number?
II. Solubility
A. Acid value
III. Refractive index
B. Iodine value
IV. Optical activity
C. Saponification value AV 1- EV-

V. Boiling point
D. Ester value
Abbe refractometer
25. Compute for the saponification value of a
sample if its acid value is 4.58 and its ester value is
A. IV
7.62
B. II
A. 12.2 C. 1.66
C. III
B. 3.04 D. 34.9
D. V
26. Determine the iodine value of a sample of olive oil weighing 0.2100 g if 40. In phenol content determination of a volatile oil, the layer in the
graduated neck of the Cassia flask reached 3.7 ml obtained from a
24.15 ml and 12.00 ml of 0.1100 N sodium thiosulfate solution were used for
sample of 15 ml after treatment with KOH solution. The percentage of
the blank and residual titrations, respectively.

(www.B?L-,:jYmdx0k#
oil is:

(m;}jI)
A. 80.5 ✗ 100 A. 73.45%
µ= ✗100
B. 80.6 B. 86.75%
C. 80.7 C. 75.33%
D. 80.8 Iv 80.8 D. 89.43% 75-331
=
=
,

27. Type of oils whose iodine number is more than 120: 41. The most effective way to clean glass apparatus:
A. Drying oils > 120 linseed iwd A. Soaking in detergent
120 cottonseed sesame
B. Semi-drying oils 100
-

,
B. Rinsing with nitric acid
C. Nondrying oils < 100 olive almond C. Treatment with a solution of sodium chromate in sulfuric acid
→Éi
,

D. None of the above D. Washing with acetic acid

28. Two substances reacting upon reaching the endpoint must have the 42. The law of spectrometry which states that the power of transmitted
same: radiant beam decreases exponentially as the concentration of the
A. Volume solution containing the absorbing chemical species increases
B. Normality A. Beer’s law
B. Lambert’s law / Bougher 's thickness
-

C. Number of equivalents
C. Newton’s law
D. Weight
D. Charles’ law
29. Malic acid in cherry juice may be determined by: 43. Materials to be sampled include the following, except:
A. Direct permanganometry 14202 ti 02
-

, A. Final products
B. Indirect permanganometry B. Raw materials
C. Residual permanganometry NaN On KNO } , C. Intermediate products
D. Iodimetry D. Records

30. The valence number of Mn in KMnO4 is: 44. Materials being controlled by the QC department, except:
A. +1 Kt Mn t 40 = 0 A. Active ingredient
B. +3 1- 1- Mnt Ct . -

2) = 0 B. Excipient
C. +5 C. Finished product
lo 0
It M n - =
D. Package
D. +7
mn =
g- I

31. The solvent of choice for fats and fixed oils. 45. It is the one responsible for the test and measure of materials and
A. Distilled water products
A. Total quality management
B. N-hexane
B. Quality control
C. 80% ethanol
C. cGMP
D. Chloroform D. Quality assurance establish system
-

32. Among the precipitimetric methods of titration, which of the following is a 46. Total quality means
residual titration? A. Quality is everyone’s business
A. Volhard B. Quality combines strict adherence to standards
B. Mohr C. Production is responsible for quality
C. Fajan’s D. AOTA
D. Karl Fischer
47. It is the sum of all factors which contribute directly or indirectly to the
33. The unit of wavelength in spectrometry, except: safety, effectiveness, and reliability of a product
A. Nanometer A. Safety eudpt ! impalpable core

iii.
B. Micron B. Purity

✓
C. Quality wires
C. Millimeter 10 mem
D. Micrometer D. Efficacy
in ..

48. The basket rack assembly is a component of which instrument?

34. Chromatography can be used to separate compounds that are
A. Hardness tester

I
A. Colored
B. Friabilator
B. Colorless C. Dissolution apparatus
C. Turbid D. Disintegration apparatus
D. A and B
49. Content uniformity is to be performed for all tablets whose active
35. A 25-gram sample of NaHCO3 consumed 15.00 mL of 1 N Sulfuric Acid ingredient is

=(1N×";;Y×%%" /
VS. Determine the % NaHCO3. A. Less than 50 mg
A. 6.07% ? ¥ iianw
,
B. Less than 100 mg
B. 7.89% MW woo C. 50-100 mg
-4=12
C. 4.38%
NqÉ 1)
=P 3=3×16--4@ D. More than 50 mg weight variation
-

D. 5.04%
50. What is the number of tablets required in weight variation test?
36. Calculate the water content of Amoxicillin powder using a 3.50 g sample. A. 10
The water equivalence factor is 4.6 and the volume consumed is 9.2 ml. B. 15
A. 1.21 C. 20
M ✗ too
(27%14)×100
B. 12.1 = 1.21 D. 25
C. 121.0 sxcmg)
D. 112.1

37. Which is not a component of Karl Fischer reagent?

A. Pyridine prevent reversal of rxn
-

B. Iodine -

reacts w/ HO
C. Methanol prevent pyridine son complex
-
-

D. Sulfuric acid 502 dapat

-

38. The indicator used for the titration of calcium using EDTA
A. Eriochrome black
B. Hydroxynaphthol blue
C. Malachite green
D. Methyl orange

39. Compute for the normality of a 1L solution containing 24.5 g H2SO4

N=÷=%;;=o
(MW:98 g/mole)
-
A. 0.25 D. 1.25 .

B. 0.50
C. 0.75
51. Using a spectrophotometer to measure the concentration of the sample, the 65. In normal phase chromatography:
following data were obtained: A. Stationary and mobile phases are polar
Absorbance of standard solution= 0.225 B. Stationary and mobile phases are nonpolar

0.2¥
0.225 C. Stationary phase is nonpolar; mobile phase is polar
Absorbance of sample solution=0.214 =
D. Stationary phase is polar; mobile phase is nonpolar
Concentration of standard solution=17.7 mcg
What is the concentration of the sample solution? -17.7mg
A. 16.8 mcg 66. Media temperature for dissolution testing
= 16.83mg
✗

tbh f-
Ab÷dy
B. 18.6 mcg =
A. 37 + 0.5 ºC
C. 19.7 mcg B. 37 + 2 ºC disintegration
-

concsx
D. 16.9 mcg C. 37 + 0.2 ºC
D. 37 + 3 ºC
52. A hardness tester that operates on the same mechanical principle as ordinary
pliers 67. The most preferred medium in dissolution testing
A. Stokes-Monsanto spring
- A. Hexane
B. Pfizer B. Water
C. Strong-Cobb air pump
- C. Gastric fluid
D. Schleuniger horizontal anvil
- D. Intestinal fluid
Erweka -

suspended weight
53. Instrument used to determine the tightness of a cap 68. The efficiency of HEPA filters is assessed using
A. Crimper A. Water attack test type II glass
-

B. Torque tester B. Bubble point test

C. Resistor C. Pyrogen test
D. Erweka HT D. Dioctylphthalate test

54. Which of the following methods can be used in visualizing separated 69. Calculate the weight of oxalic acid required to prepare 1000 ml of 0.5 N of
components that are colorless? the solution. MW=126
A. Charring using sulfuric acid
B. Use of iodine crystals
A. 36.5 g
B. 65.3 g
g- Nxml -1
-

[÷ooo
C. 31.5 g =
o.SN ✗ 1000Mt

1¥00
C. Examination using UV radiation ✗

D. All of these D. 56.3 g

=

31.5g
55. LAL is an aqueous extract of the circulating amebocytes obtained from 70. The dye used in leaker’s test
A. Horse A. Thymol blue
B. Crab B. Methylene blue
C. Horseshoe crab C. Methyl red
D. Mice D. Phenolphthalein

56. What biological animal is used when conducting pyrogen test? 71. The gas used in sterilization
A. Dog A. Carbon dioxide
B. Cat B. Oxygen
C. Rat C. Nitrogen
D. Rabbit D. Ethylene oxide B. subtilis var globigii
-

57. Which of the following is NOT a principle of separation in chromatography? 72. The first line defense against viruses is
A. Absorption A. Interferon
B. Adsorption B. Igm
C. Ion-exchange C. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
D. Molecular exclusion D. Macrophage

58. Turbidimetric and nephelometric methods of assay analyze what type/s of 73. Refers to the likelihood that a particular hazard will occur
samples? A. Accident
A. Suspension B. Incident
B. Solution C. Risk
C. Turbid solution D. Hazard potential to course harm
-

D. Both A and C
74. The form of genetic exchange in which donor DNA is introduced to the
59. Potentiometry finds application in: recipient by a bacterial virus is
A. Biologic assay A. Transformation
B. pH determination B. Conjugation
C. Qualitative assay C. Transfection
D. Toxicity testing D. Transduction

60. The method of choice of determining the alcohol content of pharmaceutical 75. Which major antibody molecule has the ability to cross the placenta?
preparations A. IgG
A. Specific gravity determination B. IgM
B. Percolation C. IgA
C. Fractional distillation D. IgE
D. Cryoscopic method
76. Its main objective is attainment by all people of the highest possible level of
61. The following can be sterilized in an autoclave, except health William Campbell -
Ivermectin
A. Olive oil
B. Culture media
A. DOH
B. WHO
Nobel
prize
[ Emil von
Behring
-

diphtheria
You you Artemisinin
-

C. Water C. RHU
D. Glassware D. FDA

62. The first-in first-out (FIFO) policy must always be observed to 77. Which staining method is used to identify spore formers?
A. Prevent cross-contamination A. Gram stain
B. Prevent microbial spoilage B. Schauffer-Fulton
- -

C. Assure that the oldest stock is used first C. Acid fast

D. Contain information regarding the activity of the active ingredient D. Feulgen

78. Culture media that grows cholera Faso for treponema

63. The most widely used chromatographic method in drug analysis is
A. GC A. Thayer-Martin
B. TLC B. SDA
C. HPLC C. Skirrow’s
D. PC D. TCBS
/
Barbie
64. Gas chromatography is used to assay the following drugs, except:
-

A. Vitamin E
B. Barbiturates
C. Vitamin B1 and B2 Fluowmetry
-

D. NOTA
 93. An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus
79. Blocks acetylcholine release and causes flaccid paralysis
aureus has occured in the nursery. You are called to
A. Clostridium tetani spastic paralysis
-

investigate. According to your knowledge of the

B. Clostridium botulinum normal flora, what is the most likely source of the
C. Clostridium perfringens glycine main inhibitory NT in spinal
-

cord
'
gas gangrene
bacteria?
D. Clostridium difficile Doc vancomycin PO PH
' -
metronidazole Lin ) ,
main AE : rash A. Colon
Pblnohmembranous colitis caused by clindamycin Ampicillin B. Nose
-

,
,
Fidaxomicin
80. Organism that causes Leningrad’s curse/Beaver fever C. Throat
A. Streptococcus pyogenes D. Vagina
B. Giardia lambia
C. Ricketsia rickettsii 94. The region of the body that contains the largest
D. Borrelia recurrentis population of microbial flora:

HNdiseases.tn
A. Skin
81. DOC for candidiasis parvum B. Colon
diarrhea -

Cryptosporidium C. Vagina
A. Griseofulvin DOC Demnatophytosis
( meningitis Cryptococcus
-

neoformans
B. Amphotericin B Doc systemic mycosis
-
-

D. Mouth
C. Nystatin
95. DOC for Strongyloides stercularis
D. Fluconazole DOC Cryptococcus
-

A. Thiabendazole
B. Ivermectin alternative ; Doc eye worm Concho cere a volvulus)
-

82. The “four o’ clock habit” promoted by the DOH is designed to prevent the spread of: C. Diethylcarbamazine Wuctrureriabancrofiti Bmgia Malay i
-

A. Dengue fever D. Praziquantel cestode ltapeworm)

-
,

B. Tuberculosis '
worm paralysis * nematode -

roundworm
C. Malnutrition * trematode -

flukes
96. New world hookworm
D. Malaria old world
hÉmA. Ancylostoma duodenale * Trichur's triclinium -

whip worm
\
# B. Enterobius vermicularis DOC Mebendatole
seatw
pinworm /
* Enter bins - pinworm
83. In clinical cases of Malaria, the most favorable time to find parasites in the blood is C. Necator americanus vermicular's -

pocpyrantetpounoate
A. The period before a paroxysm D. Strongyloides stercularis -

thread worm
B. At the beginning of paroxysm cysticercus's
-
t . soliumlporkr) T . saginata -

beef
C. During the paroxysmal stage 97. Lesions in the oral cavity caused by measles virus
D. The period following paroxysm are known as:
A. Koplik spots
form
pina Kamala lang B. Peyer’s patch
84. Administration of a vaccine confers: -
most common in Ptl
A. Artificially acquired active immunity C. Rose spot typhoid Salmonella typhi
-
-

B. Artificially acquired passive immunity D. Rashes

C. Naturally acquired active immunity [
Immunoglobulins
D. Naturally acquired passive immunity Vertical
98. DOC for Trichomonas vaginalis
) A. Metronidazole Doc anaerobic ( baba) e. g. giardina's trichomoniasis
'

transmission 1 mother to child

-
,

B. Na stibogluconate \ psendomembranous colitis

85. Which of the following forms of immunity would be least likely to be lifelong? DOC leishmaniasis 1
C. Nifurtimox DOC Trypanosoma
-
sandfly)
cruzi ( also Bentnid 9701 e)
A. Passive immunity D. Chloroquine at prolongation also Azithromycin Quinine Thioridatine
-

:
,

B. Active immunity Clindamycin

-
DOC anaerobic ( tans)
,

C. Cell-mediated immunity 99. The disinfectant of choice for municipal water

D. Passive-active immunity supplies:
A. Lysol
86. A process by which bacterial endospore returns to its vegetative state: B. Chlorine
A. Polymorphism C. Ozone
B. Mutagenicity D. Reverse osmosis
C. Germination cell
D. Sporulation spore formation w/ in a vegetative
- 100. An index that measures the number of
individuals who have become ill because of a specific
87. The causative agent of food poisoning, TSS, and skin boils disease within a susceptible population during a
A. Staphylococcus aureus specific period:
traveler 's diarrhea
A. Morbidity rate
B. Staphylococcus pyogenes ETEC
-

B. Prevalence rate
C. Staphylococcus pneumoniae I E. coli)
C. Mortality rate
D. Staphylococcus epidermidis EHEC shigella like
dysentery D. Incidence rate
-
-

88. The causative agent of herpes genitalis, which can be treated with Acyclovir
A. HSV-1 BONUS QUESTIONS
B. Varicella-zoster virus What is the CDC biosafety level of ebola virus?
C. HSV-2 A. 1
D. Cytomegalovirus B. 2
C. 3
89. Wild birds are important reservoir of this virus D. 4
A. Hepatitis C
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Human papilloma virus
D. St. Louis encephalitis virus

90. Reservoir host of Balantidium coli infection SARS -

Cov -
2: virus
A. Dog Fst protozoal parasite in man writs -19 : Disease

B. Cat What antibiotic is given to nasal carriers of

C. Pig staphylococcus aureus?
D. Cattle A. Amoxicillin
B. Co-amoxiclav
91. A type of malnutrition associated with inadequate mastication, digestion, absorption, transport, and C. Mupirocin
excretion of nutrients
A. Primary malnutrition inadequate intake of nutrients
-

B. Secondary malnutrition
C. Undernutrition
D. Overnutrition

92. Which of the following information about Ebola virus is/are true?
I. There’s no cure for Ebola ✓
II. Ebola wreaks life-threatening havoc within the body by attacking multiple organ systems at the same ✓
time
III. Experts stress that early and intense medical care can greatly improve a person’s chance of survival ✓
A. I
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,II,III
 MODULE 1 13. Gifford’s buffer composition:
1. Molecules with polar and non-polar ends are called: A. Boric acid, NaCl, Na2CO3, water Atlkindhpatkin -

A. Isomers same molecular formula but different structure /

-
"

mirror -

images
"
→ pH7 -8.2
B. Boric acid, NaCl, sodium borate, water → Feldmann :

B. Dipolar both negatively positive end / charges

-

C. Boric acid, KCl, sodium borate, water PH 7-9 Paiitzsch :

C. Amphoteric has acid { base properties

-

D. Sodium phosphates, NaCl Sorensen -

D. Amphiphilic/ Ampniphatic
Ampni -
possess 2 properties 14. Property shown by atoms which have an unpaired valence orbital,
2. Chemically, Koppeschaar’s solution is thereby having a slight tendency to be attracted in magnetic fields.
A. Iodobromide solution A. Paramagnetism
B. Bromine, tenth normal solution _KBr0z4kBr in H2O B. Diamagnetism do not have an unpaired valence orbital dyno tendency
-

to
C. Bromine-Acetic acid solution C. Ferromagnetism be attracted
D. Bromine TS D. Temporary magnetism

3. Which of the following compounds is a 5-sulfamoylanthranilic acid 15. Lunge test is a confirmatory test for nitrate and produces a blue color.
derivative?
-
Which of the following is used in Lunge test?
looks like sulfonamide A. Pyridine-acetic anhydride Denige 's test -

A. Furosemide sulfonamide loop diuretic

-

B. Calcium chloride + acetic acid

B. Cocaine
☒ y"°#
H
C. Diphenylamine + sulfuric acid
C. Triamterene carbon
loallonol
2) acid D. Ferrous sulfate + acetic acid
D. Sulfadiazinemagnesium I H H
H R

alkyypyygy-Haloglni.FI
" '
'
formaldehyde 0

4. Grignard reaction of acetone will yield what?

R H jE"°☒* 2091Wh "
16. Main organ for drug excretion
A. Liver → main organ for metabolism

f-
2) acid
-

A. Primary alcohol C=O Aldehyde R n B. Kidney

B. Secondary alcohol carbonyl o C. Stomach → for digestion
DRMGX
" 0 R
C. Tertiary alcohol It
☒ D. Small intestine → for absorption
ketone siaiwnol
~ →
D. Any of the above R R David

t.tl#oFphobi9-genotoxiuity
ketone 17. Which part of the structure of quinolones is responsible for the
5. The ratio of the concentration of a drug in two immiscible phases phototoxicity and extreme sensitivity to sunlight of patients taking this type of
A. Concentration ratio drug?
B. Miscibility ratio A. Fluorine at position 6
C. Partial miscibility B. Piperazynyl substitution at position 7
D. Lipid/water partition coefficient C. Halogen at position 8
D. None of the above
6. Which of the following may induce metabolism of other drugs?
18. Drug of choice for status epilepticus
I. Phenobarbital ✓
A. Ethosuximide
II. Ketoconazole ( inhibitor)
B. Lamotrigine
III. Meprobamate anticonvulsant ✓
-

C. Valproic acid
IV. Chronic Alcoholism ✓
D. Lorazepam
A. I,II, and III only Old DOC : Diazepam
B. I & IV only
19. A phenol coefficient more than 1 means that:
C. I,II,III, & IV
A. The test disinfectant is more effective than phenol
D. I,III, & IV only
meprobamate B. The test disinfectant has the same efficacy with phenol
E. I only
C. The test disinfectant is less effective than phenol → If

A. Pentamidine
PC.CI/Trypanokomabmceivarrh0desieuse
7. A higher molecular weight bisurea derivative containing six sulfonic
acid groups as their sodium salts
20. The absorption of iron is increased by:
A. Vitamin E * seabsorptim
vitamin Ditch
D. The test disinfectant is too toxic to be used

absorption
B. Suramin → sur ANIM :tx
Early Eastn-fricansieepingsickness-FC.cn absorption
-

B. Vitamin B12
C. Glycobiarsol
C. Vitamin C tacidicenv 't Fte absorption
D. Clioquinol
D. Two of the above
to Frit B12 absorption , YOU need It !
8. Concentration of selenium in selenium shampoo (Selsun suspension)
21. This metal is used for the surgical repair of bones because it is
used as anti-dandruff.
unaffected by body fluids.
A. 25%
A. Titanium reactive to body fluids ; hsedinsmrgical implants
-

B. 5%
B. Technetium ' radioactive agent tioz pacifying agent solar my protective
-

- :O
,
C. 2.5% usedinct scan MRI
C. Thallium /
D. 50%
D. Tantalum
(
alternative txnorcuistosomiasis
9. Which is the iodide of choice because of its stability in air?
22. Antimony potassium tartrate is no longer used as an emetic because it is:
A. Sodium iodide -
A. Unstable
B. Potassium iodide kiss strong iodine tincture
-

,
B. Too reactive in vivo
C. Ammonium iodide
C. Insoluble
D. Mercuric iodide
uranium
D. Toxic
a
glass
10. Vaseline glass is a term for the transparent yellow to yellow-green
23. He proposed the Plum pudding model
glass that owes its color to its ________ content. James Chadwick : discovered
A. Ernest Rutherford gold foil expt -

neutrons
A. Iron
B. Niels Bohr planetary model
-
-0 -0
B. Barium ①
C. J.J. Thomson disc electrons→
①
.

① -0
C. Borate
D. Erwin Schrodinger
D. Uranium '
Quantum model

24. As Van der waals forces decrease, the polarity __________.

11. Which among the following has the greatest ionization energy?
¢-17 Atomic size / radius A. Decreases

1¥:L!!.IE?almemiopnperm
A. Strontium
B. Increases
B. Phosphorus Electron
affinity to -

C. Doesn’t change
C. Chlorine
D. Cannot be determined
D. Potassium
E. Helium
25. Method of sterilizing sodium bicarbonate for parenteral use:
A. Autoclaving
12. The following statements about fluorine are true, EXCEPT:
B. Heating in an open vessel and re-saturating with sterile carbon dioxide
I. It is a soft, dark grey crystalline solid with metallic sheen. ✗ Iodine
C. Bacteriological filtration
II. It attacks all metals except gold and platinum at ordinary
D. All of the above
temperatures
III. It is the halogen usually used as water disinfectant ✗ chlorine
26. A positive result of pale yellow precipitate in Zinc Uranyl Acetate test
IV. It is the strongest oxidizing agent.
indicates:
A. Lithium
A. I,II
B. Sodium
B. I,III
C. Potassium
C. I,IV
D. Ammonium
D. II,III
?⃝
27. What part of the flame is used for oxidation of substances dissolved in borax, sodium 41. Which of the following is used as an alternative when a patient is
carbonate, and microsomic salt? allergic to penicillins?
A. Lower oxidizing zone A. Spectinomycin
B. Upper oxidizing zone B. Erythromycin macrolides -

C. Lower temperature zone C. Lincomycin

D. Upper reducing zone D. Streptomycin

28. The structure of cephalosporins has a beta lactam ring and a _________ ring. 42. Three Bromides Elixir contains bromides of sodium, potassium, and
A. Thiazolidine for penicillin
-

ammonium lithium. It is used as a CNS depressant for its sedative action.

-

B. Dihydrothiazine A. Only the first statement is true.

C. Macrocyclic lactone macrolides -
B. Only the first statement is false.
D. Benzothiazepine C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
-
kidney
29. The most effective way to clean glass apparatus: damage
43. Primary HCO3 excess
A. Soaking in detergent A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Rinsing with nitric acid B. Metabolic alkalosis kidneys main production of Hwy ( base)[ low prod acidosis ]
-
: :

retain
C. Treatment with a solution of sodium chromate in sulfuric acid C. Respiratory acidosis asthma COPD ( hypoventilation) → coz → acidosis
-

D. Acetic acid D. Respiratory alkalosis [ acid

)
athlete hyperventilation → alkalosis
-

30. A series of synthetic antibacterial agents patterned after nalidixic acid with an effective 44. What is the process by which water molecules move under high
antibacterial spectrum largely conferred to Gram negative bacteria. pressure through a semipermeable membrane from more concentrated
A. Substituted imidazoles to less concentrated solution?
B. Polyenes A. Osmosis from less concsoln → higher concsoln
-

C. Biguanides B. Passive diffusion movement of ions / solute from higher to lower Wto
energy cone

D. Quinolones C. Active diffusion requires energy -

D. Reverse osmosis
31. Which process can produce hydrogen with 99% purity?
A. Messerschmidt 45. Which of the following statements are true?
B. Haber ammonia
:
I. Grignard reaction of propenal yields a tertiary alcohol. ✗
II. Reduction of a ketone can produce a secondary alcohol.
-
2)
C. Solvay-ammonia NAHW } i.

III. Oxidation of ethanol produces a ketone.

D. Frasch sulfur
: -

IV. Grignard reaction of a ketone produces a tertiary alcohol ✓

ga carbon
-

32. 10-volume hydrogen peroxide solution

l0Vz
OH
A. I,II µ to
ethanol
A. 30% hydrogen peroxide B. I,III formaldehyde
1100M)
B. 60% hydrogen peroxide C. II,III
C. 1mL of this solution produces 10mL oxygen 20 -

V01 : 1mL of solve produces 20mL

Oxygen D. II,IV
D. 10mL of this solution produces 1mL oxygen E. I,III,IV
( emerald green
33. Which of the following is used to differentiate citrate from tartrate? -
46. Dental protective when mixed with 10% formaldehyde or eugenol
A. Howe’s solution ammoniacal AGNO }
-

A. Magneson I reagent (
-

Carmine red B. Monsel’s solution styptic ; ferric subsulfatesoln

B. Denige’s reagent -

C. 3:1 Pyridine, acetic anhydride C. Spirit of Minderesus buffer for mass ammonium
spectroscopy / HPLC ; acetate son
-

D. Two of the above D. Fowler’s solution antiieukevnic agent -

'
K arsenite
E. All of the above
47. The generic name of Daktarin
34. Green vitriol is: anti -
protozoal deworming -

A. Mebendazole Antiox -

B. Clotrimazole canesten
[
-

A. Ferric sulfate heptahydrate anti

C. Miconazole
B. Ferrous sulfate heptahydrate fungal D. Ketoconazole Nitoral -

C. Sodium sulfate decahydrate glauber 's salt

-

D. Cupric sulfate pentahydrate blue vitriol

-

48. What is the oxidation number of Cr in the dichromate ion Cr2O7-2?

t (7×-2)
=
A. +12 Lcr -2
net
=
'

35. What is the product of the mild oxidation04of an alkene? B. -2 2 Cr 14 -2 charge

-

mildkmnoy pH =

A. Alcohol hydration c=C #

-

c- É diol C=c c-
cancyinaiiae C. +6 2W 14-2 =

B. Alkane hydrogenation ti t D. -8
-_c÷¥g C acre 12
-

c -

alkane
Cr : 1-6
C. Alkyl halide n
'
ti I 2-
c - cannot
D. Diol ' 49. The first compound in the development of a drug that has the
ti on desired biological and physiological properties.
36. Which of the following is the most common gas used as mobile phase in gas A. Prodrug inactive metabolite / form of lhedmglneeds to undergo metabolism to active
become
)
chromatography? B. Lead drug
A. Hydrogen C. Latent drug
B. Helium D. Linker
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen 50. Used in the treatment of cystitis with methenamine
A. Sodium sulfate
B. Sodium bicarboante
37. When tested with KI, mercurous ion gives a positive result of _______, while mercuric
C. Sodium citrate
gives ________. D. Sodium biphosphate
A. Green; orange or red orange
B. Orange; green 51. The ion that gives a white precipitate with HCl which is soluble in
C. Yellow; brown excess ammonium hydroxide but reprecipitated upon addition of nitric
D. Brown; Yellow acid
A. Silver
38. The color of the cylinder used to contain nitrogen B. Plumbous insoluble in NH 40M
-

A. Black C. Mercurous blackens -

B. Grey D. Cupric
C. Green
D. Blue 52. Which of the following chemical is not included in the Karl Fischer
reagent? 41pA
39. 8O16 and 7N15 are examples of: A. Pyridine 502
B. Acetone Iodine
A. Isotopes same protons
-

C. Sulfur dioxide Pyridine

B. Isobars same mass
-

Anhydrous methanol
D. Iodine
C. Isotones same neutrons
-

D. Isomers same chemical formula

-

53. The following statements are false, EXCEPT:

E. None of the above I. According to Lewis concept, bases are electron donors. ✓ Bronsted
40. Examples of protective from inorganic compounds EXCEPT:
II. Acids are proton donors according to the Arrhenius concept.
I
A. Kaolin
III. According to Bronsted-Lowry, bases are proton acceptors.
IV. According to Arrhenius, bases gives off H+ ¥-
B. Calamine A. I,II D. II,III
B. I,III E. II,IV
C. Zinc oxide C. I,IV
D. Glycerol
54. The substituents occupy positions 1 and 3 in an aromatic ring 68. Which of the following is not an aluminum silicate?
A. Para substitution A. Talc ✓ →Bentonite
mgsilicate
Kaolin Pumice
B. Ortho substitution B. China clay / Kaolin , ,

C. Meta substitution C. Soapstone ✓

D. Trisubstituted D. Bentonite ( soap clay mineral soap Wilkinite)
, ,

E. Two of the above

55. Cobaltous chloride is what color when it is anhydrous?
A. Blue 69. Which of the following substrates can be used to synthesize
B. Pink wet / hydrous
- tertiary alcohols?
C. Purple A. Formaldehyde 10011 -

D. Red B. Ethanol POH

-

C. Propanone 300M -

E. A and B
D. None of the above
56. Which of the following is a molybdenum-containing enzyme? 70. What is the enzyme that interconverts androgens and estrogens
A. Glutathione peroxidase se -

and is inhibited by the drug anastrozole?

B. Cytochrome oxidase Fein -

A. 5-alpha reductase Finasteride Dutastenideitx BPH

-

C. Hexokinase Mglasa cofactor)

-

B. Squalene epoxidase antifungal ; Terbinafine

-

D. Xanthine oxidase C. Aromatase letwzoleibxemesltrne ; adjunct +✗ for breast CA

-

D. 17-alpha hydroxylase Abimterone → prostate CA

57. The use of this antiulcer agent has been limited due to drug interactions o
6C Caprio
and potential to cause gynecomastia and impotence erectile dysfunction 71. 24-carbon saturated fatty acid
-

Y
-

qc-capryt.io
-

A. Pantoprazole Fast tissue eÑntinmeh A. Arachidic acid µc=capriI

i

B. Arachidonic acid Laurie Calamy PAHAR

B. Cimetidine Ha blocker
-

12C
-
-

C. Lignoceric acid 14C myristic

C. Misoprostol
__

D. Cerotic acid 16C =PIlmitic

D. Pirenzepine 18C =
stearic
E. Behenic acid 20C =AIaenidic
Be lice
58. This undergoes hydrolysis in the presence of heat producing phosgene 22C = Pzehenic
72. This element is present in insulin 24C
= Lignoceñc
A. CH3Cl Lentic
A. Cr 26C =

B. CH2Cl2
COCK B. Cu
C. CH4
C. Fe
D. CCl4 D. Al
E. Ca
59. Infant at birth is already capable of what metabolic reaction?
A. Sulfation 73. The following antidiarrheals are proven to be safe and effective,
B. Redox present but weak
-

EXCEPT:
C. Glucuronidation not present at birth ( chloramphenicol gray baby
- :
syndrome) A. Kaolin
D. Acetylation B. Bismuth subsalicylate
Nat C. Loperamide
60. Where will sodium ions migrate in an electrophoresis plate? D. Attapulgite
A. Anode (f) potent charges
B. Cathode f) pole ; attract A) charges 74. Phase II metabolism reactions generally convert lipid soluble
C. Middle for neutral charge
- drugs to water soluble drugs. Which of the following is/are the
D. Both A and B exception/s?
I. Glucuronidation
61. Renal failure caused by the ingestion of large amounts of calcium and II. Sulfation
attenuate biologic act ofadmg
III. Methylation
] terminate /
☒
.

absorbable alkali
IV. Acetylation
A. Burnett’s syndrome
NAHW } ✓ A. I only
B. Rebound hyperacidity \caWz B. I,III
C. Albright’s calcinosis deposition of ca salts in the kidneys due to hyperparathyroidism
-

C. I,II
D. None of the above D. III,IV
E. I,III,IV
62. Lecithin
A. True antioxidant BHTipwpylgallatgBHA.vit.li 75. Characteristics of red phosphorus, EXCEPT:
-

B. Reducing agent vitc sulfite , glutathione

-
,
A. Granular
C. Antioxidant synergist also EDTA tartaric acid
-
, B. Highly poisonous yellow / White P
-

D. Not an antioxidant C. Non-flammable

D. None of the above
63. Prussian Blue is used as an antidote for thallium. It can also be used for
the toxicity of what other metal? 76. A species that loves a positive species is a:
A. Nucleophile loves positive charges
NU-penioinaminecarprimine.RO
-

A. Gallium Et
B. Copper ) B. Electrophile loves negative charges
-

C. Francium C. Free radical

D. None of the above
D. Cesium
77. The prolonged use of hydrogen peroxide as mouthwash results
64. Which enzyme facilitates the conversion of codeine to morphine? to:
A. CYP 2C9 A. Black tongue
B. CYP 3A4 B. Scaly tongue
C. CYP 2E1 C. Hairy tongue
D. CYP 2D6 most studied CYP enzyme
-
D. White tongue
rhardwal soft coal
(
65. Anthracite and bituminous coal are what kind of carbon allotropes?
-
78. Henry’s law states that:
A. Crystalline diam -

A. The quantity of a gas that dissolves a definite volume of liquid is

B. Amorphous resume than diamond
directly proportional to the pressure of the gas
C. Both A and B Hess law-

B. Total enthalpy change during a complete chemical reaction is the

D. None of the above same whether the reaction is made in one step or in several steps
#

Éitlst
's C. The volume of a mixture of gases is the sum of the partial
Amagat
66. What is the color of the flame produced by halogen-containing volumes of the individual components
law._N
Boyle's D. The volume of a given mass of gas is inversely related to
compounds in flame test? Mariette
's law
pressure when temperature is constant
-

A. Blue
B. Yellow
79. Local anesthetic that is a derivative of benzoic acid:
C. Green
A. Lidocaine amide
-

D. Orange B. Procaine
C. Dibucaine ( cinchonine) most toxic local anesthetic INOT used
anymore)
-

67. Raft-forming antacid D. Bupivacaine most cardio toxic

-

A. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Calcium carbonate
C. Aluminum hydroxide
D. Alginates form protective
-

barrier
'
e.
g. Garrison"O
80. When an aldehyde is reacted with one mole of alcohol, the product is a/ C.coCco.co.
an: 95. Concentration of nitric acid
A. Diol Ketone A. 36-38% HU -

B. Acetal 2 moles of alcohol t 1 mole OH → hemiketal B. 85% Hzpoy

-
-

C. Alcohol 1- 2 moles OH → Ketal

C. 68-70%
D. Hemiacetal that f- acetal) D. 2-4% 1-131303
-

96. Which of the following antitubercular agents inhibit

81. Which is not titrated by EDTA?
protein synthesis?
A. Calcium Ca " Chelates bivalent or trivalent A. Rifampicin inhibit RNA polymerase
? %?É
-

B. Aluminum Apt secretions

B. Isoniazid inhibit my colic
-
acid lull wall ) synthesis

C. Sodium AIE : peripheral avid synthetic theoretical MO A)

new C. Pyrazinamide inhibit fatty -

nepa¥igÑ
'

D. Streptomycin -304 Camino glycoside)

FA synthase
D. Zinc 7h " dissolves AIE : most
absorb moisture
4
affect CN g)
otoinepnroivebtibulo toxicity (
✓
AIE
82. Which of the following are deliquescent substances? :
97. Most abundant noble gas
-
I. NaOH ✓ [ A. Helium
II. CaO NAOMI cacti Fell } / NANO } , mga , B. Neon
✓
,
water
III. NaNO3 release
Efflorescent : Nq 504 101120 C. Krypton
d. crystalline
.

,
IV. NaCl D. Argon
Hygroscopic Cao NaCl , sucrose Ciro
:
,
A. I,II (
,

absorbs moisture but do not dissolve

B. II,III 98. Condy’s crystals aka
Kmnoy
-

C. I,III A. Oxidizing agent

D. II,IV B. Reducing agent
vancomycin C. Preservative
✓
83. A glycopeptide antibiotic -
Teicoptanin D. Acidifying agent
-
telavancin
A. Beta lactam
B. Vancomycin 99. Water-soluble derivative of artemisinin
C. Polymyxin A. Qinghaosu
D. Probenecid B. Artemether non-polar
-
-

C. Dihydroartemisinin active metabolite -

84. Lightest of all structurally important metals D. Artesunate ( salt form)

A. Lithium lightest metal
-

B. Hydrogen lightest element

-

100.
C. Magnesium 1,3 dimethyl xanthine
-

D. Calcium (
theophylline
osmium -
heaviest of all structurally important metals
85. All of the following substances are present in opium, EXCEPT:
A. Thebaine Is present primarily in
B. Methadone synthetic A. Tea
C. Codeine
= opiates lnatural) B. Cacao 317 dimethylxanthine ; there bromine
-

D. Morphine C.coffee 43,7 tri methyl xanthine

- -

D. Guarana
86. Which of the following is not a synonym of zinc oxide?
A. Pompholyx
B. Philosopher’s wool
C. Flowers of zinc
D. None of the above

87. Chlorides may be precipitated from solution by the reagent

A. Potassium hydroxide KU
\
B. Silver nitrate Agcllwwiteinsolppt)
soluble
C. Lithium bromide till
D. Sodium thiosulfate NaCl
=
88. A chemical substance that stimulates the flow of tears
A. Lacrimators
B. Irritants cause tissue necrosis
-

C. Sternutators meeting agent ( e. g. strychnine)

-

D. Asthenics produce muscle weakness l neuromuscular blockers)

-

89. Disease found in Japan caused by drinking water contaminated with

cadmium
A. Minamata disease mercury poisoning -

=P free radicals Fñbk of cardiomyopathy

B. Keshan disease se deficiency → glutathione function
-

C. Itai itai disease fruit E

D. Saturnism lead poisoning
-

90. Equal amounts of two isomers are called:

A. Levorotatory
B. Dextrorotatorry
C. Racemic mixtures 50 't L t 501 R .
optically inactive
.
-

D. Optically active can rotate plane

-
of polarized light

91. Boiled lobster skin appearance is caused by what substance?

A. Picric acid
B. Copper salts
C. Heavy metals
D. Boric acid

92. Which of the following body fluids is the most acidic?

A. Gastric juice = pH 1.2 7<2-7.4
normal body pm :
B. Urine = pH 5.5
C. Saliva = pH 6.5
D. Tears = pH 7.4

93. Which gas is released by effervescent granules and is responsible for

masking the unpleasant taste of drugs?
A. Hydrogen
B. Carbon dioxide
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen

94. Dimethylglyoxime reagent is specific for:

A. Magnesium C. Nickel red ppt -

B. Cobalt D. Copper
 6. The Phosphoenolpyruvate from the start of the shikimate
MODULE 2 pathway comes from which bioenergetic pathway?
on
- oxaloacetate
1. Enzyme S campus citrate
-

Areas leis aconitate

-
-

Isocitrate
kiss
-

ketoglutarate
sweet succinyl-CoA
sexy succinate

Fairy Fumarate
Maidens malate

A. Succinyl CoA Syntethase

B. Succinate dehydrogenase
C. Succinate thiokinase for beta
-
oxidation
D. Two of the above
E. NOTA

2. Intermediate P A. Glycolysis
B. Mevalonate pathway
C. Gluconeogenesis
C. Glycogenolysis

7. Substrate P

A. Citrate
B. Aconitic acid
C. Alpha ketoglutarate
D. Ornithine
III.Eui -

wa

3. Which reaction produces the precursor of the porphyrin ring of

heme groups?

A. Dehydroquinic acid
B. Shikimic acid
C. Prephenic acid
D. Pyruvic acid

8. Which structure represents shikimic acid?

A. Reaction 6
B. Reaction 4
C. Reaction 1
D. Reaction 2

4. Which reaction shows the ONLY substrate-level

phosphorylation that occurs in the Krebs’ cycle?

A. Reaction 4
B. Reaction 5
C. Reaction 6 A. P
D. Reaction 7 B. Q
C. U
D. T
5. How many ATP can be produced from the Krebs’ cycle if the
organism is undergoing anaerobic respiration?
A. 0 D. 10
B. 2 E. 32
C. 8
Ianaerobic glycolysis
9. Which of the following is NOT a role of the shikimate pathway?
16. What enzyme changes base F to base H?

A. Deaminase
B. Hydroxylase
C. Oxidase
D. Isomerase
E. Lyase

17. Pyrimidine bases

A. Precursor of phenolics
B. Gallic acid biosynthesis
C. Alkaloidal precursor
D. Raw material for antiviral synthesis
E. NOTA

10. Which intermediate amino acid serves as precursor for catecholamines, thyroid
hormones, melanin, and isoquinoline alkaloids? Tyrosine

A. F and H
B. I and K
C. F, G, and H
D. F and G
E. F,G,I and J nucleoside = base ttngar
base ttngar t
nucleotide Poy
-
-

18. RNA Bases nucleic acid = combinations of nucleotides

cytosine thymine uracil

A. R
B. U
C. S
D. T
E. NOTA

11. A sulfated glycosaminoglycan composed of a chain of alternating sugars. It is a

structural component of cartilage and provides resistance to compression. Adenine Guanine
A. Chondroitin Sulfate
A. G only
B. Hyaluronic Acid B. H only
C. Proteoglycan C. I and J
D. Glycolipid D. F,G,I, & J -

for DNA
E. Glycoprotein E. F,H,I, & J

12. An anionic nonsulfated glycosaminoglycan distributed widely throughout 19. I. Adenosine monophosphate is a nucleotide that contains adenosine
connective, epithelial, and neural tissues. It is also a component of the group A with a phosphate group esterified to the 5’-hydroxyl of the sugar. ✓
streptococcal extracellular capsule. II. ATP is produced from AMP and inorganic phosphate by the process of
A. Hyaluronic acid oxidative phosphorylation.TIADP
B. Glycoprotein III. ATP can transfer multiple phosphate groups to compounds such as
C. Proteoglycan i¥
glucose, producing ADP.
D. Chondroitin sulfate IV. The phosphodiester bonds of ATP are high energy bonds, providing the
free energy used to drive reactions that require it.✗ phospho anhydride
-

E. Glycolipid

13. Heavily glycosylated, long linear chain of proteins consisting of a core protein A. Only 1 statement is true
B. Only 2 statements are true
covalently bonded with glycosaminoglycan chains.
C. Only 3 statements are true
A. Proteoglycan
D. All statements are true
B. Glycolipid E. All statements are wrong
C. Chondroitin sulfate
D. Glycoprotein 20. I. The lagging strand pertains to the strand that is being copied in the
E. Hyaluronic acid direction of the advancing replication fork. ✗ leading
-

II. Topoisomerase II relaxes only negative supercoils. ✗ I ltopo II

a) ht )
superiors
-

999ihg
14. Carbohydrate-attached lipids, which are associated with cell membranes. They III. Quinolones are examples of Topoisomerase inhibitors. ✓
play important roles in providing energy and serve as markers for cellular recognition. IV. The strand with Okazaki fragments is being copied continuously. discontinuously
-
A. Glycoprotein
strand
B. Glycolipid A. Only 1 statement is true
C. Chondroitin sulfate B. Only 2 statements are true
D. Hyaluronic acid C. Only 3 statements are true
E. Proteoglycan D. All statements are true
E. All statements are wrong
15. Small proteins with smaller polysaccharide chains that are usually branched. They
form H bonds with water molecules surrounding the cell to stabilize membrane
structure.
A. Chrondroitin Sulfate
B. Hyaluronic Acid
C. Proteoglycan
D. Glycolipid
E. Glycoprotein
21. I. In the mouth, the beta amylase aids in the breakdown of large starch 28. Principal pigment that captures sunlight for photosynthesis
molecules into smaller ones. alpha
II. Proteins are digested by pepsin in the stomach. ✓
III. The pancreas produces trypsin, chymotrypsin, elastase, and carboxypeptidases
all of which will act in the lumen of the intestine. ✓
IV. Trypsin acts on peptide bonds formed by basic amino acids. ✓

A. Only 1 statement is true

B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only 3 statements are true
D. All statements are true
E. All statements are wrong

I
22. I. Photorespiration is a wasteful pathway that occurs when the enzyme A. Chlorophyll A
rubisco of the Calvin cycle acts on oxygen rather than carbon dioxide. B. Chlorophyll B
II. C3 plants are “normal” plants, composing ~85% of the plant species, which C. Both
do not have photosynthetic adaptations to reduce photorespiration. D. Neither
III. Light Dependent Phase of the photosynthesis occurs in the thylakoid
of
membrane. rocurn regardless light ornolight 29. Its derivative, pyridoxal phosphate is required for transamination,
IV. The light independent phase of photosynthesis, also known as the Calvin
- decarboxylation, and deamination reactions.
cycle, can only occur in environment with minimal to no light. ✗ A. Vitamin B2
B. Vitamin B6
A. Only 1 statement is true C. Vitamin B9
B. Only 2 statements are true D. Vitamin B12
C. Only 3 statements are true
D. All statements are true 30. Deficiency of this fat-soluble vitamin may lead to night blindness
E. All statements are wrong and xerophthalmia
A. Vitamin A
23. I. The tertiary structure of DNA is the sequence of nucleoside ✗ primary structure
- B. Vitamin D
monophosphate usually written as the sequence of bases they contain. C. Vitamin E

=
II. B-DNA is a left-handed helix found in polynucleotides with alternating ✗ Z-DNA
- D. Vitamin K
purines and pyrimidines in each strand.
III. Supercoiling is a property of DNA double helix in which the number of turns 31. The TCA cycle, which serves in the synthesis of energy and
of the two stands around each other equals the number of turns in the most ✗ exceed w other body fuels, occurs in the mitochondria. All the enzymes of the
stable helical conformation fewer than TCA cycle are in the mitochondrial matrix.→ except for succinate
IV. A-DNA predominates in aqueous environments such as that found in the✗ B- A. Only the first statement is true dehydrogenase @ inner
- DNA
cells. B. Only the first statement is false mitochondrial membrane
C. Both statements are true.
A. Only 1 statement is true D. Both statements are false.
B. Only 2 statements are true
C. Only 3 statements are true 32. Which vitamin is NOT correctly matched to its derivative
D. All statements are true cofactor?
E. All statements are wrong A. Vitamin B1: TPP ✓
✓
B. Vitamin B5: CoASH
24. In the pentose phosphate pathway, which of the following statement/s is/ C. Vitamin B2: FAD ✓
are correct when there is no need for ribulose-5-PO4 and an increased need D. Vitamin B3: NAD+ ✓
for NADPH? needed E. NOTA
A. Only the non-oxidative phase occurs. occurs only when ribulose is
-

B. Only the oxidative phase occurs. 33. In

the ETC, electron transport and ATP production occur
C. Both oxidative and non-oxidative phases occur, but the ribulose-5-PO4 simultaneously and are tightly coupled. In the same bioenergetics
from the oxidative phase will undergo gluconeogenesis to produce more process, NADH and FADH2 are reduced only if ADP is available for
conversion to ATP. ✗ →
glucose.
A. Only the first statement is true
xiqizeddapat
D. Both oxidative and non-oxidative phases occur, but the ribulose-5-PO4
from the oxidative phase will undergo glycolysis to produce more NADPH. ×
-
B. Only the first statement is false
E. Both oxidative and non-oxidative phases occur, but all the ribulose-5-PO4 C. Both statements are true.
from the oxidative phase will undergo non-oxidative phosphorylation to form D. Both statements are false.
glycolytic precursors. outrun only when NADPH
{ Atpareneedld
-

34. A test for pentoses

25. A 26-year-old female is on a weight maintenance diet, so she does not A. Furter-Meyer test tocopherols -

want to lose or gain any weight. Which amino acid must be present in her diet B. Rosenheim test Wltryptophan)
-

so that she does not go into a negative nitrogen balance? C. Phloroglucinol test
A. Alanine Essential AA D. Kowarsky test losatonetestforsngars
PVT TIM HALL
B. Tyrosine E. Biuret test -

peptide bonds
FVT WIM HRLK
C. Glycine
D. Threonine 35. An enzyme that aids in the addition of a phosphate group is most
E. Serine likely to have the following enzyme commission number:
A. EC 6.1.1.2
26. Type of chlorophyll that is more soluble in alcohol and water B. EC 2.2.3.5
C. EC 4.2.2.1
D. EC 1.4.2.5

36. What is the keto-acid produced from the transamination of

AA-keto-aci n-laipymvat ty.ir

Aspartate?
A. Pyruvate
: fumarate
B. Oxaloacetate
Val : succinyl-CoA
C. Fumarate
Len : Acetyl-CoA
D. Succinyl CoA
Asp Oxaloacetate
:
A. Chlorophyll A E. Acetyl CoA
B. Chlorophyll B
C. Both 37. In terms of Nitrogen metabolism, what term best describes
D. Neither humans?
A. Ureotelic
27. Type of chlorophyll that is more soluble in carbon tetrachloride B. Ammoniotelic aquatic animals
-

A. Chlorophyll A C. Uricotelic birds some reptiles

-

B. Chlorophyll B D. Homeostatic
C. Both
D. Neither 38. If a carbon present in the carbohydrate is double bonded, it is ✗
achiral considered chiral. If the alcohol bonded to the penultimate C of a
-

carbohydrate molecule is on the right, it is a dextrorotatory isomer.

A. Only the first statement is true
B. Only the second statement is true
C. Both statements are true.
D. Both statements are false.
d­
e­
 enemyieveis
39. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding lipids? time
52. When ADP levels are high relative to ATP, the reactions of the ETC are
A. All bonds of unsaturated fatty acids are sp3 hybridized. not aware
sp3-F-hignenevgyleve.IS
-

accelerated. When ATP levels are higher than ADP, the reactions of the
B. The solid form of saturated fatty acids can be attributed to a greater amount of ETC are slowed down.
van der Waals’ interaction and stacking. A. Only the first statement is true
C. The double bonds in saturated fatty acids are of cis configuration. B. Only the second statement is true
D. EPA and DHA are two of the most common omega 6 fatty acids. ✗ Omega 3
-
C. Both statements are true
D. Both statements are false
40. Phospholipid that serves as a precursor of secondary messengers used by
G-protein coupled receptors 53. Which of the following is correctly matched in relation to their
A. Phosphatidylcholine stereoisomerism with D-glucose?
B. Phosphatidic acid
C. Phosphatidylethanolamine
D. Phosphatidylinositol

41. How many isoprene units are in a monoterpene?

A. 1 isoprene :S carbons
B. 2

lterpene-2isopnenes-locarbonsxc.lt
C. 5
D. 10

42. 3-Carbon Coenzyme A derivative repeatedly added during fatty acid

synthesis A. D-galactose: C2 Epimer
A. Acetyl CoA 2- C
-

B. L-glucose: Optical isomer

B. Succinyl CoA # ""M" C. D-mannose: C4 Epimer ✗ C2
-
from
C. Malonyl CoA 3- C if using formula D. D-altrose: Functional Isomer ✗ diastereomer
D. CoASH -60 -2 ATP E. D-fructose: Diastereomer ✗ functional isomer
¥ Activation
-

60 ATP
6Ac WAX / OATP
-

43. What is the ATP yield of lauric acid? 12.5 ATP 54. The following lipid storage diseases are incorrectly matched with their
5 NADH ✗ 2. Ship
A. 82 ATP -
deficient enzymes EXCEPT

FADHzxl.LA/-p7.5ATP-gluwcerebrosidase*NADHort-ADMy--
5 A. Metachromatic leukodystrophy: arylsulfatase A
B. 80 ATP
B. Gaucher’s Disease: Galactosidase
C. 78 ATP 7¥ 6-1=5 C. Tay Sachs’: HexosaminidaseO A and B X A only
D. 76 ATP -

D. Sandhoff Disease: Hexosaminidase B AGB -

44. Which of the following is a nucleoside?

55. Which sugar when tested for its identity will give the profile below:
A. Cytosine base
-

B. Uridine • Molisch: violet coloration a)

C. AMP nucleotide
-

• Fehling’s: red solution (f)

D. AOTA pentose• Bial’s: brown solution f)
-

ketose • Seliwanoff’s: yellow solution t)

45. Subunit or factor responsible for the termination of transcription • Mucic Acid Test: soluble crystals t)
galactose
A. Glucose
A. Rho dependent
B. Ribose
B. Rho independent
C. Fructose
C. Core subunit D. Galactose insoluble crystals
-

D. Pol subunit E. Trehalose

E. Both A and B
56. Which of the following correctly describes the purpose of drying crude
46. Which of the following is NOT associated with the operation of the central drugs?
dogma in prokaryotes? I. Prevent microbial growth
A. NfMet II. Prevent enzymatic degradation
B. Kozak sequence eukaryotes
-
III. Fixes the constituents
C. Shine-Dalgarno sequence prokaryotes
- IV. Facilitates milling
D. Pribnow Box V. Conversion of drug into a more convenient form

47. Which of the following mechanisms for DNA replication is described by the ff A. I,II
B. I only
statement: “from one parental dsDNA, 2 daughter dsDNA’s are formed, each
C. I, III, IV, V
contains one parental DNA strand and a newly made strand”
D. I,III,IV
A. Conservative
E. I,II,III,IV,V
B. Semiconservative
C. Dispersive 57. Products of natural origin used by the laity in the self-treatment of
D. A and B disease states or less than optimal health conditions
A. Crude drugs
48. The common metabolic pathway is ___. B. Vitamins
A. Glycolysis C. Health foods
B. Beta oxidation D. Biologics
C. Kreb’s cycle
D. Glycogenesis 58. In the processing of cow’s milk, the liquid separated from the coagulum
is called:
49. The inactive form of an enzyme is called: A. Whey
A. Holoenzyme complete active enzyme
-
B. Cheese
B. Apoenzyme protein part
-
C. Buttermilk
D. Skin
C. Zymogen factors e. g. metals , ions
Inorganic co
-

D. Coenzyme organic e. g. vitamin derivatives ;

-

59. Cellulose product used as a surgical aid due to its fibrous nature. It is
E. Cofactor / prosthetic grp non-protein part
-

allowed to contain NMT 1.25% of TiO2.

A. Microcrystalline cellulose
50. Eukaryotic DNA Polymerase responsible for the elongation of the Okazaki B. Purified rayon
fragments C. Powdered cellulose
A. Pol-gamma D. Absorbent cotton
B. Pol-epsilon
C. Pol-beta 60. Major product of starch hydrolysis via diastatic fermentation
D. Pol-delta A. Liquid glucose incomplete acid hydrolysis of starch
-

B. Dextrin incomplete enzymatic hydrolysis of starch

-

51. The principal tissues affected by this GSD are the liver, spleen, and muscles C. Levulose inversion of aq sucrose both
-

A. GSD VI D. Maltose
B. GSD V
C. GSD III
D. GSD IV
61. Oleander 73. Starflower oil
A. Cyanophore A. Lunaria annua
B. Anthraquinone B. Prunus dulcis
C. Saponin C. Brassica napus
D. Cardiac D. Borago officinalis
E. Flavonol E. Elaeis guineensis

62. Salicin 74. Evening Primrose Oil

A. Cardiac A. Oenethera biennis
B. Anthraquinone B. Lunaria annua
C. Cyanophore C. Prunus dulcis
D. Isothiocyanate D. Brassica napus
E. Elaeis guineensis
E. Alcohol
75. Honesty oil
63. Arbutin A. Carthamus tinctorius
A. Lactone B. Brassica napus
B. Phenol C. Linum usitatissimum
C. Isothiocyanate D. Crocus sativus
D. Cyanophore E. Lunaria annua
E. Aldehyde
76. Which of the following plant parts is a rich lipid source?
64. Sennosides A. Root
A. Anthraquinone B. Leaves
B. Saponin C. Seeds
D. Fruit
C. Phenol
E. Flower
D. Alcohol
E. Flavonol 77. Juniper oil
A. Aldehyde
65. Naringen B. Oxide
A. Aldehyde C. Alcohol
B. lactone D. Phenol
C. Flavonol E. Phenolic ether
D. Cardiac
E. Cyanophore 78. Hamamelis oil
A. Alcohol
66. Folin-Ciocalteu test is an in vitro assay of phenolic and polyphenolic B. Aldehyde
C. Phenol
antioxidants. Which of the following is/are component/s of the reagent used for the
D. Oxide
test?
E. Ester
A. Phosphomolybdic acid
B. Phosphotungstic acid I 79. Eucalyptus oil
C. Ferric Chloride A. Oxide
D. Two of the above B. Alcohol
E. NOTA C. Ketone
D. Phenol
67. Required when the desired compound has a limited solubility in a solvent, and E. Phenolic ether
the impurity is insoluble in that solvent. It is characterized by the use of many
portions of warm solvent being passed through the sample. 80. Fennel oil
A. Sonication A. Hydrocarbon
B. Soxhlet extraction B. Phenolic ether
C. Serial exhaustive extraction C. Aldehyde
D. Supercritical fluid extraction D. Alcohol
E. Solvent extraction E. Ester

81. Gaultheria oil

68. The use of ultrasound to increase the permeability of cell wall and produce
-

A. Ketone
cavitation.
B. Phenol
A. Serial exhaustive extraction C. Ester
B. Sonication D. Phenolic ether
C. Percolation E. Aldehyde
D. Supercritical fluid extraction
E. Solvent extraction 82. Stearoptin is the solid oxidized hydrocarbon portion of volatile oils.
On the other hand, eleoptene is the liquid hydrocarbon portion.
69. Comminuted drug is extracted of its soluble constituents by the slow passage A. Only the first statement is true

=
of suitable solvent through a column of drug B. Only the second statement is true
A. Solvent extraction C. Both statements are false
B. Serial exhaustive extraction D. Both statements are true
C. Percolation
D. Supercritical fluid extraction 83. (+)-carvone has the odor of caraway. (-)-carvone has the odor of
E. Sonication spearmint.
A. Only the first statement is true
70. Process where substances are dissolved in a fluid able to modify its dissolving B. Only the second statement is true
C. Both statements are true
power in conditions above their critical temperature and pressure
D. Both statements are false
A. Serial exhaustive extraction
B. Sonication 84. Rectified turpentine Oil is produced by distillation from an aqueous
C. Percolation solution of sodium hydroxide. Terpin hydrate is produced by the action of
D. Supercritical fluid extraction sulfuric acid on rectified turpentine oil.
E. Solvent extraction A. Only the first statement is true
B. Only the first statement is false
71. Safflower oil C. Both statements are false
A. Crocus sativus D. Both statements are true
B. Borago officinalis
C. Carthamus tinctorius 85. A pyridine-piperidine alkaloid used as a CNS stimulant and smoking
D. Oenethera biennis deterrent under the brand name Bantron
E. Lunaria annua A. Arecoline
B. Nicotine 1 Nicolette ④ )
72. Linseed oil C. Scopolamine
A. Linum usitatissimum D. Lobeline
B. Lunaria annua
C. Prunus dulcis
D. Brassica napus E. Crocus sativus
86. Which of the following is NOT a liquid alkaloid? 97. An alkaloid which does not react with or precipitate with
A. Coniine :
alkaloidal reagents:
B. Atropine ✗ Are whine .
A. Caffeine
C. Nicotine B. Quinine
D. Sparteine C. Hyoscyamine
E. NOTA D. Emetine

87. Which of the following plants is correctly matched with its primary 98. Olive oil produced with the use of boiling water
A. Technical grade 1st =f) heat Iv pressure
constituent? ,

B. Tournant oil 2nd f) heat T pressure

=
,
A. C. alata: Allicin
C. Sulfur grade 1- be
boiling HW
B. V. negundo: Hydrolyzable tannins sulfur grade ext Wl csz
D. Second grade =
.

C. Q. indicum: Quisqualic acid

E. First grade Tour naut expressed from fallen
=
olives
D. E. microphylla: Menthol
E. P. pellucida: Camphor 99. It is synthesized in the young tip of roots and shoots, which
stimulates the cells to grow longer, thus promoting cell
88. The following are incorrectly matched EXCEPT elongation and division
A. Bawang : Antifungal HTN { hyperlipidemia
-

A. Auxin
B. Bayabas : Astringent B. Gibberelin : aid in seed germination stem { flower growth
,

C. Yerba Buena : Hypoglycemia analgesic -

C. Cytokinins promote cell division { delays leaf aging

:

D. Tsaang gubat : Antiasthma stomachic / antidiarrheal

-

D. Abscisic acid inhibits growth by reversing effects of auxin } gibbeted in

-

E. Ethylene
For 89-93, refer to the images below
89. Sennoside A B lanthmqninm e) 100. Essential for fruit ripening, promotes senescence and
90. Quinine C abscission of leaves
91. Estrogen E 1 from steroid / CPPP) A. Auxin
92. Digoxin D B. Gibberelin
C. Cytokinins
93. Vanillin Al aldehyde)
D. Abscisic acid
E. Ethylene
A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

94. This enzyme is found in almonds, and it causes the hydrolysis of

beta glucosides. (i.e. Amygdalin hydrolyzed into glucose,
benzaldehyde, and HCN)
A. Invertase
B. Myrosin
C. Emulsin
D. Maltase

95. The Thalleioquin reaction is used to identify this alkaloid:

A. Caffeine
B. Quinine
C. Atropine-
vitali morin test -

D. Morphine
E. Ephedrine Chen 's test
-

morphine -

Marquis test tests codeine)

96. Rutin and Hesperidin in combination is also known as

- linoleic
A. Vitamin F acid C. Vitamin H Biotin 1137 -

B. Vitamin P D. Vitamin U s methyl methionine

-
-